MCAT Psych/Soc Class 5: Psychological Disorders and Consciousness

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Alzheimer's disease? A. Anterograde amnesia B. The formation of neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles in the cortex C. A decrease in dopamine-producing neurons in the basal ganglia D. A progression of dementia over time

C. A decrease in dopamine-producing neurons in the basal ganglia C. Highlight the word NOT and write "A B C D" on your noteboard. Then evaluate each answer choice, writing "Y" if it is characteristic of Alzheimer's disease, or "N" if it is not. Anterograde amnesia is one of the classic symptoms of Alzheimer's (write "Y" next to "A" on the noteboard). Alzheimer's disease is characterized by the formation of neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles in the cortex (write "Y" next to "B" on the noteboard), which is thought to lead to its classic symptoms. A decrease in dopamine-producing neurons in the basal ganglia is characteristic of Parkinson's disease, not Alzheimer's (write "N" next to "C" on the noteboard). Progressive dementia is also one of the classic symptoms of Alzheimer's (write "Y" next to "D" on the noteboard). Since choice C stands out with an "N" instead of a "Y", it is the correct answer choice.

Maria experiences various circadian rhythm changes as she travels on an airplane for twenty-four hours. Which of the following is NOT a measurable physiological indicator of these changes? A. Melatonin levels B. Serum cortisol levels C. Dopamine levels D. Body temperature

C. Dopamine levels C. The three physiological indicators of circadian rhythms are melatonin (which controls sleepiness), serum cortisol (which controls glucose metabolization) and body temperature. While there is some evidence that dopamine affects the circadian cycle, it is NOT a measurable indicator of circadian rhythm changes (choice C is the correct answer choice).

A psychiatrist who uses a biomedical approach to treating mental disorders is performing an intake on a new patient. The doctor would probably be most interested in which of the following pieces of information about this individual? A. Socioeconomic status B. Cultural beliefs concerning illness C. Family history of schizophrenia D. Quality of peer relationships

C. Family history of schizophrenia C. The biomedical approach views mental disorders as diseases and is concerned primarily with medical information, such as a possible genetic predisposition to schizophrenia (choice C). The biopsychosocial approach, in contrast, takes many more aspects of the patient's life into account, including sociocultural and behavioral determinants. A clinician using the biopsychosocial approach would be very interested in socioeconomic status, cultural beliefs, and peer relationships, but a biomedical clinician would not (choices A, B, and D are wrong and choice C is correct).

An individual suffering from which disorder experiences nervousness and anxiety much of the time about many issues but does not experience panic attacks? A. Panic disorder B. Specific phobia C. Generalized anxiety disorder D. Obsessive compulsive disorder

C. Generalized anxiety disorder C. Generalized anxiety disorder is a persistently high level of nervousness or anxiety much of the time about many issues but does not include panic attacks (choice C is correct). Panic disorder is characterized by frequent panic attacks that can be cued by specific situations, but are more often spontaneous, occurring unexpectedly (choice A is wrong). A specific phobia is defined as a disproportionate fear caused by a specific object or situation, such as dogs, snakes, heights, etc. (choice B is wrong). Obsessive compulsive disorder involves intrusive and usually irrational obsessions about things that produce apprehension, fear and worry, and compulsions designed to reduce the associated anxiety produced by the obsessions (choice D is wrong).

Which of the following is true regarding Carl Rogers? A. He believed in helping patients understand the unconscious motives underlying their maladaptive behaviors. B. He was a behaviorist who believed that all individuals possessed a self-actualizing tendency. C. He was a humanist psychologist who believed in communicating genuineness, unconditional positive regard, and empathic understanding to the client using person-centered therapy. D. He suggested that behavior could be controlled through the use of positive and negative consequences.

C. He was a humanist psychologist who believed in communicating genuineness, unconditional positive regard, and empathic understanding to the client using person-centered therapy. C. Carl Rogers was a humanist psychologist (not a behaviorist; choice B is wrong) who believed in communicating genuineness, unconditional positive regard, and empathic understanding to the client using person-centered therapy (choice C is correct). Humanists like Rogers do not focus on the unconscious (choice A is wrong), but rather emphasize the positive aspects of personality that lead to healthy personality development. Behaviorists (not humanists, like Rogers) believe that behavior can be controlled through the use of positive and negative consequences (choice D is wrong).

Obsessive-compulsive disorder is often characterized by: repeated, intrusive, uncontrollable thoughts or impulses that cause distress or anxiety. repeated physical or mental behaviors that are done in accordance with a set of strict rules, in order to reduce distress or prevent something dreaded from occurring. psychotic episodes triggered by high anxiety. A. I and III only B. I, II, and III C. I and II only D. II and III only

C. I and II only C. Since none of the items appear exactly twice in the answers, start evaluating Item III (it is the shortest of the three). Item III is false: obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) does not include psychotic episodes (choices A, B, and D can be eliminated and choice C is correct). Note that Item I is true: a person with OCD has obsessions, compulsions, or both. Obsessions are repeated, intrusive, uncontrollable thoughts or impulses that cause distress or anxiety. The person knows the thoughts are irrational, and tries to disregard or suppress them, or to neutralize them through a compulsive behavior. Item II is also true: compulsions are repeated physical or mental behaviors that are done in response to an obsession or in accordance with a set of strict rules, in order to reduce distress or prevent something dreaded from occurring. The person realizes that the compulsive behavior is not reasonable, being either unrelated to the dreaded event, or related but clearly excessive. Nevertheless, if the person does not perform the behavior, he or she feels intense anxiety and a conviction that the terrible event will happen.

Dependence on alcohol: I. is caused in part by dopamine release from the nucleus accumbens. II. means that, upon cessation of use, withdrawal symptoms will occur. III. may lead to down-regulation of inhibitory pathways in the central nervous system. A. I and III only B. I and II only C. I, II, and III D. II and III only

C. I, II, and III C. Since none of the items appear in exactly two of the answer choices, start evaluating Item I (the shortest item). Item I is true: dopamine release in the nucleus accumbens (often called the "reward center" of the brain) is likely critical for the development of addiction to alcohol (choicd D can be eliminated). Item II is true: dependence can lead to signs of withdrawal upon abstention from alcohol (choice A can be eliminated). Item III is true: development of dependence (also known as addiction) to alcohol (a central nervous system depressant) involves changes in brain chemistry with long-term use, such as a down-regulation of inhibitory pathways in the central nervous system (choice B can be eliminated and choice C is correct).

