Marketing Management Kotler Keller

40) Sally Seabrook is an up-and-coming marketing manager for a large department store chain. Ms. Seabrook has distinguished herself with bold strategies such as launching attacks on her primary competitor from several fronts, including advertising, new store openings, and new distributor alliances. Which of the following market challenger attack strategies is Ms. Seabrook using to attack her competition?

E) encirclement attack

36) With respect to the brand building pyramid, at which of the following "building block levels" would we expect the consumer to develop positive and accessible reactions?

E) feelings

44) Selective price cuts, intense promotional blitzes, and occasional legal action are commonplace in the strategic design of a(n) ________.

E) guerilla warfare ]

20) According to brand asset valuator model, declining brands show ________.

E) high knowledge—evidence of past performance—a lower level of esteem, and even lower relevance, energy, and differentiation

61) A radio ad by the dairy farmers of Washington State stated that the milk produced in the state was of higher quality because of the way the farmers treat their cows. They said that the difference comes from how comfortable they make their cows. Among others, this differentiation could certainly appeal to animal lovers and those moving toward organic products. This is an example of ________.

E) image differentiation 62) A company which can differentiate itself by designing a better and faster delivery system that provides more effective and efficient solutions to consumers is most likely using ________ differentiation. A) services

9) Which of the following marketing strategies requires either identifying additional opportunities to use the brand in the same basic way or identifying completely new and different ways to use the brand?

E) increasing frequency of consumption

68) Which of the following traits of a brand's ability to become a lovemark implies empathy, commitment, and passion?

E) intimacy

76) According to Ries and Trout, Cadbury suffered from ________ when the company allowed its brand to become diluted by putting their name on such variants as mashed potatoes, powdered milk, and soups, apart from chocolates and candies.

E) line-extension trap

46) If consumers can easily recall and recognize a brand element, the brand element is said to be ________.

E) memorable

71) Which element of a brand story framework do Randall Ringer and Michael Thibodeau relate to the way the narrative logic unfolds over time, including actions, desired experiences, defining events, and the moment of epiphany?

E) narrative arc

62) A market nicher is considered to be a(n) ________ specialist if the firm specializes in producing a certain type of product or product feature such as, Rent-a-Wreck, that rents only "beat-up" cars.

E) product-feature

35) With respect to the brand building pyramid, at which of the following "building block levels" would we expect the consumer to develop an intense, active loyalty?

E) resonance

16) According to brand asset valuator model, energized differentiation and relevance, the two pillars of brand equity combine to determine what is called brand ________.

E) strength

26) As a marketing manager, which of the following would be the best purpose for your organization's competitive points-of-parity?

E) to negate competitors' perceived points-of-difference

67) The introduction of diet coke by the Coca Cola Company is an example of ________.

line extension

43) The brand name of New Zealand vodka 42BELOW refers to both a latitude that runs through New Zealand and the percentage of its alcohol content. From a marketing management perspective, which of the brand equity drivers is most applicable in the given scenario?

the associations indirectly transferred to the brand by linking it to a place or thing

40) Points-of-parity are important while designing brand mantras for brands facing ________.

Rapid Growth

10) When a marketer expresses his or her vision of what the brand must be and do for consumers, they are expressing what is called ________.

A) a brand promise

64) Apple's ipod shuffle is an example of ________.

A) a sub-brand

47) Which of the following is a defensive criterion for choosing brand elements?

A) adaptable

4) The result of positioning is the successful creation of ________, which provides a cogent reason why the target market should buy the product.

A) an award-winning promotional campaign

46) A well-known car manufacturing company introduces a new hatchback model by describing its distinctive features and then stressing the speed and safety qualities of the car. Which of the following is the company using to convey its membership in the hatchback segment?

A) announcing category benefits

30) According to the BRANDZ model of brand strength, brand building involves people progressing through a sequential series of steps. Which of these steps convey the message " Nothing else beats this brand"?

A) bonding

55) A ________ is a specialized group of consumers and employees whose identification and activities focus around the brand.

A) brand community

33) With respect to the "six brand building blocks," ________ describes the extrinsic properties of the product or service, including the ways in which the brand attempts to meet customers' psychological or social needs.

