Medical Microbiology

C

A bacterium inhabits the human nasal cavity where it obtains nutrients from secretions. It neither harms nor benefits the host. The relationship is therefore a(n) _____ one. A. antagonistic B. parasitic C. commensal D. mutualistic E. neutral

Hydrolysis

A decomposition reaction that involves breakdown of a covalent bond and uses a water molecule as a reactant is known as a _____ reaction.

There are several ways to do something like this. I would first start off by determining if the compound was bacteriocidal or bacteriostatic. I would determine this by creating a mixed broth with only one type of bacteria for each of the major categories (Gram-positive low G + C, Gram-positive high G + C, and Gram-negative) I would mix a large amount of the compound in with a predetermined concentration of cells and allow it to incubate overnight. After, I would take a sample and using a cellometer would measure the total amount of cells in the sample, the amount of live cells, and the amount of dead cells. Next, I would take a small sample of this culture, and place it in a new mixed broth. If my cellometer results showed a large number of dead cells I would conclude that the compound is most likely bactericidial. If it did not and I later tested the new culture after it sat overnight and I saw a huge jump in cell numbers, I would conclude that the compound is just bacteriostatic. This would mean that the compound does not allow for the growth of the bacteria, but it also does not kill it. If I saw a large number of dead cells after the initial incubation period I would need to test to see if the antimicrobial compound is broad spectrum or narrow spectrum. I could also already make a hypothesis that if all of my cultures showed a large number of dead cells than the antimicrobial may be broad spectrum, but if it only killed one type of gram-positive bacteria (for example) then it may be narrow spectrum. I would then add droplets of the compound to bacterial lawns in order to determine cell death. Once I was able to find which category of cells is killed by the compound, I would be able to repeat the experiment with more bacteria belonging to that specific category.

A newly discovered prokaryote produces a compound with promising antimicrobial effects. Devise a set of tests to determine whether the antimicrobial is broad or narrow spectrum and bactericidal or bacteriostatic.

E

A researcher inserted DNA fragments from an organism into plasmids and introduced the modified plasmids into bacterial cells. Which of the following methods would be the most efficient means of identifying which clones contain a specific gene of interest? A. Use a microarray to detect a transcript of the gene B. Use electrophoresis to identify plasmids containing an insert of the expected size C. Use a labeled synthetic probe complementary to the gene sequence D. Sequence the DNA of the plasmids for each isolate E. Assay for activity of the gene product

B

A useful unit for measuring the size of most cells is: A. decimeters B. micrometers C. centimeters D. nanometers E. millimeters

Your Answer: 1. Antibody Molecules Antibody molecules are produced by mature B cells (plasma cells) and are specific to a particular antigen. Once they come in contact with their antigen they will bind to it and allow for other cells to phagocytose the antigen, which is normally still attached to the pathogen unless it was a secreted toxin. 2. T cell receptors (TCRs) T cell receptors are created to recognize a specific epitope. Once it recognizes an epitope it can help to further activate the immune system. This is done by Helper T cells that will secrete interleukins so that cytotoxic T cells can mature and identify compromised cells. 3. MHC molecules MHC I molecule-epitope complexes are displayed on cell membranes and recognized by T cells. This interaction will activate TH1 lymphocytes. MHC II molecules bind to antigen fragments produced after phagocytosis and display them to T lymphocytes so that TH2 lymphocytes can be activated.

A variety of molecular components of the adaptive immune system bind epitopes (antigenic determinants). Compare and contrast the binding of epitopes by antibody molecules, T cell receptors (TCRs), and MHC molecules, and describe the consequences of the different interactions.

Operon

A(n) _____ is a set of prokaryotic genes that are regulated and transcribed as a unit.

