Mental Health Final

A person has had difficulty keeping a job because of arguing with coworkers and accusing them of conspiracy. Today the person shouts, "They're all plotting to destroy me. Isn't that true?" Select the nurse's most therapeutic response.

"Feeling that people want to destroy you must be very frightening."

A patient with schizophrenia tells the nurse, "I eat skiller. Tend to end. Easter. It blows away. Get it?" Select the nurse's best response

"I am having difficulty understanding what you are saying."

A newly admitted patient with schizophrenia says, "The voices are bothering me. They yell and tell me I'm bad. I have got to get away from them." Select the nurse's most helpful reply.

"I'll stay with you. Focus on what we are talking about, not the voices."

A patient with schizophrenia and auditory hallucinations anxiously tells the nurse, "The voice is telling me to do things." Select the nurse's priority assessment question.

"What is the voice telling you to do?"

A nurse sits with a patient diagnosed with disorganized schizophrenia. The patient starts to laugh uncontrollably, although the nurse has not said anything funny. Select the nurse's best response.

"You're laughing. Tell me what's happening."

Which statement is mostly likely to be made by a patient with *agoraphobia*? a. "Being afraid to go out seems ridiculous, but I can't go out the door." b. "I'm sure I'll get over not wanting to leave home soon. It takes time." c. "When I have a good incentive to go out, I can do it." d. "My family says they like it now that I stay home."

*a. "Being afraid to go out seems ridiculous, but I can't go out the door."* agoraphobic individuals generally acknowledge that the behavior is not constructive and that they do not really like it. Patients state they are unable to change the behavior

Which comment by a person who is experiencing severe anxiety indicates the possibility of obsessive-compulsive disorder? a. "I check where my car keys are eight times." b. "My legs often feel weak and spastic." c. "I'm embarrassed to go out in public." d. "I keep reliving the car accident."

*a. "I check where my car keys are eight times."* Recurring doubt (obsessive thinking) and the need to check (compulsive behavior) suggest obsessive-compulsive disorder. The repetitive behavior is designed to decrease anxiety but fails and must be repeated

A patient has a fear of public speaking. The nurse should be aware that *social phobias* are often treated with which type of medication? a. (beta)-blockers. b. Antipsychotic medications. c. Tricyclic antidepressant agents. d. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors.

*a. (beta)-blockers.* Beta-blockers, such as propranolol, are often effective in preventing symptoms of anxiety associated with social phobias

Two staff nurses applied for promotion to nurse manager. The nurse not promoted initially had feelings of loss but then became supportive of the new manager by helping make the transition smooth and encouraging others. Which term best describes the nurse's response? a. Altruism b. Sublimation c. Suppression d. Passive aggression

*a. Altruism* Altruism - individual deals with emotional conflict by meeting the needs of others and vicariously receiving gratification from the responses of others

A student says, "Before taking a test, I feel a heightened sense of awareness and restlessness." The nursing intervention most suitable for assisting the student is to: a. Explain that the symptoms are the result of mild anxiety, and discuss the helpful aspects. b. Advise the student to discuss this experience with a health care provider. c. Encourage the student to begin antioxidant vitamin supplements. d. Listen without comment.

*a. Explain that the symptoms are the result of mild anxiety, and discuss the helpful aspects.*

A patient in the emergency department exhibits disorganized behavior and incoherence after a friend suggested a homosexual encounter. In which room should the nurse place the patient? a. Interview room furnished with a desk and two chairs b. Small, empty storage room with no windows or furniture c. Room with an examining table, instrument cabinets, desk, and chair d. Nurse's office, furnished with chairs, files, magazines, and bookcases

*a. Interview room furnished with a desk and two chairs* Individuals experiencing a severe-to-panic level of anxiety require a safe environment that is quiet, nonstimulating, structured, and simple

A patient tells the nurse, "I don't go to restaurants because people might laugh at the way I eat or I could spill food and be laughed at." The nurse assesses this behavior as consistent with: a. Acrophobia b. Agoraphobia c. Social phobia d. Posttraumatic stress disorder

*c. Social phobia* the fear of a potentially embarrassing situation

An individual experiences sexual dysfunction and blames it on a partner by calling the person unattractive and unromantic. Which defense mechanism is evident? a. Rationalization b. Compensation c. Introjection d. Regression

*a. Rationalization* Rationalization - involves unconsciously making excuses for one's behavior, inadequacies, or feelings

A person who is speaking about a rival for a significant other's affection says in a gushy, syrupy voice, "What a lovely person. That's someone I simply adore." The individual is demonstrating: a. Reaction formation b. Repression c. Projection d. Denial

*a. Reaction formation* Reaction formation is an unconscious mechanism that keeps unacceptable feelings out of awareness by using the *opposite behavior*

A patient with a high level of motor activity runs from chair to chair and cries, "They're coming! They're coming!" The patient is unable to follow staff direction or respond to verbal interventions. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority? a. Risk for injury b. Self-care deficit c. Disturbed energy field d. Disturbed thought processes

*a. Risk for injury* A patient who is experiencing panic-level anxiety is at high risk for injury, related to an increase in non-goal-directed motor activity, distorted perceptions, and disordered thoughts. Existing data do not support the nursing diagnoses of Self-care deficit or Disturbed energy field. This patient has disturbed thought processes, but the risk for injury has a higher priority.