A) brand imagery

7) When a consumer expresses thoughts, feelings, images, experiences, and beliefs associated with the brand, the consumer is expressing ________.

A) brand knowledge

68) A ________ consists of all productsoriginal as well as line and category extensionssold under a particular brand.

A) brand line

34) American Express'- "Worldclass Service, Personal Recognition," Mary Kay's - "Enriching women's lives," Hallmark's- "Caring Shared," and Starbucks'-"Rewarding Everyday Moments" are examples of ________.

A) brand mantras

37) BMW's "The ultimate driving machine," American Express' "Don't leave home without it," New York Times' "All the news that's fit to print," and AT&T's "Reach out and touch someone" are all examples of ________.

A) brand slogan

17) According to brand asset valuator model, esteem and knowledge, the two pillars of brand equity together create ________, a "report card" on past performance and a current indicator of current value.

A) brand stature

41) The ________ attack offers the firm an opportunity to diversify into unrelated products, into new geographical markets, and leapfrogging into new technologies.

A) bypass

18) The brand must demonstrate ________, for it to function as a true point-of-difference.

A) clear superiority on an attribute or benefit

47) Which of the following ways to conveying a brand's category membership relates to well-known, noteworthy brands in a category helping a brand specify its category membership?

A) comparing to exemplars

57) Which of the following value creation processes means detailing the brand relationship journey in a narrative way, often anchored by and peppered with milestones?

A) documenting

12) Christian Louboutin is a footwear designer who launched his line of high-end women's shoes in France in 1991. Since 1992, his designs have incorporated the shiny, red-lacquered soles that have become his signature. These red-lacquered soles and high stilettos of Louboutin distinguish him from other designer shoe brands. In accordance with the brand asset valuator model, which of the following components of brand equity has Louboutin fulfilled in the given scenario?

A) energized differentiation

8) The challenge for marketers in building a strong brand is ________.

A) ensuring that customers have the right type of experiences with their products and marketing programs to create the desired brand knowledge

19) According to brand asset valuator model, leadership brands show ________.

A) high levels of energy, differentiation, relevance, knowledge, and esteem

58) The market leader strategy ensures high sales volume, whereas the market nicher strategy allows firms to achieve ________.

A) high margin

65) A supplier creates better information systems, and introduces bar coding, mixed pallets, and other methods of helping the consumer. The supplier is most likely to be differentiated on its ________.

A) innovativeness

4) As the marketing manager of a company that manufactures floor tiles, Evans Smith is given a target to achieve 500 new customers by the end of summer. He decides to search the market for probable customers who might use the product but do not at present. Which of the following strategies is Evans pursuing to increase the market demand for his product?

A) market-penetration strategy

51) One common difficulty in creating a strong, competitive brand positioning is that many of the attributes or benefits that make up the points-of-parity and points-of-difference are ________.

A) negatively correlated

5) When firms look for new users in groups that have never used the product before, the firm is using the ________ strategy.

A) new-market segment

28) According to the BRANDZ model of brand strength, brand building involves people progressing through a sequential series of steps. Which of these steps would address or answer the question "Can this brand deliver?"

A) performance

39) Which of the following "building block levels" corresponds to the branding objectives of points- of-parity and difference?

A) performance and imagery

22) Philip Morris bought Miller brewing and launched low-calorie beer, at a time when consumers had the impression that low-calorie beer does not taste as good as normal beer. What did the company try to build when they conveyed the fact that the beer contained one third less calories and hence it is less filling?

A) points-of-difference

41) For brands in more stable categories where extensions into more distinct categories are less likely to occur, the brand mantra may focus more exclusively on ________.

A) points-of-difference

1) All marketing strategy is built on STP segmentation, targeting, and ________.

A) positioning

24) If Microsoft announces plans for a new-product development, smaller firms may choose to concentrate their development efforts in other directions to avoid head-to-head competition. In this example, Microsoft is employing a ________ strategy.

