Med Comp Review Questions (3)

Afternoon fatigue is most closely associated with which of the following neurologic disorders? a. Multiple sclerosis b. Epilepsy c. Parkinson's disease d. Alzheimer's disease

A

Foreign substances that trigger hypersensitivity reactions are called ________. a. antigens b. pathogens c. pyrogens d. toxoids

A

Oral transplant receipients have unique oral health considerations that are largely related to.__________________________________. a. administration of immunosuppressive medications b. genetic disorders c. triggering an immediate organ rejection d. sizeable oral lesions

A

Parkinson's disease is a disorder of neurons that produce which of the following neurotransmitters? a. Dopamine b. Acetylcholine c. Epinephrine d. Endorphin

A

Secondary Sjögren syndrome (SS-2) is characterized by a triad of clinical conditions that consist of keratoconjunctivitis sicca, a connective tissue disease (usually rheumatoid arthritis), and ________. a. xerostomia b. facial palsy c. a "pencil-in-cup" deformity in patients with interphalangeal joint disease d. transient ischemic attacks (TIAs)

A

Tissue-type plasminogen activator (tPA) is released by _________ cells at the site of injury. a. endothelial b. mesenchymal c. plasma d. polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs)

A

Vitamin K is needed by the liver to produce factor ___. a. II b. V c. VIII d. XI

A

What are Reed-Sternberg cells? a. B lymphocytes b. T lymphocytes c. Natural killer (NK) T lymphocytes d. T suppressor lymphocytes

A

What is a pannus? a. It is excessive proliferative and invasive granulation tissue. b. It is a drug interaction that interferes with platelet function and causes excessive bleeding. c. It is a sudden retrognathia and anterior open bite caused by destruction of the condylar heads and loss of condylar height. d. It is worn subchondral bone that becomes polished and sclerotic.

A

What is defined as an increase in the number of circulating WBCs (lymphocytes or granulocytes) to greater than 11,000/μL? a. Leukocytosis b. Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) c. Leukopenia d. Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)

A

What is the danger of long-term use of immunosuppressive medications? a. Increases the susceptibility of infection and malignancy b. No danger determined c. Will trigger acute rejection episode d. Development of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, or osteoporosis

A

Where in the mouth is mucositis due to radiation therapy most likely to develop? a. Buccal mucosa b. Dorsum of the tongue c. Hard palate d. Gingival epithelium

A

Which of the following are components of protocols to reduce the risk of osteoradionecrosis following radiation to the jaws? a. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy before invasive procedures b. Selection of extraction over endodontic therapy c. Use of lidocaine with epinephrine as a local anesthetic d. Use of lidocaine without epinephrine as a local anesthetic

A

Which of the following is the most common type of cancer in the United States? a. Breast b. Colon c. Lung d. Bone

A

Which of the following is true of Alzheimer's disease? a. y age 85, more than 40% of persons will have developed Alzheimer's disease. b. Onset of Alzheimer's may occur as early as 20 years of age. c. The cause of Alzheimer's is unknown but appears to involve the loss of sympathetic neurons. d. A and B e. B and C

A

Which of the following is true regarding the incidence of cancer in the United States? a. Cancer is second only to heart disease as the leading cause of death in the United States. b. The incidence of cancer has decreased over the past 50 years. c. The death rate from all cancers combined has increased in the past 10 years. d. A, B, and C e. A and C

A

Which of the following medications can be used as a dental local anesthetic if the patient reports previous allergic reaction to an amide local anesthetic? a. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) b. A selective COX-2 inhibitor c. Codeine d. Triamcinolone acetonide (Kenalog) in Orabase

A

Which of the following medications is the primary agent used to treat Parkinson's disease? a. Carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet) b. Pramipexole (Mirapex) c. Tolcapone (Tasmar) d. Entacapone (Comtan)

A

Which of the following medications is the usual initial therapy for giant cell arteritis? a. Glucocorticoids b. Narcotic analgesics c. Antidepressants d. Methotrexate

A

Which of the following types of cancer has the fastest-growing incidence in the United States? a. Basal cell b. Lung c. Breast d. Melanoma

A

Which of the following would be the best choice of restoration for an epileptic patient? a. All-metal fixed prosthesis b. All-porcelain fixed prosthesis c. All-metal removable prosthesis d. All-acrylic removable prosthesis