A person who has been unable to leave home for more than a week because of severe anxiety says, "I know it does not make sense, but I just can't bring myself to leave my apartment alone." Which nursing intervention is appropriate? a. Teach the person to use positive self-talk b. Assist the person to apply for disability benefits. c. Ask the person to explain why the fear is so disabling. d. Advise the person to accept the situation and use a companion.

*a. Teach the person to use positive self-talk* (form of cognitive restructuring) replaces negative thoughts such as "I can't leave my apartment" with positive thoughts such as "I can control my anxiety." This technique helps the patient gain mastery over the symptoms. The other options reinforce the sick role.

A patient who is preparing for surgery has moderate anxiety and is unable to understand preoperative information. Which nursing intervention is appropriate? a. Reassure the patient that all nurses are skilled in providing postoperative care b. Describe the procedure again in a calm manner using simple language c. Tell the patient that the staff is prepared to promote recovery. d. Encourage the patient to express feelings to his or her family

*b. Describe the procedure again in a calm manner using simple language*

A patient performs ritualistic hand washing. What should the nurse do to help the patient develop more effective coping strategies? a. Allow the patient to set a hand-washing schedule. b. Encourage the patient to participate in social activities. c. Encourage the patient to discuss hand-washing routines. d. Focus on the patient's symptoms rather than on the patient.

*b. Encourage the patient to participate in social activities* Because patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder become overly involved in rituals, promoting involvement with other people and activities is necessary to improve the patient's coping strategies. Daily activities prevent the constant focus on anxiety and its symptoms. The other interventions focus on the compulsive symptom.

A patient with a mass in the left upper lobe of the lung is scheduled for a biopsy. The patient has difficulty understanding the nurse's comments and asks, "What do you mean? What are they going to do?" Assessment findings include a tremulous voice, respirations at 28 breaths per minute, and a pulse rate at 110 beats per minute. What is the patient's level of anxiety? a. Mild b. Moderate c. Severe d. Panic

*b. Moderate* Moderate anxiety - *grasp less info* & reduces problem solving ability to less than optimal level Mild anxiety - heightens attention & enhances problem-solving abilities Severe anxiety - reduction in perceptual field Panic-level anxiety - disorganized behavior

A patient experiences an episode of severe anxiety. Of these medications in the patient's medical record, which is most appropriate to administer as an as-needed (prn) anxiolytic medication? a. buspirone (BuSpar) b. lorazepam (Ativan) c. amitriptyline (Elavil) d. desipramine (Norpramin)

*b. lorazepam (Ativan)* Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine medication used to treat anxiety; it may be administered as needed. Buspirone is long acting and not useful as an as-needed drug. Amitriptyline and desipramine are tricyclic antidepressants and considered second- or third-line agents.

If a cruel and abusive person rationalizes this behavior, which comment is most characteristic of this person? a. "I don't know why it happens." b. "I have poor impulse control." c. "That person shouldn't have provoked me." d. "I'm really a coward who is afraid of being hurt."

*c. "That person shouldn't have provoked me."* Rationalization consists of justifying one's unacceptable behavior by developing explanations that satisfy the teller and attempt to satisfy the listener. The abuser is suggesting that the abuse is not his or her fault; it would not have occurred except for the provocation by the other person.

A person has minor physical injuries after an automobile accident. The person is unable to focus and says, "I feel like something awful is going to happen." This person has nausea, dizziness, tachycardia, and hyperventilation. What is this person's level of anxiety? a. Mild b. Moderate c. Severe d. Panic

*c. Severe* unable to solve problems and may have a poor grasp of what is happening in the environment. Somatic symptoms such as those described are usually present

A patient has the nursing diagnosis: Anxiety, related to __________, as evidenced by an inability to control compulsive cleaning. Which phrase correctly completes the etiologic portion of the diagnosis? a. Ensuring the health of household members b. Attempting to avoid interactions with others c. Having persistent thoughts about bacteria, germs, and dirt d. Needing approval for cleanliness from friends and family

*c. Having persistent thoughts about bacteria, germs, and dirt* Many compulsive rituals accompany obsessive thoughts. The patient uses these rituals to relief anxiety. Unfortunately, the anxiety relief is short lived, and the patient must frequently repeat the ritual. The other options are unrelated to the dynamics of compulsive behavior.