A) preemptive defense

22) Aromas Inc., introduced a new line of shower gels. To analyze consumer reaction, the company interviewed people who bought them. When Sarah was asked why she had chosen the new shower gel, she said she bought it because a friend recommended it. Sarah is at which level of the brand dynamics pyramid?

A) presence

61) Clarity, relevance, distinctiveness, and consistency are factors that influence the ________ of the brand value chain.

A) program multiplier

67) Which of the following traits of a brand's ability to become a lovemark keeps the five senses of sight, hearing, smell, touch, and taste on constant alert for new textures, intriguing scents and tastes, music, and other such stimuli?

A) sensuality

29) BMW positioned itself as the only automobile that offered both luxury and performance. At that time, consumers saw U.S. luxury cars as lacking performance. It was able to achieve a point-of- difference on performance and a point-of-parity on luxury with respect to U.S. luxury cars like Cadillac. This is an example of ________.

A) straddle positioning

73) The hallmark of an optimal brand portfolio is ________.

A) the ability of each brand to maximize equity in combination with all the other brands in it

59) A structured approach to assessing the sources and outcomes of brand equity and the manner in which marketing activities create the financial worth of the brand is called ________.

A) the brand value chain

3) The goal of positioning is ________.

A) to locate the brand in the minds of consumers to maximize the potential

44) In which of the following examples is a company communicating category membership using a product descriptor?

B) Barry's Oats, when you want nutrition and flavor.

6) Adam wants to buy a washing machine and is looking for something that is not too expensive. When he goes to make the purchase, he finds there are two options that meet his requirements. One is an IFB Bosch product, while the other is a newly imported South Korean brand. Adam is not very familiar with the latter and does not hesitate in choosing Bosch. This example implies that ________.

B) Bosch has a positive customer brand equity

9) ________ are defined as companies that satisfy the same customer need.

B) Competitors

5) ________ is the differential effect that brand knowledge has on consumer response to the marketing of that brand.

B) Customer-based brand equity

19) Which of the following is true about proactive marketing?

B) Proactive companies create new offers to serve unmet and unknown consumer needs.

59) Which of the following is an example of image differentiation?

B) The Swan Hotels use a distinctive signature fragrance in all outlets so that customers can associate the fragrance with the hotel.

54) As a market follower, the ________ may choose to sell to different markets, but often it grows into a future challenger.

B) adapter

32) Straddle positions ________.

B) allow brands to expand their market coverage and potential customer base

75) Two advantages of ________ are that they can facilitate new-product acceptance and provide positive feedback to the parent brand and company.

B) brand extensions

42) Appy Juices, a company that manufactures bottled water, diversified into soft drinks before any of its opponents could launch a diversified product. This would be an example of a(n) ________ attack.

B) bypass

77) Even if sales of a brand extension are high and meet targets, the revenue may be coming from consumers switching to the extension from existing parent-brand offerings in effect ________ the parent brand.

B) cannibalizing

56) Which of the following types of differentiation refers to companies effectively designing their distribution medium's coverage, expertise, and performance to make buying the product easier and more enjoyable and rewarding?

B) channel differentiation

48) As a market follower strategy, the ________ emulates the leader's products, name, and packaging, with slight variations.

B) cloner

50) Tasteeos, Fruit Rings, and Corn Flakes sell for nearly $1 a box less than leading cereal brands. Which market follower strategy is being employed by the cereal manufacturer?

B) cloner

48) SJC is a new retailer that targets the youth market. SJC needs to make an impression using advertising, and decides to use funny or irreverent ads to get its point across. Each ad features one of SJC's competitors and conveys an advantage SJC has over that competitor. Which of the following is the company using to convey its membership in the retail segment?

B) comparing to exemplars

25) In a ________ defense strategy, the market leader can meet the attacker frontally and hit its flank, or launch a pincer movement so that it's forced to pull back to defend itself.

B) counteroffensive

60) Competitive superiority and channel support are factors that influence the ________ of the brand value chain.

B) customer multiplier

63) A job-shop specialist ________.

B) customizes its products for individual customers

17) Which of the following criteria relates to consumers seeing the brand association as distinctive and superior to relevant competitors?

B) differentiability

4) Brand ________ is the added value endowed to products and services.

