Medical-Surgical Nursing, 13th Edition - Exam 2 Study Questions

26. The nurse is planning the care of a patient who has been recently diagnosed with a cerebellar tumor. Due to the location of this patient's tumor, the nurse should implement measures to prevent what complication? A) Falls B) Audio hallucinations C) Respiratory depression D) Labile BP

Ans: A Feedback: A cerebellar tumor causes dizziness, an ataxic or staggering gait with a tendency to fall toward the side of the lesion, and marked muscle incoordination. Because of this, the patient faces a high risk of falls. Hallucinations and unstable vital signs are not closely associated with cerebellar tumors.

15. A patient with herpes simplex virus encephalitis (HSV) has been admitted to the ICU. What medication would the nurse expect the physician to order for the treatment of this disease process? A) Cyclosporine (Neoral) B) Acyclovir (Zovirax) C) Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) D) Ampicillin (Prinicpen)

Ans: B Feedback: Acyclovir (Zovirax) or ganciclovir (Cytovene), antiviral agents, are the medications of choice in the treatment of HSV. The mode of action is the inhibition of viral DNA replication. To prevent relapse, treatment would continue for up to 3 weeks. Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant and antirheumatic. Cyclobenzaprine is a centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant. Ampicillin, an antibiotic, is ineffective against viruses.

13. A patient has been admitted to the neurologic unit for the treatment of a newly diagnosed brain tumor. The patient has just exhibited seizure activity for the first time. What is the nurse's priority response to this event? A) Identify the triggers that precipitated the seizure. B) Implement precautions to ensure the patient's safety. C) Teach the patient's family about the relationship between brain tumors and seizure activity. D) Ensure that the patient is housed in a private room.

Ans: B Feedback: Patients with seizures are carefully monitored and protected from injury. Patient safety is a priority over health education, even though this is appropriate and necessary. Specific triggers may or may not be evident; identifying these is not the highest priority. A private room is preferable, but not absolutely necessary.

21. A 69-year-old patient is brought to the ED by ambulance because a family member found him lying on the floor disoriented and lethargic. The physician suspects bacterial meningitis and admits the patient to the ICU. The nurse knows that risk factors for an unfavorable outcome include what? Select all that apply. A) Blood pressure greater than 140/90 mm Hg B) Heart rate greater than 120 bpm C) Older age D) Low Glasgow Coma Scale E) Lack of previous immunizations

Ans: B, C, D Feedback: Risks for an unfavorable outcome of meningitis include older age, a heart rate greater than 120 beats/minute, low Glasgow Coma Scale score, cranial nerve palsies, and a positive Gram stain 1 hour after presentation to the hospital. A BP greater than 140/90 mm Hg is indicative of hypertension, but is not necessarily related to poor outcomes related to meningitis. Immunizations are not normally relevant to the course of the disease.

8. A patient with Parkinson's disease is undergoing a swallowing assessment because she has recently developed adventitious lung sounds. The patient's nutritional needs should be met by what method? A) Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) B) Provision of a low-residue diet C) Semisolid food with thick liquids D) Minced foods and a fluid restriction

Ans: C Feedback: A semisolid diet with thick liquids is easier for a patient with swallowing difficulties to consume than is a solid diet. Low-residue foods and fluid restriction are unnecessary and counterproductive to the patient's nutritional status. The patient's status does not warrant TPN.

The nurse recognizes that a patient with a SCI is at risk for muscle spasticity. How can the nurse best prevent this complication of an SCI? A) Position the patient in a high Fowler's position when in bed. B) Support the knees with a pillow when the patient is in bed. C) Perform passive ROM exercises as ordered. D) Administer NSAIDs as ordered.

Ans: C Feedback: Passive ROM exercises can prevent muscle spasticity following SCI. NSAIDs are not used for this purpose. Pillows and sitting upright do not directly address the patient's risk of muscle spasticity.

The nurse caring for a patient with a spinal cord injury notes that the patient is exhibiting early signs and symptoms of disuse syndrome. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action? A) Limit the amount of assistance provided with ADLs. B) Collaborate with the physical therapist and immobilize the patient's extremities temporarily. C) Increase the frequency of ROM exercises. D) Educate the patient about the importance of frequent position changes.

Ans: C Feedback: To prevent disuse syndrome, ROM exercises must be provided at least four times a day, and care is taken to stretch the Achilles tendon with exercises. The patient is repositioned frequently and is maintained in proper body alignment whether in bed or in a wheelchair. The patient must be repositioned by caregivers, not just taught about repositioning. It is inappropriate to limit assistance for the sole purpose of preventing disuse syndrome.

A patient with a spinal cord injury has experienced several hypotensive episodes. How can the nurse best address the patient's risk for orthostatic hypotension? A) Administer an IV bolus of normal saline prior to repositioning. B) Maintain bed rest until normal BP regulation returns. C) Monitor the patient's BP before and during position changes. D) Allow the patient to initiate repositioning.

Ans: C Feedback: To prevent hypotensive episodes, close monitoring of vital signs before and during position changes is essential. Prolonged bed rest carries numerous risks and it is not possible to provide a bolus before each position change. Following the patient's lead may or may not help regulate BP.

22. The critical care nurse is caring for 25-year-old man admitted to the ICU with a brain abscess. What is a priority nursing responsibility in the care of this patient? A) Maintaining the patient's functional independence B) Providing health education C) Monitoring neurologic status closely D) Promoting mobility

Ans: C Feedback: Vigilant neurologic monitoring is a key aspect of caring for a patient who has a brain abscess. This supersedes education, ADLs, and mobility, even though these are all valid and important aspects of nursing care.

24. A patient who has been experiencing numerous episodes of unexplained headaches and vomiting has subsequently been referred for testing to rule out a brain tumor. What characteristic of the patient's vomiting is most consistent with a brain tumor? A) The patient's vomiting is accompanied by epistaxis. B) The patient's vomiting does not relieve his nausea. C) The patient's vomiting is unrelated to food intake. D) The patient's emesis is blood-tinged.

Ans: C Feedback: Vomiting is often unrelated to food intake if caused by a brain tumor. The presence or absence of blood is not related to the possible etiology and vomiting may or may not relieve the patient's nausea.

A patient who suffered a spinal cord injury is experiencing an exaggerated autonomic response. What aspect of the patient's current health status is most likely to have precipitated this event? A) The patient received a blood transfusion. B) The patient's analgesia regimen was recent changed. C) The patient was not repositioned during the night shift. D) The patient's urinary catheter became occluded.

Ans: D Feedback: A distended bladder is the most common cause of autonomic dysreflexia. Infrequent positioning is a less likely cause, although pressure ulcers or tactile stimulation can cause it. Changes in mediations or blood transfusions are unlikely causes.

7. The nurse is creating a plan of care for a patient who has a recent diagnosis of MS. Which of the following should the nurse include in the patient's care plan? A) Encourage patient to void every hour. B) Order a low-residue diet. C) Provide total assistance with all ADLs. D) Instruct the patient on daily muscle stretching.

Ans: D Feedback: A patient diagnosed with MS should be encouraged to increase the fiber in his or her diet and void 30 minutes after drinking to help train the bladder. The patient should participate in daily muscle stretching to help alleviate and relax muscle spasms.

A patient with a C5 spinal cord injury is tetraplegic. After being moved out of the ICU, the patient complains of a severe throbbing headache. What should the nurse do first? A) Check the patient's indwelling urinary catheter for kinks to ensure patency. B) Lower the HOB to improve perfusion. C) Administer analgesia. D) Reassure the patient that headaches are expected after spinal cord injuries.