A

At temperatures higher than the maximum growth temperature of an organism ... A. hydrogen bonds are broken, proteins are denatures, and membranes become too fluid B. hydrogen bonds within molecules are broken C. hydrogen bonds are broken and proteins are permanently denatured D. membranes become too fluid for proper function E. proteins are permanently denatured

A

Bacteria described as "Low G + C": A. have DNA composed of more than 50% AT pairs B. include filamentous Actinomycetes C. Gram stain pink and are cocci D. are Gram-negative Cyanobacteria E. have unmethylated GC DNA

A

Bacterial DNA replication requires the enzyme gyrase, but eukaryotic replication does not. Ciprofloxacin ("Cipro") inhibits gyrase activity. This is an example of: A. selective toxicity B. an antimetabolite C. synergism D. antimicrobial resistance E. use of analog

Necrotizing fasciitis is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes in most cases. This bacteria is so harmful because it secretes enzymes that allow it to enter the body and destroy various tissue types like dissolving blood clots, breaking down hyaluronic acid between cells, and breaking down DNA to name a few. This bacteria secretes three different toxins that harm the body. These toxins are M protein, Streptolysin S, and Endotoxin A. M protein helps the bacteria to bind to mucosal membranes (specifically in the nose and throat) and avoid phagocytosis from immune cells. Streptolysin S kills various cells of the body like erythrocytes. Exotizin A overstimulates the immune system, which will eventually damage healthy tissue through constant inflammation and movement of white blood cells. The only treatment for this disease is complete removal of dead or dying tissue and intravaneous antimicrobial drugs. Even with this treatment improvement or the complete removal of the bacteria is not guaranteed. Gas gangrene is caused when someone is infected with Clostridium, a gram-positive, endospore forming bacteria. In most cases, C. perfringes is to blame for infection. Unlike, necrotizing fasciitis, gas gangrene is caused by many toxins and the fact that this bacteria forms endospores and grows very quickly. Clostridium does not tend to be invasive like in the previous case and it will not invade healthy tissues. However, if it is able to make it to dead tissue, it will grow out of control and release toxins that will kill neighboring cells. Usually Clostridium is introduced with deep tissue wounds or punctures like a gun shot wound or surgical wound. Treatment for this is surgical removal of dead tissue and antitoxin injections as well as penicillin.

Both necrotizing fasciitis and gas gangrene are diseases characterized by rapid, spreading tissue necrosis. Compare and contrast the infectious agents, the pathology and treatment.

C

Changes in temperature or pH can cause enzymes to lose activity. What is a common feature of these two effects? A. Temperature and pH change the ionization state of cofactors B. Temperature and pH change the activation energy of the reaction C. Temperature and pH both induce an enzyme to lose its precise three-dimensional shape. D. There is no common mechanism of temperature and pH effects on enzyme activity.

D

Cocci which divide along alternating (XY) planes may stick together to form: A. sarcinae B. palisades C. staphylococci D. tetrads E. streptococci

Infections from C. botulinum and C. tetani both cause problems with muscle response. C. botulinum releases the botulism toxin that does not allow for ACh vesicles to bind to the cytoplasmic membrane of neurons. Without this binding, acetylcholine will not be released and the muscle cell will never get the message to contract. Therefore, the botulism toxin does not allow the muscle to contract so the muscle will constantly be relaxed. C. tetani releases the tetanus toxin (tetanospasmin) when it dies that blocks the release of an inhibitory neurotransmitter. Without the inhibitory neurotransmitter muscles never get the message to relax therefore, the muscle will constantly contract due to the overstimulation of acetylcholine which is usually overcome with the inhibitory neurotransmitter. With this being said, the botulism toxin can be used to counteract the effect of the tetanus toxin. If it is used, the muscle will not get the message to constantly contract and therefore will remain relaxed. C. botulinum can cause a few different diseases depending on how it is obtained. It can cause foodborne botulism, wound botulism, and infant botulism. With foodborne botulism the toxin is injested, with wound botulism the bacteria enters the wound site and grows, and with infant botulism bacteria grow in the babies intestinal tract within the first few months of life. C. tetani causes the tetanus disease when it reaches deep tissue that lacks oxygen through open wounds or puncture areas that allow for the endospores of the bacteria to enter the body.

Compare and contrast the pathogenicity of Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium tetani, including mechanisms of action of their toxins and disease manifestations.

Replication - Both unwind their DNA using DNA helicase and create new DNA through a semi-conservative fashion. They will also both create a leading and lagging strand. The lagging strand is fixed the same way in prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Prokaryotes and eukaryotes have large chromosome differences. Prokaryotes have a single, circular chromosome where eukaryotes will have many chromosomes. Prokaryotes will have one origin of replication and eukaryotes will have many origins of replication. Due to size, replication is faster for prokaryotes than eukaryotes. Transcription - The main similarity between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that transcription will follow the same basic pattern: initiation with RNA polymerase and a promotor, elongation of the newly synthesized RNA molecule, and termination of the transcription with RNA polymerase. There are many differences between the two. Transcription and translation will happen at the same time in prokaryotes because they lack a nucleus therefore, all reactions take place in the cytoplasm. Eukaryotes contain a nucleus so transcription occurs in the nucleus and translation occurs when the mRNA leaves the nucleus and enters the cytoplasm.