A

A "starry sky" pattern of lymphocytes interspersed with histiocytes is associated with ________. a. multiple myeloma b. Burkitt lymphoma c. Hodgkin lymphoma d. non-Hodgkin lymphoma

B

Burkitt lymphoma that is found most often in Central Africa is known as ________. a. essential b. endemic c. sporadic d. idiopathic

B

Dysarthria means that the patient will have difficulty _________. a. swallowing b. speaking c. standing d. sitting still

B

Giant cell arteritis (GCA) most commonly affects branches of the ___________ artery. a. maxillary b. carotid c. superior thyroid d. inferior thyroid

B

Immunoglobulins are created by which of the following types of cells? a. T lymphocytes b. B lymphocytes c. Basophils d. Eosinophils

B

More than ____% of oral cancer cases are attributed to SCC, about ____% arise from salivary gland and other tissues, and ____% or so are metastatic from elsewhere in the body. a. 1; 9; 90 b. 90; 9; 1 c. 50; 10; 40 d. 30; 6; 64

B

Pernicious anemia is caused by a deficiency of ________. a. iron b. intrinsic factor c. the enzyme G-6-PD d. erythropoietin

B

Routine dental treatment involving minor tissue injury should be delayed if the platelet count is below _______/μL. a. 10,000 b. 30,000 c. 50,000 d. 70,000

B

Since 1956, it has become standard therapy to use hematopoietic progenitor stem cells as the"graft" to recipient bone marrow, in a procedure known as _____________________. a. allogeneic grafting b. hematopoietic cell transplantation c. graft-versus-host-disease (GVHD) prophylaxis d. stem cell recovery

B

Status epilepticus is __________________. a. the diagnosis of the particular form of epilepsy based on the presence of abnormalities on electroencephalogram (EEG) b. repeated seizures over a short time without a recovery period c. the analysis of the response of motor cortex neurons to long-term drug therapy d. a determination of whether the seizure is partial or generalized

B

The "gold standard" agent for treatment of patients with early rheumatoid arthritis is________. a. penicillamine b. methotrexate c. infliximab d. sulfasalazine

B

The American Cancer Society (ACS) recommends a mammogram and professional clinical examination every year for women __ years of age and over. a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60

B

The current definition of AIDS is the laboratory-confirmed evidence of HIV infection in a person who has stage 3 HIV infection, meaning that the CD4+ lymphocyte count is less than _______ cells/μL. a. 400 b. 200 c. 100 d. 50

B

The medical management of sickle cell anemia in children primarily relies on the use of ________. a. steroids b. antibiotics c. acetaminophen d. blood transfusions

B

The risk of HIV transmission from infected patients to health care workers is about ___% in cases in which a needlestick or other sharp instrument transmitted blood from patient to health care worker. a. 0.03 b. 0.3 c. 3.0 d. 30.0

B

The tongue is commonly infected (in as many as 83%) with _________ in patients with Sicca syndrome (SS). a. Borrelia burgdorferi b. Candida albicans c. Streptococcus mutans d. Helicobacter pylori

B

Use of which of the following medications is recommended if major surgery must be performed under emergency conditions for a patient receiving aspirin therapy? a. Ticlopidine b. Desmopressin c. Abciximab d. Tranexamic acid

B

Warfarin anticoagulation therapy should be continued prior to minor oral surgery and other similarly invasive dental procedures if the INR is __ or less. a. 2.5 b. 3.5 c. 4.5 d. 5.5

B

What can trigger post-transplant lymphoproliferative disease (PTLD)? a. Poor dental health b. When patients are highly immunosuppressed c. Community-acquired infections d. Pneumonia

B

What is synovial fluid derived from? a. Osteoblasts b. Plasma c. Lysosome d. Fibroblasts

B

What is the critical amount ("D"—diameter) in millimeters in the mnemonic ABCDE for melanoma? a. 3 mm b. 6 mm c. 9 mm d. 12 mm

B

What is the minimum time that should be allowed between a tooth extraction and the initiation of chemotherapy for a patient with a white blood cell disorder such as leukemia or lymphoma? a. 1 week b. 2 weeks c. 4 weeks d. 8 weeks

B

What is the primary difference between aspirin and other nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in regard to platelets? a. Aspirin has no effect on platelets, in contrast to the other NSAIDs, which have a marked effect on platelets. b. The effects of aspirin are irreversible for the life of the platelet, whereas the effect of the other NSAIDs on platelets is reversible. c. Aspirin will cause prolonged bleeding, while the other NSAIDs will shorten bleeding time. d. There are no differences between aspirin and other NSAIDs in regard to bleeding time.