Ans: A Feedback: A severe throbbing headache is a common symptom of autonomic dysreflexia, which occurs after injuries to the spinal cord above T6. The syndrome is usually brought on by sympathetic stimulation, such as bowel and bladder distention. Lowering the HOB can increase ICP. Before administering analgesia, the nurse should check the patient's catheter, record vital signs, and perform an abdominal assessment. A severe throbbing headache is a dangerous symptom in this patient and is not expected.

37. A patient with MS has been admitted to the hospital following an acute exacerbation. When planning the patient's care, the nurse addresses the need to enhance the patient's bladder control. What aspect of nursing care is most likely to meet this goal? A) Establish a timed voiding schedule. B) Avoid foods that change the pH of urine. C) Perform intermittent catheterization q6h. D) Administer anticholinergic drugs as ordered.

Ans: A Feedback: A timed voiding schedule addresses many of the challenges with urinary continence that face the patient with MS. Interventions should be implemented to prevent the need for catheterization and anticholinergics are not normally used.

1. A nurse is assessing a patient with an acoustic neuroma who has been recently admitted to an oncology unit. What symptoms is the nurse likely to find during the initial assessment? A) Loss of hearing, tinnitus, and vertigo B) Loss of vision, change in mental status, and hyperthermia C) Loss of hearing, increased sodium retention, and hypertension D) Loss of vision, headache, and tachycardia

Ans: A Feedback: An acoustic neuroma is a tumor of the eighth cranial nerve, the cranial nerve most responsible for hearing and balance. The patient with an acoustic neuroma usually experiences loss of hearing, tinnitus, and episodes of vertigo and staggering gait. Acoustic neuromas do not cause loss of vision, increased sodium retention, or tachycardia.

The nurse is caring for a patient whose spinal cord injury has caused recent muscle spasticity. What medication should the nurse expect to be ordered to control this? A) Baclofen (Lioresal) B) Dexamethasone (Decadron) C) Mannitol (Osmitrol) D) Phenobarbital (Luminal)

Ans: A Feedback: Baclofen is classified as an antispasmodic agent in the treatment of muscles spasms related to spinal cord injury. Decadron is an anti-inflammatory medication used to decrease inflammation in both SCI and head injury. Mannitol is used to decrease cerebral edema in patients with head injury. Phenobarbital is an anticonvulsant that is used in the treatment of seizure activity.

18. The nurse is caring for a patient who is hospitalized with an exacerbation of MS. To ensure the patient's safety, what nursing action should be performed? A) Ensure that suction apparatus is set up at the bedside. B) Pad the patient's bed rails. C) Maintain bed rest whenever possible. D) Provide several small meals each day.

Ans: A Feedback: Because of the patient's risk of aspiration, it is important to have a suction apparatus at hand. Bed rest should be generally be minimized, not maximized, and there is no need to pad the patient's bed rails or to provide multiple small meals.

A patient who is being treated in the hospital for a spinal cord injury is advocating for the removal of his urinary catheter, stating that he wants to try to resume normal elimination. What principle should guide the care team's decision regarding this intervention? A) Urinary retention can have serious consequences in patients with SCIs. B) Urinary function is permanently lost following an SCI. C) Urinary catheters should not remain in place for more than 7 days. D) Overuse of urinary catheters can exacerbate nerve damage.

Ans: A Feedback: Bladder distention, a major cause of autonomic dysreflexia, can also cause trauma. For this reason, removal of a urinary catheter must be considered with caution. Extended use of urinary catheterization is often necessary following SCI. The effect of a spinal cord lesion on urinary function depends on the level of the injury. Catheter use does not cause nerve damage, although it is a major risk factor for UTIs.

A patient is admitted to the neurologic ICU with a suspected diffuse axonal injury. What would be the primary neuroimaging diagnostic tool used on this patient to evaluate the brain structure? A) MRI B) PET scan C) X-ray D) Ultrasound

Ans: A Feedback: CT and MRI scans, the primary neuroimaging diagnostic tools, are useful in evaluating the brain structure. Ultrasound would not show the brain nor would an x-ray. A PET scan shows brain function, not brain structure.

5. A patient diagnosed with Bell's palsy is being cared for on an outpatient basis. During health education, the nurse should promote which of the following actions? A) Applying a protective eye shield at night B) Chewing on the affected side to prevent unilateral neglect C) Avoiding the use of analgesics whenever possible D) Avoiding brushing the teeth

Ans: A Feedback: Corneal irritation and ulceration may occur if the eye is unprotected. While paralysis lasts, the involved eye must be protected. The patient should be encouraged to eat on the unaffected side, due to swallowing difficulties. Analgesics are used to control the facial pain. The patient should continue to provide self-care including oral hygiene.

19. A patient with Huntington disease has just been admitted to a long-term care facility. The charge nurse is creating a care plan for this patient. Nutritional management for a patient with Huntington disease should be informed by what principle? A) The patient is likely to have an increased appetite. B) The patient is likely to required enzyme supplements. C) The patient will likely require a clear liquid diet. D) The patient will benefit from a low-protein diet.

Ans: A Feedback: Due to the continuous involuntary movements, patients will have a ravenous appetite. Despite this ravenous appetite, patients usually become emaciated and exhausted. As the disease progresses, patients experience difficulty in swallowing and thin liquids should be avoided. Protein will not be limited with this disease. Enzyme supplements are not normally required.

A patient with a T2 injury is in spinal shock. The nurse will expect to observe what assessment finding? A) Absence of reflexes along with flaccid extremities B) Positive Babinski's reflex along with spastic extremities C) Hyperreflexia along with spastic extremities D) Spasticity of all four extremities

Ans: A Feedback: During the period immediately following a spinal cord injury, spinal shock occurs. In spinal shock, all reflexes are absent and the extremities are flaccid. When spinal shock subsides, the patient demonstrates a positive Babinski's reflex, hyperreflexia, and spasticity of all four extremities.

The nurse is planning the care of a patient with a T1 spinal cord injury. The nurse has identified the diagnosis of "risk for impaired skin integrity." How can the nurse best address this risk? A) Change the patient's position frequently. B) Provide a high-protein diet. C) Provide light massage at least daily. D) Teach the patient deep breathing and coughing exercises.

Ans: A Feedback: Frequent position changes are among the best preventative measures against pressure ulcers. A high-protein diet can benefit wound healing, but does not necessarily prevent skin breakdown. Light massage and deep breathing do not protect or restore skin integrity.

23. A gerontologic nurse is advocating for diagnostic testing of an 81-year-old patient who is experiencing personality changes. The nurse is aware of what factor that is known to affect the diagnosis and treatment of brain tumors in older adults? A) The effects of brain tumors are often attributed to the cognitive effects of aging. B) Brain tumors in older adults do not normally produce focal effects. C) Older adults typically have numerous benign brain tumors by the eighth decade of life. D) Brain tumors cannot normally be treated in patient over age 75.

Ans: A Feedback: In older adult patients, early signs and symptoms of intracranial tumors can be easily overlooked or incorrectly attributed to cognitive and neurologic changes associated with normal aging. Brain tumors are not normally benign and they produce focal effects in all patients. Treatment options are not dependent primarily on age.

6. The nurse is working with a patient who is newly diagnosed with MS. What basic information should the nurse provide to the patient? A) MS is a progressive demyelinating disease of the nervous system. B) MS usually occurs more frequently in men. C) MS typically has an acute onset. D) MS is sometimes caused by a bacterial infection.

