Med-Surg 1 Final Exam Guide

The hospice nurse has just admitted a new patient to the program. What principle guides hospice care? A) Care addresses the needs of the patient as well as the needs of the family. B) Care is focused on the patient centrally and the family peripherally. C) The focus of all aspects of care is solely on the patient. D) The care team prioritizes the patients physical needs and the family is responsible for the patients emotional needs.

A) Care addresses the needs of the patient as well as the needs of the family.

A teenage client is brought to the emergency department with symptoms of hyperglycemia. Based on the fact that the pancreatic beta cells are being destroyed, the client would be diagnosed with what type of diabetes? A. Type 1 diabetes B. Type 2 diabetes C. Non-insulin-dependent diabetes D. Prediabetes

ANS: A Rationale: Beta cell destruction is the hallmark of type 1 diabetes. Non-insulin-dependent diabetes is synonymous with type 2 diabetes, which involves insulin resistance and impaired insulin secretion, but not beta cell destruction. Prediabetes is characterized by normal glucose metabolism, but a previous history of hyperglycemia, often during illness or pregnancy.

A client with gastritis required hospital treatment for an exacerbation of symptoms and receives a subsequent diagnosis of pernicious anemia due to malabsorption. When planning the client's continuing care in the home setting, what assessment question is most relevant? A. "Does anyone in your family have experience at giving injections?" B. "Are you going to be anywhere with strong sunlight in the next few months?" C. "Are you aware of your blood type?" D. "Do any of your family members have training in first aid?"

ANS: A Rationale: Clients with malabsorption of vitamin B12 need information about lifelong vitamin B12 injections; the nurse may instruct a family member or caregiver how to administer the injections or make arrangements for the client to receive the injections from a health care provider. Questions addressing sun exposure, blood type and first aid are not directly relevant.

The nurse has created a plan of care for a client who is at risk for increased ICP. The client's care plan should specify monitoring for what early sign of increased ICP? A. Disorientation and restlessness B. Decreased pulse and respirations C. Projectile vomiting D. Loss of corneal reflex

ANS: A Rationale: Early indicators of ICP include disorientation and restlessness. Later signs include decreased pulse and respirations, projectile vomiting, and loss of brain stem reflexes, such as the corneal reflex.

The clinic nurse is caring for an adult oncology client who reports extreme fatigue and weakness after the first week of radiation therapy. Which response by the nurse would best reassure this client? A. "These symptoms usually result from radiation therapy; however, we will continue to monitor your laboratory studies and test results." B. "These symptoms are part of your disease and are an unfortunately inevitable part of living with cancer." C. "Try not to be concerned about these symptoms. Every client feels this way after having radiation therapy." D. "Even though it is uncomfortable, this is a good sign. It means that only the cancer cells are dying."

ANS: A Rationale: Fatigue and weakness result from radiation treatment and usually do not represent deterioration or disease progression. The symptoms associated with radiation therapy usually decrease after therapy ends. The symptoms may concern the client and should not be belittled. Radiation destroys both cancerous and normal cells.

A client has been living with type 2 diabetes for several years, and the nurse realizes that the client is likely to have minimal contact with the health care system. In order to ensure that the client maintains adequate blood sugar control over the long term, what should the nurse recommend? A. Participation in a support group for persons with diabetes B. Regular consultation of websites that address diabetes management C. Weekly telephone "check-ins" with an endocrinologist D. Participation in clinical trials relating to antihyperglycemics

ANS: A Rationale: Participation in support groups is encouraged for clients who have had diabetes for many years as well as for those who are newly diagnosed. This is more interactive and instructive than simply consulting websites. Weekly telephone contact with an endocrinologist is not realistic in most cases. Participation in research trials may or may not be beneficial and appropriate, depending on clients' circumstances.

The home health nurse is performing a home visit for an oncology client discharged three days ago after completing chemotherapy treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The nurse's priority assessment should include examination for the signs and symptoms of which complication? A. Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) B. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) D. Hypercalcemia

ANS: A Rationale: TLS is a potentially fatal complication that occurs spontaneously or more commonly following radiation, biotherapy, or chemotherapy-induced cell destruction of large or rapidly growing cancers such as leukemia, lymphoma, and small-cell lung cancer. DIC, SIADH, and hypercalcemia are less likely complications following this treatment and diagnosis.

A client who experienced a large upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleed due to gastritis has had the bleeding controlled and is now stable. For the next several hours, the nurse caring for this client should assess for what signs and symptoms of recurrence? A. Tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea B. Tarry, foul-smelling stools C. Diaphoresis and sudden onset of abdominal pain D. Sudden thirst, unrelieved by oral fluid administration

ANS: A Rationale: Tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea are signs of recurrent bleeding. Clients who have had one GI bleed are at risk for recurrence. Tarry stools are expected short-term findings after a hemorrhage. Hemorrhage is not normally associated with sudden thirst or diaphoresis.

A client with an exacerbation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) has been hospitalized on a medical unit. The nurse observes that the client expresses anger and irritation when the call bell isn't answered immediately. Which response would be the most appropriate? A. "You seem like you're feeling angry. Is that something that we could talk about?" B. "Try to remember that stress can make your symptoms worse." C. "Would you like to talk about the problem with the nursing supervisor?" D. "I can see you're angry. I'll come back when you've calmed down."

ANS: A Rationale: The changes and the unpredictable course of SLE necessitate expert assessment skills and nursing care, as well as sensitivity to the psychological reactions of the client. Offering to listen to the client express anger can help the nurse and the client understand its cause and begin to deal with it. Although stress can exacerbate the symptoms of SLE, telling the client to calm down doesn't acknowledge the client's feelings. Ignoring the client's feelings suggests that the nurse has no interest in what the client has said. Offering to get the nursing supervisor also does not acknowledge the client's feelings.

A nurse is assessing the skin integrity of a client who has AIDS. When performing this inspection, the nurse should prioritize assessment of what skin surfaces? A. Perianal region and oral mucosa B. Sacral region and lower abdomen C. Scalp and skin over the scapulae D. Axillae and upper thorax

ANS: A Rationale: The nurse should inspect all the client's skin surfaces and mucous membranes, but the oral mucosa and perianal region are particularly vulnerable to skin breakdown and fungal infection.

A nurse is working with a client with rheumatic disease who is being treated with salicylate therapy. What statement would indicate that the client is experiencing adverse effects of this drug? A. "I have this ringing in my ears that just won't go away." B. "I feel so foggy in the mornings and it takes me so long to wake up." C. "When I eat a meal that's high in fat, I get really nauseous." D. "I seem to have lost my appetite, which is unusual for me."

