Med Surg TEST 5 Practice Questions

2. The nurse is presenting information to a community group on safer sex practices. The nurse should teach that which sexual practice is the riskiest? a. Anal intercourse b. Masturbation c. Oral sex d. Vaginal intercourse

ANS: A Anal intercourse is the riskiest sexual practice because the fragile anal tissue can tear, creating a portal of entry for human immune deficiency virus.

10. The nurse would recognize which signs and symptoms as consistent with brainstem tumors? (Select all that apply.) a. Hearing loss b. Facial pain c. Nystagmus d. V omiting e. Hemiparesis

ANS: A,B,C Hearing loss (CN VIII), facial pain (CN V), and nystagmus (CN III, IV, and VI) all are indicative of a brainstem tumor because these cranial nerves originate in the brainstem. Vomiting and hemiparesis are more indicative of cerebral tumors.

While assessing a client's peripheral IV site, the nurse observes a streak of red along the vein path and palpates a 1.5 inch (4-cm) venous cord. How will the nurse document this finding? a. "Grade 3 phlebitis at IV site" b. "Infection at IV site" c. "Thrombosed area at IV site" d. "Infiltration at IV site"

ANS: A The presence of a red streak and palpable cord indicates grade 3 phlebitis. No information in the description indicates that infection, thrombosis, or infiltration is present.

18. A nurse is caring for four clients who have immune disorders. After receiving the hand-off report, which client should the nurse assess first? a. Client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome with a CD4+ cell count of 210/mm3 and a temp of 102.4 F (39.1 C) b. Client with Brutons agammaglobulinemia who is waiting for discharge teaching c. Client with hypogammaglobulinemia who is 1 hour post immune serum globulin infusion d. Client with selective immunoglobulin A deficiency who is on IV antibiotics for pneumonia

ANS: A A client who is this immunosuppressed and who has this high of a fever is critically ill and needs to be assessed first. The client who is post immunoglobulin infusion should have had all infusion-related vital signs and assessments completed and should be checked next. The client receiving antibiotics should be seen third, and the client waiting for discharge teaching is the lowest priority. Since discharge teaching can take time, the nurse may want to delegate this task to someone else while attending to the most seriously ill client.

A nurse teaches a client who is being discharged home with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). Which statement will the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Avoid carrying your grandchild with the arm that has the central catheter." b. "Be sure to place the arm with the central catheter in a sling during the day." c. "Flush the peripherally inserted central catheter line with normal saline daily." d. "You can use the arm with the central catheter for most activities of daily living."

ANS: A A properly placed PICC (in the antecubital fossa or the basilic vein) allows the client considerable freedom of movement. Clients can participate in most activities of daily living; however, heavy lifting can dislodge the catheter or occlude the lumen. Although it is important to keep the insertion site and tubing dry, the client can shower. The device is flushed with heparin.

3. The nurse providing direct client care uses specific practices to reduce the chance of acquiring infection with human immune deficiency virus (HIV) from clients. Which practice is most effective? a. Consistent use of Standard Precautions b. Double-gloving before body fluid exposure c. Labeling charts and armbands HIV+ d. Wearing a mask within 3 feet of the client

ANS: A According to The Joint Commission, the most effective preventative measure to avoid HIV exposure is consistent use of Standard Precautions. Double-gloving is not necessary. Labeling charts and armbands in this fashion is a violation of the Health Information Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). Wearing a mask within 3 feet of the client is part of Airborne Precautions and is not necessary with every client contact.

11. A male client was admitted with a left-sided stroke this morning. The assistive personnel asks about meeting the client's nutritional needs. Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "He is NPO until the speech-language pathologist performs a swallowing evaluation." b. "You may give him a full-liquid diet, but please avoid solid foods until he gets stronger." c. "Just be sure to add some thickener in his liquids to prevent choking and aspiration." d. "Be sure to sit him up when you are feeding him to make him feel more natural."

ANS: A Any client who has or is suspected of having a stroke should have nothing by mouth until he or she is evaluated for any swallowing problem by the speech-language pathologist (SLP). If dysphagia is present, the SLP makes specific recommendations for the client's plan of care which all staff members must follow to prevent choking and aspiration/aspiration pneumonia.

22. A client has a brain tumor and is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). The spouse questions the use of the drug, saying that the client does not have a seizure disorder. What response by the nurse is correct? a. "Increased pressure from the tumor can cause seizures." b. "Preventing febrile seizures with a tumor is important." c. "Seizures always occur in clients with brain tumors." d. "This drug is used to sedate with a brain tumor."

ANS: A Brain tumors can lead to seizures as a complication. The nurse would explain this to the spouse. Preventing febrile seizures is not related to a tumor. Seizures are possible but do not always occur in clients with brain tumors. This drug is not used for sedation.

20. A client who had therapeutic hypothermia after a traumatic brain injury is slowly rewarmed to a normal core temperature. For which assessment finding would the nurse monitor during the rewarming process? a. Cardiac dysrhythmias b. Loss of consciousness c. Nausea and vomiting d. Fever

ANS: A Due to fluid and electrolyte changes that typically occur during the rewarming process, the nurse monitors for cardiac dysrhythmias. The other findings are not common during this process.

13. A nurse is providing community screening for risk factors associated with stroke. Which person would the nurse identify as being at the highest risk for a stroke? a. A 27-year-old heavy-cocaine user. b. A 30-year-old who drinks a beer a day. c. A 40-year-old who uses seasonal antihistamines. d. A 65-year-old who is active and on no medications.

ANS: A Heavy drug use, particularly cocaine, is a risk factor for stroke. Heavy alcohol use is also a risk factor, but one beer a day is not considered heavy drinking. Antihistamines may contain phenylpropanolamine, which also increases the risk for stroke, but this person uses them seasonally and there is no information that they are abused or used heavily. The 65 year old has only age as a risk factor.

16. A client is in the clinic for a follow-up visit after a moderate traumatic brain injury. The patient's spouse is very frustrated, stating that the patient's personality has changed and the situation is very difficult. What response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Explain that personality changes are common following brain injuries. b. Ask the client why he or she is acting out and behaving differently. c. Refer the client and spouse to a head injury support group. d. Tell the spouse that this is expected and he or she will have to learn to cope.