Kenya was in a major car accident that nearly took her life. Even though she made a full physical recovery, she often relives the accident in her mind and has taken great pains to avoid driving or being in a car since. She feels very anxious and has been struggling with insomnia since the accident as well. What is Kenya most likely suffering from? A. Panic disorder B. Social phobia C. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) D. Generalized anxiety disorder

C. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) C. Kenya is most likely experiencing PTSD. Post-traumatic stress disorder can arise when a person feels intense fear, horror, or helplessness while experiencing, witnessing, or otherwise confronting an extremely traumatic event that involves actual or threatened death or serious injury to the self or others. The traumatic event can be relived through dreams, flashbacks, and intrusive, distressing thoughts and images. A person with PTSD tries to avoid people, places, feelings, thoughts, or conversations that are reminders of the event, and may also suffer from symptoms such as an increased startle response, insomnia, angry outbursts, poor concentration, and vigilance. A person with panic disorder has suffered at least one panic attack and is worried about having more of them. The panic attacks can be cued by certain situations, but they are more often uncued or "spontaneous," occurring frequently and unexpectedly (choice A is wrong). Social phobia is an unreasonable, paralyzing fear of feeling embarrassed or humiliated while one is watched by others (choice B is wrong). A person with generalized anxiety disorder feels tense or anxious much of the time about many issues, but does not experience panic attacks. The source of this low-key, chronic nervousness can seem like a moving target, shifting from one situation to another, or there may be no identifiable source (choice D is wrong).

According to twin studies, which of the following disorders has the highest heritability? A. Bipolar disorder B. Alzheimer's disease C. Schizophrenia D. Parkinson's disease

C. Schizophrenia

Which of the following stressors would be considered a significant life change? A. A major flood that impacts several cities B. A local flood that only impacts one home, imparting minor damage C. The death of several family members in a car accident D. A major traffic jam that impacts hundreds of commuters

C. The death of several family members in a car accident C. Losing several family members in an accident would be a stressor that has a major impact on someone's life, and would be considered a significant life change, because it does not affect many people on a large scale (choice C is correct). A catastrophe is a type of stressor that is unpredictable and affects many people on a large-scale; catastrophic events include natural disasters, such as widespread flooding (choice A is wrong). A local flood that only impacts one family would likely be considered a daily hassle, because the damage was not significant (choice B is wrong). A major traffic jam that impacts hundreds of commuters would also be considered a daily hassle; while many people are impacted, the degree of the stressor is minor compared to catastrophes and major life events (choice D is wrong).

Which of the following is NOT true regarding attitude and behavior? A. When we publicly declare our beliefs, our attitudes become further entrenched B. We tend to attribute a greater value to outcomes that require greater effort C. When asked to play a particular role, we are less likely to align our attitude with our behavior D. Attitude is a good predictor of behavior for our general patterns of behavior (not necessarily our specific behaviors)

C. When asked to play a particular role, we are less likely to align our attitude with our behavior C. When asked to play a role, or when we are in situations with clearly-defined roles, we tend to behave in a certain way, and are more (not less) likely to align our attitude with our behavior (choice C is not true and is therefore correct). When we publicly declare our beliefs, we often align our attitudes with those claims, and those attitudes become further entrenched the more we make public declarations (choice A is true and can be eliminated). When something requires a great deal of effort, we are inclined to adjust our attitude to place greater value on that outcome, a phenomenon known as "justification of effort" (choice B is true and can be eliminated). Attitude does tend to be a good predictor of behavior when general patterns of behavior are observed, but not necessarily our specific behaviors (choice D is true and can be eliminated).

Which of the following is NOT true regarding Parkinson's Disease (PD) and Alzheimer's Disease (AD)? A. PD involves severely impaired movement while AD involves severely impaired memory. B. AD involves plaques and tangles in the cerebral cortex while PD involves a loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra. C. While AD is considered a neurocognitive disorder, PD is a musculoskeletal disorder. D. As PD progresses, over half of patients experience dementia in addition to movement problems.

C. While AD is considered a neurocognitive disorder, PD is a musculoskeletal disorder. C. Alzheimer's disease (AD) and Parkinson's disease (PD) are both neurocognitive disorders that dramatically affect the brain; PD is not considered a musculoskeletal disorder (choice C is NOT true and is therefore the correct answer). AD involves plaques and tangles in the cerebral cortex which severely impairs memory while PD involves a loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra of the brain, which results in a down regulation of inhibitory control over the initiation of movement, resulting the characteristic resting tremor and shuffling gait of PD (choices A and B are true and can be eliminated). In 50% to 80% of PD cases, dementia is also a symptom of progressive disease (choice D is true and can be eliminated).

What is the major difference between bipolar disorder and clinical depression? A. Depression is a mood disorder and bipolar disorder is a personality disorder. B. While depression often affects sleep patterns, bipolar disorder does not. C. While both involve depressive episodes, only bipolar disorder also involves manic episodes. D. While those suffering from depression may be at risk for suicide, those suffering from bipolar disorder rarely commit suicide.

C. While both involve depressive episodes, only bipolar disorder also involves manic episodes. C. The major difference between bipolar disorder and clinical depression is that while both involve depressive episodes, only bipolar disorder also involves manic episodes. Both bipolar disorder and clinical depression are mood disorders (choice A is wrong), and both disorders can cause major sleep disruptions (either too little or too much sleep, choice B is wrong). Furthermore, the mood disorders (depression and bipolar disorder) are by far the most common psychiatric conditions associated with suicide; at least 25% to 50% of patients with bipolar disorder also attempt suicide at least once (choice D is wrong).

A patient reports hallucinations, coupled with reduced emotional expressivity, eccentric beliefs, social withdrawal, and a tendency towards inactivity. It is most likely that this person would be diagnosed with: A. schizoid personality disorder. B. schizotypal personality disorder. C. schizophrenia. D. dissociative identity disorder.

C. schizophrenia.

Reticular Activating System (RAS)

Controls alertness and arousal in the brain

Neurofibrillary tangles are most characteristic of which of the following disorders? A. Autism spectrum disorders B. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder C. Parkinson's disease D. Alzheimer's disease

D. Alzheimer's disease

Which of the following is NOT a type of personality disorder? A. Borderline disorder B. Antisocial disorder C. Schizotypal disorder D. Dissociative disorder

D. Dissociative disorder

Which of the following is true regarding sleep disorders? A. Parasomnias are abnormalities in the amount, quality, or timing of sleep; while dyssomnias are abnormal behaviors that occur during sleep, usually during REM sleep B. Parasomnias and dyssomnias both occur during REM sleep C. Parasomnias and dyssomnias both occur during stage 3 or slow-wave sleep D. Dyssomnias are abnormalities in the amount, quality, or timing of sleep; while parasomnias are abnormal behaviors that occur during sleep, usually during stage 3 or slow-wave sleep

D. Dyssomnias are abnormalities in the amount, quality, or timing of sleep; while parasomnias are abnormal behaviors that occur during sleep, usually during stage 3 or slow-wave sleep D. Dyssomnias are abnormalities in the amount, quality, or timing of sleep, and include: insomnia, sleep apnea, and narcolepsy; while parasomnias are abnormal behaviors that occur during sleep, including sleepwalking and night terrors, both of which occur during stage 3 or slow-wave sleep.