B

What should be done if a patient has an epileptic seizure during a dental procedure? a. The patient should be moved from the chair to the floor. b. The chair should be placed in a supine position. c. The patient should be restrained. d. A and B e. B and C

B

Which is the most common granular leukocyte? a. Basophil b. Neutrophil c. Eosinophil d. Monocyte

B

Which of the following antibiotics should not be administered to a patient who is taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) for management of epilepsy? a. Penicillin b. Erythromycin c. Ciprofloxacin d. Cephalexin

B

Which of the following is NOT one of the three phases of dental management of the post-transplant patient? a. Chronic rejection period b. Sustained extraoral immunosuppression period c. Stable graft period d. Immediate post-transplant period

B

Which of the following is a characteristic of stage 2 of HIV infection? a. Predomination of opportunistic infections b. Progressive immunosuppression c. HIV antibody-positive d. CD4+ T count approximates 200 cells/μL

B

Which of the following is recommended as a first-line drug for the treatment of osteoarthritis (OA)? a. Methotrexate b. Acetaminophen c. Celecoxib (Celebrex) d. Cyclosporine

B

Which of the following is the most common cause of arterial thrombosis? a. Malignancy b. Atherosclerosis c. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) d. Hormonal therapy

B

Which of the following is the most common form of arthritis? a. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) b. Osteoarthritis (OA) c. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (jRA) d. Psoriatic rheumatoid arthritis (pRA)

B

Which of the following is the most common intraoral location for non-Hodgkin lymphoma? a. Parotid gland b. Soft palate c. Floor of the mouth d. Posterior lateral border of the tongue

B

Which of the following is the most common method of sexual transmission of HIV in the United States? A. Transmission from injection drug use B. Anal intercourse in men who have sex with men (MSM) C. Male-to-female heterosexual transmission D. Female-to-male heterosexual transmission

B

Which of the following is the most common type of anemia among persons in the United States? a. Hemolytic anemia b. Iron deficiency anemia c. Folate deficiency anemia d. Sickle cell anemia

B

Which of the following is the most common type of breast cancer? a. Infiltrating lobular carcinoma b. Infiltrating ductal carcinoma c. Mucinous carcinoma d. Tubular carcinoma

B

Which of the following is the most common type of opportunistic fungal infection in leukemic patients? a. Torulopsis b. Candidiasis c. Aspergillosis d. Mucormycosis

B

Which of the following is the most important risk factor for intracerebral hemorrhagic stroke? a. High-cholesterol diet b. Hypertension c. Type II diabetes d. Cytomegalovirus

B

Which of the following is true of acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)? a. AML is a neoplasm of mature myeloid WBCs. b. AML has a sudden onset. c. The Philadelphia chromosome is present in more than 90% of cases of AML. d. A and B e. B and C

B

Which of the following is/are true of platelets? a. Platelets have a nucleus. b. There is a reserve of platelets in the microvasculature or spleen. c. Platelets are derived from polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs). d. A, B, and C e. A and C

B

Which of the following is/are true of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? a. SLE is due to wheat gluten allergy. b. SLE is more common in women than in men. c. These patients should be premedicated with antibiotics prior to invasive dental treatment. d. A and B e. B and C

B

Which of the following local anesthetics is associated with the highest incidence of allergic reactions? a. Articaine (Septocaine) b. Procaine (Novocain) c. Lidocaine (Xylocaine) d. Prilocaine (Citanest)

B

Which of the following medications is the best choice for postoperative pain control in a patient taking warfarin (Coumadin)? a. Celecoxib b. Acetaminophen c. Aspirin d. Ibuprofen

B

Which of the following screening tests is used to check the extrinsic pathway (factor VII) and the common pathway (factors V and X, prothrombin, and fibrinogen)? a. Thrombin time b. Prothrombin time c. Partial thromboplastin time d. Platelet count

B

Which of the following types of anemia is associated with a "hair on end" appearance in the cortical regions of a skull film? a. Aplastic anemia b. Sickle cell anemia c. Thalassemia d. Hemolytic anemia

B

Which type of nervous tissue is affected by multiple sclerosis (MS)? a. The dura mater of the brain b. The white matter of the central nervous system (CNS) c. The afferent nerves of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) d. The efferent nerves of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)