Ans: A Feedback: MS is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system, characterized by the occurrence of small patches of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord. The cause of MS is not known, and the disease affects twice as many women as men.

25. A male patient presents at the free clinic with complaints of impotency. Upon physical examination, the nurse practitioner notes the presence of hypogonadism. What diagnosis should the nurse suspect? A) Prolactinoma B) Angioma C) Glioma D) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)-producing adenoma

Ans: A Feedback: Male patients with prolactinomas may present with impotence and hypogonadism. An ACTH-producing adenoma would cause acromegaly. The scenario contains insufficient information to know if the tumor is an angioma, glioma, or neuroma.

29. The nurse is teaching a patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome about the disease. The patient asks how he can ever recover if demyelination of his nerves is occurring. What would be the nurse's best response? A) Guillain-Barré spares the Schwann cell, which allows for remyelination in the recovery phase of the disease. B) In Guillain-Barré, Schwann cells replicate themselves before the disease destroys them, so remyelination is possible. C) I know you understand that nerve cells do not remyelinate, so the physician is the best one to answer your question. D) For some reason, in Guillain-Barré, Schwann cells become activated and take over the remyelination process.

Ans: A Feedback: Myelin is a complex substance that covers nerves, providing insulation and speeding the conduction of impulses from the cell body to the dendrites. The cell that produces myelin in the peripheral nervous system is the Schwann cell. In Guillain-Barré syndrome, the Schwann cell is spared, allowing for remyelination in the recovery phase of the disease. The nurse should avoid downplaying the patient's concerns by wholly deferring to the physician.

33. A patient with diabetes presents to the clinic and is diagnosed with a mononeuropathy. This patient's nursing care should involve which of the following? A) Protection of the affected limb from injury B) Passive and active ROM exercises for the affected limb C) Education about improvements to glycemic control D) Interventions to prevent contractures

Ans: A Feedback: Nursing care involves protection of the affected limb or area from injury, as well as appropriate patient teaching about mononeuropathy and its treatment. Nursing care for this patient does not likely involve exercises or assistive devices, since these are unrelated to the etiology of the disease. Improvements to diabetes management may or may not be necessary.

30. An older adult has encouraged her husband to visit their primary care provider, stating that she is concerned that he may have Parkinson's disease. Which of the wife's descriptions of her husband's health and function is most suggestive of Parkinson's disease? A) "Lately he seems to move far more slowly than he ever has in the past." B) "He often complains that his joints are terribly stiff when he wakes up in the morning." C) "He's forgotten the names of some people that we've known for years." D) "He's losing weight even though he has a ravenous appetite."

Ans: A Feedback: Parkinson's disease is characterized by bradykinesia. It does not manifest as memory loss, increased appetite, or joint stiffness.

37. A patient with a new diagnosis of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is overwhelmed by his diagnosis and the known complications of the disease. How can the patient best make known his wishes for care as his disease progresses? A) Prepare an advance directive. B) Designate a most responsible physician (MRP) early in the course of the disease. C) Collaborate with representatives from the Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis Association. D) Ensure that witnesses are present when he provides instruction.

Ans: A Feedback: Patients with ALS are encouraged to complete an advance directive or "living will" to preserve their autonomy in decision making. None of the other listed actions constitutes a legally binding statement of end-of-life care.

27. A patient has been admitted to the neurologic ICU with a diagnosis of a brain tumor. The patient is scheduled to have a tumor resection/removal in the morning. Which of the following assessment parameters should the nurse include in the initial assessment? A) Gag reflex B) Deep tendon reflexes C) Abdominal girth D) Hearing acuity

Ans: A Feedback: Preoperatively, the gag reflex and ability to swallow are evaluated. In patients with diminished gag response, care includes teaching the patient to direct food and fluids toward the unaffected side, having the patient sit upright to eat, offering a semisoft diet, and having suction readily available. Deep tendon reflexes, abdominal girth, and hearing acuity are less commonly affected by brain tumors and do not affect the risk for aspiration.

40. A nurse is planning discharge education for a patient who underwent a cervical diskectomy. What strategies would the nurse assess that would aid in planning discharge teaching? A) Care of the cervical collar B) Technique for performing neck ROM exercises C) Home assessment of ABGs D) Techniques for restoring nerve function

Ans: A Feedback: Prior to discharge, the nurse should assess the patient's use and care of the cervical collar. Neck ROM exercises would be contraindicated and ABGs cannot be assessed in the home. Nerve function is not compromised by a diskectomy.

20. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize for this patient? A) Using the incentive spirometer as prescribed B) Maintaining the patient on bed rest C) Providing aids to compensate for loss of vision D) Assessing frequently for loss of cognitive function

Ans: A Feedback: Respiratory function can be maximized with incentive spirometry and chest physiotherapy. Nursing interventions toward enhancing physical mobility should be utilized. Nursing interventions are aimed at preventing a deep vein thrombosis. Guillain-Barré syndrome does not affect cognitive function or vision.

26. You are the clinic nurse caring for a patient with a recent diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. The patient has begun treatment with pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon). What change in status would most clearly suggest a therapeutic benefit of this medication? A) Increased muscle strength B) Decreased pain C) Improved GI function D) Improved cognition

Ans: A Feedback: The goal of treatment using pyridostigmine bromide is improvement of muscle strength and control of fatigue. The drug is not intended to treat pain, or cognitive or GI functions.

33. The nurse caring for a patient diagnosed with Parkinson's disease has prepared a plan of care that would include what goal? A) Promoting effective communication B) Controlling diarrhea C) Preventing cognitive decline D) Managing choreiform movements

Ans: A Feedback: The goals for the patient may include improving functional mobility, maintaining independence in ADLs, achieving adequate bowel elimination, attaining and maintaining acceptable nutritional status, achieving effective communication, and developing positive coping mechanisms. Constipation is more likely than diarrhea and cognition largely remains intact. Choreiform movements are related to Huntington disease.

The nurse is providing health education to a patient who has a C6 spinal cord injury. The patient asks why autonomic dysreflexia is considered an emergency. What would be the nurse's best answer? A) "The sudden increase in BP can raise the ICP or rupture a cerebral blood vessel." B) "The suddenness of the onset of the syndrome tells us the body is struggling to maintain its normal state." C) "Autonomic dysreflexia causes permanent damage to delicate nerve fibers that are healing." D) "The sudden, severe headache increases muscle tone and can cause further nerve damage."

Ans: A Feedback: The sudden increase in BP may cause a rupture of one or more cerebral blood vessels or lead to increased ICP. Autonomic dysreflexia does not directly cause nerve damage.

4. A patient with suspected Parkinson's disease is initially being assessed by the nurse. When is the best time to assess for the presence of a tremor? A) When the patient is resting B) When the patient is ambulating C) When the patient is preparing his or her meal tray to eat D) When the patient is participating in occupational therapy

Ans: A Feedback: The tremor is present while the patient is at rest; it increases when the patient is walking, concentrating, or feeling anxious. Resting tremor characteristically disappears with purposeful movement, but is evident when the extremities are motionless. Consequently, the nurse should assess for the presence of a tremor when the patient is not performing deliberate actions.

2. The nurse is planning discharge education for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia. The nurse knows to include information about factors that precipitate an attack. What would the nurse be correct in teaching the patient to avoid? A) Washing his face B) Exposing his skin to sunlight C) Using artificial tears D) Drinking large amounts of fluids

Ans: A Feedback: Washing the face should be avoided if possible because this activity can trigger an attack of pain in a patient with trigeminal neuralgia. Using artificial tears would be an appropriate behavior. Exposing the skin to sunlight would not be harmful to this patient. Temperature extremes in beverages should be avoided.