ANS: A Rationale: Tinnitus is associated with salicylate therapy. Salicylates do not normally cause drowsiness, intolerance of high-fat meals, or anorexia.

The nurse is caring for a client who has just been told that the client's stage IV colon cancer has recurred and metastasized to the liver. The oncologist offers the client the option of surgery to treat the progression of this disease. What type of surgery does the oncologist offer? A. Palliative B. Reconstructive C. Salvage D. Prophylactic

ANS: A Rationale: When cure is not possible, the goals of treatment are to make the client as comfortable as possible and to promote quality of life as defined by the client and family. Palliative surgery is performed in an attempt to relieve complications of cancer, such as ulceration, obstruction, hemorrhage, pain, and malignant effusion. Reconstructive surgery may follow curative or radical surgery in an attempt to improve function or obtain a more desirable cosmetic effect. Salvage surgery is an additional treatment option that uses an extensive surgical approach to treat the local recurrence of a cancer after the use of a less extensive primary approach. Prophylactic surgery involves removing nonvital tissues or organs that are at increased risk to develop cancer.

A client is admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of intestinal obstruction. When planning this client's care, which of the following nursing diagnoses should the nurse prioritize? A. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to bowel ischemia B. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to impaired absorption C. Anxiety related to bowel obstruction and subsequent hospitalization D. Impaired skin integrity related to bowel obstruction

ANS: A Rationale: When the bowel is completely obstructed, the possibility of strangulation and tissue necrosis (i.e., tissue death) warrants surgical intervention. As such, this immediate physiologic need is a nursing priority. Nutritional support and management of anxiety are necessary, but bowel ischemia is a more immediate threat. Skin integrity is not threatened.

During a code blue, a nurse sustained a needlestick injury from a client whose human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) status was unknown. The nursing supervisor is notified, an incident report is generated, and a post-HIV exposure prophylaxis checklist is started for this nurse. In which order would the checklist be implemented? A. Administer post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) medication. B. Advise exposed health care providers to use precautions. C. Get counseling at the time of exposure. D. Undergo early reevaluation after exposure. E. Determine the HIV status of the client.

ANS: A, B, C, D, E Rationale : It is important to determine the client's HIV status through rapid testing (if possible) to help guide the appropriate use of PEP medications (as needed). The nurse should receive counseling at the time of exposure. Part of that counseling is to advise the nurse (health care provider) to use precautions (barrier conception, avoid blood donation, pregnancy and breast-feeding) to prevent secondary transmission. PEP medication (if needed) then is given. And the nurse (in this case) is recommended to undergo early reevaluation within 72 hours after exposure.

A nurse is performing the admission assessment of a client who has AIDS. What components should the nurse include in this comprehensive assessment? Select all that apply. A. Current medication regimen B. Identification of client's support system C. Immune system function D. Genetic risk factors for HIV E. History of sexual practices

ANS: A, B, C, E Rationale: Nursing assessment includes numerous focuses, including identification of medication use, support system, immune function, and sexual history. HIV does not have a genetic component.

A female client who is HIV negative arrives for a gynecologist appointment and reports that her husband, who is HIV positive, no longer wants to wear a latex condom. Which alternative treatments would the nurse recommend to reduce the likelihood of HIV transmission? Select all that apply. A. Dental dam B. Polyurethane female condom C. Microbicidal vaginal suppository D. Non-latex male condoms E. Pre-exposure prophylaxis

ANS: A, B, E Rationale: A dental dam, which is a flat piece of latex, can be used for oral contact with the vagina or penis. A polyurethane female condom is an effective contraceptive and also effective in preventing the transmission of HIV. Pre-exposure prophylaxis involves one pill containing 2 HIV medications daily to prevent HIV conversion. A microbicidal vaginal suppository is currently not a reality, although clinical trials are occurring. Non-latex/lambskin male condoms will not protect the client from HIV due to permeability. Breakage is usually related to polyurethane condoms, which are more effective than lambskin.

A health care provider is taking post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) medications for exposure to a client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which topics will the health care provider need to understand regarding PEP administration prior to beginning this regimen? Select all that apply. A. Potential drug toxicities B. Needed dietary changes C. Potential drug interactions D. Sleep pattern disturbances E. Adherence requirements

ANS: A, C, E Rationale: The health care provider will need to understand potential drug toxicities, such as rashes and hypersensitivity reactions, which could imitate acute HIV seroconversion and require monitoring. The health care provider will also need to understand potential drug interactions, such as with supplements and vitamins, which could change the effectiveness of PEP. The health care provider will also need to understand adherence requirements, as adherence to the daily use of the PEP is paramount to its effectiveness. Typically, for most of PEP, there are no specific dietary changes needed. Sleep pattern disturbances generally do not happen with administration of these medications.

The nurse is applying standard precautions in the care of a client who has an immunodeficiency. What are key elements of standard precautions? Select all that apply. A. Using appropriate personal protective equipment B. Placing clients in negative pressure isolation rooms C. Placing clients in positive pressure isolation rooms D. Using safe injection practices E. Performing hand hygiene

ANS: A, D, E Rationale: Some of the key elements of standard precautions include performing hand hygiene; using appropriate personal protective equipment, depending on the expected type of exposure; and using safe injection practices. Isolation is an infection control strategy but is not a component of standard precautions.

A nurse is caring for a client who just has been diagnosed with a peptic ulcer. When teaching the client about his new diagnosis, how should the nurse best describe it? A. Inflammation of the lining of the stomach B. Erosion of the lining of the stomach or intestine C. Bleeding from the mucosa in the stomach D. Viral invasion of the stomach wall

ANS: B Rationale: A peptic ulcer is erosion of the lining of the stomach or intestine. Peptic ulcers are often accompanied by bleeding and inflammation, but these are not the definitive characteristics.

A client with rheumatoid arthritis comes to the clinic reporting pain in the joint of his right great toe and is eventually diagnosed with gout. When planning teaching for this client, what management technique should the nurse emphasize? A. Take OTC calcium supplements consistently. B. Restrict consumption of foods high in purines. C. Ensure fluid intake of at least 4 L per day. D. Restrict weight-bearing on right foot.

ANS: B Rationale: Although severe dietary restriction is not necessary, the nurse should encourage the client to restrict consumption of foods high in purines, especially organ meats. Calcium supplementation is not necessary and activity should be maintained as tolerated. Increased fluid intake is beneficial, but it is not necessary for the client to consume more than 4 L daily.