Which of the following would be the best indicator that Jacques has somatic symptom disorder? A. He frequently worries about developing illnesses that the doctor says Jacques currently does not have. B. He frequently complains of experiencing pain. C. His health is his primary concern and he discusses it daily. D. His fear of illness, which is excessive and largely unfounded, greatly impairs his ability to function.

D. His fear of illness, which is excessive and largely unfounded, greatly impairs his ability to function. D. Somatic symptom disorder (previously known as hypochondriasis) is characterized by exaggerated fear of illness and irrational worrying about one's health. This preoccupation must cause the individual distress or impair his ability to function. The fact that Jacques frequently worries about illnesses he doesn't currently have doesn't necessarily mean that his level of fear is excessive or that he is distressed or impaired by this preoccupation (choice A is wrong). If Jacques often complains about pain, he may in fact be experiencing considerable pain (choice B is wrong). Similarly, if Jacques's primary concern is his health, this preoccupation may in fact be justified and realistic (choice C is wrong and choice D is correct).

Which of the following is true regarding arousal and wakefulness? I. Mammalian circadian rhythms control increases and decreases in alertness over a 24-hour cycle II. The pineal gland in the brain is responsible for the production of melatonin, a hormone that induces sleep III. The reticular activating system (RAS) is the area of the brain responsible for arousal and wakefulness A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III

D. I, II, and III D. Item I is true: Mammalian circadian rhythms do control the increases and decreases in alertness over a 24-hour cycle (choice C can be eliminated). Item II is true: The pineal gland in the brain is responsible for the production of melatonin, a hormone that induces sleep (choice B can be eliminated). Item III is true: The reticular activating system (RAS) is the area of the brain responsible for arousal and wakefulness (choice A can be eliminated; choice D is correct).

Which of the following is/are involved in the processing of emotional experiences in the brain? I. Amygdala II. Hypothalamus III. Hippocampus A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III

D. I, II, and III D. The limbic system is a collection of brain structures that are primarily responsible for emotional experiences. Item I is true: The main structure involved in emotion in the limbic system is the amygdala, an almond-shaped structure deep within the brain, which serves as the conductor of the orchestra of our emotional experiences (choice C can be eliminated). Item II is true: The amygdala communicates with the hypothalamus, which controls the physiological aspects of emotion, such as sweating and a racing heart (choice B can be eliminated). Item III is true: The limbic system also includes the hippocampus, a brain structure that plays a key role in forming memories (choice A can be eliminated; choice D is the correct answer).

A ten-year-old girl with autism spectrum disorder would be LEAST likely to have difficulty doing which one of the following? A. Expressing her feelings effectively in an essay B. Making new friends C. Adjusting to a new classroom routine D. Kicking a ball

D. Kicking a ball D. Make sure to highlight the word LEAST and write "A B C D" on the noteboard. Then evaluate each answer choice, writing "Y" if the task would cause difficulty or "N" if it would not. Children with autistic spectrum disorder usually have difficulty communicating verbally and expressing their feelings (write "Y" next to "A" on the noteboard). They also have problems relating to others and developing good social skills (write "Y" next to "B" on the noteboard). Autistic children are cognitively inflexible and usually have considerable difficulty adapting to change (write "Y" next to "C" on the noteboard). Although stereotyped behaviors (rocking, banging, etc,) are present in more serious cases, the child's physical abilities are usually within normal range (write "N" next to "D" on the noteboard). Since choice D stands out with an "N" instead of a "Y", it is the correct answer choice.

Which if the following is NOT true regarding schizoid and schizotypal personality disorders? A. Both schizoid and schizotypal are Cluster A personality disorders. B. Both schizoid and schizotypal personality disorders are associated with irrational, withdrawn, cold, or suspicious behaviors. C. While schizotypal personality disorder is characterized by magical or paranoid thinking and odd beliefs, and can often develop into schizophrenia, schizoid personality disorder is characterized by detachment and limited emotional expression. D. People with schizotypal personality disorder have social inhibition and feelings of inadequacy, while those diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder experience distortions of the self.

D. People with schizotypal personality disorder have social inhibition and feelings of inadequacy, while those diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder experience distortions of the self. D. The disorder characterized by social inhibition and feelings of inadequacy is avoidant personality disorder and those who experience distortions of the self are more likely to be experiencing borderline personality disorder, though the phrase "distortions of the self" could be used to refer to a personality disorder in general (choice D is not true and is the correct answer choice). It is true that both schizoid and schizotypal are Cluster A personality disorders (choice A is true and can be eliminated), and both schizoid and schizotypal personality disorders are associated with irrational, withdrawn, cold, or suspicious behaviors (choice B is true and can be eliminated). A person with schizotypal personality disorder has several traits that cause problems interpersonally, including constricted or inappropriate affect; magical or paranoid thinking; and odd beliefs, speech, behavior, appearance, and perceptions; additionally, many cases eventually develop schizophrenia. A person with schizoid personality disorder is a loner with little interest or involvement in close relationships, even those with family members. The person seems unaffected emotionally by interactions with other people, appearing instead detached or cold (choice C is true and can be eliminated).

Which of the following sleep stages is NOT correctly paired with the type of EEG waves characteristic for that stage? A. NREM1 (Stage 1): theta waves B. NREM2 (Stage 2): K-complexes and sleep spindles C. NREM3 (Stage 3): delta waves D. REM: delta waves

D. REM: delta waves D. During REM sleep, EEG measures demonstrate waves that most resemble the beta waves seen during wakefulness; however, the waves in REM sleep are more jagged in appearance than beta waves, which are also low intensity, but high frequency. Delta waves are characteristics of deep sleep (NREM3), not REM sleep, which while deep, is known as "paradoxical sleep" because the EEG measures most resemble that of wakefulness (choice D is not correctly paired and is therefore the right answer). During NREM1 sleep, EEG measures demonstrate theta waves: waves of low to moderate intensity and intermediate frequency (choice A is correctly paired and can be eliminated). During NREM2 sleep, EEG measures demonstrate two distinct wave patterns; although theta waves are still detected, these waves are intermixed with K-complexes and sleep spindles (choice B is correctly paired and can be eliminated). During NREM3 sleep, EEG measures demonstrate delta waves, which are high amplitude, low frequency waves (choice C is correctly paired and can be eliminated).