A patient with spinal cord injury is ready to be discharged home. A family member asks the nurse to review potential complications one more time. What are the potential complications that should be monitored for in this patient? Select all that apply. A) Orthostatic hypotension B) Autonomic dysreflexia C) DVT D) Salt-wasting syndrome E) Increased ICP

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: For a spinal cord-injured patient, based on the assessment data, potential complications that may develop include DVT, orthostatic hypotension, and autonomic dysreflexia. Salt-wasting syndrome or increased ICP are not typical complications following the immediate recovery period.

36. A family member of a patient diagnosed with Huntington disease calls you at the clinic. She is requesting help from the Huntington's Disease Society of America. What kind of help can this patient and family receive from this organization? Select all that apply. A) Information about this disease B) Referrals C) Public education D) Individual assessments E) Appraisals of research studies

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: The Huntington's Disease Society of America helps patients and families by providing information, referrals, family and public education, and support for research. It does not provide individual assessments or appraisals of individual research studies.

35. A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with a peripheral neuropathy. When making her plan of care, the nurse knows to include what in patient teaching? Select all that apply. A) Inspect the lower extremities for skin breakdown. B) Footwear needs to be accurately sized. C) Immediate family members should be screened for the disease. D) Assistive devices may be needed to reduce the risk of falls. E) Dietary modifications are likely necessary.

Ans: A, B, D Feedback: The plan of care includes inspection of the lower extremities for skin breakdown. Footwear should be accurately sized. Assistive devices, such as a walker or cane, may decrease the risk of falls. Bath water temperature is checked to avoid thermal injury. Peripheral neuropathies do not have a genetic component and diet is unrelated.

29. A patient with an inoperable brain tumor has been told that he has a short life expectancy. On what aspects of assessment and care should the home health nurse focus? Select all that apply. A) Pain control B) Management of treatment complications C) Interpretation of diagnostic tests D) Assistance with self-care E) Administration of treatments

Ans: A, B, D, E Feedback: Home care needs and interventions focus on four major areas: palliation of symptoms and pain control, assistance in self-care, control of treatment complications, and administration of specific forms of treatment, such as parenteral nutrition. Interpretation of diagnostic tests is normally beyond the purview of the nurse.

25. The nurse is caring for a 77-year-old woman with MS. She states that she is very concerned about the progress of her disease and what the future holds. The nurse should know that elderly patients with MS are known to be particularly concerned about what variables? Select all that apply. A) Possible nursing home placement B) Pain associated with physical therapy C) Increasing disability D) Becoming a burden on the family E) Loss of appetite

Ans: A, C, D Feedback: Elderly patients with MS are particularly concerned about increasing disability, family burden, marital concern, and the possible future need for nursing home care. Older adults with MS are not noted to have particular concerns regarding the pain of therapy or loss of appetite.

The school nurse is giving a presentation on preventing spinal cord injuries (SCI). What should the nurse identify as prominent risk factors for SCI? Select all that apply. A) Young age B) Frequent travel C) African American race D) Male gender E) Alcohol or drug use

Ans: A, D, E Feedback: The predominant risk factors for SCI include young age, male gender, and alcohol and drug use. Ethnicity and travel are not risk factors.

34. The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. The patient is having increasing problems with rising from the sitting to the standing position. What should the nurse suggest to the patient to use that will aid in getting from the sitting to the standing position as well as aid in improving bowel elimination? A) Use of a bedpan B) Use of a raised toilet seat C) Sitting quietly on the toilet every 2 hours D) Following the outlined bowel program

Ans: B Feedback: A raised toilet seat is useful, because the patient has difficulty in moving from a standing to a sitting position. A handicapped toilet is not high enough and will not aid in improving bowel elimination. Sitting quietly on the toilet every 2 hours will not aid in getting from the sitting to standing position; neither will following the outlined bowel program.

18. A patient has just returned to the unit from the PACU after surgery for a tumor within the spine. The patient complains of pain. When positioning the patient for comfort and to reduce injury to the surgical site, the nurse will position to patient in what position? A) In the high Fowler's position B) In a flat side-lying position C) In the Trendelenberg position D) In the reverse Trendelenberg position

Ans: B Feedback: After spinal surgery, the bed is usually kept flat initially. The side-lying position is usually the most comfortable because this position imposes the least pressure on the surgical site. The Fowler's position, Trendelenberg position, and reverse Trendelenberg position are inappropriate for this patient because they would result in increased pain and complications.

34. A patient diagnosed with MS has been admitted to the medical unit for treatment of an MS exacerbation. Included in the admission orders is baclofen (Lioresal). What should the nurse identify as an expected outcome of this treatment? A) Reduction in the appearance of new lesions on the MRI B) Decreased muscle spasms in the lower extremities C) Increased muscle strength in the upper extremities D) Decreased severity and duration of exacerbations

Ans: B Feedback: Baclofen, a g-aminobutyric acid (GABA) agonist, is the medication of choice in treating spasms. It can be administered orally or by intrathecal injection. Avonex and Betaseron reduce the appearance of new lesions on the MRI. Corticosteroids limit the severity and duration of exacerbations. Anticholinesterase agents increase muscle strength in the upper extremities.

38. The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for a cervical discectomy the following day. During health education, the patient should be made aware of what potential complications? A) Vertebral fracture B) Hematoma at the surgical site C) Scoliosis D) Renal trauma

Ans: B Feedback: Based on all the assessment data, the potential complications of diskectomy may include hematoma at the surgical site, resulting in cord compression and neurologic deficit and recurrent or persistent pain after surgery. Renal trauma and fractures are unlikely; scoliosis is a congenital malformation of the spine.

10. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient newly diagnosed with Bell's palsy. The nurse's plan of care should address what characteristic manifestation of this disease? A) Tinnitus B) Facial paralysis C) Pain at the base of the tongue D) Diplopia

Ans: B Feedback: Bell's palsy is characterized by facial dysfunction, weakness, and paralysis. It does not result in diplopia, pain at the base of the tongue, or tinnitus.

1. A patient with possible bacterial meningitis is admitted to the ICU. What assessment finding would the nurse expect for a patient with this diagnosis? A) Pain upon ankle dorsiflexion of the foot B) Neck flexion produces flexion of knees and hips C) Inability to stand with eyes closed and arms extended without swaying D) Numbness and tingling in the lower extremities

Ans: B Feedback: Clinical manifestations of bacterial meningitis include a positive Brudzinski's sign. Neck flexion producing flexion of knees and hips correlates with a positive Brudzinski's sign. Positive Homan's sign (pain upon dorsiflexion of the foot) and negative Romberg's sign (inability to stand with eyes closed and arms extended) are not expected assessment findings for the patient with bacterial meningitis. Peripheral neuropathy manifests as numbness and tingling in the lower extremities. Again, this would not be an initial assessment to rule out bacterial meningitis.

38. A patient with MS has developed dysphagia as a result of cranial nerve dysfunction. What nursing action should the nurse consequently perform? A) Arrange for the patient to receive a low residue diet. B) Position the patient upright during feeding. C) Suction the patient following each meal. D) Withhold liquids until the patient has finished eating.

Ans: B Feedback: Correct, upright positioning is necessary to prevent aspiration in the patient with dysphagia. There is no need for a low-residue diet and suctioning should not be performed unless there is an apparent need. Liquids do not need to be withheld during meals in order to prevent aspiration.