B

A platelet count is very effective for identifying patients who have ________. a. von Willebrand disease b. Glanzmann disease c. thrombocytopenia d. uremia

C

Acute rejection of an graft or organ occurs within what timeframe following transplantation? a. 48 hours b. Could happen anytime c. 90 days d. Just under 1 year

C

Calcified atherosclerotic plaques seen in the carotid arteries of elderly and diabetic patientson panoramic images warrant referral to the patient's physician because they indicate anincreased risk for _________. a. cardiac arrhythmia b. orthostatic hypotension c. stroke d. ventricular fibrillation

C

How much of a reduction in salivary flow occurs in the first week after radiation therapy? a. 10% to 20% b. 25% c. 50% to 60% d. 75%

C

Most patients with asthma who react to NSAIDs also have ______. 1. nasal polyps 2. type II diabetes 3. orthostatic hypotension 4. gout a. 1, 3 b. 2, 4 c. 1 d. 2

C

Reed-Sternberg cells are associated with ________________. a. acute lymphocytic leukemia b. chronic lymphocytic leukemia c. Hodgkin lymphoma d. non-Hodgkin lymphoma

C

Sicca syndrome (SS) is characterized by enlargement of which of the following salivary glands? a. Sublingual b. Submandibular c. Parotid d. Minor accessory

C

The "M" in TNM stands for _________. a. medullary b. medial c. metastasis d. monomorphic

C

What are the two types of lupus erythematosus? a. TMJ and OA b. Autoimmune and prototypical c. Discoid and a more generalized systemic form d. Antibody and antinuclear antibodies

C

What is a sanctuary in relation to a patient with acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL)? a. It relates to the use of high-dose chemotherapy prior to a peripheral blood stem cell transplant. b. It is a second remission following a patient relapse. c. It is an area where chemotherapeutic agents cannot reach leukemic cells. d. It means that the number of blast cells has been reduced and the patient is in remission.

C

What is the most common therapy for aplastic anemia? a. Long-term use of erythropoietin b. Cyanocobalamin injections c. Immunosuppression with antithymocyte globulin (ATG) alone or with cyclosporine d. Iron supplements

C

What is the most prominent symptom of multiple myeloma? a. Ascites b. Purpura c. Bone pain d. Paresthesia

C

What presents a very serious and life-threatenting complication typically within the first 100 days for hematopoietic cell transplantation (HCT) patients? a. GVHD b. Graft rejection c. Extremely low blood pressure d. Intense immunosuppression

C

What transplanted organ can be threatened by preexisting pathology, by de novo related to traditional/existing risk factors, or from allograft vasculopathy? a. Liver b. Kidney c. Heart d. Lung

C

What type of transplant patient at particular risk from BK virus infection? a. Heart b. Lung c. Kidney d. Liver

C

Which of the following dental local anesthetics should be avoided in a patient with sickle cell anemia? a. Lidocaine b. Mepivacaine c. Prilocaine d. Articaine

C

Which of the following groups of patients is most susceptible to allergic reactions caused by sulfites? a. Renal dialysis patients b. People with emphysema c. Asthmatics d. Patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

C

Which of the following immunoglobulins is involved in the pathogenesis of type I hypersensitivity reactions? a. IgA b. IgD c. IgE d. IgG

C

Which of the following is a clinical example of a type III hypersensitivity reaction? a. Anaphylaxis due to penicillin allergy b. Transfusion reaction caused by mismatched blood c. Systemic lupus erythematosus d. Contact dermatitis

C

Which of the following is a legitimate reason for a general dentist to make a referral of an asymptomatic HIV-positive patient to an endodontist for endodontic treatment of a molar tooth? a. The general dentist simply does not want to treat a person who is HIV-positive. b. The general dentist feels that the patient is immunocompromised, but the patient refuses to undergo testing for HIV. c. The general dentist does not perform endodontic treatment for molar teeth. d. A and B e. B and C

C

Which of the following is a malignancy of plasma cells? a. Hodgkin lymphoma b. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma c. Multiple myeloma d. Burkitt lymphoma

C

Which of the following is the causative agent of Lyme disease? a. Hodgkin disease b. Dust mites c. Borrelia burgdorferi d. Helicobacter pylori

C

Which of the following is the leading cause of cancer deaths in the United States? a. Colon cancer b. Breast cancer c. Lung cancer d. Bone cancer