Describe the basic similarities and differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA replication and transcription.

Recombinant DNA is very useful in the agricultural industry because it has been used to create plants that are herbicide tolerant, freeze resistant, pest resistant, and allow for higher nutritional value. Herbicide tolerance is important because it allows farms to crop dust fields with weed killers that will not negatively affect the growth of crops. Freeze resistance is important because it expands the locations where certain crops can be grown allowing for the production of extra food. It is important for plants to be pest resistant so bacteria and insects (in some cases) do not destroy all of the crops or impede their growth. Also, recombinant DNA has allowed for crops to produce more nutritional value. This is great because then the crops can be fed to areas that are endemic for malnutrition or fed to people in areas that do not get enough of a specific vitamin. Corn has greatly been affected by the use of recombinant DNA technology in this area. Recombinant DNA technology also causes harm. This technology can allow for the transfer of altered cells and could cause long-term harmful affects in the people that eat crops used in recombinant DNA technologies. This fact has caused a large controversy in the agricultural field and has caused many consumers to choose to go organic. People do not want to risk future health complications. Also, herbicide tolerance in particular, could cause weed resistance over time meaning that we will have to produce and treat crops we eat with even stronger chemicals, something that may not be okay to consumer later.

Discuss one of the pros and cons regarding the application of recombinant DNA technology.

Anabolic reactions are a form of metabolism that creates molecules or builds them up and catabolic reactions are a form of metabolism that breaks molecules down. Glycolysis is an example of a catabolic pathway because it breaks down glucose into pyruvate. This breakdown occurs when glucose is transformed to glucose-6-phosphate and then to fructose-6-phosphate with the help of ATP. From there, fructose-6-phosphate is transformed into 1-6 fructose bisphosphate and broken down into pyruvate with the help of two different enzymes. An example of anabolic reactions would be the building of muscle either naturally or synthetically. Anabolic steroids get their name because they help "build up" muscle.

Discuss the interrelationships between anabolic and catabolic pathways.

Bacterial endospores are important because they allow bacteria to withstand unfavorable environmental conditions until more favorable conditions are achieved. Endospores are resistant to desiccation, pH changes, antimicrobial activity, and temperature fluctuations. This allows a vegetative gram-positive bacterial cell to form an endospore so its genetic information is safe until it can become active again. Please note that bacterial endospores are not growing or a means of reproduction. They are strictly structures that are formed to wait out unfavorable conditions.

Explain the significance of bacterial endospores.

A

Filtration is a(n) _____ method of achieving sterilization. A. degerming B. viricidal C. germicidal D. germistatic E. antiseptic

D

First line of defense may be described as: A. nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells B. damage resulting cell lysis C. the coating of a pathogen by complement D. intact skin, mucous membranes, sebum, tears, and so forth E. the release of prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes

A

Honey can be stored at room temperature for long periods of time because it: A. is hypertonic B. is a natural surfactant C. contains lysozyme D. is highly acidic E. contains oxidizing agents

C

How does Borrelia burgdorferi evade the body's defenses? A. It is capable of antigenic variation B. It has manganese-containing enzymes C. It is capable of antigenic variation and has manganese-containing enzymes D. It has a polysaccharide capsule E. It has a polysaccharide capsule and antiphagocytic proteins

D

Hydrogen bonds are found in all of the following except: A. between water molecules B. in DNA double helix between nucleotides C. between the R groups of amino acids in proteins D. between phosphates in ATP E. in the structure of complex polysaccharides

C

Identification of bacteria in laboratory usually begins with the _____ for placement in one of two large groups of bacteria. A. Koch's stain B. Petri stain C. Gram stain D. Ehrlich magic test E. Pasteur fermentation test

B

In gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules move toward the _____ electrode(s) because they have an overall _____ charge. A. positive; positive B. positive; negative C. negative and positive; neutral D. negative; negative E. negative; positive

C

In the compound lamivudine an -SH group replaces an -OH group found in cytosine. When used as a medication it will: A. Disrupt membrane structure B. Interfere with protein synthesis C. Interfere with nucleic acid synthesis D. Interfere with cell wall synthesis E. Disrupt lipid membrane structure

True

Koch's postulates can be used only to determine the causes of infectious diseases.