A nurse is performing the initial assessment of a client who has a recent diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which skin manifestation would the nurse expect to observe on inspection? A. Petechiae B. Erythematous rash C. Jaundice D. Skin sloughing

ANS: B Rationale: An acute cutaneous lesion consisting of an erythematous (butterfly-shaped) rash across the bridge of the nose and cheeks occurs in SLE. Petechiae are pinpoint skin hemorrhages, which are not a clinical manifestation of SLE. Clients with SLE do not typically experience jaundice or skin sloughing.

A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease has presented to the emergency department (ED) in distress. What assessment finding would lead the ED nurse to suspect that the client has a perforated ulcer? A. The client has abdominal bloating that developed rapidly. B. The client has a rigid, "board-like" abdomen that is tender. C. The client is experiencing intense lower right quadrant pain. D. The client is experiencing dizziness and confusion with no apparent hemodynamic changes.

ANS: B Rationale: An extremely tender and rigid (board-like) abdomen is suggestive of a perforated ulcer. None of the other listed signs and symptoms is suggestive of a perforated ulcer.

A client is hospitalized because a large abdominal tumor was seen on the computed tomography scan. A biopsy is ordered, and the client wants to know if "this will cause a big scar." Which type of biopsy will this client likely experience? A. Excisional B. Incisional C. Needle D. Fine needle

ANS: B Rationale: An incisional biopsy is performed if the tumor is too large to be removed. An excisional biopsy is used for small, easily accessible tumors. Needle biopsy is performed to sample suspicious masses that are easily and safely accessible. Fine needle biopsy aspirates cells rather than tissue. Needle biopsies are usually done in an outpatient setting. The biopsy type is chosen based on size, location, and whether a cancer diagnosis was confirmed. The client will have a scar and the size will depend on whether it will be performed by endoscopy or laparotomy.

A nurse is planning client education for a client being discharged home with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. The client has been prescribed antimalarials for treatment, so the nurse knows to teach the client to self-monitor for what adverse effect? A. Tinnitus B. Visual changes C. Stomatitis D. Hirsutism

ANS: B Rationale: Antimalarials may cause visual changes; regular ophthalmologic examinations are necessary. Tinnitus is associated with salicylate therapy and hirsutism is associated with corticosteroid therapy. Antimalarials do not normally cause stomatitis.

A nurse is aware of the high incidence of catheter-related bloodstream infections in clients receiving parenteral nutrition. What nursing action has the greatest potential to reduce catheter-related bloodstream infections? A. Use clean technique and wear a mask during dressing changes. B. Change the dressing no more than weekly. C. Apply antibiotic ointment around the site with each dressing change. D. Irrigate the insertion site with sterile water during each dressing change.

ANS: B Rationale: CVAD dressings are changed every 7 days unless the dressing is damp, bloody, loose, or soiled, in which case they should be changed more often. Sterile technique (not clean technique) is used. Irrigation and antibiotic ointments are not normally used.

A client newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes has been told by their family that they can no longer consume alcohol. The client asks the nurse if abstaining from all alcohol is necessary. What is the nurse's best response? A. "You should stop all alcohol intake. Alcohol is absorbed by your body before other important nutrients and may lead to very high blood glucose levels." B. "You do not need to give up alcohol entirely but there are potential side effects specific to clients with diabetes that you should consider." C. "You should no longer consume alcohol since it causes immediate low blood glucose levels in diabetic clients." D. "You can still consume alcohol, but limit your consumption to no more than 3 glasses of wine or beer daily because of the high sugar content of alcohol."

ANS: B Rationale: Clients with diabetes do not need to give up alcoholic beverages entirely. Moderation is the key. Moderate intake is no more than 1 alcoholic beverage (light beer, wine) for women and 2 drinks for men daily. Recommendations include avoiding mixed drinks and liqueurs because of the possibility of excessive weight gain, elevated glucose levels, and hyperlipidemia. Clients should be aware of potential side effects of alcohol consumption. These include diabetic ketoacidosis and hypoglycemia To combat possible hypoglycemia, clients with diabetes should not consume alcohol on an empty stomach.

A client has recently received a diagnosis of gastric cancer; the nurse is aware of the importance of assessing the client's level of anxiety. Which of the following actions is most likely to accomplish this? A. The nurse gauges the client's response to hypothetical outcomes. B. The client is encouraged to express fears openly. C. The nurse provides detailed and accurate information about the disease. D. The nurse closely observes the client's body language.

ANS: B Rationale: Encouraging the client to discuss his or her fears and anxieties is usually the best way to assess a client's anxiety. Presenting hypothetical situations is a surreptitious and possibly inaccurate way of assessing anxiety. Observing body language is part of assessment, but it is not the complete assessment. Presenting information may alleviate anxiety for some clients, but it is not an assessment.

A client with HIV will be receiving care in the home setting. What aspect of self-care should the nurse emphasize during discharge education? A. Appropriate use of prophylactic antibiotics B. Importance of personal hygiene C. Signs and symptoms of wasting syndrome D. Strategies for adjusting antiretroviral dosages

ANS: B Rationale: Infection control is of high importance in clients living with HIV, thus personal hygiene is paramount. This is a more important topic than signs and symptoms of one specific complication (wasting syndrome). Drug dosages should never be independently adjusted. Prophylactic antibiotics are not normally prescribed unless the client's CD4+ count is below 50.

A client exhibiting an altered level of consciousness (LOC) due to blunt force trauma to the head is admitted to the emergency department (ED). The nurse should first gauge the client's LOC on the results of what diagnostic tool? A. Monro-Kellie hypothesis B. Glasgow Coma scale C. Cranial nerve function D. Mental status examination

ANS: B Rationale: LOC, a sensitive indicator of neurologic function, is assessed based on the criteria in the Glasgow Coma scale: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. The Monro-Kellie hypothesis states that because of the limited space for expansion within the skull, an increase in any one of the components (blood, brain tissue, cerebrospinal fluid) causes a change in the volume of the others. Cranial nerve function and the mental status examination would be part of the neurologic examination for this client, but would not be the priority in evaluating LOC. Glasgow coma scale can be done quickly and establishes a baseline of neurologic function.