Jason's mother has become increasingly worried about his affect. Jason is a 17-year-old boy who was always a bit odd, but who has become withdrawn over the past year. She originally attributed this to "typical teenage behavior," but his flat affect is increasingly accompanied by disorganized speech. She brought him in for a doctor's appointment when she realized that he has also been hearing voices. What condition is Jason most likely suffering from? A. Stroke B. Epilepsy C. Borderline personality disorder D. Schizophrenia

D. Schizophrenia D. Jason is most likely suffering from schizophrenia. Auditory hallucinations and disorganized speech are primary positive symptoms of schizophrenia. This, combined with negative symptoms like flat affect, make schizophrenia Jason's most likely diagnosis. A stroke is a loss of brain function due to a restriction of blood to that area. The causes of stroke are numerous, and primary symptoms can include inability to move limbs or speak clearly. Stroke, however, is a fast-onset condition, while Jason's symptoms have a much longer time course (choice A is wrong). Epilepsy is characterized by seizures; the question stem does not indicate that Jason has experienced any seizures (choice B is wrong). Borderline personality disorder is characterized by impulsivity, irritability and fears of abandonment. This does not fit with Jason's symptom profile (choice C is wrong).

Which of the following scenarios is best explained by the Schachter-Singer theory of emotion? A. Countless studies have demonstrated that people have an arousal "sweet-spot" where they are emotionally aroused, but not too aroused, and tend to perform certain skills best within this zone. B. A study finds that specific brain lesions, which prevent the perception of increased heart rate and respiration that tend to accompany anxiety, do not lessen the anxiety an organism experiences. C. Consciously taking deeper breaths helps people calm down. D. Subjects given a stimulant (which increases heart rate and respiration rate) before going on a blind date rated their feelings of attraction for their date as 80% higher than subjects not given the stimulant prior to the date.

D. Subjects given a stimulant (which increases heart rate and respiration rate) before going on a blind date rated their feelings of attraction for their date as 80% higher than subjects not given the stimulant prior to the date. D. The Schachter-Singer theory of emotion best explains why subjects given a stimulant before going on a blind date rated their feelings of attraction for their date as 80% higher than subjects not given the stimulant prior to the date, because this theory proposes that context helps us interpret physiological arousal as a given emotion (choice D is correct). The Yerkes-Dodson Law (not the Schachter-Singer theory of emotion) best explains how an optimal level of arousal improves performance (choice A is wrong). The Cannon-Bard (not the Schachter-Singer) theory of emotion helps to explain why an organism would still experience emotion, despite brain lesions that thwart the physiological experience of emotion, since this theory proposes that the physiological experience and the emotional experience occur simultaneously (choice B is wrong). The James-Lange (not the Schachter-Singer) theory of emotion helps to explain why consciously taking deeper breaths helps people calm down, because this theory suggests that specific physiological responses lead to specific emotions (choice C is wrong).

All of the following are Big Five personality traits, EXCEPT: A. neuroticism. B. agreeableness. C. openness to experience. D. anxiety.

D. anxiety. D. The Big Five personality traits, as based on the Five Factor model, are: openness to experience (choice C can be eliminated), conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness (choice B can be eliminated), and neuroticism (choice A can be eliminated). These five can be easily remembered using the mnemonic OCEAN. Anxiety is a component of neuroticism, but is not one of the Big Five (choice D is correct).

Maricella's brain is currently dominated by slow, high-amplitude delta waves. She is most likely: A. awake and alert. B. in NREM1 of the sleep cycle. C. in NREM2 of the sleep cycle. D. in NREM3 of the sleep cycle.

D. in NREM3 of the sleep cycle. D. Waking states are dominated by fast, low-amplitude alpha and beta brain waves (choice A is wrong). Theta waves, which are slower and have a higher amplitude, dominate the earlier stages of the sleep cycle (NREM 1 and 2) during which light sleep occurs (choices B and C are wrong). Delta waves, which are even slower and have a higher amplitude than theta waves, dominate the latter stages of the sleep cycle (NREM3) during which deep sleep occurs (choice D is correct).

Alertness and arousal are controlled by: A. the cerebellum. B. the thalamus. C. the pons. D. the reticular activating system (RAS).

D. the reticular activating system (RAS). D. The reticular activating system (RAS), which is located in the midbrain, controls alertness and arousal. The cerebellum is located behind the brain and is an integrating center where complex movements are coordinated (choice A is wrong). The thalamus is located near the middle of the brain, below the cerebral hemispheres and above the midbrain, and contains relay and processing centers for sensory information (choice B is wrong). The pons is located below the midbrain and controls certain autonomic functions, such as breathing and swallowing (choice C is wrong).

Borderline personality disorder is characterized by: \ A. excessive emotionality and attention-seeking behavior. B. grandiosity, need for admiration and a lack of empathy for others. C. detachment from social relationships and exhibition of only a limited amount of emotions. D. unstable interpersonal relationships, frantic efforts to avoid abandonment (real or imagined), unstable self-image, and chronic feelings of emptiness, and extreme mood swings.

D. unstable interpersonal relationships, frantic efforts to avoid abandonment (real or imagined), unstable self-image, and chronic feelings of emptiness, and extreme mood swings. D. The personality disorder characterized by unstable self-image and interpersonal relationships, as well as chronic feelings of emptiness and efforts to avoid real or imagined abandonment is borderline personality disorder (choice D is correct). Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by excessive emotionality and attention-seeking behavior (choice A is wrong). Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by grandiosity, need for admiration and a lack of empathy for others (choice B is wrong). People diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder are detached from social relationships, though they do not appear to mind their isolation, and exhibit only a limited amount of emotions (choice C is wrong).