ANS: A Personality and behavior often change permanently after head injury. The nurse will explain this to the spouse. Asking the client about his or her behavior isn't useful because the patient probably cannot help it. A referral might be a good idea, but the nurse needs to do something in addition to just referring the couple. Telling the spouse to learn to cope belittles his or her concerns and feelings.

A new nurse is caring for a client receiving drug therapy via a smart pump. What statement by the new nurse demonstrates the need for more instruction on this technology? a. "I don't need to manually calculate IV infusion rates with smart pumps." b. "Responding to IV pump alarms is a high priority for client safety." c. "The hospital can preprogram the pumps for high-alert drug limits." d. "These pumps have a system to prevent fluids from free-flowing into the client."

ANS: A The "smarter" the pump is the more programming needs to occur and errors can happen and systems can fail. Using a programmable pump does not relieve the nurse of his or her responsibility to monitor the infusion site and rates and ensure the client is receiving the fluids or medications as prescribed. The Joint Commission continues to include responding to alarms as a National Patient Safety Goal. Pumps can be preprogrammed so that upper limits exist for high-alert drugs. All electronic infusion devices have some mechanism for preventing free flow of fluids if the cassette or tubing is removed from the pump.

A medical-surgical nurse is concerned about the incidence of complications related to IV therapy, including bloodstream infection. Which intervention will the nurse suggest to the management team to make the biggest impact on decreasing complications? a. Initiate a dedicated team to insert access devices. b. Require additional education for all nurses. c. Limit the use of peripheral venous access devices. d. Perform quality control testing on skin preparation products.

ANS: A The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommends having a dedicated IV team to reduce complications, save money, and improve client satisfaction and outcomes. In-service education would always be helpful, but it would not have the same outcomes as an IV team. Limiting the use of various access devices may not be practical. The quality of skin preparation products is only one aspect of IV insertion that could contribute to infection.

5. A nurse is talking with a client about a negative enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test for human immune deficiency virus (HIV) antibodies. The test is negative and the client states Whew! I was really worried about that result. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Assess the clients sexual activity and patterns. b. Express happiness over the test result. c. Remind the client about safer sex practices. d. Tell the client to be retested in 3 months.

ANS: A The ELISA test can be falsely negative if testing occurs after the client has become infected but prior to making antibodies to HIV. This period of time is known as the window period and can last up to 36 months. The nurse needs to assess the clients sexual behavior further to determine the proper response. The other actions are not the most important, but discussing safer sex practices is always appropriate.

4. A client is admitted with a sudden decline in level of consciousness. What is the nursing action at this time? a. Assess the client for hypoglycemia and hypoxia. b. Place the client on his or her side. c. Prepare for administration of a fibrinolytic agent. d. Start a continuous IV heparin sodium infusion.

ANS: A The cause of a sudden decline in level of consciousness may or may not be related to a neurologic health problem. Therefore, the client must be evaluated for other common causes, especially hypoglycemia and hypoxia. Placing the client on his or her side may be helpful to prevent aspiration in case the client experiences vomiting, but the clinical situation does not indicate that the client has nausea or vomiting. Administering either an anticoagulant like heparin or a fibrinolytic agent assumes that the client has an acute ischemic stroke, which has not been confirmed through imaging tests.

14. A client has been hospitalized with an opportunistic infection secondary to acquired immune deficiency syndrome. The clients partner is listed as the emergency contact, but the clients mother insists that she should be listed instead. What action by the nurse is best? a. Contact the social worker to assist the client with advance directives. b. Ignore the mother; the client does not want her to be involved. c. Let the client know, gently, that nurses cannot be involved in these disputes. d. Tell the client that, legally, the mother is the emergency contact.

ANS: A The client should make his or her wishes known and formalize them through advance directives. The nurse should help the client by contacting someone to help with this process. Ignoring the mother or telling the client that nurses cannot be involved does not help the situation. Legal statutes vary by state; as more states recognize gay marriage, this issue will continue to evolve.

12. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of cerebellar stroke. What intervention is most appropriate to include on the client's plan of care? a. Ambulate only with a gait belt. b. Encourage double swallowing. c. Monitor lung sounds after eating. d. Perform postvoid residuals.

ANS: A The client who has a cerebellar stroke would be expected to have ataxia, an abnormal gait. For the client's safety, he or she should have assistance and use a gait belt when ambulating. Ataxia is not related to swallowing, aspiration, or voiding.

15. A client with human immune deficiency virus infection is hospitalized for an unrelated condition, and several medications are prescribed in addition to the regimen already being used. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Consult with the pharmacy about drug interactions. b. Ensure that the client understands the new medications. c. Give the new drugs without considering the old ones. d. Schedule all medications at standard times.

ANS: A The drug regimen for someone with HIV/AIDS is complex and consists of many medications that must be given at specific times of the day, and that have many interactions with other drugs. The nurse should consult with a pharmacist about possible interactions. Client teaching is important but does not take priority over ensuring the medications do not interfere with each other, which could lead to drug resistance or a resurgence of symptoms.

13. A nurse works on a unit that has admitted its first client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome. The nurse overhears other staff members talking about the AIDS guy and wondering how the client contracted the disease. What action by the nurse is best? a. Confront the staff members about unethical behavior. b. Ignore the behavior; they will stop on their own soon. c. Report the behavior to the units nursing management. d. Tell the client that other staff members are talking about him or her.

ANS: A The professional nurse should be able to confront unethical behavior assertively. The staff should not be talking about clients unless they have a need to do so for client care. Ignoring the behavior may be more comfortable, but the nurse is abdicating responsibility. The behavior may need to be reported, but not as a first step. Telling the client that others are talking about him or her does not accomplish anything.

1. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with human immune deficiency virus. The clients CD4+ cell count is 399/mm3. What action by the nurse is best? a. Counsel the client on safer sex practices/abstinence. b. Encourage the client to abstain from alcohol. c. Facilitate genetic testing for CD4+ CCR5/CXCR4 co-receptors. d. Help the client plan high-protein/iron meals.