B) equity

21) A marketing manager has planned a strategy that will require the organization to erect outposts to protect its weak front-running brands. In this ________ defense, the outposts will be central to the organization's new competitive strategy.

B) flank

36) The ________ can be used when the challenger spots areas where the opponent is underperforming. C) flank-geographic attack 37) Pepsodent launched a new product that could whiten teeth, fight decay, and maintain fresh breath. Observing that Pepsodent did not focus on the dental sensitivity aspect, Colgate introduced a toothpaste which did all of the above and also protected sensitive teeth. This is an example of a(n) ________ attack.

B) flank

38) A(n) ________ is another name for identifying shifts in market segments that are causing gaps to develop, then rushing in to fill the gaps and developing them into strong segments.

B) flanking strategy

34) In a pure ________ attack, the attacker matches its opponent's product, advertising, price, and distribution. D) frontal 35) Epic Inc., a firm that produces chairs for offices, uses comparative advertising to inform the consumers that its products offer the same features and quality as the competitor's. This is an example of a(n) ________ attack.

B) frontal

18) According to the brand asset valuator model, strong new brands show ________.

B) higher levels of differentiation and energy than relevance, whereas both esteem and knowledge are lower still

1)The first step in the strategic brand management process is ________.

B) identifying and establishing brand positioning

52) As a(n) ________, BurgerJacks, a fast food chain selling low-price burgers, has differentiated on location by setting up base in the Middle East, a market which the current leader of the industry McDonalds has yet not exploited.

B) imitator

13) Which of the following is the most constructive response a market leader can make when defending its market share?

B) innovate continuously

31) Brand salience ________.

B) is how often and how easily customers think of the brand under various purchase or consumption situations

53) A ________ is one that a company can use as a springboard to new advantages.

B) leverageable advantage

1) The ________ has the largest market share and usually shows the way to other firms in price changes, new-product introductions, distribution coverage, and promotional intensity.

B) market leader

56) An alternative to being a market follower in a large market is to be a leader in a small market. This type of competitor is called a ________.

B) market nicher

18) Sony is an unusual market leader. It gives its customers new products that they have never asked for (e.g., Walkmans, VCRs, video cameras, CDs). This makes Sony a(n) ________ firm.

B) market-driving

3) When a firm looks for new users in groups that might use the product but do not, the firm is using the ________ strategy.

B) market-penetration

66) Which of the following traits of a brand's ability to become a lovemark relates to drawing together stories, metaphors, dreams, and symbols?

B) mystery

69) Randall Ringer and Michael Thibodeau see ________ as based on deep metaphors that connect to people's memories, associations, and stories.

B) narrative branding

6) When Starbucks introduced its Tazo Tea line to bring in new customers who had never gone to Starbucks because they don't drink coffee, Starbucks was employing a ________ strategy.

B) new-market segment

43) The typical approach to positioning is to inform consumers of a brand's category membership before stating its ________,

B) point-of-difference

12) Which of the following terms is most closely associated with the statement: "attributes or benefits consumers strongly associate with a brand, positively evaluate, and believe that they could not find to the same extent with a competitive brand"?

B) points-of-difference

26) According to the BRANDZ model of brand strength, brand building involves people progressing through a sequential series of steps. Which of these steps would address the question "Do I know about this brand?"

B) presence

15) According to the brand asset valuator model, which of the components of brand equity measures the breadth of a brand's appeal?

B) relevance

24) Which of the following levels of the brand dynamics pyramid pertains to consumer's needs?

B) relevance

14) To satisfy customers, a(n) ________ marketer finds a stated need and fills it.

B) responsive

33) For a market challenger, attacking ________ is a high risk but potentially high payoff strategy, which also allows it to distance itself from other challengers.

B) the market leader

8) ________ refers to the products or sets of products with which a brand competes and which function as close substitutes.

C) Category membership

52) ________ is a company's ability to perform in one or more ways that competitors cannot or will not match.

C) Competitive advantage

25) ________ are associations designed to overcome perceived weaknesses of the brand.

C) Competitive points-of-parity

27) A marketer that wants to anchor a point-of-difference for Dove soap on brand benefits might emphasize which of the following?