3. The nurse is caring for a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS). The patient tells the nurse the hardest thing to deal with is the fatigue. When teaching the patient how to reduce fatigue, what action should the nurse suggest? A) Taking a hot bath at least once daily B) Resting in an air-conditioned room whenever possible C) Increasing the dose of muscle relaxants D) Avoiding naps during the day

Ans: B Feedback: Fatigue is a common symptom of patients with MS. Lowering the body temperature by resting in an air-conditioned room may relieve fatigue; however, extreme cold should be avoided. A hot bath or shower can increase body temperature, producing fatigue. Muscle relaxants, prescribed to reduce spasticity, can cause drowsiness and fatigue. Planning for frequent rest periods and naps can relieve fatigue. Other measures to reduce fatigue in the patient with MS include treating depression, using occupational therapy to learn energy conservation techniques, and reducing spasticity.

14. A patient diagnosed with a pituitary adenoma has arrived on the neurologic unit. When planning the patient's care, the nurse should be aware that the effects of the tumor will primarily depend on what variable? A) Whether the tumor utilizes aerobic or anaerobic respiration B) The specific hormones secreted by the tumor C) The patient's pre-existing health status D) Whether the tumor is primary or the result of metastasis

Ans: B Feedback: Functioning pituitary tumors can produce one or more hormones normally produced by the anterior pituitary and the effects of the tumor depend largely on the identity of these hormones. This variable is more significant than the patient's health status or whether the tumor is primary versus secondary. Anaerobic and aerobic respiration is not relevant.

Following a spinal cord injury a patient is placed in halo traction. While performing pin site care, the nurse notes that one of the traction pins has become detached. The nurse would be correct in implementing what priority nursing action? A) Complete the pin site care to decrease risk of infection. B) Notify the neurosurgeon of the occurrence. C) Stabilize the head in a lateral position. D) Reattach the pin to prevent further head trauma.

Ans: B Feedback: If one of the pins became detached, the head is stabilized in neutral position by one person while another notifies the neurosurgeon. Reattaching the pin as a nursing intervention would not be done due to risk of increased injury. Pin site care would not be a priority in this instance. Prevention of neurologic injury is the priority.

16. The nurse in an extended care facility is planning the daily activities of a patient with postpolio syndrome. The nurse recognizes the patient will best benefit from physical therapy when it is scheduled at what time? A) Immediately after meals B) In the morning C) Before bedtime D) In the early evening

Ans: B Feedback: Important activities for patients with postpolio syndrome should be planned for the morning, as fatigue often increases in the afternoon and evening.

11. A patient has just been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and the nurse is planning the patient's subsequent care for the home setting. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse address when educating the patient's family? A) Risk for infection B) Impaired spontaneous ventilation C) Unilateral neglect D) Risk for injury

Ans: D Feedback: Individuals with Parkinson's disease face a significant risk for injury related to the effects of dyskinesia. Unilateral neglect is not characteristic of the disease, which affects both sides of the body. Parkinson's disease does not directly constitute a risk for infection or impaired respiration.

A patient with spinal cord injury has a nursing diagnosis of altered mobility and the nurse recognizes the increased the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following would be included as an appropriate nursing intervention to prevent a DVT from occurring? A) Placing the patient on a fluid restriction as ordered B) Applying thigh-high elastic stockings C) Administering an antifibrinolyic agent D) Assisting the patient with passive range of motion (PROM) exercises

Ans: B Feedback: It is important to promote venous return to the heart and prevent venous stasis in a patient with altered mobility. Applying elastic stockings will aid in the prevention of a DVT. The patient should not be placed on fluid restriction because a dehydrated state will increase the risk of clotting throughout the body. Antifibrinolytic agents cause the blood to clot, which is absolutely contraindicated in this situation. PROM exercises are not an effective protection against the development of DVT.

9. A male patient presents to the clinic complaining of a headache. The nurse notes that the patient is guarding his neck and tells the nurse that he has stiffness in the neck area. The nurse suspects the patient may have meningitis. What is another well-recognized sign of this infection? A) Negative Brudzinski's sign B) Positive Kernig's sign C) Hyperpatellar reflex D) Sluggish pupil reaction

Ans: B Feedback: Meningeal irritation results in a number of well-recognized signs commonly seen in meningitis, such as a positive Kernig's sign, a positive Brudzinski's sign, and photophobia. Hyperpatellar reflex and a sluggish pupil reaction are not commonly recognized signs of meningitis.

2. A 25-year-old female patient with brain metastases is considering her life expectancy after her most recent meeting with her oncologist. Based on the fact that the patient is not receiving treatment for her brain metastases, what is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Promoting the patient's functional status and ADLs B) Ensuring that the patient receives adequate palliative care C) Ensuring that the family does not tell the patient that her condition is terminal D) Promoting adherence to the prescribed medication regimen

Ans: B Feedback: Patients with intracerebral metastases who are not treated have a steady downhill course with a limited survival time, whereas those who are treated may survive for slightly longer periods, but for most cure is not possible. Palliative care is thus necessary. This is a priority over promotion of function and the family should not normally withhold information from the patient. Adherence to medications such as analgesics is important, but palliative care is a high priority.

6. The nurse is caring for a boy who has muscular dystrophy. When planning assistance with the patient's ADLs, what goal should the nurse prioritize? A) Promoting the patient's recovery from the disease B) Maximizing the patient's level of function C) Ensuring the patient's adherence to treatment D) Fostering the family's participation in care

Ans: B Feedback: Priority for the care of the child with muscular dystrophy is the need to maximize the patient's level of function. Family participation is also important, but should be guided by this goal. Adherence is not a central goal, even though it is highly beneficial, and the disease is not curable.

17. A patient newly diagnosed with a cervical disk herniation is receiving health education from the clinic nurse. What conservative management measures should the nurse teach the patient to implement? A) Perform active ROM exercises three times daily. B) Sleep on a firm mattress. C) Apply cool compresses to the back of the neck daily. D) Wear the cervical collar for at least 2 hours at a time.

Ans: B Feedback: Proper positioning on a firm mattress and bed rest for 1 to 2 days may bring dramatic relief from pain. The patient may need to wear a cervical collar 24 hours a day during the acute phase of pain from a cervical disk herniation. Hot, moist compresses applied to the back of the neck will increase blood flow to the muscles and help relax the spastic muscles.

14. To alleviate pain associated with trigeminal neuralgia, a patient is taking Tegretol (carbamazepine). What health education should the nurse provide to the patient before initiating this treatment? A) Concurrent use of calcium supplements is contraindicated. B) Blood levels of the drug must be monitored. C) The drug is likely to cause hyperactivity and agitation. D) Tegretol can cause tinnitus during the first few days of treatment.

Ans: B Feedback: Side effects of Tegretol include nausea, dizziness, drowsiness, and aplastic anemia. The patient must also be monitored for bone marrow depression during long-term therapy. Skin discoloration, insomnia, and tinnitus are not side effects of Tegretol.

8. A patient with metastatic cancer has developed trigeminal neuralgia and is taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) for pain relief. What principle applies to the administration of this medication? A) Tegretol is not known to have serious adverse effects. B) The patient should be monitored for bone marrow depression. C) Side effects of the medication include renal dysfunction. D) The medication should be first taken in the maximum dosage form to be effective.