ANS: A This client is in the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention stage 2 case definition group. He or she remains highly infectious and should be counseled on either safer sex practices or abstinence. Abstaining from alcohol is healthy but not required. Genetic testing is not commonly done, but an alteration on the CCR5/CXCR4 co-receptors is seen in long-term nonprogressors. High-protein/iron meals are important for people who are immunosuppressed, but helping to plan them does not take priority over stopping the spread of the disease.

12. A client has just been diagnosed with human immune deficiency virus (HIV). The client is distraught and does not know what to do. What intervention by the nurse is best? a. Assess the client for support systems. b. Determine if a clergy member would help. c. Explain legal requirements to tell sex partners. d. Offer to tell the family for the client.

ANS: A This client needs the assistance of support systems. The nurse should help the client identify them and what role they can play in supporting him or her. A clergy member may or may not be welcome. Legal requirements about disclosing HIV status vary by state. Telling the family for the client is enabling, and the client may not want the family to know.

19. An HIV-negative client who has an HIV-positive partner asks the nurse about receiving Truvada (emtricitabine and tenofovir). What information is most important to teach the client about this drug? a. Truvada does not reduce the need for safe sex practices. b. This drug has been taken off the market due to increases in cancer. c. Truvada reduces the number of HIV tests you will need. d. This drug is only used for postexposure prophylaxis.

ANS: A Truvada is a new drug used for pre-exposure prophylaxis and appears to reduce transmission of human immune deficiency virus (HIV) from known HIV-positive people to HIV-negative people. The drug does not reduce the need for practicing safe sex. Since the drug can lead to drug resistance if used, clients will still need HIV testing every 3 months. This drug has not been taken off the market and is not used for postexposure prophylaxis.

1. A student nurse is learning about human immune deficiency virus (HIV) infection. Which statements about HIV infection are correct? (Select all that apply.) a. CD4+ cells begin to create new HIV virus particles. b. Antibodies produced are incomplete and do not function well. c. Macrophages stop functioning properly. d. Opportunistic infections and cancer are leading causes of death. e. People with stage 1 HIV disease are not infectious to others.

ANS: A, B, C, D In HIV, CD4+ cells begin to create new HIV particles. Antibodies the client produces are incomplete and do not function well. Macrophages also stop functioning properly. Opportunistic infections and cancer are the two leading causes of death in clients with HIV infection. People infected with HIV are infectious in all stages of the disease.

3. A nurse is traveling to a third-world country with a medical volunteer group to work with people who are infected with human immune deficiency virus (HIV). The nurse should recognize that which of the following might be a barrier to the prevention of perinatal HIV transmission? (Select all that apply.) a. Clean drinking water b. Cultural beliefs about illness c. Lack of antiviral medication d. Social stigma e. Unknown transmission routes

ANS: A, B, C, D Treatment and prevention of HIV is complex, and in third-world countries barriers exist that one might not otherwise think of. Mothers must have access to clean drinking water if they are to mix formula. Cultural beliefs about illness, lack of available medications, and social stigma are also possible barriers. Perinatal transmission is well known to occur across the placenta during birth, from exposure to blood and body fluids during birth, and through breast-feeding.

2. Which findings are AIDS-defining characteristics? (Select all that apply.) a. CD4+ cell count less than 200/mm3 or less than 14% b. Infection with Pneumocystis jiroveci c. Positive enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test for human immune deficiency virus (HIV) d. Presence of HIV wasting syndrome e. Taking antiretroviral medications

ANS: A, B, D A diagnosis of AIDS requires that the person be HIV positive and have either a CD4+ T-cell count of less than 200 cells/mm3 or less than 14% (even if the total CD4+ count is above 200 cells/mm3) or an opportunistic infection such as Pneumocystis jiroveci and HIV wasting syndrome. Having a positive ELISA test and taking antiretroviral medications are not AIDS-defining characteristics.

A nurse prepares to administer a blood transfusion to a client, and checks the blood label with a second registered nurse using the International Society of Blood Transfusion (ISBT) universal bar-coding system to ensure the right blood for the right client. Which components must be present on the blood label in bar code and in eye-readable format? (Select all that apply.) a. Unique facility identifier b. Lot number related to the donor c. Name of the client receiving blood d. ABO group and Rh type of the donor e. Blood type of the client receiving blood f. Signature line for 2-person verification

ANS: A, B, D The ISBT universal bar-coding system includes four components: (1) the unique facility identifier, (2) the lot number relating to the donor, (3) the product code, and (4) the ABO group and Rh type of the donor. Positive identification by two qualified health care providers is essential although automated bar coding is acceptable in some care areas. However, a signature line is not required on the blood label.

A nurse assists with the insertion of a central vascular access device. Which actions will the nurse ensure are completed to prevent a catheter-related bloodstream infection? (Select all that apply.) a. Include a review for the need of the device each day in the client's plan of care. b. Remind the primary health care provider to perform hand hygiene prior to insertion if he or she forgets. c. Cleanse the preferred site with alcohol and let it dry completely before insertion. d. Ask everyone in the room to wear a surgical mask during the procedure. e. Plan to complete a sterile dressing change on the device every day. f. Minimal client draping and barrier precautions as blood loss are minimal.

ANS: A, B, D The central vascular access device bundle to prevent catheter-related bloodstream infections includes using a checklist during insertion, performing hand hygiene before inserting the catheter and anytime someone touches the catheter, using chlorhexidine to disinfect the skin at the site of insertion, using preferred sites, and reviewing the need for the catheter every day. The practitioner who inserts the device would wear sterile gloves, gown, and mask, and anyone in the room would wear a mask. Maximal barrier precautions are used which requires the client to be draped sterilely from head to toe. The initial dressing on a central vascular access device is changed in 24 hours. Gauze and tape dressings are changed every 48 hours and transparent membrane dressings are changed every 5 to 7 days.