C) Dove soap helps users have softer skin

60) Which of the following is an example of services differentiation?

C) JEK's sophisticated customer database allows the company to handle queries and product returns much faster than competitors.

31) ________ are visual representations of consumer perceptions and preferences.

C) Perceptual maps

59) Which of the following is true about market-nichers?

C) Their return on investment exceeds that in larger markets.

5) Which of the following best describes a car company's value proposition?

C) We sell the safest, most durable wagon.

48) With respect to powerful brand elements, ________ is an extremely efficient means to build brand equity. This element functions as a useful "hook" or "handle" to help consumers grasp what the brand is and what makes it special.

C) a slogan

27) According to the BRANDZ model of brand strength, brand building involves people progressing through a sequential series of steps. Which of these steps would address or answer the question "Does this brand offer something better than the others?"

C) advantage

11) Oliver, a company that produces different types of olive oil, launched a promotional campaign focusing on the alternative uses of olive oil. What strategy is the company implementing to expand its total market demand?

C) advertising new and different applications of the brand

42) Tums claims to have the most acid-reducing components of any antacid. In what way is the brand's category membership being conveyed?

C) announcing category benefits

45) Industrial tools claiming to have durability, and antacids announcing their efficacy convey a brand's category membership by ________.

C) announcing category benefits

30) Marketers typically focus on ________ in choosing the points-of-parity and points-of-difference that make up their brand positioning.

C) brand benefits

65) When a firm uses an established brand to introduce a new product, it is called a ________.

C) brand extension

72) A ________ is the set of all brands and brand lines a particular firm offers for sale to buyers in a particular category.

C) brand portfolio

37) With respect to the "six brand building blocks," ________ describes the relationship customers have with the brand and the extent to which they feel they're "in sync" with it.

C) brand resonance

32) With respect to the "six brand building blocks," ________ signifies how well the product or service meets customers' functional needs.

C) brand salience

43) A marketing manager has decided to "leapfrog" competition by moving into cutting-edge technologies. This indirect approach to attacking competition can be characterized as ________.

C) bypass attack

24) Nivea became the leader in the skin cream class on the "gentle", "protective" and "caring" platform. The company further moved into classes such as deodorants, shampoos and cosmetics. Attributes like gentle and caring were of no value unless consumers believed that its deodorant was strong enough, its shampoo would cleanse and its cosmetics would be colorful enough. This is an example of ________.

C) category points-of-parity

38) A brand mantra should be ________.

C) communicative, simple, and inspirational

49) When Tommy Hilfiger was an unknown brand, advertising announced his membership as a great U.S. designer by associating him with Geoffrey Beene, Stanley Blacker, Calvin Klein, and Perry Ellis, who were recognized members of that category. Tommy Hilfiger conveyed the brand's category membership by ________.

C) comparing to exemplars

47) Aron, a company manufacturing snack food and soft drinks, replicates its product taste and packaging from Lay's, a market leader in snack food industry. Later, it sells these imitated products on the black market. This is an example of ________.

C) counterfeiting

26) After Olay entered and took over the Indian market with its anti-aging lotion, Ponds decided to defend its home turf by investing heavily in a similar product, but that which used only natural ingredients. This is an example of a ________.

C) counteroffensive defense

15) Which of the following criteria relates to consumers seeing the brand association as personally relevant to them?

C) desirability

54) Which of the following types of differentiation relates to companies having better-trained personnel who provide superior customer service?

C) employee differentiation

3) Branding is ________.

C) endowing products and services with the power of a brand

11) Identify the four pillars of brand equity, according to brand asset valuator model.

C) energized differentiation, relevance, esteem, and knowledge

13) Christian Louboutin is a footwear designer who launched his line of high-end women's shoes in France in 1991. The brand caters to an elite clientele whose satisfaction with the brand has always been evident. Apart from being high-end, Louboutin footwear signifies power in elite social circles. Celebrities are often seen sporting "Loubs" at special occasions, such as movie premieres. This has resulted in people associating Louboutin footwear with class and power. In accordance with the brand asset valuator model, which of the following components of brand equity has Louboutin fulfilled in the given scenario?