A client's most recent diagnostic imaging has revealed that lung cancer has metastasized to the bones and liver. What is the most likely mechanism by which the client's cancer cells spread? A. Apoptosis B. Lymphatic circulation C. Invasion D. Angiogenesis

ANS: B Rationale: Lymph and blood are key mechanisms by which cancer cells spread. Lymphatic spread (the transport of tumor cells through the lymphatic circulation) is the most common mechanism of metastasis. Apoptosis is a normal cell mechanism of programmed cellular death that helps eliminate cells that have DNA mutations to prevent disease. Cancer cells, however, can bypass this protective function, survive, and proliferate. Therefore, apoptosis would prevent the spread of cancer, not promote it. Invasion in cancer is the direct extension and penetration by cancer cells through neighboring tissue; the bones and liver in this case, however, are not neighboring tissues. Angiogenesis is the growth of new blood vessels that allow cancer cells to grow. However, it, in itself, is not a mechanism by which cancer cells spread.

The nurse is providing care for a client who is unconscious. What nursing intervention takes highest priority? A. Maintaining accurate records of intake and output B. Maintaining a patent airway C. Inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube as prescribed D. Providing appropriate pain control

ANS: B Rationale: Maintaining a patent airway always takes top priority, even though each of the other listed actions is necessary and appropriate.

The nurse is discussing macrovascular complications of diabetes with a client. The nurse would address what topic during this dialogue? A. The need for frequent eye examinations for clients with diabetes B. The fact that clients with diabetes have an elevated risk of myocardial infarction C. The relationship between kidney function and blood glucose levels D. The need to monitor urine for the presence of albumin

ANS: B Rationale: Myocardial infarction and stroke are considered macrovascular complications of diabetes, while the effects on vision and kidney function are considered to be microvascular.

The nurse is caring for a client with an advanced stage of breast cancer and the client has recently learned that the cancer has metastasized. The nurse enters the room and finds the client struggling to breathe, and the nurse's rapid assessment reveals that the client's jugular veins are distended. The nurse should suspect the development of what oncologic emergency? A. Increased intracranial pressure B. Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS) C. Spinal cord compression D. Metastatic tumor of the neck

ANS: B Rationale: SVCS occurs when there is gradual or sudden impaired venous drainage giving rise to progressive shortness of breath (dyspnea), cough, hoarseness, chest pain, and facial swelling; edema of the neck, arms, hands, and thorax and reported sensation of skin tightness and difficulty swallowing; as well as possibly engorged and distended jugular, temporal, and arm veins. Increased intracranial pressure may be a part of SVCS, but it is not what is causing the client's symptoms. The scenario does not mention a problem with the client's spinal cord. The scenario says that the cancer has metastasized, but not that it has metastasized to the neck.

A client has just been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. The health care provider has prescribed an oral antidiabetic agent that will inhibit the production of glucose by the liver and thereby aid in the control of blood glucose. What type of oral antidiabetic agent did the health care provider prescribe for this client? A. A sulfonylurea B. A biguanide C. A thiazolidinedione D. An alpha-glucosidase inhibitor

ANS: B Rationale: Sulfonylureas exert their primary action by directly stimulating the pancreas to secrete insulin, and therefore require a functioning pancreas to be effective. Biguanides inhibit the production of glucose by the liver and are in used in type 2 diabetes to control blood glucose levels. Thiazolidinediones enhance insulin action at the receptor site without increasing insulin secretion from the beta cells of the pancreas. Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors work by delaying the absorption of glucose in the intestinal system, resulting in a lower postprandial blood glucose level.

A nurse is reviewing the trend of a client's scores on the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). This provides what potential information to the nurse about the client's status? A. The client's level of knowledge about preceding events B. An assessment of the client's current level of consciousness C. An assessment of the client's lowest verbal and physical response to stimuli D. An in-depth and real-time neurological assessment of the client's condition

ANS: B Rationale: The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) examines three responses related to level of consciousness (LOC): eye opening, best verbal response, and best motor response. It is particularly useful for monitoring changes during the acute phase, the first few days after a head injury. It does not take the place of an in-depth neurologic assessment and does not provide knowledge about proceeding events.

When discussing with a client factors that distinguish malignant cells from benign cells of the same tissue type, which characteristic should the nurse mention? A. Slow rate of mitosis of cancer cells B. Different proteins in the cell membrane C. Differing size of the cells D. Different molecular structure in the cells

ANS: B Rationale: The cell membrane of malignant cells also contains proteins called tumor-associated antigens (e.g., carcinoembryonic antigen [CEA] and prostate-specific antigen [PSA]), which develop over time as the cells become less differentiated (mature). These proteins distinguish malignant cells from benign cells of the same tissue type.

An oncology nurse educator is providing health education to a client who has been diagnosed with skin cancer. The client's wife has asked about the differences between normal cells and cancer cells. What characteristic of a cancer cell should the educator cite? A. Malignant cells possess greater mobility than normal body cells. B. Malignant cells contain proteins called tumor-associated antigens. C. Chromosomes contained in cancer cells are more durable and stable than those of normal cells. D. The nuclei of cancer cells are unusually large, but regularly shaped.

ANS: B Rationale: The cell membranes are altered in cancer cells, which affect fluid movement in and out of the cell. The cell membrane of malignant cells also contains proteins called tumor-associated antigens. Typically, nuclei of cancer cells are large and irregularly shaped (pleomorphism), though they are not always mobile. Fragility of chromosomes is commonly found when cancer cells are analyzed.

A client admitted with acute diverticulitis has experienced a sudden increase in temperature and reports a sudden onset of exquisite abdominal tenderness. The nurse's rapid assessment reveals that the client's abdomen is uncharacteristically rigid on palpation. What is the nurse's best response? A. Administer a Fleet enema as prescribed and remain with the client. B. Contact the primary care provider promptly and report these signs of perforation. C. Position the client supine and insert an NG tube. D. Page the primary provider and report that the client may be obstructed.

ANS: B Rationale: The client's change in status is suggestive of perforation, which is a surgical emergency. Obstruction does not have this presentation involving fever and abdominal rigidity. An enema would be strongly contraindicated. An order is needed for NG insertion and repositioning is not a priority.

The public health nurse is presenting a health promotion class to a group at a local community center. Which intervention most directly addresses the leading cause of cancer deaths in North America? A. Monthly self-breast exams B. Smoking cessation C. Annual colonoscopies D. Monthly testicular exams

ANS: B Rationale: The leading causes of cancer death, in order of frequency, are lung, prostate, and colorectal cancer in men and lung, breast, and colorectal cancer in women. Smoking cessation is the health promotion initiative directly related to lung cancer.