A nurse prepares to insert a short peripheral venous catheter. What actions will the nurse take to use best practices? (Select all that apply.) a. Choose a distal site on the client's nondominant arm. b. Verify that the prescription is appropriate for peripheral infusion. c. Place the venous catheter near an area of joint flexion. d. Wear a surgical mask during the catheter insertion procedure. e. Perform hand hygiene before inserting the catheter. f. Limit unsuccessful attempts by up to three clinicians to one attempt each.

ANS: A, B, E Best practices for the insertion of a short peripheral venous catheter include hand hygiene prior to the procedure, verification of the prescription for intravenous therapy and its appropriateness for infusion through a short peripheral catheter, and placement of the catheter in a distal site, away from an area of joint flexion and when possible in the client's nondominant arm. Surgical masks are needed for central venous catheter placement but not for short peripheral venous catheter placement. Unsuccessful attempts to insert the catheter should be limited to two per person and no more than four total.

A registered nurse (RN) occasionally delegates client care to licensed practical nurses (LPNs) or technicians. What information does the RN consider when delegating components of IV therapy? (Select all that apply.) a. Each state's Nurse Practice Act will regulate who can perform care related to IVs. b. The nurse would check the facility's Policies and Procedures manual. c. The LPN's level of experience primarily guides the decision. d. Technicians cannot participate in any part of caring for IV infusions. e. The RN remains accountable for all aspects of IV care and delegated actions. f. The Infusion Nurses Society has guidelines and standards of IV therapy competency.

ANS: A, B, E, F The state Nurse Practice Act will have the information the RN needs to determine scope of practice, and in some states, LPNs and technicians are able to perform specific aspects of IV therapy. The nurse would also be familiar with facility policies and procedures regarding delegation of IV therapy. Amount of experience is not a criterion as LPNs and technicians can have their knowledge and skills verified. The nurse remains accountable for all aspects of IV therapy include what has been delegated. The Infusion Nurses Society has published guidelines and standards related to competency for IV therapy.

A nurse assesses a client who has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). For which common complications will the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Phlebitis b. Pneumothorax c. Thrombophlebitis d. Excessive bleeding e. Extravasation f. Pneumothorax g. Infiltration

ANS: A, C Although the complication rate with PICCs is fairly low, the most common complications are phlebitis, thrombophlebitis, and catheter-related bloodstream infection. Excessive bleeding, infiltration, and extravasation are not common complications. Pneumothorax does not occur.

7. A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome and esophagitis due to Candida fungus is scheduled for an endoscopy. What actions by the nurse are most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Assess the clients mouth and throat. b. Determine if the client has a stiff neck. c. Ensure that the consent form is on the chart. d. Maintain NPO status as prescribed. e. Percuss the clients abdomen.

ANS: A, C, D Oral Candida fungal infections can lead to esophagitis. This is diagnosed with an endoscopy and biopsy. The nurse assesses the clients mouth and throat beforehand, ensures valid consent is on the chart, and maintains the client in NPO status as prescribed. A stiff neck and abdominal percussion are not related to this diagnostic procedure.

4. A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is hospitalized with Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia and is started on the drug of choice for this infection. What laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider as a priority? (Select all that apply.) a. Aspartate transaminase, alanine transaminase: elevated b. CD4+ cell count: 180/mm3 c. Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL d. Platelet count: 80,000/mm3 e. Serum sodium: 120 mEq/L

ANS: A, D, E The drug of choice to treat Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is trimethoprim with sulfamethoxazole (Septra). Side effects of this drug include hepatitis, hyponatremia, and thrombocytopenia. The elevated liver enzymes, low platelet count, and low sodium should all be reported. The CD4+ cell count is within the expected range for a client with an AIDS-defining infection. The creatinine level is normal.

9. The nurse assesses a client who has a mild traumatic brain injury (TBI) for signs and symptoms consistent with this injury. What signs and symptoms does the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Sensitivity to light and sound b. Reports "feeling foggy" c. Unconscious for an hour after injury d. Elevated temperature e. Widened pulse pressure

ANS: A,B A mild TBI would possibly lead to sensitivity to light and sound and a feeling of mental fogginess. The patient would have been unconscious for less than 30 minutes. An elevated temperature is not related. A widened pulse pressure is indicative of increased intracranial pressure, not a mild TBI.

A nurse is caring for a client with a peripheral vascular access device who is experiencing pain, redness, and swelling at the site. After removing the device, what action will the nurse take to relieve pain? a. Administer topical lidocaine to the site. b. Place warm compresses on the site. c. Administer prescribed oral pain medication. d. Massage the site with scented oils.

ANS: B At the first sign of phlebitis, the catheter will be removed and warm compresses used to relieve pain. The other options are not appropriate for this type of pain.

7. A nurse is caring for a group of stroke patients. Which clients would the nurse consider referring to a mental health provider? (Select all that apply.) a. Female client who exhibits extreme emotional lability b. Male client with an initial National Institutes of Health (NIH) Stroke Scale score of 38 c. Female client with mild forgetfulness and a history of depression d. Male client who has a past hospitalization for a suicide attempt e. Male client who is unable to walk or eat 3 weeks poststroke

ANS: A,B,C,D,E Patients most at risk for poststroke depression are those with a previous history of depression, severe stroke (NIH Stroke Scale score of 38 is severe), and poststroke physical or cognitive impairment.

1. The nurse is assessing a client who has symptoms of stroke. What are the leading causes of a stroke for which the nurse would assess for this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Heavy alcohol intake b. Diabetes mellitus c. Elevated cholesterol d. Obesity e. Smoking f. Hypertension

ANS: A,B,C,D,E,F The leading causes of stroke include all of these factors.

2. Based on the known risk factors for stroke, which health promotion practices would the nurse teach a client to promote heart health and prevent strokes? (Select all that apply.) a. Blood pressure control b. Aspirin use c. Smoking cessation d. Low carbohydrate diet e. Cholesterol management f. Increased red wine consumption

ANS: A,B,C,E The evidence-based health promotion practices include blood pressure control, aspirin use, smoking cessation, and cholesterol management. There is no consensus on which diet is best to promote heart health and red wine does not protect the heart or prevent strokes.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) following a stroke. Which evidence-based nursing actions are indicated for this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Hyperoxygenate the client before and after suctioning. b. Avoid sudden or extreme hip or neck flexion. c. Provide oxygen to maintain an SaO2 of 95% or greater. d. Maintain the client in a supine position at all times. e. Avoid clustering care nursing activities and procedures. f. Provide environmental stimulation to improve cognition.

