med surg quiz 1 questions

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) expresses a desire to quit smoking. The first appropriate response from the nurse is?

"Have you tried to quit smoking before?"

A client has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Following a coughing episode, the client reports sudden and unrelieved shortness of breath. Which of the following is the most important for the nurse to assess?

Lung sounds

The clinical finding of pink, frothy sputum may be an indication of which condition?

Pulmonary edema

Which measure may increase complications for a client with COPD?

Increased oxygen supply

The symptom of ______ indicates a narrowing or partial obstruction of the airway from inflammation or secretions

wheezing

Which type of chest configuration is typical of a client with COPD?

Barrel chest In clients with COPD who have a primary emphysematous component, chronic hyperinflation leads to the "barrel chest" thorax configuration. This configuration results from a more fixed position of the ribs in the inspiratory position (due to hyperinflation) and from loss of lung elasticity. Pigeon chest results from a displaced sternum. Flail chest results when the ribs are fractured. Funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum; it is associated with Marfan syndrome or rickets.

The nurse is caring for a client who had a recent laryngectomy. Which of the following is reflected in the nursing plan of care?

Develop an alternate method of communication

The nurse is caring for a client status post adenoidectomy. The nurse finds the client in severe respiratory distress when entering the room. What does the nurse suspect?

Edema of the upper airway

High or increased compliance occurs in which disease process?

Emphysema

Which of the following is the key underlying feature of asthma?

Inflammation

A nurse is weaning a client from mechanical ventilation. Which assessment finding indicates the weaning process should be stopped?

Runs of ventricular tachycardia

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with asthma. While performing the shift assessment, the nurse auscultates breath sounds including sibilant wheezes, which are continuous musical sounds. What characteristics describe sibilant wheezes?

They can be heard during inspiration and expiration

Which vitamin is usually administered with isoniazid (INH) to prevent INH-associated peripheral neuropathy?

Vitamin B6 Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) is usually administered with INH to prevent INH-associated peripheral neuropathy. Vitamins C, D, and E are not appropriate.

A client is scheduled for endotracheal intubation prior to surgery. What can the nurse tell this client about an endotracheal tube?

"The ET tube will maintain your airway while you're under anesthesia."

A client has acute bacterial rhinosinusitis for several weeks despite treatment. The nurse observes for a possible complication of the infection by assessing for?

Nuchal rigidity

A client is being discharged from an outpatient surgery center following a tonsillectomy. What instruction should the nurse give to the client?

"Gargle with a warm salt solution." A warm saline solution will help with removal of thick mucus and halitosis. It will be a gentle gargle, because a vigorous gargle may cause bleeding. A sore throat may be present for 3 to 5 days. Hot foods should be avoided.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of sleep apnea. The client understands the disease process when he says?

"I should become involved in a weight loss program." Obesity and decreased pharyngeal muscle tone commonly contribute to sleep apnea; the client may need to become involved in a weight loss program. Using an inhaler won't alleviate sleep apnea, and the physician probably wouldn't order an inhaler unless the client had other respiratory complications. A high-protein diet and sleeping on the side aren't treatment factors associated with sleep apnea.

The nurse is instructing the client on the normal sensations, which can occur when contrast medium is infused during pulmonary angiography. Which statement, made by the client, demonstrates an understanding?

"I will feel warm and an urge to cough." During a pulmonary angiography a contrast medium is injected into the femoral artery. When the medium is infused, the client will feel a sense of warm and flushed with an urge to cough. The client will feel a pressure when the catheter is inserted. The client does not typically feel light-headed or nauseated during the procedure.

A nurse recognizes that a client with tuberculosis needs further teaching when the client states?

"The people I have contact with at work should be checked regularly." The client requires additional teaching if he states that coworkers need to be checked regularly. Such casual contacts needn't be tested for tuberculosis. However, a person in close contact with a person who's infectious is at risk and should be checked. The client demonstrates effective teaching if he states that he'll take his medications for 9 to 12 months, that coworkers don't need medication, and that he requires laboratory tests while on medication. Coworkers not needing medications, taking the medication for 9 to 12 months, and having scheduled laboratory tests are all appropriate statements.

The nurse is preparing to assist the health care provider to remove a client's chest tube. Which instruction will the nurse correctly give to the client?