C

Which of the following is the leading cause of long-term disability in the United States? a. Heart disease b. Renal failure c. Stroke d. Arthritis

C

Which of the following is the major etiologic agent of cervical cancer? a. Somatic genetic abnormalities b. Birth control pills c. Human papillomaviruses d. Unknown

C

Which of the following is the most common form of psoriatic arthritis? a. Selective targeting of the distal interphalangeal joints b. Psoriatic spondylitis c. An asymmetric oligoarthritis that may involve both large and small joints d. A symmetric polyarthritis that mimics rheumatoid arthritis except for the absence of rheumatoid nodules and rheumatoid factor

C

Which of the following is the most important risk factor for breast cancer? a. Smoking b. Exposure to carcinogens c. Genetics d. Nulliparity

C

Which of the following is the most significant oral complication of rheumatoid arthritis? a. Salivary gland dysfunction (xerostomia) b. Burning tongue syndrome (glossodynia) c. Temporomandibular joint disorder (TMJ) involvement d. Vesiculobullous lesions

C

Which of the following is the preferred approach for evaluating a patient for colorectal cancer? a. Sigmoidoscopy b. Digital rectal examination c. Colonoscopy d. Barium enema with air contrast

C

Which of the following is the prominent radiographic feature of multiple myeloma? a. "Hair on end" pattern b. "Hround glass" pattern c. "Punched out" lesions d. "Sunburst" pattern

C

Which of the following is/are true of Hodgkin lymphoma (HL)? a. HL is the most common neoplasm of childhood. b. The cure rate for HL is less than 10%. c. The cause of HL is unknown, but Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is present in malignant lymphocytes in 50% of cases in the Western world. d. A and B e. B and C

C

Which of the following medications approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for the management of moderate to severe Alzheimer's disease? a. Rivastigmine (Exelon) b. Tacrine (Cognex) c. Memantine (Axura) d. Donepezil (Aricept)

C

Which of the following represents an acceptable expanded postexposure prophylaxis regimen (PEP) after exposure to HIV-infected blood? 1. Tenofovir plus emtricitabine 2. Zidovudine plus lamivudine 3. Ritonavir-boosted (/r) lopinavir a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 2 c. 1, 3 d. 3

C

Which of the following serves as the primary sensor in the body for determining oxygenation of the blood? a. Gastrointestinal tract b. Lungs c. Kidney d. Liver

C

Which of the following three tests are recommended for use by the dentist in initial screening for possible bleeding disorders? a. Ivy bleeding time (BT), platelet function analyzer (PFA-100), and prothrombin time (PT) b. Ivy bleeding time (BT), prothrombin time (PT), and platelet count c. activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), prothrombin time (PT), and plateletcount d. platelet function analyzer (PFA-100), activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), and prothrombin time (PT)

C

Which of the following types of food contain folate? a. Red meat b. Grains c. Leafy vegetables d. A and B e. B and C

C

Which of the following types of gingival is associated with the HIV-positive patient? a. Papillary gingivitis b. Diffuse gingivitis c. Linear gingival erythema d. Desquamative gingivitis

C

Which of the following types of transplant recipients has the highest reported 1-year patient survival rate? a. Liver b. Intestine c. Kidney d. Lung

C

Which type of T lymphocyte body defense cell normally protects against cancer cells? a. T memory b. T helper c. T natural killer d. T suppressor

C

A deferral of dental treatment is advised for ____________ when treating a patient with a history of stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA). a. 3 weeks b. 6 weeks c. 3 months d. 6 months

D

Activation of factor ___ serves as a common link between the component parts of the homeostatic mechanism: blood coagulation, fibrinolytic, kinin, and complement systems. a. II b. V c. VII d. XII

D

Contact stomatitis is considered to be type __ hypersensitivity. a. I b. II c. III d. IV

D

HCT is another way of labeling what kind of transplantation? a. Pancreas b. Intestine c. Composite tissue d. Bone marrow

D

How far in advance should the completion of all non-elective dental treatment take place prior to a transplantation? a. 6 to 8 weeks b. 6 months c. 1 week minimum d. 2 weeks

D

How should a patient be positioned in the initial management of an allergic reaction? a. Seated upright in a chair b. Standing c. Prone d. Supine

D

Most bleeding disorders are ________. a. due to a platelet deficiency b. due to a deficiency in von Willebrand factor c. due to Hemophilia A d. iatrogenic

D

Reduction of systolic blood pressure by 10 mm Hg is associated with a __% reduction in the risk for ischemic stroke. a. 3 b. 13 c. 23 d. 33

D

The 2015 joint advisory statement by the American Dental Association (ADA) and the American Academy of Orthopedic Surgeons (AAOS) indicated that antibiotic prophylaxis prior to dental treatment should not be considered for ________. a. patients with rheumatoid arthritis b. patients with pins, plates, and screws in joints c. any patients with any level of infection d. patients with prosthetic joints.