ANS: A,B,C,E These precautions help prevent further increases in ICP. Clustering nursing activities and procedures and providing stimulation can increase ICP and should be avoided.

4. The nurse is preparing for discharge of a client who had a carotid artery angioplasty with stenting to prevent a stroke. For which signs and symptoms with the nurse teach the family to report to the primary health care provider immediately? (Select all that apply.) a. Muscle weakness b. Hoarseness c. Acute confusion d. Mild neck discomfort e. Severe headache f. Dysphagia

ANS: A,B,C,E,F Muscle weakness, acute confusion, severe headache, and dysphagia are all signs and symptoms that could indicate that a stroke occurred. Hoarseness and severe neck pain and swelling may occur as a result of the interventional radiologic procedure.

6. A nurse cares for older clients who have traumatic brain injury. What does the nurse understand about this population? (Select all that apply.) a. Admission can overwhelm the coping mechanisms for older clients. b. Alcohol is typically involved in most traumatic brain injuries for this age-group. c. These clients are more susceptible to systemic and wound infections. d. Other medical conditions can complicate treatment for these clients. e. Very few traumatic brain injuries occur in this age-group.

ANS: A,C,D Older adults often tolerate stress poorly, which includes being admitted to a hospital that is unfamiliar and noisy. Because of decreased protective mechanisms, they are more susceptible to both local and systemic infections. Other medical conditions can complicate their treatment and recovery. Alcohol is typically not related to traumatic brain injury in this population; such injury is most often from falls and motor vehicle crashes.

A home care nurse prepares to administer intravenous medication to a client. The nurse assesses the site and reviews the client's chart prior to administering the medication and notes it to have been inserted 4 months ago. The site has no redness, warmth, or swelling and flushes easily. What action does the nurse take? a. Notify the primary health care provider. b. Administer the prescribed medication. c. Discontinue the PICC. d. Switch the medication to the oral route.

ANS: B A PICC that is functioning well without inflammation or infection may remain in place for months. Because the line shows no signs of complications, it is permissible to administer the IV antibiotic. There is no need to call the primary health care provider or to have the IV medication changed to an oral route.

A nurse is caring for a client who has just had a central venous access line inserted. What action will the nurse take next? a. Begin the prescribed infusion via the new access. b. Ensure that an x-ray is completed to confirm placement. c. Check medication calculations with a second RN. d. Make sure that the solution is appropriate for a central line.

ANS: B A central venous access device, once placed, needs an x-ray confirmation of proper placement before it is used. The bedside nurse would be responsible for beginning the infusion once placement has been verified. Any IV solution can be given through a central line.

9. A client is receiving IV alteplase and reports a sudden severe headache. What is the nurse's first action? a. Perform a comprehensive pain assessment. b. Discontinue the infusion of the drug. c. Conduct a neurologic assessment. d. Administer an antihypertensive drug.

ANS: B A severe headache may indicate that the client's blood pressure has markedly increased and, therefore, the drug should be stopped immediately as the first action. The nurse would then perform the appropriate assessments and possibly administer an antihypertensive medication.

6. A client with human immune deficiency virus (HIV) has had a sudden decline in status with a large increase in viral load. What action should the nurse take first? a. Ask the client about travel to any foreign countries. b. Assess the client for adherence to the drug regimen. c. Determine if the client has any new sexual partners. d. Request information about new living quarters or pets.

ANS: B Adherence to the complex drug regimen needed for HIV treatment can be daunting. Clients must take their medications on time and correctly at a minimum of 90% of the time. Since this clients viral load has increased dramatically, the nurse should first assess this factor. After this, the other assessments may or may not be needed.

15. A client is admitted with a traumatic brain injury. What is the nurse's priority assessment? a. Complete neurologic assessment b. Comprehensive pain assessment c. Airway and breathing assessment d. Functional assessment

ANS: C Although the client has a brain injury, the most important assessment is to assess the client's ABCs, which includes airway, breathing, and circulation. The other assessments are performed later after the client is stabilized.

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an epidural infusion for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention from the nurse? a. Redness at the catheter insertion site b. Report of headache and stiff neck c. Temperature of 100.1° F (37.8° C) d. Pain rating of 8 on a scale of 0-10

ANS: B Complications of epidural therapy include infection, bleeding, leakage of cerebrospinal fluid, occlusion of the catheter lumen, and catheter migration. Headache, neck stiffness, and a temperature higher than 101° F (37.8° C) are signs of meningitis and would be reported to the primary health care provider immediately. The other findings are important but do not require immediate intervention.

16. A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome has been hospitalized with suspected cryptosporidiosis. What physical assessment would be most consistent with this condition? a. Auscultating the lungs b. Assessing mucous membranes c. Listening to bowel sounds d. Performing a neurologic examination

ANS: B Cryptosporidiosis can cause extreme loss of fluids and electrolytes, up to 20 L/day. The nurse should assess signs of hydration/dehydration as the priority, including checking the clients mucous membranes for dryness. The nurse will perform the other assessments as part of a comprehensive assessment.

5. The nurse is teaching assistive personnel (AP) about care for a male client diagnosed with acute ischemic stroke and left-sided weakness. Which statement by the AP indicates understanding of the nurse's teaching? a. "I will use "yes" and "no" questions when communicating with the client." b. "I will remind the client frequently to not get out of bed without help." c. "I will offer a urinal every hour to the client due to incontinence." d. "I will feed the client slowly using soft or pureed foods."