Ans: B Feedback: The anticonvulsant agents carbamazepine (Tegretol) and phenytoin (Dilantin) relieve pain in most patients diagnosed with trigeminal neuralgia by reducing the transmission of impulses at certain nerve terminals. Side effects include nausea, dizziness, drowsiness, and aplastic anemia. Carbamazepine should be gradually increased until pain relief is obtained.

30. A patient diagnosed with myasthenia gravis has been hospitalized to receive plasmapheresis for a myasthenic exacerbation. The nurse knows that the course of treatment for plasmapheresis in a patient with myasthenia gravis is what? A) Every day for 1 week B) Determined by the patient's response C) Alternate days for 10 days D) Determined by the patient's weight

Ans: B Feedback: The typical course of plasmapheresis consists of daily or alternate-day treatment, and the number of treatments is determined by the patient's response.

5. The clinic nurse caring for a patient with Parkinson's disease notes that the patient has been taking levodopa and carbidopa (Sinemet) for 7 years. For what common side effect of Sinemet would the nurse assesses this patient? A) Pruritus B) Dyskinesia C) Lactose intolerance D) Diarrhea

Ans: B Feedback: Within 5 to 10 years of taking levodopa, most patients develop a response to the medication characterized by dyskinesia (abnormal involuntary movements). Another potential complication of long-term dopaminergic medication use is neuroleptic malignant syndrome characterized by severe rigidity, stupor, and hyperthermia. Side effects of long-term Sinemet therapy are not pruritus, lactose intolerance, or diarrhea.

A patient is admitted to the neurologic ICU with a C4 spinal cord injury. When writing the plan of care for this patient, which of the following nursing diagnoses would the nurse prioritize in the immediate care of this patient? A) Risk for impaired skin integrity related to immobility and sensory loss B) Impaired physical mobility related to loss of motor function C) Ineffective breathing patterns related to weakness of the intercostal muscles D) Urinary retention related to inability to void spontaneously

Ans: C Feedback: A nursing diagnosis related to breathing pattern would be the priority for this patient. A C4 spinal cord injury will require ventilatory support, due to the diaphragm and intercostals being affected. The other nursing diagnoses would be used in the care plan, but not designated as a higher priority than ineffective breathing patterns.

24. A patient is admitted through the ED with suspected St. Louis encephalitis. The unique clinical feature of St. Louis encephalitis will make what nursing action a priority? A) Serial assessments of hemoglobin levels B) Blood glucose monitoring C) Close monitoring of fluid balance D) Assessment of pain along dermatomes

Ans: C Feedback: A unique clinical feature of St. Louis encephalitis is SIADH with hyponatremia. As such, it is important to monitor the patient's intake and output closely.

28. A patient with a brain tumor has begun to exhibit signs of cachexia. What subsequent assessment should the nurse prioritize? A) Assessment of peripheral nervous function B) Assessment of cranial nerve function C) Assessment of nutritional status D) Assessment of respiratory status

Ans: C Feedback: Cachexia is a wasting syndrome of weight loss, muscle atrophy, fatigue, weakness, and significant loss of appetite. Consequently, nutritional assessment is paramount.

23. A patient is being admitted to the neurologic ICU with suspected herpes simplex virus encephalitis. What nursing action best addresses the patient's complaints of headache? A) Initiating a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) of morphine sulfate B) Administering hydromorphone (Dilaudid) IV as needed C) Dimming the lights and reducing stimulation D) Distracting the patient with activity

Ans: C Feedback: Comfort measures to reduce headache include dimming the lights, limiting noise and visitors, grouping nursing interventions, and administering analgesic agents. Opioid analgesic medications may mask neurologic symptoms; therefore, they are used cautiously. Non-opioid analgesics may be preferred. Distraction is unlikely to be effective, and may exacerbate the patient's pain.

4. A patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome has experienced a sharp decline in vital capacity. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Administer bronchodilators as ordered. B) Remind the patient of the importance of deep breathing and coughing exercises. C) Prepare to assist with intubation. D) Administer supplementary oxygen by nasal cannula.

Ans: C Feedback: For the patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome, mechanical ventilation is required if the vital capacity falls, making spontaneous breathing impossible and tissue oxygenation inadequate. Each of the other listed actions is likely insufficient to meet the patient's oxygenation needs.

31. A patient, brought to the clinic by his wife and son, is diagnosed with Huntington disease. When providing anticipatory guidance, the nurse should address the future possibility of what effect of Huntington disease? A) Metastasis B) Risk for stroke C) Emotional and personality changes D) Pathologic bone fractures

Ans: C Feedback: Huntington disease causes profound changes to personality and behavior. It is a nonmalignant disease and stroke is not a central risk. The disease is not associated with pathologic bone fractures.

39. The nurse responds to the call light of a patient who has had a cervical diskectomy earlier in the day. The patient states that she is having severe pain that had a sudden onset. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Palpate the surgical site. B) Remove the dressing to assess the surgical site. C) Call the surgeon to report the patient's pain. D) Administer a dose of an NSAID.

Ans: C Feedback: If the patient experiences a sudden increase in pain, extrusion of the graft may have occurred, requiring reoperation. A sudden increase in pain should be promptly reported to the surgeon. Administration of an NSAID would be an insufficient response and the dressing should not be removed without an order. Palpation could cause further damage.

31. The nurse is discharging a patient home after surgery for trigeminal neuralgia. What advice should the nurse provide to this patient in order to reduce the risk of injury? A) Avoid watching television or using a computer for more than 1 hour at a time. B) Use OTC antibiotic eye drops for at least 14 days. C) Avoid rubbing the eye on the affected side of the face. D) Rinse the eye on the affected side with normal saline daily for 1 week.

Ans: C Feedback: If the surgery results in sensory deficits to the affected side of the face, the patient is instructed not to rub the eye because the pain of a resulting injury will not be detected. There is no need to limit TV viewing or to rinse the eye daily. Antibiotics may or may not be prescribed, and these would not reduce the risk of injury.

20. A patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is being visited by the home health nurse who is creating a care plan. What nursing diagnosis is most likely for a patient with this condition? A) Chronic confusion B) Impaired urinary elimination C) Impaired verbal communication D) Bowel incontinence

Ans: C Feedback: Impaired communication is an appropriate nursing diagnosis; the voice in patients with ALS assumes a nasal sound and articulation becomes so disrupted that speech is unintelligible. Intellectual function is marginally impaired in patients with late ALS. Usually, the anal and bladder sphincters are intact because the spinal nerves that control muscles of the rectum and urinary bladder are not affected.

A patient is admitted to the neurologic ICU with a spinal cord injury. When assessing the patient the nurse notes there is a sudden depression of reflex activity in the spinal cord below the level of injury. What should the nurse suspect? A) Epidural hemorrhage B) Hypertensive emergency C) Spinal shock D) Hypovolemia

Ans: C Feedback: In spinal shock, the reflexes are absent, BP and heart rate fall, and respiratory failure can occur. Hypovolemia, hemorrhage, and hypertension do not cause this sudden change in neurologic function.

35. A patient with Parkinson's disease is experiencing episodes of constipation that are becoming increasingly frequent and severe. The patient states that he has been achieving relief for the past few weeks by using OTC laxatives. How should the nurse respond? A) "It's important to drink plenty of fluids while you're taking laxatives." B) "Make sure that you supplement your laxatives with a nutritious diet." C) "Let's explore other options, because laxatives can have side effects and create dependency." D) "You should ideally be using herbal remedies rather than medications to promote bowel function."

Ans: C Feedback: Laxatives should be avoided in patients with Parkinson's disease due to the risk of adverse effects and dependence. Herbal bowel remedies are not necessarily less risky.