D

The median time from primary infection to the development of AIDS in untreated patients is about ________ following HIV exposure. A. 2 to 6 weeks B. 6 months C. 2 to 3 years D. 10 years

D

The risk for a second oral cancer in smokers whose habits remain unchanged is about __%, as compared with 13% for those who quit smoking. a. 15 b. 20 c. 25 d. 30

D

What is the most common oral manifestation of HIV infection worldwide? a. Hairy leukoplakia b. Kaposi sarcoma c. Necrotizing stomatitis d. Candidiasis

D

What is the primary risk patients face following a transplant? a. Bleeding difficult to stop b. Renal insufficiency c. Immediate return to the pre-transplant disease status d. Infection

D

Which of the following clinical laboratory tests is used to screen patients for thrombocytopenia? a. PT b. aPTT c. TT d. Platelet count

D

Which of the following is the best laboratory test to monitor patients using warfarin? a. BT b. PT c. aPTT d. INR

D

Which of the following is the most common cause of seizures? a. Head trauma b. Cavernous malformation c. Cerebrovascular disease d. Idiopathic

D

Which of the following is the most common manifestation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? a. Psychosis b. Renal abnormalities c. Heart murmur d. Arthritis

D

Which of the following is the most common type of leukemia in adults? a. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML). b. Acute myelogenous leukemia c. Acute lymphocytic leukemia d. Chronic lymphocytic leNukeRmiaI

D

Which of the following is the most popular antiplatelet drug? a. Clopidogrel b. Dipyridamole c. Eptifibatide d. Aspirin

D

Which of the following is the single best screening test for coagulation disorders? a. Platelet count b. Thrombin time c. Prothrombin time d. Partial thromboplastin time

D

Which of the following is true of aplastic anemia? a. It is most common in children. b. It is caused by a deficiency of intrinsic factor. c. It is the most common enzymopathy of humans. d. It occurs when hematopoietic stem cells are unable to proliferate, differentiate, or give rise to mature blood cells.

D

Which of the following is used to make a diagnosis of breast cancer? a. Breast pain b. Nipple discharge c. Mammography d. Biopsy

D

Which of the following represents first-line therapy for both transplant rejection and GVHD? a. Rituximab, alemtuzumab, and extracorporeal photopheresis b. Surgical management of graft failure c. Daily chlorhexidine gluconate rinses d. Corticosteroids

D

Which of the following should be a major consideration when planning dental treatment for the patient with HIV infection/AIDS? a. Current CD4+ lymphocyte count b. Immunosuppression level c. Level of viral load d. All of the above.

D

Which of the following types of hypersensitivity reactions involves the cellular immune system? a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV

D

Which type of anemia might a patient have if the dental professional noticed a loss of papillae from the tongue and atrophic changes in the oral mucosa? a. Plummer-Vinson syndrome b. Aplastic c. Hemolytic d. Iron deficiency

D

Which of the following characteristics is used to distinguish fibromyalgia (FM) from myofascial pain syndrome (MFP)? a. Regional rather than widespread muscular pain is associated with FM. b. The pain in FM is relatively stable and consistent in contrast to MFP. c. When the muscle pain is primarily due to the FM, it may not respond as well as the jaw pain from MFP because FM is a systemic and not a local condition. d. A and B e. B and C

E

Which of the following is/are true of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? a. The most common cause of DIC worldwide is snakebite. b. The major clinical problem with DIC is thrombosis. c. DIC is a condition that results when the clotting system is activated in all or a major part of the vascular system. d. A, B, and C e. A and C

E

Which of the following is/are true of the epidemiology of epileptic seizures? a. Seizures are most common in adolescents and young adults. b. The incidence of seizures in males is higher at every age. c. Approximately 10% of the population will have at least one epileptic seizure in a lifetime. d. A and B e. B and C

E