Bipolar disorders

-"Bridge" between psychotic and depressive disorders -Involves episodes and oscillations (cycles) -Specific disorders: bipolar I disorder (manic-depressive), bipolar II disorder

Parasomnias

-Abnormal behaviors that occur during sleep -Somnambulism, night terrors

Dyssomnias

-Abnormalities in the amount, quality, or timing of sleep -Insomnia, narcolepsy, sleep apnea

Cluster B (dramatic/erratic) of personality disorders

-Antisocial -Borderline -Histrionic -Narcissistic

Cluster C (anxious/fearful) of personality disorders

-Avoidant -Dependent -Obsessive-compulsive

Consciousness

-Awareness that we have of ourselves, our internal states, and the environment -Important for reflection and directs our attention -Always needed to complete novel and complex tasks -States of consciousness: alertness (being awake), sleep

Circadian rhythms

-Biological clock -Control the increases and decreases in our alertness in predictable ways over a 24 hours cycle

Physical dependence

-Can be demonstrated by the presence of withdrawal symptoms when the drug is not consumed -Person depends on the drug to avoid withdrawal symptoms and to function normally -Often follows heavy daily use over several weeks or longer

Neurocognitive disorders

-Cognition is centrally affected -Cognitive decline from a previous level or performance in one or more cognitive domains -Symptoms may interfere significantly with a person's everyday independence in a major but not mild neurocognitive disorder -Specific diagnoses: Alzheimer's disease, Parkinson's disease

Addiction

-Compulsive drug use despite harmful consequences -Inability to stop using a drug -Failure to meet work, social, or family obligations -Sometimes tolerance and withdrawal

Consciousness-altering drugs

-Depressants -Stimulants -Hallucinogens

Alzheimer's disease

-Destruction and death of nerve cells cause memory failure, personality changes, and problems carrying out daily activities -Amyloid plaques: clumps of protein fragments that accumulate outside of cells -Neurofibrillary tangles: clumps of altered proteins inside cells

Feeding and eating disorders

-Disturbed eating behavior -Consumption and/or absorption of food may be affected -Specific diagnoses: pica, anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, binge-eating disorder

Substance-related and addictive disorders

-Drugs separated into 10 classes -Involves brain's reward system -Tolerance and withdrawal -Specific diagnoses: substance use disorders, alcohol-related disorders, gambling disorder

Sleep: stages 3 & 4

-EEG: delta waves -EOG: no eye movement -EMG: moderate activity -Characteristics: heart and digestion slow, growth hormones secreted, deepest level of sleep

Sleep: REM

-EEG: similar to beta waves but more jagged -EOG: bursts of quick eye movements -EMG: almost no activity ("paradoxical sleep") -Characteristics: when dreams occur

Sleep: stage 2

-EEG: sleep spindle & K-complex -EOG: no eye movement -EMG: moderate activity -Characteristics: increased relaxation, decreased temp, heart rate, and respiration

Sleep: stage 1

-EEG: theta waves -EOG: slow rolling eye movements -EMG: moderate activity -Characteristics: fleeting thoughts, non-REM sleeo

Personality disorders

-Enduring (often lifetime) pattern of socially deviant feelings and behaviors -Pattern is inflexible and occurs across a range of settings and relationships -Begins in adolescence or early adulthood -Not diagnosed in children -Categorized in three "Clusters"

Hallucinogens

-Examples: LSD, marijuana -Mechanism: distorts perceptions in the absence of sensory input -Effects: hallucinations, impaired judgment, slowed reaction time

Depressants

-Examples: alcohol, barbiturates, opiates -Mechanism: depresses CNS -Effects: impaired motor control, eventual addiction, overdoses can lead to death

Stimulants

-Examples: caffeine, nicotine, amphetamines, cocaine -Mechanism: increases release of neurotransmitters, inhibits reuptake of neurotransmitters, or both -Effects: sped up body functions, pupil dilation, "rush" or "high" followed by crash

Anxiety disorders

-Excessive fear or anxiety -Avoidance behaviors -Panic attacks -Specific disorders: phobias, social anxiety disorder, panic disorder, generalized anxiety disorder

Trauma- and stressor-related disorders

-Exposure to traumatic or stressful event -Exhibit any of a wide range of symptoms -Specific disorders: post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), acute stress disorder, adjustments disorders

Biological influences of mental illness

-Genetics -Disability -Brain anatomy and physiology

Insomnia

-Inability to fall or remain asleep -A persistent problem that can stem from chronic stress -Most commonly reported sleep disorder

Sociocultural influences of mental illness

-Influence of peers -Socioeconomic status -Education -Cultural expectations and roles

Sleep apnea

-Intermittent cessation of breathing during sleep -Results in awakening after a minute or so without air -This process can repeat hundreds of times a night, and can deprive sufferers of deep sleep

Schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorders

-Involve delusions, hallucinations, and/or disorganized speech -May involve "negative symptoms -Specific disorders: delusional disorder, brief psychotic disorder, schizophreniform disorder, schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder

Psychological influences of mental illness

-Learned helplessness -Self-efficacy -Self-esteem -Stress -Social skills -Coping skills

Neurodevelopmental disorders

-Manifest early in development, usually before grade school -Appear as deficits -Generally difficult to treat -Characterized by intellectual disability, communication disorders -Specific diagnoses: autism spectrum disorder, ADHD

Obsessive-compulsive disorders

-Obsessions (thoughts or urges) -Compulsions (repetitive behaviors) -Specific diagnoses: OCD, body dysmorphic disorder, hoarding disorder, trichotillomania

Psychological dependence

-Occurs when a drug becomes central to a person's thoughts, emotions, and activities -Can be demonstrated by a strong urge to use the drug, despite being aware of its harmful effects -It is possible for any drug to lead to psychological dependence

Cluster A (odd/eccentric) of personality disorders

-Paranoid -Schizoid -Schizotypal

Narcolepsy

-Periodic, overwhelming sleepiness during waking periods -These episodes usually last less than 5 minutes but can be extremely dangerous

Parkinson's disease

-Primarily caused by abnormally low dopamine levels -Dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia die off, making it harder to control movements -Dopamine is involved in the sending of messages to areas of the brain that control coordination and movement -Dopamine levels progressively drop in patients with the disease, so their symptoms gradually become more severe -Abnormal aggregates of protein called Lewy bodies develop inside neurons

Humanistic therapy

-Problem: barriers to self-understanding and self-acceptance -Therapy goals: personal growth through self-insight -Example: active listening and unconditional positive regard

Behavioral therapy

-Problem: learned, maladaptive behaviors -Therapy goals: extinguish maladaptive behaviors and learn adaptive ones -Example: systematic desensitization, flooding, aversion therapy

Cognitive behavior therapy

-Problem: maladaptive behaviors and/or self-defeating thoughts -Therapy goals: extinction of undesired thoughts/behaviors, learning adaptive thoughts/behaviors, healthier thinking and self-talk -Example: reconditioning, desensitization