19. A 33-year-old patient presents at the clinic with complaints of weakness, incoordination, dizziness, and loss of balance. The patient is hospitalized and diagnosed with MS. What sign or symptom, revealed during the initial assessment, is typical of MS? A) Diplopia, history of increased fatigue, and decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes B) Flexor spasm, clonus, and negative Babinski's reflex C) Blurred vision, intention tremor, and urinary hesitancy D) Hyperactive abdominal reflexes and history of unsteady gait and episodic paresthesia in both legs

Ans: C Feedback: Optic neuritis, leading to blurred vision, is a common early sign of MS, as is intention tremor (tremor when performing an activity). Nerve damage can cause urinary hesitancy. In MS, deep tendon reflexes are increased or hyperactive. A positive Babinski's reflex is found in MS. Abdominal reflexes are absent with MS.

A patient is admitted to the neurologic ICU with a spinal cord injury. In writing the patient's care plan, the nurse specifies that contractures can best be prevented by what action? A) Repositioning the patient every 2 hours B) Initiating range-of-motion exercises (ROM) as soon as the patient initiates C) Initiating (ROM) exercises as soon as possible after the injury D) Performing ROM exercises once a day

Ans: C Feedback: Passive ROM exercises should be implemented as soon as possible after injury. It would be inappropriate to wait for the patient to first initiate exercises. Toes, metatarsals, ankles, knees, and hips should be put through a full ROM at least four, and ideally five, times daily. Repositioning alone will not prevent contractures.

3. The nurse is writing a care plan for a patient with brain metastases. The nurse decides that an appropriate nursing diagnosis is "anxiety related to lack of control over the health circumstances." In establishing this plan of care for the patient, the nurse should include what intervention? A) The patient will receive antianxiety medications every 4 hours. B) The patient's family will be instructed on planning the patient's care. C) The patient will be encouraged to verbalize concerns related to the disease and its treatment. D) The patient will begin intensive therapy with the goal of distraction.

Ans: C Feedback: Patients need the opportunity to exercise some control over their situation. A sense of mastery can be gained as they learn to understand the disease and its treatment and how to deal with their feelings. Distraction and administering medications will not allow the patient to gain control over anxiety. Delegating planning to the family will not help the patient gain a sense of control and autonomy.

39. A 48-year-old patient has been diagnosed with trigeminal neuralgia following recent episodes of unilateral face pain. The nurse should recognize what implication of this diagnosis? A) The patient will likely require lifelong treatment with anticholinergic medications. B) The patient has a disproportionate risk of developing myasthenia gravis later in life. C) The patient needs to be assessed for MS. D) The disease is self-limiting and the patient will achieve pain relief over time.

Ans: C Feedback: Patients that develop trigeminal neuralgia before age 50 should be evaluated for the coexistent of MS because trigeminal neuralgia occurs in approximately 5% of patients with MS. Treatment does not include anticholinergics and the disease is not self-limiting. Trigeminal neuralgia is not associated with an increased risk of myasthenia gravis.

22. The nurse is caring for a patient newly diagnosed with a primary brain tumor. The patient asks the nurse where his tumor came from. What would be the nurse's best response? A) "Your tumor originated from somewhere outside the CNS." B) "Your tumor likely started out in one of your glands." C) "Your tumor originated from cells within your brain itself." D) "Your tumor is from nerve tissue somewhere in your body."

Ans: C Feedback: Primary brain tumors originate from cells and structures within the brain. Secondary brain tumors are metastatic tumors that originate somewhere else in the body. The scenario does not indicate that the patient's tumor is a pituitary tumor or a neuroma.

17. A nurse is planning the care of a 28-year-old woman hospitalized with a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. What approach would be most appropriate for the care and scheduling of diagnostic procedures for this patient? A) All at one time, to provide a longer rest period B) Before meals, to stimulate her appetite C) In the morning, with frequent rest periods D) Before bedtime, to promote rest

Ans: C Feedback: Procedures should be spaced to allow for rest in between. Procedures should be avoided before meals, or the patient may be too exhausted to eat. Procedures should be avoided near bedtime if possible.

27. The critical care nurse is admitting a patient in myasthenic crisis to the ICU. The nurse should prioritize what nursing action in the immediate care of this patient? A) Suctioning secretions B) Facilitating ABG analysis C) Providing ventilatory assistance D) Administering tube feedings

Ans: C Feedback: Providing ventilatory assistance takes precedence in the immediate management of the patient with myasthenic crisis. It may be necessary to suction secretions and/or provide tube feedings, but they are not the priority for this patient. ABG analysis will be done, but this is not the priority.

Splints have been ordered for a patient who is at risk of developing footdrop following a spinal cord injury. The nurse caring for this patient knows that the splints are removed and reapplied when? A) At the patient's request B) Each morning and evening C) Every 2 hours D) One hour prior to mobility exercises

Ans: C Feedback: The feet are prone to footdrop; therefore, various types of splints are used to prevent footdrop. When used, the splints are removed and reapplied every 2 hours.

21. The nurse educator is discussing neoplasms with a group of recent graduates. The educator explains that the effects of neoplasms are caused by the compression and infiltration of normal tissue. The physiologic changes that result can cause what pathophysiologic events? Select all that apply. A) Intracranial hemorrhage B) Infection of cerebrospinal fluid C) Increased ICP D) Focal neurologic signs E) Altered pituitary function

Ans: C, D, E Feedback: The effects of neoplasms are caused by the compression and infiltration of tissue. A variety of physiologic changes result, causing any or all of the following pathophysiologic events: increased ICP and cerebral edema, seizure activity and focal neurologic signs, hydrocephalus, and altered pituitary function.

9. While assessing the patient at the beginning of the shift, the nurse inspects a surgical dressing covering the operative site after the patients' cervical diskectomy. The nurse notes that the drainage is 75% saturated with serosanguineous discharge. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Page the physician and report this sign of infection. B) Reinforce the dressing and reassess in 1 to 2 hours. C) Reposition the patient to prevent further hemorrhage. D) Inform the surgeon of the possibility of a dural leak.

Ans: D Feedback: After a cervical diskectomy, the nurse will monitor the operative site and dressing covering this site. Serosanguineous drainage may indicate a dural leak. This constitutes a risk for meningitis, but is not a direct sign of infection. This should be reported to the surgeon, not just reinforced and observed.

28. The nurse caring for a patient in ICU diagnosed with Guillain-Barré syndrome should prioritize monitoring for what potential complication? A) Impaired skin integrity B) Cognitive deficits C) Hemorrhage D) Autonomic dysfunction

Ans: D Feedback: Based on the assessment data, potential complications that may develop include respiratory failure and autonomic dysfunction. Skin breakdown, decreased cognition, and hemorrhage are not complications of Guillain-Barré syndrome.

32. A patient diagnosed with Bell's palsy is having decreased sensitivity to touch of the involved nerve. What should the nurse recommend to prevent atrophy of the muscles? A) Blowing up balloons B) Deliberately frowning C) Smiling repeatedly D) Whistling

Ans: D Feedback: Facial exercises, such as wrinkling the forehead, blowing out the cheeks, and whistling, may be performed with the aid of a mirror to prevent muscle atrophy. Blowing up balloons, frowning, and smiling are not considered facial exercises.