C) esteem

56) Which of the following value creation processes means sharing the brand "good news" and inspiring others to use the brand?

C) evangelizing

7) Trendz Inc. is a leading brand of fashion clothing and accessories based in Houston. After gaining a strong foothold in the U.S., the company wants to foray into foreign markets. The management at Trends knows that people residing in other countries are likely to have different tastes and preferences, so they may have to redesign some of their offerings. Which of the following strategies is Trendz using?

C) geographic-expansion strategy

10) A(n) ________ is a group of firms offering a product or class of products that are close substitutes for one another.

C) industry

72) Which element of a brand story framework do Randall Ringer and Michael Thibodeau relate to the authenticating voice, metaphors, symbols, themes, and leitmotifs?

C) language

32) A firm that is willing to maintain its market share, and not attack the leader and other competitors in an aggressive bid for further market share, is known as a ________.

C) market follower

28) Market broadening and market diversification are likely tactics employed in ________ strategies. E) mobile defense 29) When "petroleum" companies such as BP sought to recast themselves as "energy" companies, increasing their research into the oil, coal, nuclear, hydroelectric, and chemical industries, these companies were employing a ________ strategy.

C) mobile defense 30) When large companies can no longer defend all their territory, they launch a ________ defense where they give up weaker markets and reassign resources to stronger ones. A) contraction

23) If a consumer, trying to decide between alternatives, believes that a particular brand delivers acceptable product performance and can be short listed, she is in the ________ level of the brand dynamics pyramid.

C) performance

21) Philip Morris bought Miller brewing and launched low-calorie beer, at a time when consumers had the impression that low-calorie beer does not taste as good as normal beer. What does the company assure by stating that the beer tastes good?

C) points-of-parity

23) The defensive marketing strategy wherein a stream of new products are introduced by a firm and are announced in advance are referred to as ________ defense.

C) preemptive

61) Newman Inc. is a company that manufactures saddles specifically for horses that race in derbies in the U.S. and the UK. Within this context the firm is exhibiting the role of a ________ specialist.

C) product-line

29) According to the BRANDZ model of brand strength, brand building involves people progressing through a sequential series of steps. Which of these steps would address or answer the question "Does this brand offer me something?"

C) relevance

50) Ford Motor Co. invested more than $1 billion on a radical new 2004 model called the X-Trainer, which combined the attributes of an SUV, a minivan, and a station wagon. To communicate its unique position—and to avoid association with its Explorer and Country Squire models—the vehicle, eventually called Freestyle, was designated a "sports wagon". According to the given scenario, Ford Motor Co. conveyed their brand's category membership by ________.

C) relying on the product descriptor

64) Suppliers who are better at handling emergencies, product recalls, and inquiries are most likely to be differentiated based on their ________.

C) resilience

51) Brand equity can be built by ________, which create(s) equity by linking the brand to other information in memory that conveys meaning to customers.

C) secondary associations

69) A major advantage of a ________ strategy is that the company does not tie its reputation to the product.

C) separate family brand name

8) A market leader on the look out for more usage from existing customers should focus on increasing the frequency of consumption and ________.

C) the amount of consumption

41) From a marketing management perspective, there are three main sets of brand equity drivers. Which of these drivers was most applicable when McDonald's decided to use the "golden arches" and Ronald McDonald as symbols of their brand?

C) the initial choices for the brand elements or identities making up the brand

42) Red Bull enlisted college students as "Red Bull student brand managers" to distribute samples, research drinking trends, design on-campus product promotion activities, and write stories for student newspapers. From a marketing management perspective, which of the following brand equity drivers is most applicable in the given scenario?

C) the product and all accompanying marketing activities and supporting marketing programs

63) ________ is the job of estimating the total financial worth of the brand.

D) Brand valuation

20) ________ are attributes or benefits that consumers view as essential to a legitimate and credible offering within a certain product or service class.

D) Category points-of-parity

22) ________ is an aggressive maneuver where the firm attacks first, perhaps with guerrilla action across the market and keeping everyone off balance.