Mycobacterium leprae

Leprosy are produced by what pathogen?

Log

Metabolic activity of a microbe is at maximum level in the _____ phase of growth.

Helminths

Microbiologists interested in parasitism study multicellular parasitic _____ as well as single-celled protozoa.

Antibacterial drugs can attack many cellular features of bacterial pathogens. The most common targets for these drugs is cell wall synthesis, bacterial ribosomes, and bacterial appendages like flagella (if present). Bacterial cell walls are made of peptidoglycan. Penicillin is an example of an antibiotic that attacks peptidoglycan while it is being made so the glycosidic linkages cannot be formed. Therefore, when the cell is going through mitosis it will end up rupturing since it cannot complete the creation of peptidoglycan. Bacterial ribosomes are 70S and eukaryotic cells contain 80S ribosomes. This makes an easy target because the antibiotic will only affect cells containing 70S ribosomes, leaving eukaryotic cells unharmed. Flagella are different between prokaryotes and eukaryotes so an antimicrobial could target only prokaryotic flagella. However, only prokaryotes contain pilli or fimbrae so if an antimicrobial drug targets them, all eukaryotic cells should be fine within a patient.

Most antibacterial drugs disrupt or destroy bacterial cellular characteristics that are different from those of eukaryotic cells or that may not even be present in eukaryotic cells, an idea termed "selective toxicity." List and describe at least three cellular features of bacteria that could be targeted to inhibit of kill a bacterial pathogen.

C

Mucous membranes are quite thin and fragile. How can such delicate tissue provide defense against microbial invaders? A. The mucus secreted by the mucous membrane physically traps microbes B. The mucus is a physical trap that contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals C. The mucus physically traps microbes, contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals, and is shed constantly, along with the outermost layer of cells D. The mucus contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals and molecules E. Both the mucus and the outer layer of cells are shed frequently

Streptococcus pyogenes

Necrotizing faciitis are produced by what pathogen?

Nitrogen is essential for life because nitrogen is needed for the production of amino acids, nucleic acids, and proteins. All are essential for life. Amino acids are the building blocks of polypeptides, nucleic acids are the building blocks of DNA and RNA, and proteins are macromolecules that serve in many cell functions.

Nitrogen is an essential element for living things, as demonstrated by the fact that nearly all fertilizers contain nitrogenous compounds. Describe 2 reasons why nitrogen is essential for cellular life.

D

Normal skin microbiota are able to grow on the skin because they can thrive in the presence of: A. keratin B. salt C. sebum D. sebum and salt E. sebum, salt, and keratin

B

One advantage of adaptive immunity over innate immunity is: A. the response is faster B. the response is targeted against a single pathogen C. the response targets classes of pathogen instead of specific pathogens D. a huge variety of cells are produced in response to an infection E. the ability to recognize antigens common to many microbes

C

Organisms that can grow with or without oxygen present are: A. aerotolerant anaerobes B. facultative anaerobes C. either facultative anaerobes or aerotolerant anaerobes D. obligate anaerobes E. obligate aerobes

Chemoheterotrophs

Organisms that require organic sources of carbon and energy are called _____.

True

Prokaryotic cells are haploid.

B

Protozoa that have a single large mitochondrion and are found living in animals are: A. parabasalids B. kinetoplastids C. amoebae D. dinoflagellates E. ciliates

Rubivirus

Rubella are produced by what pathogen?

B

Safranin dye is used as the counterstain in _____ stain(s). A. the acid-fast B. both the Gram and the endospore C. the Gram D. the flagellar E. the endospore

Varicella-zoster virus

Shingles are produced by what pathogen?

pyrogens

Some pathogens produce toxins, which function as _____ to cause fever

B

Species and strains of microbes can be distinguished from one another phenotypically using: A. electron microscope B. serological tests C. G + C content D. Gram-stain reactions E. ribosomal RNA analysis

prions

Spongiform encephalopathy diseases develop as a result of infection with _____

False

T/F: Because they are common soil saprobes, dermatophytes are fungi that are not contagious in humans

False

T/F: Carbon atoms have four valence electrons and typically form polar covalent bonds.