"When the tube is being removed, take a deep breath, exhale, and bear down." When assisting in removal of a chest tube, instruct the client to perform a gentle Valsalva maneuver or to breathe quietly. The chest tube is then clamped and quickly removed. Simultaneously, a small bandage is applied and made airtight with petrolatum gauze covered by a 4 × 4-inch gauze pad and thoroughly covered and sealed with nonporous tape. The other options are incorrect instructions for the client.

A nurse is preparing dietary recommendations for a client with a lung abscess. Which statement would be included in the plan of care?

"You must consume a diet rich in protein, such as chicken, fish, and beans." The nurse encourages a client with a lung abscess to eat a diet that is high in protein and calories in order to ensure proper nutritional intake. A carbohydrate-dense diet or diets with limited fats are not advisable for a client with a lung abscess.

The herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1), which produces a cold sore (fever blister), has an incubation period of?

2 to 12 days HSV-1 is transmitted primarily by direct contact with infected secretions. The incubation period is about 2 to 12 days. The time periods of 20 to 30 days, 1 to 3 months, and 3 to 6 months exceed the incubation period.

A surgeon completes a total laryngectomy. Postoperatively, the nurse explains to the patient's family that?

A permanent tracheal stoma would be necessary

Which is the antibiotic of choice used to treat acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (ABRS)?

Amoxicillin

A patient has herpes simplex infection that developed after having the common cold. What medication does the nurse anticipate will be administered for this infection?

An antiviral agent such as acyclovir Herpes labialis is an infection that is caused by herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1). It is characterized by an eruption of small, painful blisters on the skin of the lips, mouth, gums, tongue, or the skin around the mouth. The blisters are commonly referred to as cold sores or fever blisters. Medications used in the management of herpes labialis include acyclovir (Zovirax) and valacyclovir (Valtrex), which help to minimize the symptoms and the duration or length of flare-up.

A client is admitted to the emergency department with a stab wound and is now presenting dyspnea, tachypnea, and sucking noise heard on inspiration and expiration. The nurse should care for the wound in which manner?

Apply airtight dressing The client has developed a pneumothorax, and the best action is to prevent further deflation of the affected lung by placing an airtight dressing over the wound. A vented dressing would be used in a tension pneumothorax, but because air is heard moving in and out, a tension pneumothorax is not indicated. Applying direct pressure is required if active bleeding is noted.

A client comes into the emergency department with epistaxis. What intervention should the nurse perform when caring for a client with epistaxis?

Apply direct continuous pressure The severity and location of bleeding determine the treatment of a client with epistaxis. To manage this condition, the nurse should apply direct continuous pressure to the nares for 5 to 10 minutes with the client's head tilted slightly forward. Application of a moustache dressing or a drip pad to absorb drainage, application of a nasal splint, and placement of the client in a semi-Fowler's position are interventions related to the management of a client with a nasal obstruction.

A patient playing softball was hit in the nose by the ball and has been determined to have an uncomplicated fractured nose with epistaxis. The nurse should prepare to assist the physician with what tasks?

Applying nasal packing

The nurse received a client from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) who has a chest tube to a closed drainage system. Report from the PACU nurse included drainage in the chest tube at 80 mL of bloody fluid. Fifteen minutes after transfer from the PACU, the chest tube indicates drainage as pictured. The client is reporting pain at "8" on a scale of 0 to 10. The first action of the nurse is to?

Assess pulse and blood pressure

After a tonsillectomy, a client is being prepared for discharge. The nurse should instruct the client to report which sign or symptom immediately?

Bleeding The nurse should instruct the client to report bleeding immediately. Delayed bleeding may occur when the healing membrane separates from the underlying tissue — usually 7 to 10 days postoperatively. Difficulty swallowing and throat pain are expected after a tonsillectomy and typically are present even before the client is discharged. Sudden difficulty talking wouldn't occur after discharge if the client could talk normally at the time of discharge, because swelling doesn't take that long to develop.

A client is in the emergency department following a fall on the face. The client reports facial pain. The nurse assesses bleeding from nasal cuts and from the nares, a deformity to the nose, periorbital ecchymoses, and some clear fluid draining from the right nostril. The first action of the nurse is to?