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving parenteral nutrition. When writing this client's plan of care, which of the following nursing diagnoses should be included? A. Risk for peripheral neurovascular dysfunction related to catheter placement B. Ineffective role performance related to parenteral nutrition C. Bowel incontinence related to parenteral nutrition D. Chronic pain related to catheter placement

ANS: B Rationale: The limitations associated with PN can make it difficult for clients to maintain their usual roles. PN does not normally cause bowel incontinence and catheters are not associated with chronic pain or neurovascular dysfunction.

The nurse reviews foot care with an older adult client. Why would the nurse feel that foot care is so important to this client? A. An older adult client with foot ulcers experiences severe foot pain due to the diabetic polyneuropathy. B. Avoiding foot ulcers may mean the difference between institutionalization and continued independent living. C. Hypoglycemia is linked with a risk for falls; this risk is elevated in older adults with diabetes. D. Oral antihyperglycemics have the possible adverse effect of decreased circulation to the lower extremities.

ANS: B Rationale: The nurse recognizes that providing information on the long-term complications—especially foot and eye problems—associated with diabetes is important. Avoiding amputation through early detection of foot ulcers may mean the difference between institutionalizations and continued independent living for the older adult with diabetes. While the nurse recognizes that hypoglycemia is a dangerous situation and may lead to falls, hypoglycemia is not directly connected to the importance of foot care. Decrease in circulation is related to vascular changes and is not associated with drugs given for diabetes.

A client is in the primary infection stage of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which statement regarding this client's current health status is most accurate? A. The client's HIV antibodies are successfully, but temporarily, killing the virus. B. The client is infected with HIV but lacks HIV-specific antibodies. C. The client's risk for opportunistic infections is at its peak. D. The client may or may not develop long-standing HIV infection.

ANS: B Rationale: The period from infection with HIV to the development of HIV-specific antibodies is known as primary infection. The virus is not being eradicated and infection is certain. Opportunistic infections emerge much later in the course of the disease.

An adult client has been diagnosed with diverticular disease after ongoing challenges with constipation. The client will be treated on an outpatient basis. What components of treatment should the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply. A. Anticholinergic medications B. Increased fiber intake C. Enemas on alternating days D. Reduced fat intake E. Fluid reduction

ANS: B, D Rationale: Clients whose diverticular disease does not warrant hospital treatment often benefit from a high-fiber, low-fat diet. Neither enemas nor anticholinergics are indicated, and fluid intake is encouraged.

An older adult has a diagnosis of Alzheimer disease and has recently been experiencing fecal incontinence. However, the nurse has observed no recent change in the character of the client's stools. What is the nurse's most appropriate intervention? A. Keep a food diary to determine the foods that exacerbate the client's symptoms. B. Provide the client with a bland, low-residue diet. C. Toilet the client on a frequent, scheduled basis. D. Liaise with the primary provider to obtain an order for loperamide.

ANS: C Rationale: Because the client's fecal incontinence is most likely attributable to cognitive decline, frequent toileting is an appropriate intervention. Loperamide is unnecessary in the absence of diarrhea. Specific foods are not likely to be a cause of, or solution to, this client's health problem.

A nurse caring for a client who has an immunosuppressive disorder knows that continual monitoring of the client is critical. What is the primary rationale behind the need for continual monitoring? A. So that the client's functional needs can be met immediately B. So that medications can be given as prescribed and signs of adverse reactions noted C. So that early signs of impending infection can be detected and treated D. So that the nurse's documentation can be thorough and accurate

ANS: C Rationale: Continual monitoring of the client's condition is critical, so that early signs of impending infection may be detected and treated before they seriously compromise the client's status. Continual monitoring is not primarily motivated by the client's functional needs or medication schedule. The nurse's documentation is important, but less so than infection control.

A client with a diagnosis of primary immunodeficiency disease informs the nurse that the client has been experiencing a new onset of a dry cough and occasional shortness of breath. After determining that the client's vital signs are within reference ranges, what action should the nurse take? A. Administer a nebulized bronchodilator. B. Perform oral suctioning. C. Assess the client for signs and symptoms of infection. D. Teach the client deep breathing and coughing exercises.

ANS: C Rationale: Dyspnea and cough are among the varied signs and symptoms that may suggest infection in an immunocompromised client. There is no indication for suctioning or the use of nebulizers. Deep breathing and coughing exercises do not address the client's complaints or the likely etiology.

A client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is preparing for discharge. The nurse knows that the client has understood health education when the client makes what statement? A. "I'll make sure I get enough exposure to sunlight to keep up my vitamin D levels." B. "I'll try to be as physically active as possible between flare-ups." C. "I'll make sure to monitor my body temperature on a regular basis." D. "I'll stop taking my steroids when I get relief from my symptoms."

ANS: C Rationale: Fever can signal an exacerbation and should be reported to the health care provider. Sunlight and other sources of ultraviolet light may precipitate severe skin reactions and exacerbate the disease. Fatigue can cause a flare-up of SLE. Clients should be encouraged to pace activities and plan rest periods. Corticosteroids must be gradually tapered because they can suppress the function of the adrenal gland. As well, these drugs should not be independently adjusted by the client.

A nurse is working with a client who has chronic constipation. What should be included in client teaching to promote normal bowel function? A. Use glycerin suppositories on a regular basis. B. Limit physical activity in order to promote bowel peristalsis. C. Consume high-residue, high-fiber foods. D. Resist the urge to defecate until the urge becomes intense.

ANS: C Rationale: Goals for the client include restoring or maintaining a regular pattern of elimination by responding to the urge to defecate, ensuring adequate intake of fluids and high-fiber foods, learning about methods to avoid constipation, relieving anxiety about bowel elimination patterns, and avoiding complications. Ongoing use of pharmacologic aids should not be promoted, due to the risk of dependence. Increased mobility helps to maintain a regular pattern of elimination. The urge to defecate should be heeded.

Paramedics have brought an intubated client to the RD following a head injury due to acceleration-deceleration motor vehicle accident. Increased ICP is suspected. Appropriate nursing interventions would include which of the following? A. Keep the head of the bed (HOB) flat at all times. B. Teach the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver. C. Administer benzodiazepines on a PRN basis. D. Perform endotracheal suctioning every hour.

ANS: C Rationale: If the client with a brain injury is very agitated, benzodiazepines are the most commonly used sedatives and do not affect cerebral blood flow or ICP. The HOB should be elevated 30 degrees. Suctioning should be done on a limited basis, due to increasing pressure in the cranium. The Valsalva maneuver is to be avoided. This also causes increased ICP.