False

T/F: Clostridium perfringens causes necrotizing fasciitis

False

T/F: Cocci usually are shaped as rods.

True

T/F: Current classification of the fungi is based on morphologic characteristics.

True

T/F: Fungi rarely infect the central nervous system

False

T/F: Microbiologists study only single-celled organisms.

False

T/F: Mycoplasmas are named for the large quantities of mycolic acid in their cell walls.

True

T/F: One of the products of dehydration synthesis reactions in water.

True

T/F: Some bacterial cells are resistant to a variety of antimicrobials because they actively pump the drugs out of the cell.

True

T/F: Some viruses are inactivated by the same chemical or physical agents that damage cytoplasmic membranes.

False

T/F: Spectrophotometry is a direct method of determining the number of cells in a sample.

False

T/F: TCRs only recognize antigens presented on MHCII molecules by antigen-presenting cells like dendritic cells

True

T/F: The ability to utilize different metabolites for cellular respiration is one method for identifying bacteria.

True

T/F: The endospore stain reveals internal structures within cells of the genera Bacillus.

False

T/F: The generation time of a bacterial culture is not affected by the culture conditions.

False

T/F: The resident microbiota have no role in defense against pathogen invasion

False

T/F: Under ideal conditions, the number of DNA molecules produced during PCR increases linearly.

E

The CDC issued alerts about a bacterial strain known as NDM1 (New Delhi metalo-lactamase). What type of antibiotic resistance is indicated by the name? A. change in the permeability of the drug B. overproduction of an enzyme in a key metabolic pathway C. alteration of the target of the drug D. removal of the drug via a pump E. inactivation of the drug

D

The Gram-negative diplococcus _____ is resistant to phagocytosis and releases Lipid A to cause inflammation. A. Streptococcus agalactiae B. Listeria monocytogenes C. Clostridium botulinum D. Neisseria meningitidis E. Haemophilu influenza

G + C content

The _____ is a genetic determination used in classifying the different taxa of Gram-positive bacteria.

variable

The _____ regions from the light and heavy chains of an antibody combine to form antigen-binding sites

memory

The ability of the body to respond faster and more efficiently to a second exposure to pathogens is called immunologic _____

A

The acid-fast stain is used to stain: A. bacteria with waxy cell walls B. Living bacteria C. bacteria with capsules D. endospores E. bacteria lacking cell walls

Leeuwenhoek

The amateur scientist _____ made his own microscopes and first reported the existence of microbes.

A

The bacterium _____ adheres to and grows on teeth, contributing to dental plaque formation.

A

The components of the second line of defense against microbes may be characterized as: A. mechanisms that are redundant, but stronger than the first line of defense B. passive barriers C. detecting the unique features of specific pathogen D. responding to all microbes in a discriminate manner E. both passive barriers and detecting specific pathogen features

Helical

The first virus isolated, Tobacco mosaic virus, has a _____ capsid morphology, which facilitated its isolation.

Peptidoglycan

The majority of broad spectrum antibacterial medications inhibit _____ synthesis.

NADH (NAD+ is an electron carrier that is converted to NADH, the electrons used in the electron transport chain to create ATP.)

The majority of the energy captured in the Krebs cycle is in the form of _____.

C

The method of obtaining isolated colonies that utilizes surface area to physically dilute specimens in called: A. the pour-plate technique B. transport media C. the streak-plate technique D. enrichment culturing E. serial dilution

Binary

The most common form of reproduction among prokaryotes is _____ fission.

B

The procedure known as "replica plating" is used in: A. mutagenesis B. negative selection only C. the Ames test D. both positive and negative selection E. positive selection only

inflammation

The process known as _____ brings a variety of physical, chemical, and cellular factors together to fight invading microorganisms

Fixation

The process of immobilizing organisms on a glass slide through the application of either heat or chemicals is _____.

Lipid

The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the site of _____ synthesis.