Check the clear fluid for glucose The client's signs and symptoms are consistent with a fracture of the nose. Clear fluid draining from either nostril suggests leakage of cerebrospinal fluid. This can be checked by assessing for glucose, which is in cerebrospinal fluid. This finding is important to identify, because infection can be transmitted through the opening in the cribiform plate. Other options, such as applying an ice pack to the nose and administering ibuprofen, are appropriate interventions but not most important for this client. Reassuring the client that the nose is not fractured is premature until all assessments are completed.

The nurse is caring for a client in the ICU who is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which nursing measure is implemented in an effort to reduce the client's risk of developing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?

Cleaning the client's mouth with chlorhexidine daily The five key elements of the VAP bundle include elevation of the head of the bed (30 to 45 degrees [semi-Fowler's position)], daily "sedation vacations," and assessment of readiness to extubate; peptic ulcer disease prophylaxis (with histamine-2 receptor antagonists, such as ranitidine [Zantac]); deep venous thrombosis prophylaxis; and daily oral care with chlorhexidine (0.12% oral rinses). The client should be turned and repositioned every 2 hours to prevent complications of immobility and atelectasis and to optimize lung expansion.

A young adult with cystic fibrosis is admitted to the hospital for an acute airway exacerbation. Aggressive treatment is indicated. What is the first action by the nurse?

Collects sputum for culture and sensitivity

Which medication is contraindicated in the treatment of asthma exacerbations?

Cromolyn sodium

A client has asthma. Which of the following medications is a commonly prescribed mast cell stabilizer used for asthma?

Cromolyn sodium Cromolyn sodium and nedocromil are mild to moderate anti-inflammatory agents and are considered alternative medications for treatment. These medications stabilize mast cells. Albuterol is a long-acting beta2-antagonist. Budesonide is an inhaled corticosteroid. Theophylline is a mild to moderate bronchodilator

A child is having an asthma attack and the parent can't remember which inhaler to use for quick relief. The nurse accesses the child's medication information and tells the parent to use which inhalant?

Cromolyn sodium Short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists (albuterol [AccuNeb, Proventil, Ventolin], levalbuterol [Xopenex HFA], and pirbuterol [Maxair]) are the medications of choice for relief of acute symptoms and prevention of exercise-induced asthma. Cromolyn sodium (Crolom, NasalCrom) and nedocromil (Alocril, Tilade) are mild to moderate anti-inflammatory agents and are considered alternative medications for treatment. These medications stabilize mast cells. These medications are contraindicated in acute asthma exacerbations. Long-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists are not indicated for immediate relief of symptoms. These include theophylline (Slo-Bid, Theo- Dur) and salmeterol (Serevent Diskus).

The nurse is transporting a patient with chest tubes to a treatment room. The chest tube becomes disconnected and falls between the bed rail. What is the priority action by the nurse?

Cut the contaminated tip of the tube and insert a sterile connector and reattach. If the patient is lying on a stretcher and must be transported to another area, place the drainage system below the chest level. If the tubing disconnects, cut off the contaminated tips of the chest tube and tubing, insert a sterile connector in the cut ends, and reattach to the drainage system. Do not clamp the chest tube during transport.

What is the reason for chest tubes after thoracic surgery?

Draining secretions, air, and blood from the thoracic cavity is necessary. After thoracic surgery, draining secretions, air, and blood from the thoracic cavity is necessary to allow the lungs to expand. This makes options B, C, and D are incorrect.

A patient prescribed a medication for hypertension started taking it 3 days ago and arrives in the emergency department with an edematous face and tongue and having a difficult time speaking. What medication is the nurse aware of that may produce this type of side effect?

Enalapril (Vasotec)

Which intervention does a nurse implement for clients with empyema?

Encourage breathing exercises The nurse instructs the client in lung-expanding breathing exercises to restore normal respiratory function.

Which imaging study, ordered by the physician, will view the thoracic cavity while in motion?

Fluoroscopy

A nurse is teaching a client with recurrent rhinosinusitis. What medication will the nurse instruct the client to take at the first sign of symptoms?