ANS: B The client who has left-sided weakness has likely had a right-sided stroke in the brain. Clients who have strokes on the right side of the brain tend to be very impulsive and exhibit poor judgment. Therefore, to keep the client safe, the staff will need to remind the client to stay in bed unless he has assistance to prevent falling. There is no evidence in the clinical situation that the client has aphasia (which is less common in those with right-sided strokes), difficulty swallowing, or urinary incontinence.

19. After a craniotomy, the nurse assesses the client and finds dry, sticky mucous membranes, acute confusion, and restlessness. The client has IV fluids running at 75 mL/hr. What action by the nurse would the nurse take first? a. Assess the client's urinary output. b. Assess the client's serum sodium level. c. Increase the rate of the IV infusion. d. Provide oral care every hour.

ANS: B This client has signs and symptoms of hypernatremia, which is a possible complication after craniotomy. The nurse would assess the client's serum sodium level first and then possibly increase the rate of the IV infusion. Providing oral care is also a good option but does not take priority over assessing laboratory results.

1. A client is in the emergency department reporting a brief episode during which he was dizzy, unable to speak, and felt numbness in his left leg. Currently the client's neurologic examination is normal. About what drug would the nurse plan to teach the patient? a. Alteplase b. Clopidogrel c. Heparin sodium d. Mannitol

ANS: B This client's signs and symptoms are consistent with a transient ischemic attack, and the client would likely be prescribed aspirin or clopidogrel to prevent platelet aggregation on discharge. Alteplase is used for ischemic stroke. Heparin and mannitol are not used for this condition.

10. A client has a primary selective immunoglobulin A deficiency. The nurse should prepare the client for self- management by teaching what principle of medical management? a. Infusions will be scheduled every 3 to 4 weeks. b. Treatment is aimed at treating specific infections. c. Unfortunately, there is no effective treatment. d. You will need many immunoglobulin A infusions.

ANS: B Treatment for this disorder is vigorous management of infection, not infusion of exogenous immunoglobulins. The other responses are inaccurate.

6. A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome is in the hospital with severe diarrhea. What actions does the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Assessing the clients fluid and electrolyte status b. Assisting the client to get out of bed to prevent falls c. Obtaining a bedside commode if the client is weak d. Providing gentle perianal cleansing after stools e. Reporting any perianal abnormalities

ANS: B, C, D, E The UAP can assist the client with getting out of bed, obtain a bedside commode for the clients use, cleanse the clients perianal area after bowel movements, and report any abnormal observations such as redness or open areas. The nurse assesses fluid and electrolyte status.

5. A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome has oral thrush and difficulty eating. What actions does the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Apply oral anesthetic gels before meals. b. Assist the client with oral care every 2 hours. c. Offer the client frequent sips of cool drinks. d. Provide the client with alcohol-based mouthwash. e. Remind the client to use only a soft toothbrush.

ANS: B, C, E The UAP can help the client with oral care, offer fluids, and remind the client of things the nurse (or other professional) has already taught. Applying medications is performed by the nurse. Alcohol-based mouthwashes are harsh and drying and should not be used.

3. A client is admitted with a confirmed left middle cerebral artery occlusion. Which assessment findings will the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Ataxia b. Dysphagia c. Aphasia d. Apraxia e. Hemiparesis/hemiplegia f. Ptosis

ANS: B,C,D,E,F All of these assessment findings are common in clients who have a stroke caused by an occlusion of the left middle cerGebRrAalDaErteSrLyAwBith.CthOeMexception of ataxia (most often present in clients who have cerebellar strokes). This artery supplies the majority of the left side of the brain where motor, sensory, speech, and language centers are located.

8. A nurse is discharging a client from the emergency department who has a mild traumatic brain injury. What information obtained from the client represents a possible barrier to self-management? (Select all that apply.) a. Does not want to purchase a thermometer. b. Is allergic to acetaminophen. c. Laughing, says "Strenuous? What's that?" d. Lives alone and is new in town with no friends. e. Plans to have a beer and go to bed once home.

ANS: B,D,E Clients who have mild traumatic brain injuries should take acetaminophen for headache. An allergy to this drug may mean that the patient takes aspirin or ibuprofen, which should be avoided. The patient needs neurologic checks every 1 to 2 hours, and this client does not seem to have anyone available who can do that. Alcohol needs to be avoided for at least 24 hours. A thermometer is not needed. The patient laughing at strenuous activity probably does not engage in any kind of strenuous activity, but the nurse should confirm this.

10. A client experiences impaired swallowing after a stroke and has worked with speech-language pathology on eating. What nursing assessment best indicates that the expected outcome for this problem has been met? a. Chooses preferred items from the menu. b. Eats 75 to 100% of all meals and snacks. c. Has clear lung sounds on auscultation. d. Gains 2 lb (1 kg) after 1 week.

ANS: C Impaired swallowing can lead to aspiration and then aspiration pneumonia, so the expected outcome for this problem is to experience no aspiration. Clear lung sounds is the best indicator that aspiration has not occurred. Choosing menu items is not related to this problem. Eating meals does not indicate that the client is not still aspirating. A weight gain indicates improved nutrition but still does not show a lack of aspiration.

21. A client who is experiencing a traumatic brain injury has increasing intracranial pressure (ICP). What drug will the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for this client? a. Phenytoin b. Lorazepam c. Mannitol d. Morphine

ANS: C Increased intracranial pressure is often the result of cerebral edema as a result of traumatic brain injury. Therefore, as osmotic diuretic such as mannitol or a loop diuretic like furosemide is administered. The other drugs are not appropriate to manage increasing ICP.

17. A client with HIV/AIDS asks the nurse why gabapentin (Neurontin) is part of the drug regimen when the client does not have a history of seizures. What response by the nurse is best? a. Gabapentin can be used as an antidepressant too. b. I have no idea why you should be taking this drug. c. This drug helps treat the pain from nerve irritation. d. You are at risk for seizures due to fungal infections.

ANS: C Many classes of medications are used for neuropathic pain, including tricyclic antidepressants such as gabapentin. It is not being used as an antidepressant or to prevent seizures from fungal infections. If the nurse does not know the answer, he or she should find out for the client.