A diabetes educator is teaching a client about type 2 diabetes. The educator recognizes that the client understands the primary treatment for type 2 diabetes when the client states: A. "I read that a pancreas transplant will provide a cure for my diabetes." B. "I will take my oral antidiabetic agents when my morning blood sugar is high." C. "I will make sure to follow the weight loss plan designed by the dietitian." D. "I will make sure I call the diabetes educator when I have questions about my insulin."

ANS: C Rationale: Insulin resistance is associated with obesity; thus the primary treatment of type 2 diabetes is weight loss. Oral antidiabetic agents may be added if diet and exercise are not successful in controlling blood glucose levels. If maximum doses of a single category of oral agents fail to reduce glucose levels to satisfactory levels, additional oral agents may be used. Some clients may require insulin on an ongoing basis, or on a temporary basis during times of acute psychological stress, but it is not the central component of type 2 treatment. Pancreas transplantation is associated with type 1 diabetes.

During a routine mammogram, a client asks the nurse whether breast cancer causes the most deaths. Which type of cancer is the leading cause of death in the United States? A. Colorectal B. Prostate C. Lung D. Breast

ANS: C Rationale: Lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer-related deaths in the United States, followed by prostate cancer in men and breast cancer in women. Colorectal cancer is the third-leading cause of cancer-related deaths in the United States. Cancer is a common health problem worldwide.

A nurse is completing a health history on a client whose diagnosis is chronic gastritis. Which of the data should the nurse consider most significantly related to the etiology of the client's health problem? A. Consumes one or more protein drinks daily. B. Takes over-the-counter antacids frequently throughout the day. C. Smokes one pack of cigarettes daily. D. Reports a history of social drinking on a weekly basis.

ANS: C Rationale: Nicotine reduces secretion of pancreatic bicarbonate, which inhibits neutralization of gastric acid and can underlie gastritis. Protein drinks do not result in gastric inflammation. Antacid use is a response to experiencing symptoms of gastritis, not the etiology of gastritis. Alcohol ingestion can lead to gastritis; however, this generally occurs in clients with a history of consumption of alcohol on a daily basis.

A woman with a family history of breast cancer received a positive result on a breast tumor marking test and is requesting a bilateral mastectomy. This surgery is an example of which type of oncologic surgery? A. Salvage surgery B. Palliative surgery C. Prophylactic surgery D. Reconstructive surgery

ANS: C Rationale: Prophylactic surgery is used when there is an extensive family history and nonvital tissues are removed. Salvage surgery is an additional treatment option that uses an extensive surgical approach to treat the local recurrence of a cancer after the use of a less extensive primary approach. Palliative surgery is performed in an attempt to relieve complications of cancer, such as ulceration, obstruction, hemorrhage, pain, and malignant effusion. Reconstructive surgery may follow curative or radical surgery in an attempt to improve function or obtain a more desirable cosmetic effect.

The nurse on a bone marrow transplant unit is caring for a client with cancer who has just begun hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT). What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client? A. Fatigue related to altered metabolic processes B. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements related to anorexia C. Risk for infection related to altered immunologic response D. Body image disturbance related to weight loss and anorexia

ANS: C Rationale: Risk for infection related to altered immunologic response is the priority nursing diagnosis. HSCT involves intravenous infusion of autologous or allogeneic stem cells to promote red blood cell production in clients with compromised bone marrow or immune function, such as due to blood or bone marrow cancer. It carries an increased risk of sepsis and bleeding. The client's immunity is suppressed by the underlying condition necessitating the HSCT, the HSCT itself, and any cancer medications received. The client has a high risk for infection. Fatigue is appropriate but not the most critical nursing diagnosis. Altered nutrition and body image disturbance could be valid nursing diagnoses but would be of lower priority than risk for infection.

Splints have been prescribed for a client who is at risk of developing foot drop following a spinal cord injury. When should the nurse remove and reapply the splints? A. At the client's request B. Each morning and evening C. Every 2 hours D. One hour prior to mobility exercises

ANS: C Rationale: The feet are prone to foot drop; therefore, various types of splints are used to prevent foot drop. When used, the splints are removed and reapplied every 2 hours.

A client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) asks the nurse why the client has to come to the office so often for "check-ups." Which rationale for frequent office visits would be best for the nurse to mention? A. Seeing the client face to face B. Ensuring that the client is taking medications as prescribed C. Monitoring the disease process and how well the prescribed treatment is working D. Drawing blood work every month

ANS: C Rationale: The goals of treatment include preventing progressive loss of organ function, reducing the likelihood of acute disease, minimizing disease-related disabilities, and preventing complications from therapy. Management of SLE involves regular monitoring to assess disease process and therapeutic effectiveness. Stating the benefit of face-to-face interaction does not answer the client's question. Blood work is not necessarily drawn monthly, and assessing medication adherence is not the sole purpose of visits.

A client with a recent diagnosis of HIV infection expresses an interest in exploring alternative and complementary therapies. How should the nurse best respond? A. "Complementary therapies generally have not been approved, so clients are usually discouraged from using them." B. "Researchers have not looked at the benefits of alternative therapy for clients with HIV, so we suggest that you stay away from these therapies until there is solid research data available." C. "Many clients with HIV use some type of alternative therapy and, as with most health treatments, there are benefits and risks." D. "You'll need to meet with your doctor to choose between an alternative approach to treatment and a medical approach."

ANS: C Rationale: The nurse should approach the topic of alternative or complementary therapies from an open-ended, supportive approach, emphasizing the need to communicate with care providers. Complementary therapies and medical treatment are not mutually exclusive, though some contraindications exist. Research supports the efficacy of some forms of complementary and alternative treatment.

Which intervention should the nurse teach a client who is at risk for hypercalcemia? A. Avoid the use of stool softeners. B. Take laxatives daily. C. Consume 2 to 4 L of fluid daily. D. Restrict calcium intake.

ANS: C Rationale: The nurse should encourage clients at risk for hypercalcemia to consume 3 to 4 L of fluid daily unless contraindicated by existing renal or cardiac disease to address the constipation and dehydration that results from this condition. Dietary and pharmacologic interventions for constipation such as stool softeners and laxatives may be appropriate for the client, although daily laxative use may not be. The nurse should advise clients to maintain nutritional intake without restricting normal calcium intake.

A nurse is preparing to discharge a client after recovery from gastric surgery. What is an appropriate discharge outcome for this client? A. Bowel movements maintain a loose consistency. B. Three large meals per day are tolerated. C. Weight is maintained or gained. D. High calcium diet is consumed.