D) Preemptive defense

58) Which of the following is an example of channel differentiation?

D) RTZ shifted its products from supermarket aisles to exclusive stores as it realized that customers were willing to pay more in stores.

28) Subway restaurants are positioned as offering healthy, great-tasting sandwiches. ________ allows the brand to create a point-of-parity (POP) on taste and a point-of-difference (POD) on health with respect to quick-serve restaurants such as McDonald's and Burger King and, at the same time, a POP on health and a POD on taste with respect to health food restaurants and cafés.

D) Straddle positioning

33) Which of the following statements about brand mantras is true?

D) They can provide guidance about what ad campaigns to run and where and how to sell the brand.

6) Which of the following best describes BR Chicken's value proposition?

D) We sell tender golden chicken at a moderate price.

55) Redo is a market follower in the wristwatch industry. After noticing a shortfall in the market leader's product, Redo improves its product to suit consumer needs and becomes a challenger for the market leader. This is an example of ________.

D) adapter

9) Which of the following is a marketing advantage of strong brands?

D) additional brand extension opportunities

58) Which of the following value creation processes means translating milestones into symbols and artifacts?

D) badging

2) The American Marketing Association defines a ________ as "a name, term, sign, symbol, or design, or a combination of them, intended to identify the goods or services of one seller or group of sellers and to differentiate them from those of competitors."

D) brand

38) With respect to the "six brand building blocks," ________ are customers' emotional responses and reactions with respect to the brand.

D) brand feelings

34) With respect to the "six brand building blocks," ________ focuses on customers' own personal opinions and evaluations.

D) brand judgment

36) A ________ is a translation of the brand mantra that attempts to creatively engage consumers and others external to the company.

D) brand slogan

70) Starbucks introduced ice creams in the same flavors as the frappucinos it sold in its coffee shops. This is an example of ________.

D) category extension

23) Consumers might not consider a hand sanitizer truly a hand sanitizer unless they are gels designed to apply topically, contain alcohol that kills the germs present on the skin, and developed for use after washing hands or for those times when soap and water are not available. These service elements are considered ________.

D) category points-of-parity

49) Amani, a company that manufactures cloth for suits, strives to be equal to Armani in product design, brand name, and product packaging. This is an example of ________.

D) cloning

7) The ________ defines which other brands a brand competes with and therefore which brands should be the focus of competitive analysis.

D) competitive frame of reference

16) A(n) ________ marketer discovers solutions customers did not ask for but to which they enthusiastically respond.

D) creative

78) In its focus on bottom-line financial value, the ________ approach often overlooks the "option value" of brands and their potential to affect future revenues and costs.

D) customer equity

14) The three criteria that determine whether a brand association can truly function as a point-of- difference are ________.

D) desirability, deliverability, differentiability

55) Singapore Airlines is well regarded in large part because of the excellence of its flight attendants. This is an example of ________ differentiation.

D) employee

39) The ________ attack attempts to capture a significant share of the consumer market by launching a grand offensive on several fronts.

D) encirclement

21) According to Young and Rubicam's brand asset valuator, a brand's ________ measures how well the brand is regarded and respected.

D) esteem

66) A parent brand that is associated with multiple products through brand extensions is also called a(n)________.

D) family brand

10) When food product companies advertise recipes that use their branded products in entirely different ways, they are increasing the ________ of the brand.

D) frequency of consumption

51) The ________ copies some things from the leader but differentiates on packaging, advertising, pricing, or location.

D) imitator

53) The TelePizza chain, which operates in Europe and Latin America, has copied Domino's service model but maintains differentiation in terms of location. TelePizza is an example of a(n) ________.

D) imitator

12) Clorox runs ads stressing the many benefits of its bleach, such as how it eliminates kitchen odors, in order to generate additional opportunities to use the brand in the same basic way. This is an attempt to ________.

D) increase the frequency of consumption

14) According to the brand asset valuator model, which of the components of brand equity measures how aware and familiar consumers are with the brand?

D) knowledge

54) AT&T's business campaign not only helped to change public perceptions of the company, it also signaled to employees that AT&T was determined to be a leader in telecommunication services. Which principle of internal branding does this example portray?