4. A client with human immune deficiency virus is admitted to the hospital with fever, night sweats, and severe cough. Laboratory results include a CD4+ cell count of 180/mm3 and a negative tuberculosis (TB) skin test 4 days ago. What action should the nurse take first? a. Initiate Droplet Precautions for the client. b. Notify the provider about the CD4+ results. c. Place the client under Airborne Precautions. d. Use Standard Precautions to provide care.

ANS: C Since this clients CD4+ cell count is low, he or she may have anergy, or the inability to mount an immune response to the TB test. The nurse should first place the client on Airborne Precautions to prevent the spread of TB if it is present. Next the nurse notifies the provider about the low CD4+ count and requests alterative testing for TB. Droplet Precautions are not used for TB. Standard Precautions are not adequate in this case.

2. The nurse is preparing a client for discharge from the emergency department after experiencing a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Before discharge, which factor would the nurse identify as placing the client at high risk for a stroke? a. Age greater than or equal to 75 b. Blood pressure greater than or equal to 160/95 c. Unilateral weakness during a TIA d. TIA symptoms lasting less than a minute

ANS: C The client who has a TIA is at risk for a stroke is he or she has one-sided (unilateral) weakness during a TIA. Risk factors also include an age greater than or equal to 60, blood pressure greater than or equal to 140/90 (either or both systolic and diastolic), and/or a long duration of TIA symptoms. One minute is not a very long time for symptoms to occur.

A nurse teaches a client who is prescribed a central vascular access device and is transferring to a skilled facility for long-term treatment. Which statement will the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "You will need to wear a sling on your arm while the device is in place." b. "There is no risk of infection because sterile technique will be used during insertion." c. "Ask all providers to vigorously clean the connections prior to accessing the device." d. "You will not be able to take a bath with this vascular access device."

ANS: C The nurse would actively engage the client in the prevention of catheter-related bloodstream infections and taught to remind all providers to perform hand hygiene and vigorously clean connections prior to accessing the device. The other statements are incorrect.

17. The nurse is caring for four clients with traumatic brain injuries. Which client would the nurse assess first? a. Client with amnesia for the incident b. Client who has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 12 c. Client with a PaCO2 of 36 mm Hg and on a ventilator d. Client who has a temperature of 102° F (38.9° C)

ANS: D A fever is a poor prognostic indicator in patients with brain injuries. The nurse should see this client first. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 12, a PaCO2 of 36, and amnesia for the incident are all either expected or positive findings.

9. A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome is hospitalized and has weeping Kaposis sarcoma lesions. The nurse dresses them with sterile gauze. When changing these dressings, which action is most important? a. Adhering to Standard Precautions b. Assessing tolerance to dressing changes c. Performing hand hygiene before and after care d. Disposing of soiled dressings properly

ANS: D All of the actions are important, but due to the infectious nature of this illness, ensuring proper disposal of soiled dressings is vital.

8. The nurse is preparing to administer IV alteplase for a client diagnosed with an acute ischemic stroke. Which statement is correct about the administration of this drug? a. The recommended time for drug administration is within 90 minutes after admission to the emergency department. b. The drug is given in a bolus over the first 3 minutes followed by a continuous infusion. c. The maximum dosage of the drug, including the bolus, is 120 mg intravenously. d. The drug is not given to clients who are already on anticoagulant or antiplatelet therapy.

ANS: D Alteplase is a thrombolytic which dissolves clots and can cause bleeding as an adverse effect. Clients who are already taking an anticoagulant or antiplatelet agent are at risk for bleeding and therefore they are not candidates for alteplase therapy.

A nurse assesses a client who has a radial artery catheter. Which assessment will the nurse complete first? a. Amount of pressure in fluid container b. Date of catheter tubing change c. Type of dressing over the site d. Skin color and capillary refill

ANS: D An intra-arterial catheter may cause arterial occlusion, which can lead to absent or decreased perfusion to the extremity. Assessment of color, warmth, sensation, capillary refill time, and distal pulses (if appropriate) are assessments for circulation distal to the catheter site. The nurse would note that there is enough pressure in the fluid container to keep the system flushed, and would check to see whether the catheter tubing needs to be changed. However, these are not assessments of greatest concern. The type of dressing over the site would be noted and most likely prescribed by policy.

A nurse assesses a client who had an intraosseous catheter placed in the left leg. Which assessment finding is of greatest concern? a. The catheter has been in place for 20 hours. b. The client has poor vascular access in the upper extremities. c. The catheter is placed in the proximal tibia. d. The client's left lower extremity is cool to the touch.

ANS: D Compartment syndrome is a condition in which increased tissue pressure in a confined anatomic space causes decreased blood flow to the area. A cool extremity can signal the possibility of this syndrome. All other findings are important; however, the possible development of compartment syndrome requires immediate intervention because the client could require amputation of the limb if the nurse does not correctly assess and respond to this perfusion problem.

A nurse assesses a client who was started on intraperitoneal therapy 5 days ago. The client reports abdominal pain and "feeling warm." For which complication of this therapy will the nurse assess the client? a. Allergic reaction b. Bowel obstruction c. Catheter lumen occlusion d. Infection

ANS: D Fever, abdominal pain, abdominal rigidity, and rebound tenderness may be present in the client who has peritonitis related to intraperitoneal therapy. Peritonitis is preventable by using strict aseptic technique in handling all equipment and infusion supplies. An allergic reaction would show other signs and symptoms. Bowel obstruction and catheter lumen occlusion can occur but would present clinically in different ways.

6. A nurse receives a hand-off report on a female client who had a left-sided stroke with homonymous hemianopsia. What action by the nurse is most appropriate for this client? a. Assess for bladder and bowel retention and/or incontinence. b. Listen to the client's lungs after eating or drinking for diminished breath sounds. c. Support the client's left side when sitting in a chair or in bed. d. Remind the client to move her head from side to side to increase her visual field.

ANS: D Homonymous hemianopsia is blindness on the same side of both eyes. The client must turn his or her head to see the entire visual field. This condition is not related to bladder function, difficulty swallowing, or lack of trunk control.