11. The nurse caring for a patient diagnosed with Guillain-Barré syndrome is planning care with regard to the clinical manifestations associated this syndrome. The nurse's communication with the patient should reflect the possibility of what sign or symptom of the disease? A) Intermittent hearing loss B) Tinnitus C) Tongue enlargement D) Vocal paralysis

Ans: D Feedback: Guillain-Barré syndrome is a disorder of the vagus nerve. Clinical manifestations include vocal paralysis, dysphagia, and voice changes (temporary or permanent hoarseness). Hearing deficits, tinnitus, and tongue enlargement are not associated with the disease.

12. The nurse is preparing to provide care for a patient diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. The nurse should know that the signs and symptoms of the disease are the result of what? A) Genetic dysfunction B) Upper and lower motor neuron lesions C) Decreased conduction of impulses in an upper motor neuron lesion D) A lower motor neuron lesion

Ans: D Feedback: Myasthenia gravis is characterized by a weakness of muscles, especially in the face and throat, caused by a lower neuron lesion at the myoneural junction. It is not a genetic disorder. A combined upper and lower neuron lesion generally occurs as a result of spinal injuries. A lesion involving cranial nerves and their axons in the spinal cord would cause decreased conduction of impulses at an upper motor neuron.

10. A patient, diagnosed with cancer of the lung, has just been told he has metastases to the brain. What change in health status would the nurse attribute to the patient's metastatic brain disease? A) Chronic pain B) Respiratory distress C) Fixed pupils D) Personality changes

Ans: D Feedback: Neurologic signs and symptoms include headache, gait disturbances, visual impairment, personality changes, altered mentation (memory loss and confusion), focal weakness, paralysis, aphasia, and seizures. Pain, respiratory distress, and fixed pupils are not among the more common neurologic signs and symptoms of metastatic brain disease.

12. The nurse is caring for a patient with Huntington disease who has been admitted to the hospital for treatment of malnutrition. What independent nursing action should be implemented in the patient's plan of care? A) Firmly redirect the patient's head when feeding. B) Administer phenothiazines after each meal as ordered. C) Encourage the patient to keep his or her feeding area clean. D) Apply deep, gentle pressure around the patient's mouth to aid swallowing.

Ans: D Feedback: Nursing interventions for a patient who has inadequate nutritional intake should include the following: Apply deep gentle pressure around the patient's mouth to assist with swallowing, and administer phenothiazines prior to the patient's meal as ordered. The nurse should disregard the mess of the feeding area and treat the person with dignity. Stiffness and turning away by the patient during feeding are uncontrollable choreiform movements and should not be interrupted.

A nurse on the neurologic unit is providing care for a patient who has spinal cord injury at the level of C4. When planning the patient's care, what aspect of the patient's neurologic and functional status should the nurse consider? A) The patient will be unable to use a wheelchair. B) The patient will be unable to swallow food. C) The patient will be continent of urine, but incontinent of bowel. D) The patient will require full assistance for all aspects of elimination.

Ans: D Feedback: Patients with a lesion at C4 are fully dependent for elimination. The patient is dependent for feeding, but is able to swallow. The patient will be capable of using an electric wheelchair.

13. A patient with suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) is being admitted to the unit. The nurse would expect what diagnostic test to be ordered for this patient? A) Cerebral angiography B) ABG analysis C) CT D) EEG

Ans: D Feedback: The EEG reveals a characteristic pattern over the duration of CJD. A CT scan may be used to rule out disorders that may mimic the symptoms of CJD. ABGs would not be necessary until the later stages of CJD; they would not be utilized as a diagnostic test. Cerebral angiography is not used to diagnose CJD.

7. A 37-year-old man is brought to the clinic by his wife because he is experiencing loss of motor function and sensation. The physician suspects the patient has a spinal cord tumor and hospitalizes him for diagnostic testing. In light of the need to diagnose spinal cord compression from a tumor, the nurse will most likely prepare the patient for what test? A) Anterior-posterior x-ray B) Ultrasound C) Lumbar puncture D) MRI

Ans: D Feedback: The MRI scan is the most commonly used diagnostic procedure. It is the most sensitive diagnostic tool that is particularly helpful in detecting epidural spinal cord compression and vertebral bone metastases.

32. A patient who was diagnosed with Parkinson's disease several months ago recently began treatment with levodopa-carbidopa. The patient and his family are excited that he has experienced significant symptom relief. The nurse should be aware of what implication of the patient's medication regimen? A) The patient is in a "honeymoon period" when adverse effects of levodopa-carbidopa are not yet evident. B) Benefits of levodopa-carbidopa do not peak until 6 to 9 months after the initiation of treatment. C) The patient's temporary improvement in status is likely unrelated to levodopa-carbidopa. D) Benefits of levodopa-carbidopa often diminish after 1 or 2 years of treatment.

Ans: D Feedback: The beneficial effects of levodopa therapy are most pronounced in the first year or two of treatment. Benefits begin to wane and adverse effects become more severe over time. However, a "honeymoon period" of treatment is not known.

36. A 73-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of weakness and loss of sensation in his feet and legs. Assessment of the patient shows decreased reflexes bilaterally. Why would it be a challenge to diagnose a peripheral neuropathy in this patient? A) Older adults are often vague historians. B) The elderly have fewer peripheral nerves than younger adults. C) Many older adults are hesitant to admit that their body is changing. D) Many symptoms can be the result of normal aging process.

Ans: D Feedback: The diagnosis of peripheral neuropathy in the geriatric population is challenging because many symptoms, such as decreased reflexes, can be associated with the normal aging process. In this scenario, the patient has come to the clinic seeking help for his problem; this does not indicate a desire on the part of the patient to withhold information from the health care giver. The normal aging process does not include a diminishing number of peripheral nerves.

40. A patient presents at the clinic complaining of pain and weakness in her hands. On assessment, the nurse notes diminished reflexes in the upper extremities bilaterally and bilateral loss of sensation. The nurse knows that these findings are indicative of what? A) Guillain-Barré syndrome B) Myasthenia gravis C) Trigeminal neuralgia D) Peripheral nerve disorder

Ans: D Feedback: The major symptoms of peripheral nerve disorders are loss of sensation, muscle atrophy, weakness, diminished reflexes, pain, and paresthesia (numbness, tingling) of the extremities. Trigeminal neuralgia is a condition of the fifth cranial nerve that is characterized by paroxysms of pain in the area innervated by any of the three branches, but most commonly the second and third branches of the trigeminal nerve. Myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disorder affecting the myoneural junction, is characterized by varying degrees of weakness of the voluntary muscles. Guillain-Barré syndrome is an autoimmune attack on the peripheral nerve myelin.

15. A male patient with a metastatic brain tumor is having a generalized seizure and begins vomiting. What should the nurse do first? A) Perform oral suctioning. B) Page the physician. C) Insert a tongue depressor into the patient's mouth. D) Turn the patient on his side.

Ans: D Feedback: The nurse's first response should be to place the patient on his side to prevent him from aspirating emesis. Inserting something into the seizing patient's mouth is no longer part of a seizure protocol. Obtaining supplies to suction the patient would be a delegated task. Paging or calling the physician would only be necessary if this is the patient's first seizure.

16. A middle-aged woman has sought care from her primary care provider and undergone diagnostic testing that has resulted in a diagnosis of MS. What sign or symptom is most likely to have prompted the woman to seek care? A) Cognitive declines B) Personality changes C) Contractures D) Difficulty in coordination

Ans: D Feedback: The primary symptoms of MS most commonly reported are fatigue, depression, weakness, numbness, difficulty in coordination, loss of balance, spasticity, and pain. Cognitive changes and contractures usually occur later in the disease.