Two staff nurses applied for a charge nurse position. After the promotion was announced, the nurse who was not promoted said, "The nurse manager had a headache the day I was interviewed." Which defense mechanism is evident? a. Introjection b. Conversion c. Projection d. Splitting

*c. Projection* blaming, scapegoating, thinking prejudicially, and stigmatizing others

For a patient experiencing panic, which nursing intervention should be first? a. Teach relaxation techniques. b. Administer an anxiolytic medication. c. Provide calm, brief, directive communication. d. Gather a show of force in preparation for gaining physical control.

*c. Provide calm, brief, directive communication* Calm, brief, directive verbal interaction can help the patient gain control of the overwhelming feelings and impulses related to anxiety. Patients experiencing panic-level anxiety are unable to focus on reality; thus learning relaxation techniques is virtually impossible. Administering an anxiolytic medication should be considered if providing calm, brief, directive communication is ineffective. Although the patient is disorganized, violence may not be imminent, ruling out the intervention of preparing for physical control until other less-restrictive measures are proven ineffective.

A patient tells a nurse, "My new friend is the most perfect person one could imagine—kind, considerate, and good looking. I can't find a single flaw." This patient is demonstrating: a. denial b. projection c. idealization d. compensation

*c. idealization* Idealization = unconscious process; individual attributes exaggerated positive qualities to another

Which assessment question would be most appropriate to ask a patient who has possible generalized anxiety disorder? a. "Have you been a victim of a crime or seen someone badly injured or killed?" b. "Do you feel especially uncomfortable in social situations involving people?" c. "Do you repeatedly do certain things over and over again?" d. "Do you find it difficult to control your worrying?"

*d. "Do you find it difficult to control your worrying?"*

A patient with severe anxiety suddenly begins running and shouting, "I'm going to explode!" The nurse should: a. Ask, "I'm not sure what you mean. Give me an example." b. Chase after the patient, and give instructions to stop running. c. Capture the patient in a basket-hold to increase feelings of control. d. Assemble several staff members and state, "We will help you regain control."

*d. Assemble several staff members and state, "We will help you regain control."*

A patient checks and rechecks electrical cords related to an obsessive thought that the house may burn down. The nurse and patient explore the likelihood of an actual fire. The patient states that a house fire is not likely. This counseling demonstrates the principles of: a. Flooding b. Desensitization c. Relaxation technique d. Cognitive restructuring

*d. Cognitive restructuring* Cognitive restructuring involves the patient in testing automatic thoughts and drawing new conclusions. Desensitization involves a graduated exposure to a feared object. Relaxation training teaches the patient to produce the opposite of the stress response. Flooding exposes the patient to a large amount of undesirable stimuli in an effort to extinguish the anxiety response.

A patient is undergoing diagnostic tests. The patient says, "Nothing is wrong with me except a stubborn chest cold." The spouse reports that the patient smokes, coughs daily, has lost 15 pounds, and is easily fatigued. Which defense mechanism is the patient using? a. Displacement b. Regression c. Projection d. Denial

*d. Denial* Denial is an unconscious blocking of threatening or painful information or feelings. Regression involves using behaviors appropriate at an earlier stage of psychosexual development. Displacement shifts feelings to a more neutral person or object. Projection attributes one's own unacceptable thoughts or feelings to another.

A student says, "Before taking a test, I feel a heightened sense of awareness and restlessness." The nurse can correctly assess the student's experience as: a. Culturally influenced b. Displacement c. Trait anxiety d. Mild anxiety

*d. Mild anxiety* Mild anxiety is rarely obstructive to the task at hand. It may be helpful to the patient because it promotes study and increases awareness of the nuances of questions

A supervisor assigns a worker a new project. The worker initially agrees but feels resentful. The next day when asked about the project, the worker says, "I've been working on other things." When asked 4 hours later, the worker says, "Someone else was using the copier, so I couldn't finish it." The worker's behavior demonstrates: a. acting out. b. projection. c. rationalization. d. passive aggression

*d. passive aggression* A passive-aggressive person deals with emotional conflict by indirectly expressing aggression toward others. Compliance on the surface masks covert resistance. Resistance is expressed through procrastination, inefficiency, and stubbornness in response to assigned tasks.

Answer - c. Pages 199-200. The stress-diathesis model explains depression from an environmental, interpersonal, and life events perspective combined with biological vulnerability or predisposition (diathesis). Psychosocial stressors and interpersonal events, such as abuse, trigger certain neurophysical and neurochemical changes in the brain. Early life trauma is a significant component in the stress reaction.