D

The type(s) of bonds produced when atoms share electrons equally is/are: A. a hydrogen bond B. an ionic bond C. a polar covalent bond D. a nonpolar covalent bond E. both polar covalent and ionic bonds

1. Observe and formulate a question. Does spontaneous generation exist? 2. Formulate a hypothesis. Spontaneous fermentation occurs in nature (Null hypothesis) 3. Create an experiment Place broth in a swan neck flask and boil the broth, leave the contents of the flask exposed to the air by not capping off the end of the flask. (This way scientists believing in spontaneous generation could not argue that the flask was closed off to the "vital force.") 3. Observe what occurs The contents of the flask (broth) remains clear and free of growth while being exposed to the environment. 4. Conclusion Spontaneous generation does not exist.

Use the basic steps of the scientific method to describe Pasteur's experiments to investigate spontaneous generation.

C

Vomiting is a common sign of food poisoning. The corresponding symptom would be: A. fever B. Diarrhea C. Nausea D. Cramps E. Pain

Papillomavirus

Warts are produced by what pathogen?

E

What is the correct order for the steps in the scientific method? I. Conduct experiment II. Develop a hypothesis III. Analyze results IV. Accept or reject hypothesis A. There is no specific order required B. IV, III, II, I C. I, III, II, IV D. I, II, III, IV E. II, I, III, IV

Allosteric site

When a noncompetitive inhibitor molecule binds to a(n) _____ site on an enzyme, the shape of the active site changes so that the substrate molecules can no longer bind.

E

Which of the following diseases is the result of a bacterial infection of peripheral nerves? A. rabies B. acute bacterial meningitis C. botulism D. tetanus E. leprosy

A

Which of the following is an accurate description of viruses? A. They are acellular obligatory parasites B. They are composed of protein only C. They are typically about the size of prokaryotic cells D. They are visible with a light microscope E. They are the smallest known cells

B

Which of the following is only found in eukaryotic cells? A. DNA B. Nuclear envelope C. cytoplasm D. ribosomes E. cytoplasmic membranes

C

Which of the following is/are transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes? A. yellow fever B. dengue fever, yellow fever, and malaria C. both dengue fever and yellow fever D. malaria E. dengue fever

E

Which of the following occurs in eukaryotes but not in prokaryotes? A. transformation B. translation C. DNA replication D. transcription E. polyadenylation

A

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A. fungi; always diploid, never haploid B. cellular slime mold; usually haploid C. protozoa; usually diploid D. animals; usually diploid E. plants; usually diplod

B

Which of the following restriction enzyme sites would produce blunt-ended fragments? (The carrot represents the cutting site of the enzyme.) A. C^CGG B. CCC^GGG C. G^GATCC D. G^AATTC E. A^AGCTT

D

Which of the following statements concerning B cell receptors (BCRs) is false? A. Each B lymphocyte is randomly generated with antibody variable regions that determine its BCR B. Scientists estimate that each person forms more than a billion different types of B lymphocytes each with a distinct B cell receptor C. They are complementary in shape to a specific antigenic determinant that they may or may not encounter D. They are formed in response to an encounter with an antigen E. They are bound to the surface of B lymphocytes and have two antigen-binding sites

B

Which of the following statements is correct about both bacterial and eukaryotic DNA replication? A. The lagging strand is synthesized in fragments of about 1000 or so bases. B. Replication proceeds bidirectionally from the origin of replication C. Each chromosome has multiple origins of replication D. A single DNA polymerase is responsible for both leading strand and lagging strand synthesis simultaneously

E

Which of the following statements regarding meiosis is most accurate? A. crossing over occurs during metaphase I B. Homologous (non-sister) chromatids separate during anaphase II C. meiosis has the same number of stages as mitosis D. haploid cells produce diploid cells E. a diploid cell produces haploid daughter cells

The synthesis of mRNA is a problem for viruses because it needs to be synthesized and translated in order to make proteins so that more viruses may be produced. However, viruses do not contain the cellular machinery required for this and that is why they must depend on the cells they infect. Viruses are able to have their mRNA synthesized by incorporating their own genome (if its dsDNA or ssDNA) directly into the host chromosome and they can allow the cell to replicate and translate their ssRNA genome (if that what is has) directly. No matter how their genome is packaged, they are completely dependent on the host cell to read and replicate it in order to make more viral components.

Why is the synthesis of mRNA a central issue for all viruses? How do different types of viruses achieve this goal?

Lipopolysaccharide (Lipid A portoin)

_____ is a part of the Gram-negative cell outer membrane that can produce fever, inflammation, and shock when it is released into the bloodstream.