Psychoanalytic therapy

-Problem: unconscious forces and childhood experiences -Therapy goals: reduce anxiety through insight -Example: analysis and interpretation

Disruptive, impulse-control, and conduct disorders

-Problems in self-control of emotions -Behaviors violate the rights of others and/or cause legal trouble -Specific diagnoses: oppositional defiant disorder, intermittent explosive disorder, conduct disorder, pyromania, kleptomania

Autism

-Range of complex neurodevelopmental disorders -Impaired social interaction/development -Impaired communication -Repetitive behavior

Depressive disorders

-Sad, empty, and/or irritable mood -Not related to normal grief -Specific disorders: major depressive disorder, persistent depressive disorder

Psychological disorder

-Set of behavioral and/or psychological symptoms that are not in keeping with cultural norms -Severe enough to cause significant personal distress and/or significant impairment to social, occupational, and personal functioning -Diagnosable and treatable -Stem from biological, sociocultural, and psychological factors

Somnambulism

-Sleep-walking -Tends to occur during slow wave sleep (Stage 3) -Usually during the first third of the night

Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

-Unknown causes -Affects 2-4% of school-aged children -Motor restlessness -Difficulty paying attention -Distractibility -Impulsivity

Night terrors

-Usually occur during Stage 3 (unlike nightmares, which occur during REM) -A person experiencing a night terror may sit up or walk around, babble, and appear terrified

What are the eight AAMC categories of psychological disorders?

1. Anxiety disorders 2. Depressive disorders 3. Bipolar disorders 4. Schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorders 4. Trauma and stressor-related disorders 5. Personality disorders 6. Somatic symptom disorders 7. Dissociative disorders

Prevalence of most common psychological disorders in the US

1. Anxiety disorders, 18% 2. Dissociative disorders, 10% 3. Depressive disorders, 10% 4. Personality disorders, 6% 5. Eating disorders, 6% 6. Somatic symptom disorders, 2% 7. Psychotic disorders, 1%

Which of the following personality disorders is most associated with aggressive behavior against others (or against animals) and an increased tendency to commit crimes? A. Antisocial personality disorder B. Schizotypal personality disorder C. Narcissistic personality disorder D. Histrionic personality disorder

A. Antisocial personality disorder A. A person with antisocial personality disorder has a history of serious behavior problems including significant aggression against people or animals; deliberate property destruction; lying or theft; and serious rule violation. In addition, since age 15, the person has a history of repeatedly disregarding the rights of others in various ways, through illegal activities, dishonesty, impulsiveness, physical fights, disregard for safety, financial irresponsibility, and lack of remorse. A person with schizotypal personality disorder has several traits that cause problems interpersonally, including constricted or inappropriate affect; magical or paranoid thinking; and odd beliefs, speech, behavior, appearance, and perceptions (choice B is wrong). A person with narcissistic personality disorder feels grandiosely self-important, with fantasies of beauty, brilliance, and power. The person feels a desperate need for admiration in variety of contexts, and feels envy both toward and from others. Lacking empathy for others, the person may exploit others, and feel entitled, arrogant, and haughty (choice C is wrong). A person with histrionic personality disorder strongly desires to be the center of attention, and often seeks to attract attention through personal appearance and seductive behavior (choice D is wrong).

Which of the following in NOT a component of attitude? A. Assertion B. Affect C. Behavior D. Cognition

A. Assertion A. According to psychological theory, the three components of attitude are affect, behavior, and cognition (choices B, C and D can be eliminated). Therefore, assertion is not one of the three components (choice A is correct).

According to the optimal arousal theory, under what conditions is one expected to maximize one's performance? A. At moderate levels of emotional arousal B. At extremely low and high levels of emotional arousal C. When performing complex tasks alone D. When performing simple tasks in front of an audience

A. At moderate levels of emotional arousal A. According to the optimal arousal theory (sometimes referred to as the Yerkes-Dodson Law), individuals should perform maximally when they are moderately (not too high or too low) emotionally aroused (choice A is correct; choice B is wrong). The social facilitation effect, not the Yerkes-Dodson Law, suggests that an audience can influence performance; the social facilitation effect predicts that when performing a simple, well-practiced task, people tend to do better in front of an audience (choices C and D are wrong).

Which of the following is NOT true regarding personality? A. Cognitive behaviorists believe that personality is fixed and behavior cannot be modified after a certain age. B. The trait perspective of personality contends that each individual possesses certain personality traits that are relatively stable and enduring. C. According to the social cognitive perspective, personality is formed by a reciprocal interaction among behavioral, cognitive, and environmental factors. D. The behavioristic perspective is concerned only with behavior that can be directly observed and assets that people begin as blank slates and that environmental reinforcement and punishment determine an individual's subsequent behavior and personality characteristics.

A. Cognitive behaviorists believe that personality is fixed and behavior cannot be modified after a certain age. A. Cognitive behaviorists do not believe that personality is fixed, but rather focus on changing maladaptive behaviors through cognitive and behavioral therapeutic approaches which attempt to recondition, desensitize, or reverse negative thought patterns (choice A is not true regarding personality, and is therefore the correct answer). The trait perspective of personality contends that each individual possesses certain personality traits that are relatively stable and enduring; the Five Factor Model of personality suggests that everyone possesses certain source traits which underlie their personality and behavior (choice B is true regarding personality and can therefore be eliminated). According to the social cognitive perspective, personality is formed by a reciprocal interaction among behavioral, cognitive, and environmental factors (choice C is true regarding personality and can therefore be eliminated). The behaviorist perspective asserts that people begin as blank slates, and that environmental reinforcement and punishment completely determine an individual's subsequent behavior and personalities (choice D is true regarding personality and can therefore be eliminated).

Which of the following is characterized by an individual alternating between two or more distinct personality states (or identities)? A. Dissociative identity disorder B. Depersonalization disorder C. Bipolar disorder D. Schizophrenia

A. Dissociative identity disorder A. A person with dissociative identity disorder alternates among two or more distinct personality states (or identities), only one of which interacts with other people at any one time. The identities may vary widely in age, gender, and personality traits, and they may or may not be aware of each other. This disorder was previously known as multiple personality disorder (and many people incorrectly call it schizophrenia). A person with depersonalization disorder has a recurring or persistent feeling of being cut off or detached from his or her body or mental processes, as if observing themselves from the outside (choice B is wrong). Most people with bipolar disorder (formerly called manic depression) experience cyclic mood episodes at both extremes or "poles": depression and mania, but do not generally exhibit two distinct personalities (choice C is wrong). Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder characterized by psychosis, which often include both negative and positive symptoms, but not distinct personalities (choice D is wrong).