ANS: C Rationale: Weight loss is common in the postoperative period, with early satiety, dysphagia, reflux and regurgitation, and elimination issues contributing to this problem. The client should weigh oneself daily, with a goal of maintaining or gaining weight. The client should not have bowel movements that maintain a loose consistency, because this would indicate diarrhea and would warrant intervention as it is a symptom of dumping syndrome. The client should be able to tolerate six small meals per day, rather than three large meals. The client does not require a diet excessively rich in calcium but should consume a diet high in calories, iron, vitamin A and vitamin C.

The nurse is performing an initial assessment of a 75-year-old client who has just relocated to the long-term care facility. During the nurse's interview with the client, the client admits drinking around 600 mL (20 oz) of vodka every evening. What types of cancer does this put the client at risk for? Select all that apply. A. Malignant melanoma B. Brain cancer C. Breast cancer D. Esophageal cancer E. Liver cancer

ANS: C, D, E Rationale: Dietary substances that appear to increase the risk of cancer include fats, alcohol, salt-cured or smoked meats, nitrate- and nitrite-containing foods, and red and processed meats. Alcohol increases the risk of cancers of the mouth, pharynx, larynx, esophagus, liver, colorectum, and breast.

A nurse is providing ongoing care for a client who is positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), and assessment reveals a client with a newly delayed and shortened speech pattern. The client, who previously had no neurological or motor deficits, has forgotten that they are in the hospital and has trouble getting out of bed. Which problem is the client most likely experiencing related to these signs and symptoms? A. Cryptococcal meningitis B. Cytomegalovirus retinitis C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Subcortical neurodegenerative disease

ANS: D Rationale Subcortical neurodegenerative disease is known as HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND). Signs can be subtle and include changes in language, memory, and problem solving, as well as slowing psychomotor skills. Early identification is important as HAND can be treated by changing antiretroviral medications Cryptococcal meningitis is a form of subacute meningitis. Signs include fever, malaise, and headache. Retinitis caused by cytomegalovirus retinitis is the leading cause of blindness in clients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. Peripheral neuropathy is a common neurological symptom at any stage of HIV infection. Signs and symptoms are pain in the feet and functional impairment.

A nurse is assessing a client with rheumatoid arthritis. The client expresses the intent to pursue complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) therapies. Which fact should underlie the nurse's response to the client? A. New evidence shows CAM to be as effective as medical treatment. B. CAM therapies negate many of the benefits of medications. C. CAM therapies typically do more harm than good. D. Most CAM therapies lack sufficient evidence to support them.

ANS: D Rationale: A recent systematic review of CAM examined the efficacy of herbal medicine, acupuncture, Tai chi, and biofeedback for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis. Although acupuncture treatment for pain management showed some promise, in all modalities the evidence was ambiguous. There is not enough evidence of the effectiveness of CAM and more rigorous research is needed.

A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes for the presence of peripheral neuropathy. The nurse should question the client about what sign or symptom that would suggest the possible development of peripheral neuropathy? A. Persistently cold feet B. Pain that does not respond to analgesia C. Acute pain, unrelieved by rest D. The presence of a tingling sensation

ANS: D Rationale: Although approximately half of clients with diabetic neuropathy do not have symptoms, initial symptoms may include paresthesias (prickling, tingling, or heightened sensation) and burning sensations (especially at night). Cold and intense pain are atypical early signs of this complication.

A nurse provides care on a bone marrow transplant unit and is preparing a client for a hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) the following day. Which information should the nurse emphasize to the client's family and friends? A. "Your family should likely gather at the bedside in case there is a negative outcome." B. "Make sure the client doesn't eat any food in the 24 hours before the procedure." C. "Wear a hospital gown when you go into the client's room." D. "Do not visit if you've had a recent infection."

ANS: D Rationale: Before HSCT, clients are at a high risk for infection, sepsis, and bleeding. Visitors should not visit if they have had a recent illness or vaccination. Gowns should indeed be worn, but this is secondary in importance to avoiding the client's contact with ill visitors. Prolonged fasting is unnecessary. Negative outcomes are possible, but the procedure would not normally be so risky as to require the family to gather at the bedside.

The nurse is providing care for a client who is withdrawing from heavy alcohol use. The nurse and other members of the care team are present at the bedside when the client has a seizure. In preparation for documenting this clinical event, the nurse should note which of the following? A. The ability of the client to follow instructions during the seizure. B. The success or failure of the care team to physically restrain the client. C. The client's ability to explain his seizure during the postictal period. D. The client's activities immediately prior to the seizure.

ANS: D Rationale: Before and during a seizure, the nurse observes the circumstances before the seizure, including visual, auditory, or olfactory stimuli; tactile stimuli; emotional or psychological disturbances; sleep; and hyperventilation. Communication with the client is not possible during a seizure and physical restraint is not attempted. The client's ability to explain the seizure may not be accurate since the client is often still confused during the postictal period.

A client has received a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes. The diabetes nurse has made contact with the client and will implement a program of health education. What is the nurse's priority action? A. Ensure that the client understands the basic pathophysiology of diabetes. B. Identify the client's body mass index. C. Teach the client "survival skills" for diabetes. D. Assess the client's readiness to learn.

ANS: D Rationale: Before initiating diabetes education, the nurse assesses the client's (and family's) readiness to learn. This must precede other physiologic assessments (such as BMI) and providing health education.

A client has just been diagnosed with acute gastritis after presenting in distress to the emergency department with abdominal symptoms. What would be the nursing care most needed by the client at this time? A. Teaching the client about necessary nutritional modification B. Helping the client weigh treatment options C. Teaching the client about the etiology of gastritis D. Providing the client with physical and emotional support

ANS: D Rationale: For acute gastritis, the nurse provides physical and emotional support and helps the client manage the symptoms, which may include nausea, vomiting, heartburn, and fatigue. The scenario describes a newly diagnosed client; teaching about the etiology of the disease, lifestyle modifications, or various treatment options would be best provided at a later time.

A client with rheumatic disease has developed a gastrointestinal (GI) bleed. The nurse caring for the client should further assess for medications that typically exacerbate this condition. Which medication applies? A. Corticosteroids B. Immunomodulators C. Antimalarials D. Salicylate therapy

ANS: D Rationale: GI bleeding is an adverse effect that is associated with salicylates. Corticosteroids, antimalarials, and immunomodulators do not normally have this adverse effect.