Guaifenesin The client should take a decongestant (e.g., guaifenesin [Mucinex]) at the first sign of recurrence of rhinosinusitis to promote drainage of the sinus cavities and prevent bacterial infection. Medications that the client may take later in the illness for pain relief include acetaminophen (Tylenol) and nonsteroidal antinflammatory drugs, such as naproxen (Aleve). Over-the-counter nasal oxymetazoline sprays (Afrin) may cause rebound congestion.

The nurse is obtaining a health history from a client on an annual physical exam. Which documentation should be brought to the physician's attention?

Hoarseness for 2 weeks Persistent hoarseness, especially of unknown cause, can be a sign of laryngeal cancer and merits prompt investigation. Epistaxis can be from several causes and has occurred infrequently. Aphonia and laryngitis are common following the noted activity.

Which clinical manifestation of hemorrhage is related to carotid artery rupture?

Increased pulse rate The nurse monitors vital signs for changes, particularly increased pulse rate, decreased blood pressure, and rapid, deep respirations. Cold, clammy, pale skin may indicate active bleeding.

Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for a client undergoing a laryngectomy?

Ineffective airway clearance

The nurse is caring for a client who underwent a laryngectomy. Which intervention will the nurse initially complete in an effort to meet the client's nutritional needs?

Initiate enteral feedings.

A client with suspected severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) comes to the emergency department. Which physician order should the nurse implement first?

Institute isolation precautions. SARS, a highly contagious viral respiratory illness, is spread by close person-to-person contact. Contained in airborne respiratory droplets, the virus is easily transmitted by touching surfaces and objects contaminated with infectious droplets. The nurse should give top priority to instituting infection-control measures to prevent the spread of infection to emergency department staff and clients. After isolation measures are carried out, the nurse can begin an I.V. infusion of dextrose 5% in half-normal saline and obtain nasopharyngeal and sputum specimens.

The nurse is in the radiology unit of the hospital. The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a lung scan. The nurse knows that lung scans need the use of radioisotopes and a scanning machine. Before the perfusion scan, what must the client be assessed for?

Iodine allergy During lung scans, a radioactive contrast medium is administered intravenously for the perfusion scan. Before the perfusion scan, nurses must assess the client to check for allergies to iodine. Laryngoscopy determines inflammation. Dysrhythmias and bleeding are possible complications of mediastinoscopy.

A client has a nursing diagnosis of "ineffective airway clearance" as a result of excessive secretions. An appropriate outcome for this client would be which of the following?

Lungs are clear on auscultation Assessment of lung sounds includes auscultation for airflow through the bronchial tree. The nurse evaluates for fluid or solid obstruction in the lung. When airflow is decreased, as with fluid or secretions, adventitious sounds may be auscultated. Often crackles are heard with fluid in the airways.

When assessing a client's potential for pulmonary emboli, what finding by the nurse indicates possible deep vein thrombosis?

Pain in the calf When assessing the client's potential for pulmonary emboli, the client lies on his or her back and lifts his or her leg and his or her foot. If the client reports calf pain during this maneuver, he or she may have a deep vein thrombosis.

A patient is diagnosed as being in the early stage of laryngeal cancer of the glottis with only 1 vocal cord involved. For what type of surgical intervention will the nurse plan to provide education?

Partial laryngectomy A partial laryngectomy (laryngofissure-thyrotomy) is often used for patients in the early stages of cancer in the glottis area when only one vocal cord is involved.

What portion of arterial blood gas results is most useful in distinguishing between acute respiratory distress syndrome and acute respiratory failure?

Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2)

A child is having an asthma attack and the parent can't remember which inhaler to use for quick relief. The nurse accesses the child's medication information and tells the parent to use which inhalant?

Proventil

A nurse is aware that crackles, non-contiguous breath sounds, are assessed for a patient with?

Pulmonary fibrosis Crackles (formerly referred to as rales) are discrete, noncontinuous sounds that result from delayed reopening of deflated airways. Crackles may or may not be cleared by coughing. They reflect underlying inflammation or congestion and are often present in such conditions as pneumonia, bronchitis, heart failure, bronchiectasis, and pulmonary fibrosis. Crackles are usually heard on inspiration, but they may also be heard on expiration.

A nurse administers albuterol (Proventil), as ordered, to a client with emphysema. Which finding indicates that the drug is producing a therapeutic effect?

Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute In a client with emphysema, albuterol is used as a bronchodilator. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute indicates that the drug has achieved its therapeutic effect because fewer respirations are required to achieve oxygenation. Albuterol has no effect on pupil reaction or urine output. It may cause a change in the heart rate, but this is an adverse, not therapeutic, effect

Auscultation of the lungs reveals low-pitched, rumbling sounds. Which of the following describes these sounds?

Rhonchi

A client is experiencing acute viral rhinosinusitis. The nurse is providing instructions about self-care activities and includes information about?

Saline lavages to the nares Saline lavages are used for acute rhinosinusitis and relieve symptoms, reduce inflammation, clear nasal passages of stagnant mucus, and reduce the development of opportunistic infections. Other methods that promote drainage of the sinuses are humidifying the air, not dehumidifying it, and warm compresses, not cold compresses, to the sinus cavities. Because this infection is viral, antibiotics are not indicated.

A nurse has pharyngitis and will be providing self-care at home. It is most important for the nurse to?

Seek medical help if he experiences inability to swallow The client should seek medical assistance if swallowing is impaired to prevent aspiration. Following Maslow's hierarchy of needs, airway clearance is the highest priority.

After 48 hours, a Mantoux test is evaluated. At the site, there is a 10 mm induration. This finding would be considered?

Significant An induration of 10 mm or greater is usually considered significant and reactive in people who have normal or mildly impaired immunity. Erythema without induration is not considered significant.

A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving continuous mechanical ventilation. When the high-pressure alarm on the ventilator sounds, what should the nurse do?

Suction the client's artificial airway. A high-pressure alarm on a continuous mechanical ventilator indicates an obstruction in the flow of gas from the machine to the client. The nurse should suction the client's artificial airway to remove respiratory secretions that could be causing the obstruction. The sounding of a ventilator alarm has no relationship to the apical pulse. Increasing the oxygen percentage and ventilating with a handheld mechanical ventilator wouldn't correct the airflow blockage.

The nurse is caring for a client with an endotracheal tube. Which client data does the nurse interpret as a life-threatening situation?

Sudden restlessness Sudden restlessness is indicative of respiratory distress, which may occur from the obstruction of the endotracheal tube. Blockage of the tube is life threatening. Copious mucous secretions are common from irritation of the endotracheal tube. A harsh cough and rhonchi in the lung fields is common with the presence of mucous secretions.

Your client has had laryngeal surgery. What is as expected outcome in this client?

The client maintains an adequate caloric intake.

The nurse is admitting a client who just had a bronchoscopy. Which assessment should be the nurse's priority? Swallow reflex

The physician sprays a local anesthetic into the client's throat before performing a bronchoscopy. The nurse must assess the swallow reflex when the client returns to the unit and before giving him anything by mouth. The nurse should also assess for medication allergies, carotid pulse, and deep breathing, but they aren't the priority at this time.

The client you are caring for has just been told they have advanced laryngeal cancer. What is the treatment of choice?

Total laryngectomy

The nurse is caring for a client in the physician's office with a potential sinus infection. The physician orders a diagnostic test to identify if fluid is found in the sinus cavity. Which diagnostic test, written by the physician, is specifically ordered for this purpose?

Transillumination of the sinus

What is the difference between respiration and ventilation?

Ventilation is the movement of air in and out of the respiratory tract.

A client finished a course of antibiotics for laryngitis but continues to experience persistent hoarseness. Which symptom would cause the nurse to suspect laryngeal cancer?

a feeling of swelling at the back of the throat

Which nursing diagnosis is most likely for a client who has just undergone a total laryngectomy?

impaired verbal communication

A late complication of radiation therapy is?

laryngeal necrosis

what is the most serious complication of influenza?

staphylococcal pneumonia

A nurse is caring for a client who has a tracheostomy tube and who is undergoing mechanical ventilation. The nurse can help prevent tracheal dilation, a complication of tracheostomy tube placement, by?

using the minimal-leak technique with cuff pressure less than 25 cm H2O. To prevent tracheal dilation, a minimal-leak technique should be used, and the pressure should be kept at less than 25 cm H2O. Suctioning is vital but won't prevent tracheal dilation. Use of a cuffed tube alone won't prevent tracheal dilation. The tracheostomy shouldn't be plugged to prevent tracheal dilation. This technique is used when weaning the client from tracheal support.