Which of the following correctly lists the six universal emotions? A. Happiness, sadness, surprise, fear, disgust, and anger B. Happiness, joy, surprise, fear, disgust, and hatred C. Happiness, joy, surprise, alarm, awareness, and hatred D. Happiness, sadness, alarm, awareness, disgust, and anger

A. Happiness, sadness, surprise, fear, disgust, and anger A. The recognized universal emotions are: happiness, sadness, surprise, fear, disgust, and anger (choice A is correct; choices B, C, and D are wrong).

Which theory of emotion proposes that physiological responses directly lead to the experience of emotion? A. The James-Lange theory B. The Cannon-Bard theory C. The Schachter-Singer theory D. The theory of universal emotions

A. The James-Lange theory A. The James-Lange theory of emotion proposes that physiological responses (such as increased heart rate, sweating, and the behavior that might accompany those responses, like running away) lead directly to the experience of emotion (choice A is correct). The Cannon-Bard theory proposes that physiological responses and emotional responses happen simultaneously (choice B is wrong). The Schachter-Singer theory proposes that a combination of physiological arousal and cognitive interpretation lead to the labeling of emotion (choice C is wrong). The theory of universal emotions suggests that across all cultures, normally developed individuals will all express and be able to detect the following emotions: happiness, sadness, surprise, fear, disgust, and anger (choice D is wrong).

Therapy that targets and attempts to change cognitive distortions is known as: A. cognitive behavioral therapy B. talk therapy C. behavioral therapy D. psychoanalysis

A. cognitive behavioral therapy

In order to be properly labeled a "psychological disorder," behavior must be: A. maladaptive, statistically unusual, characterized by cognitive or perceptual distortion, and considered abnormal in the society in which it occurs. B. statistically unusual, considered abnormal in most societies, characterized by cognitive or perceptual distortion, and maladaptive. C. characterized by cognitive or perceptual distortion, maladaptive, statistically unusual, and amenable to treatment. D. considered abnormal in most societies, statistically unusual, maladaptive, and characterized by cognitive or perceptual distortion.

A. maladaptive, statistically unusual, characterized by cognitive or perceptual distortion, and considered abnormal in the society in which it occurs. A. In order to be correctly labeled "disordered," behavior must meet four criteria. First, the behavior must be maladaptive, i.e., it must impair one's ability to function in one or more situations (all four answer choices list this criterion). Second, the behavior must be statistically unusual; all four answer choices list this criterion as well. Third, the behavior must be characterized by cognitive or perceptual distortion; all four choices list this criterion. Fourth, the behavior must be considered abnormal in the society in which it occurs. The behavior need not be considered abnormal in most societies, as cultural norms differ greatly (choices B and D can be eliminated). Choice C lists "amenable to treatment" as a criterion and there is no such requirement; a psychological disorder can exist even if it cannot be effectively treated (choice C can be eliminated and choice A is correct).

All of the following true of schizophrenia EXCEPT: A. schizophrenia is a personality disorder characterized by both positive and negative symptoms. B. schizophrenia is typically diagnosed in the late teens, 20s or early 30s. C. both genes and environment are thought to contribute to the development of schizophrenia. D. schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder that affects approximately 1% of the population.

A. schizophrenia is a personality disorder characterized by both positive and negative symptoms. A. Make sure to highlight the word EXCEPT and write "A B C D" on your noteboard. Then evaluate each of the answer choices, writing "T" if it is true of schizophrenia or "F" if it is not. Schizophrenia is not a personality disorder (write "F" next to "A" on the noteboard), but rather a psychotic disorder, that is characterized by both positive and negative symptoms. Schizophrenia is typically diagnosed during early adulthood; anywhere from the late teens to early 30s, though diagnoses have been made much earlier and later (write "T" next to "B" on the noteboard). Both genes and environment are thought to contribute to the development of schizophrenia (write "T" next to "C" on the noteboard) and it affects roughly 1% of the population (write "T" next to "D" on the noteboard). Since choice A stands out with an "F" instead of a "T", it is the correct answer choice.

Of the following types of disorders, which is the most prevalent in the U.S? A. Mood disorders B. Anxiety disorders C. Personality disorders D. Psychotic disorders

B. Anxiety disorders B. Anxiety disorders (panic disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, and phobias) are prevalent in about 18% of the U.S. population. Mood disorders (major depressive disorder, dysthymic disorder, and bipolar disorder) are prevalent is about 9.5% of the U.S. population (choice A is wrong). Personality disorders are prevalent in about 9% of the U.S. population (choice C is wrong), and psychotic disorders are prevalent in about 2% of the U.S. population (choice D is wrong).

Which of the following is the major difference between bipolar disorder and major depressive disorder? A. The presence of one or more major depressive episodes B. At least one manic episode C. Impaired concentration and decision-making D. Disrupted sleep patterns

B. At least one manic episode B. While a person suffering from bipolar disorder will experience both major depressive episodes and manic episodes, a person suffering from major depressive disorder will only experience major depressive episodes; therefore, the presence of at least one manic episode is the major difference between bipolar disorder and major depressive disorder (choice A is wrong; choice B is correct). Impaired concentration and decision-making can be symptomatic of both major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder (choice C is wrong); similarly, disrupted sleep patterns can also occur in both mood disorders (choice D is wrong).

Which of the following is NOT true regarding Freud's and Erikson's respective theories of psychological development? A. Both Erikson and Freud believed that personality is shaped by unconscious thoughts, feelings, and memories. B. Freud's first three psychosexual stages (the oral, anal, and phallic) roughly correspond to Erikson's first psychosocial stage, trust vs. mistrust. C. While both Erikson and Freud were part of the psychoanalytic school of thought, Erikson put a much greater emphasis on the social factors that influence personality development. D. Erikson's identity vs. role confusion stage best aligns with Freud's genital stage.

B. Freud's first three psychosexual stages (the oral, anal, and phallic) roughly correspond to Erikson's first psychosocial stage, trust vs. mistrust. B. The first three psychosexual stages of Freud's theory roughly correspond to the first three psychosocial stages of Erikson's theory: the oral stage corresponds to the trust vs. mistrust stage (0-1 years), the anal stage corresponds to the autonomy vs. shame/doubt stage (1-3 years), and the phallic stage corresponds to the initiative vs. guilt stage (choice B is NOT true, and is the correct answer). Both Erikson and Freud were part of the psychoanalytic school of thought, and therefore believed that personality is shaped by unconscious thoughts, feelings, and memories (choice A is true and can be eliminated), however Erikson did put a much greater emphasis on the social factors that influence personality development than Freud did (choice C is true and can be eliminated). Erikson's identity vs. role confusion psychosocial stage does best align with Freud's genital psychosexual stage; both were proposed to occur during adolescence (ages 12-18; choice D is true and can be eliminated).