A nurse assesses a client's peripheral IV site, and notices edema and tenderness above the site. What action will the nurse take next? a. Apply cold compresses to the IV site. b. Elevate the extremity on a pillow. c. Flush the catheter with normal saline. d. Stop the infusion of intravenous fluids.

ANS: D Infiltration occurs when the needle dislodges partially or completely from the vein. Signs of infiltration include edema and tenderness above the site. The nurse would stop the infusion and remove the catheter. Cold compresses and elevation of the extremity can be done after the catheter is discontinued to increase client comfort. Alternatively, warm compresses may be prescribed per institutional policy and may help speed circulation to the area.

18. A client with a severe traumatic brain injury has an organ donor card in his wallet. Which nursing action is appropriate? a. Request a directive form the client's primary health care provider. b. Ask the family if they agree to organ donation for the client. c. Wait until brain death is determined before acting on organ donation. d. Contact the local organ procurement organization as soon as possible.

ANS: D The appropriate nursing action is to respect the client's desire to be an organ donor and contact the local organ procurement organization even if family members do not agree. In most agencies, the primary health care provider does not have to write an order or directive to approve the organ donation. Family consent is not required.

14. The nurse is caring for a client who had a hemorrhagic stroke. Which assessment finding is the earliest sign of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) for this client? a. Projectile vomiting b. Dilated and nonreactive pupils c. Severe hypertension d. Decreased level of consciousness

ANS: D The earliest sign of increasing ICP is decreased level of consciousness. The other signs occur later.

3. The nurse is taking a history from a daughter about her father's onset of stroke signs and symptoms. Which statement by the daughter indicates that the client likely had an embolic stroke? a. Client's symptoms occurred slowly over several hours. b. Client because increasingly lethargic and drowsy. c. Client reported severe headache before other symptoms. d. Client has a long history of atrial fibrillation.

ANS: D The major cause of embolic strokes is a history of heart disease, especially atrial fibrillation. Most clients who have an embolic stroke have acute sudden neurologic symptoms but stay alert rather than lethargic. Decreasing level of consciousness and severe headache are more common in clients who have hemorrhagic strokes.

A nurse delegates care to an assistive personnel (AP). Which statement will the nurse include when delegating hygiene for a client who has a vascular access device? a. "Provide a bed bath instead of letting the client take a shower." b. "Use sterile technique when changing the dressing." c. "Disconnect the intravenous fluid tubing prior to the client's bath." d. "Use a plastic bag to cover the extremity with the device."

ANS: D The nurse will ask the AP to cover the extremity with the vascular access device with a plastic bag or wrap to keep the dressing and site dry. The client may take a shower or bath with a vascular device. The nurse will disconnect IV fluid tubing prior to the bath and change the dressing using sterile technique if necessary. These options are not appropriate to delegate to the AP.

7. A client with a stroke is being evaluated for fibrinolytic therapy. What information from the client or family is most important for the nurse to obtain? a. Loss of bladder control b. Other medical conditions c. Progression of symptoms d. Time of symptom onset

ANS: D The time limit for initiating fibrinolytic therapy for a stroke is 3 to 4.5 hours, so the exact time of symptom onset is the most important information for this client. The other information is not as critical.

8. A client with HIV wasting syndrome has inadequate nutrition. What assessment finding by the nurse best indicates that goals have been met for this client problem? a. Chooses high-protein food b. Has decreased oral discomfort c. Eats 90% of meals and snacks d. Has a weight gain of 2 pounds/1 month

ANS: D The weight gain is the best indicator that goals for this client problem have been met because it demonstrates that the client not only is eating well but also is able to absorb the nutrients.

7. A client is hospitalized with Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. The client reports shortness of breath with activity and extreme fatigue. What intervention is best to promote comfort? a. Administer sleeping medication. b. Perform most activities for the client. c. Increase the clients oxygen during activity. d. Pace activities, allowing for adequate rest.

ANS: D This client has two major reasons for fatigue: decreased oxygenation and systemic illness. The nurse should not do everything for the client but rather let the client do as much as possible within limits and allow for adequate rest in between. Sleeping medications may be needed but not as the first step, and only with caution. Increasing oxygen during activities may or may not be warranted, but first the nurse must try pacing the clients activity.

A nurse prepares to insert a peripheral venous catheter in an older adult. What action will the nurse take to protect the client's skin during this procedure? a. Lower the extremity below the level of the heart. b. Apply warm compresses to the extremity. c. Tap the skin lightly and avoid slapping. d. Place a washcloth between the skin and tourniquet.

ANS: D To protect the client's skin, the nurse will place a washcloth or the client's gown between the skin and tourniquet. The other interventions are methods to distend the vein but will not protect the client's skin.

11. An HIV-positive client is admitted to the hospital with Toxoplasma gondii infection. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Initiate Contact Precautions. b. Place the client on Airborne Precautions. c. Place the client on Droplet Precautions. d. Use Standard Precautions consistently.

ANS: D Toxoplasma gondii infection is an opportunistic infection that poses no threat to immunocompetent health care workers. Use of Standard Precautions is sufficient to care for this client.

A nurse is assessing clients who have intravenous therapy prescribed. Which assessment finding for a client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) requires immediate attention? a. The initial site dressing is 3 days old. b. The PICC was inserted 4 weeks ago. c. A securement device is absent. d. Upper extremity swelling is noted.

ANS: D Upper extremity swelling could indicate infiltration, and the PICC will need to be removed. The initial dressing over the PICC site would be changed within 24 hours. This does not require immediate attention, but the swelling does. The dwell time for PICCs can be months or even years. Securement devices are being used more often now to secure the catheter in place and prevent complications such as phlebitis and infiltration. The IV lacking one does not take priority over the client whose arm is swollen.

A nurse prepares to flush a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line with 50 units of heparin. The pharmacy supplies a multidose vial of heparin with a concentration of 100 units/mL. Which of the syringes shown below will the nurse use to draw up and administer the heparin?

Always use a 10-mL syringe when flushing PICC lines because a smaller syringe creates higher pressure, which could rupture the lumen of the PICC. The PICC line would be accessed with a needleless syringe.