D) linking internal and external marketing

57) A firm that serves small market segments that are not being served by bigger firms is known as a ________.

D) market nicher

27) In ________, the market leader stretches its domain over new territories that can serve as future centers for defense and offense.

D) mobile defense

39) Brand mantras typically are designed to capture the brand's ________, that is, what is unique about the brand.

D) points-of-difference

63) Suppliers who are dependable in their on-time delivery, order completeness, and order-cycle time are most likely to be differentiated based on ________.

D) reliability

40) With respect to the brand building pyramid, the branding objective of developing deep, broad brand awareness corresponds to which of the following "building block levels"?

D) salience

70) Which element of a brand story framework do Randall Ringer and Michael Thibodeau relate to the time, place, and context of the brand story?

D) setting

60) The key idea in successful nichemanship is specialization. Which of the following specialists would most closely be identified with the characterization of being an organization that limits its selling to one customer?

D) specific-customer specialist

45) If a brand element can be used to introduce new products in the same or different categories, the brand element is said to be ________.

D) transferable

62) ________ are a means of understanding where, how much, and in what ways brand value is being created to facilitate day-to-day decision making.

E) Brand-tracking studies

50) The traditional "marketing-mix" concept and the notion of the "four Ps" may not adequately describe modern marketing programs. ________ is about mixing and matching marketing activities to maximize their individual and collective effects.

E) Integrated marketing

15) A(n) ________ marketer looks ahead to needs customers may have in the near future.

E) anticipative

25) A consumer who expresses rational and emotional attachments to the brand to the exclusion of most other brands has reached the ________ level in the brand dynamics pyramid.

E) bonding

52) Mark feels that Shell delivers on its promises to supply the best gasoline possible to the public. His experiences with Shell have always been good resulting in positive brand contact. Mark is most likely experiencing ________.

E) brand bonding

49) A ________ can be defined as any information-bearing experience a customer or prospect has with the brand, the product category, or the market that relates to the marketer's product or service.

E) brand contact

71) A ________ is a set of all brand lines that a particular seller makes.

E) brand mix

19) The two basic forms of points-of-parity are ________ and ________.

E) category points-of parity; competitive points-of-parity

57) Dayton, Ohio--based Iams found success selling premium pet food through regional veterinarians, breeders, and pet stores. This is an example of ________ differentiation.

E) channel

31) In 2006, Sara Lee spun off products that accounted for a large percentage of the company's revenues, including its strong Hanes hosiery brand, so it could concentrate on its well-known food brands. In this example, Sara Lee is employing a ________ strategy.

E) contraction defense

45) In his article, "Innovative Imitation", Theodore Levitt argues that ________. B) product imitation might be as profitable as product innovation 46) As a market follower strategy, the ________ duplicates the leader's product and packages and sells it on the black market or through disreputable dealers.

E) counterfeiter

16) Which of the following criteria relates to the company having the internal resources and commitment to feasibly and profitably create and maintain the brand association in the minds of consumers?

E) deliverability

20) ________ defense involves occupying the most desirable market space in the minds of the consumers and making the brand almost impregnable.

A) Position

2) ________ is the act of designing the company's offering and image to occupy a distinctive place in the minds of the target market.

A) Positioning

44) ________ are devices that can be trademarked and serve to identify and differentiate the brand.

A) Brand elements

35) ________ are short, three- to five-word phrases that capture the irrefutable essence or spirit of the brand positioning and ensure that the company's own employees understand what the brand represents.

A) Brand mantras

17) ________ marketers are not just market-driven, they are proactive market-driving firms.

A) Creative

74) ________ brands are positioned with respect to competitors' brands so that more important (and more profitable) flagship brands can retain their desired positioning.

A) Flanker

53) ________ consists of activities and processes that help inform and inspire employees about brands.

A) Internal branding

11) Which of the following statements about blue ocean thinking is true?

A) It involves designing creative business ventures to positively affect both a company's cost structure and its value proposition to consumers.

13) ________ are product associations that are not necessarily unique to the brand but may in fact be shared with other brands.

A) Points-of-parity