Sleep spindles and K complexes are most consistent with which stage of sleep? A. NREM1 B. NREM2 C. NREM3 D. REM

B. NREM2

Which of the following is a parasomnia? A. Insomnia B. Night terrors C. Narcolepsy D. Sleep apnea

B. Night terrors B. Night terrors, which occur during stage 3 sleep and usually involve a person bolting upright from sleep with their eyes open and a look of panic (when this occurs the person is inconsolable, but will not remember the incident in the morning), are considered a parasomnia (abnormal behavior that occurs during sleep; choice B is correct). Dyssomnias are defined as abnormalities in the amount, quality, or timing of sleep, and include insomnia (an inability to fall or stay asleep; choice A is wrong), narcolepsy (periodic, overwhelming sleepiness during wakefulness; choice C is wrong), and sleep apnea (intermittent periods of respiration cessation during sleep which results in awakening; choice D is wrong).

Which of the following are Freud's hypothesized psychosexual stages of development? A. Id, ego, and superego B. Oral, anal, phallic, latency, and genital C. Libido and death instinct D. Trust vs. mistrust, autonomy vs. shame/doubt, initiative vs. guilt

B. Oral, anal, phallic, latency, and genital B. The oral, anal, phallic, latency, and genital stages comprise Freud's theory of psychosexual development from infancy to young adulthood (choice B is wrong). Freud's structural model of the psyche divides the psyche into three structures, the id (which contains the impulses and instinctual drives), the superego (which he theorized was internalized morals, often taught by parents), and the ego (which he believed developed to manage the conflicting desires and goals of the other two structures; choice A is wrong). Freud theorized that people's behaviors are driven by two conflicting central desires: the libido (or life drive), which included the instincts to survive, propagate (have sex), eat, and drink, and the death drive; these do not constitute his psychosexual stages of development, however (choice C is wrong). Trust vs. mistrust, autonomy vs. shame/doubt, and initiative vs. guilt are the first three (of a total eight) stages in Erik Erikson's psychosocial theory of development (choice D is wrong).

Brad is a young shelf stocker at a retail store. While his boss appreciates him for his quiet and drama-free work style, she is worried that some of his personal attributes will prevent him from receiving a promotion. Brad is often aloof in the workroom, less out of shyness than an apparent indifference to social interaction. He also strongly prefers to work alone, and has on more than one occasion refused to take part in group activities. His boss suspects that he is equally solitary in his personal life; she knows that he is not dating anyone, and when other workers tease him about girls, he "shuts down" and leaves the room. His boss is worried that his daydreaming is getting to be a problem, as well. She says, "It's almost like he is living a separate life inside his mind." Which of the following might best account for Brad's behavior? A. Anxious-preoccupied attachment style B. Schizoid personality disorder C. Schizophrenia D. Fearful-avoidant attachment style

B. Schizoid personality disorder B. Schizoid personality disorder might best account for Brad's behavior. While people with schizoid personality disorder have a well-developed internal fantasy world, their outer demeanor is often cold, apathetic, and solitary, and individuals seek to minimize emotional contact (of any sort) with others. Anxious-preoccupied attachment style is characterized by a high desire for intimacy coupled with anxiety that one is not a good friend or partner, a reflection of low self-worth. While similar to fearful-avoidant attachment style, the question stem does not give any insight into Brad's internal state, and this description is not consistent with Brad's behavior as reported by his boss (choice A is wrong). Schizophrenia is also characterized by a lack of emotion and can cause work-related problems like Brad's situation, but individuals with schizophrenia often have hallucinations, disorganized speech, and a lack of motivation, none of which are indicated by the description in the question stem (choice C is wrong). Fearful-avoidant attachment style is characterized by desiring close emotional contact, but fearing of other people's intentions and feeling uncomfortable expressing affection. The question stem does not give enough information about Brad's internal state to support this answer choice (choice D is wrong).

Mindfulness meditation: A. induces delta brain waves. B. is associated with improved concentration and lower blood pressure. C. creates a state of high suggestibility in the subject. D. is often used by psychotherapists to target specific unwanted behaviors, such as smoking or phobic reactions.

B. is associated with improved concentration and lower blood pressure. B. Mindfulness meditation is associated with improved overall concentration and lower blood pressure (choice B is correct). It does not induce delta brain waves; it is associated with lower frequency alpha and theta waves (choice A is wrong). Hypnosis, not meditation, creates a state of high suggestibility in the subject. Consequently, unlike meditation, it is often used by psychotherapists to eliminate unwanted behaviors through posthypnotic suggestion (choices C and D are wrong).

According to Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following represents the correct order in which individuals must attain each need? A. safety needs; physiological needs; love needs; esteem needs; self-actualization needs B. physiological needs; safety needs; love needs; esteem needs; self-actualization needs C. physiological needs; safety needs; love needs; self-actualization needs; esteem needs D. safety needs; physiological needs; love needs; self-actualization needs; esteem needs

B. physiological needs; safety needs; love needs; esteem needs; self-actualization needs B. According to Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of needs, individuals must attain each need in the following order: physiological needs (including a need to maintain homeostasis by obtaining food, water, and maintaining body temperature); safety needs (including a need to feel physically safe and protected); love needs (including a need to give and receive love and affection); esteem needs (including the need to achieve self-esteem and a sense of independence); and self-actualization needs (including the need to realize one's full potential and find meaning beyond one's self; choice B includes the correct order and choices A, C, and D are wrong).

The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion proposes that: A. physiological responses lead directly to the experience of emotion. B. physiological responses and emotional responses happen simultaneously. C. a combination of physiological arousal and cognitive interpretation lead to the labeling of emotion. D. an emotional experience is followed by the physiological experience.

B. physiological responses and emotional responses happen simultaneously. B. The Cannon-Bard theory proposes that physiological responses (such as sweating, trembling, and increased heart rate and respiration) and emotional responses happen simultaneously (choice B is correct). The James-Lange (not the Cannon-Bard) theory of emotion proposes that physiological responses occur first, leading directly to the experience of emotion (choice A is wrong). The Schachter-Singer (not the Cannon-Bard) theory proposes that a combination of physiological arousal and cognitive interpretation lead to the labeling of emotion (choice C is wrong). None of the theories of emotion suggest that the physiological experience comes after the emotional experience (choice D is wrong).