A nurse is planning the care of a client who requires immunosuppression to ensure engraftment of depleted bone marrow during a transplantation procedure. What is the most important component of infection control in the care of this client? A. Administration of IVIG B. Antibiotic administration C. Appropriate use of gloves and goggles D. Thorough and consistent hand hygiene

ANS: D Rationale: Hand hygiene is usually considered the most important aspect of infection control. IVIG and antibiotics are not considered infection control measures, though they enhance resistance to infection and treat infection. Gloves and goggles are sometimes indicated but are less effective than hand hygiene.

A client with terminal small-cell lung cancer has been given a six-month prognosis and wants to die at home. The health care team believes the condition warrants inpatient care. The nurse might suggest which compromise? A. Discuss a referral for rehabilitation hospital. B. Panel the client for a personal care home. C. Discuss a referral for acute care. D. Discuss a referral for hospice care.

ANS: D Rationale: Hospice care can be provided in several settings. Because of the high cost associated with free-standing hospices, care is often delivered by coordinating services provided by both hospitals and the community. The primary goal of hospice care is to provide support to the client and family. Clients who are referred to hospice care generally have fewer than six months to live. Each of the other listed options would be less appropriate for the client's physical and psychosocial needs.

A nurse is caring for an older adult who has been experiencing severe Clostridium difficile-related diarrhea. When reviewing the client's most recent laboratory tests, the nurse should prioritize what finding? A. White blood cell level B. Creatinine level C. Hemoglobin level D. Potassium level

ANS: D Rationale: In elderly clients, it is important to monitor the client's serum electrolyte levels closely. Diarrhea is less likely to cause an alteration in white blood cell, creatinine, and hemoglobin levels.

An 18-year-old client who is pregnant has tested positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and asks the nurse if her baby is going to be born with HIV. Which response by the nurse is the best? A. "Your baby has a one in four chance of being born with HIV." B. "Your health care provider is likely the best one to answer that question." C. "If the baby is HIV-positive, we can't do anything until after the birth, so try not to worry." D. "Your baby could contract HIV before, during, or after delivery."

ANS: D Rationale: Mother-to-child transmission of HIV-1 is possible and may occur in utero, at the time of delivery, or through breastfeeding. There is no evidence that the infant's risk is 25%. Deferral to the health care provider is not a substitute for responding appropriately to the client's concern. Downplaying the client's concerns is inappropriate.

A community health nurse is preparing for an initial home visit to a client discharged following a total gastrectomy for treatment of gastric cancer. What would the nurse anticipate that the plan of care is most likely to include? A. Enteral feeding via gastrostomy tube (G tube) B. Gastrointestinal decompression by nasogastric tube C. Periodic assessment for esophageal distension D. Administration of injections of vitamin B12

ANS: D Rationale: Since vitamin B12 is absorbed in the stomach, the client requires vitamin B12 replacement to prevent pernicious anemia. A gastrectomy precludes the use of a G tube. Since the stomach is absent, a nasogastric tube would not be indicated. As well, this is not possible in the home setting. Since there is no stomach to act as a reservoir and fluids and nutrients are passing directly into the jejunum, distension is unlikely.

A nurse is admitting a client diagnosed with late-stage gastric cancer. The client's family is distraught and angry that the client was not diagnosed earlier in the course of her disease. What factor most likely contributed to the client's late diagnosis? A. Gastric cancer does not cause signs or symptoms until metastasis has occurred. B. Adherence to screening recommendations for gastric cancer is exceptionally low. C. Early symptoms of gastric cancer are usually attributed to constipation. D. The early symptoms of gastric cancer are usually not alarming or highly unusual.

ANS: D Rationale: Symptoms of early gastric cancer, such as pain relieved by antacids, resemble those of benign ulcers and are seldom definitive. Symptoms are rarely a cause for alarm or for detailed diagnostic testing. Symptoms precede metastasis, however, and do not include constipation.

A community health nurse is performing a visit to the home of a client who has a history of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). On which aspect of the client's health should the nurse focus most closely during the visit? A. Understanding of rheumatoid arthritis B. Risk for cardiopulmonary complications C. Social support system D. Functional status

ANS: D Rationale: The client's functional status is a central focus of home assessment of the client with RA. The nurse may also address the client's understanding of the disease, complications, and social support, but the client's level of function and quality of life are a primary concern.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a diagnosis of GI bleed. During shift assessment, the nurse finds the client to be tachycardic and hypotensive, and the client has an episode of hematemesis while the nurse is in the room. In addition to monitoring the client's vital signs and level of conscious, what would be a priority nursing action for this client? A. Place the client in a prone position. B. Provide the client with ice water to slow any GI bleeding. C. Prepare for the insertion of an NG tube. D. Notify the health care provider.

ANS: D Rationale: The nurse must always be alert for any indicators of hemorrhagic gastritis, which include hematemesis (vomiting of blood), tachycardia, and hypotension. If these occur, the health care provider is notified and the client's vital signs are monitored as the client's condition warrants. Putting the client in a prone position could lead to aspiration. Giving ice water is contraindicated as it would stimulate more vomiting.

A client is recovering in the hospital following gastrectomy. The nurse notes that the client has become increasingly difficult to engage and has had several angry outbursts at staff members in recent days. The nurse's attempts at therapeutic dialogue have been rebuffed. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A. Ask the client's primary provider to liaise between the nurse and the client. B. Delegate care of the client to a colleague. C. Limit contact with the client in order to provide privacy. D. Make appropriate referrals to services that provide psychosocial support.

ANS: D Rationale: The nurse should enlist the services of clergy, psychiatric clinical nurse specialists, psychologists, social workers, and psychiatrists, if needed. This is preferable to delegating care, since the client has become angry with other care providers as well. It is impractical and inappropriate to expect the primary provider to act as a liaison. It would be inappropriate and unsafe to simply limit contact with the client.

The nurse manager is orienting a new nurse to the oncology unit. When reviewing the safe administration of antineoplastic agents, which action should the nurse manager emphasize? A. Adjust the dose to the client's present symptoms. B. Wash hands with an alcohol-based cleanser following administration. C. Use gloves and a lab coat when preparing the medication. D. Dispose of the antineoplastic wastes in the hazardous waste receptacle.

ANS: D Rationale: The nurse should use surgical gloves and disposable long-sleeved gowns when administering antineoplastic agents. The antineoplastic wastes are disposed of as hazardous materials. Dosages are not adjusted on a short-term basis. Hand and arm hygiene must be performed before and after administering the medication.