1. A 28-year-old second-grade teacher is diagnosed with major depressive disorder. She grew up in Texas but moved to Alaska 10 years ago to separate from an abusive mother. Her father died by suicide when she was 12 years old. Which combination of factors in this scenario best demonstrates the stress-diathesis model? a. Cold climate coupled with history of abuse b. Current age of 28 coupled with family history of depression c. Family history of mental illness coupled with history of abuse d. Female gender coupled with the stressful profession of teaching

Answer - c. Pages 8-9. Stigma refers to the array of negative attitudes and beliefs regarding mental illness. Bias, prejudice, fear, and misinformation contribute to stigma.

1. A mentally ill gunman opens fire in a crowded movie theater, killing six people and injuring others. Which comment about this event by a member of the community most clearly shows the stigma of mental illness? a. "Gun control laws are inadequate in our country." b. "It's frightening to feel that it is not safe to go to a movie theater." c. "All these people with mental illness are violent and should be locked up." d. "These events happen because American families no longer go to church together."

ANS: D Spending time with the patient at intervals throughout the day shows acceptance by the nurse and helps the patient establish a relationship with the nurse. The therapeutic technique is called offering self. Setting definite times for the therapeutic contacts and keeping the appointments show predictability on the part of the nurse, an element that fosters the building of trust. The incorrect responses would be difficult for a person with profound depression to believe, provide trite reassurance, and are counterproductive. The patient is unable to say positive things at this point.

1. A patient became severely depressed when the last of six children moved out of the home 4 months ago. The patient repeatedly says, "No one cares about me. I'm not worth anything." Which response by the nurse would be the most helpful? a. "Things will look brighter soon. Everyone feels down once in a while." b. "The staff here cares about you and wants to try to help you get better." c. "It is difficult for others to care about you when you repeatedly say negative things about yourself." d. "I'll sit with you for 10 minutes now and return for 10 minutes at lunchtime and again at 2:30 this afternoon."

Answer - c. Pages 227, 230-232. The nurse has responsibility for advocacy. In view of the patient's long history of problems, a legal guardian should be considered.

1. A patient has a long history of bipolar disorder with frequent episodes of mania secondary to stopping prescribed medications. The patient says, "I will use my whole check next month to buy lottery tickets. Winning will solve my money problems." Select the nurse's best action. a. Educate the patient about the low odds of winning the lottery. b. Present reality by saying to the patient, "That is not good use of your money." c. Confer with the treatment team about appointing a legal guardian for the patient. d. Tell the patient, "If you buy lottery tickets, your money will run out before the end of the month."

ANS: C Hyperactivity (directing traffic) and poor judgment (putting self in a dangerous position) are characteristic of manic episodes. The distracters do not specifically apply to mania.

1. A person is directing traffic on a busy street and shouting, "To work, you jerk, for perks," and making obscene gestures at cars. The person has not slept or eaten for 3 days. What features of mania are evident? a. Increased muscle tension and anxiety b. Vegetative signs and poor grooming c. Poor judgment and hyperactivity d. Cognitive deficit and sad mood

ANS: C, D, E Anhedonia refers to the inability to find pleasure or meaning in life; thus planning should include measures to accommodate psychomotor retardation, assist with activities of daily living, and instill hopefulness. Anergia is the lack of energy, not excessive energy. Anhedonia does not necessarily imply the presence of guilty ruminations.

1. The admission note indicates a patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder has anergia and anhedonia. For which measures should the nurse plan? Select all that apply. a. Channeling excessive energy b. Reducing guilty ruminations c. Instilling a sense of hopefulness d. Assisting with self-care activities e. Accommodating psychomotor retardation

ANS: A, B, E A patient with hypomania is expansive, grandiose, and labile; uses poor judgment; spends inappropriately; and is overstimulated by a busy environment. Providing structure helps the patient maintain appropriate behavior. Financial irresponsibility may be avoided by limiting access to cash and credit cards. Continued decline in sleep patterns may indicate the condition has evolved to full mania. Group socialization should be kept to a minimum to reduce stimulation. A full leave of absence from work is necessary to limit stimuli and to prevent problems associated with poor judgment and the inappropriate decision making that accompany hypomania.

1. Which suggestions are appropriate for the family of a patient with bipolar disorder who is being treated as an outpatient during a hypomanic episode? Select all that apply. a. Provide structure. b. Limit credit card access. c. Encourage group-social interaction. d. Suggest limiting work to half days. e. Monitor the patient's sleep patterns.

ANS: B By questioning a faulty assumption, the nurse can help the patient look at the premise more objectively and reframe it as a more accurate representation of fact. The incorrect responses are judgmental, irrelevant to an overgeneralization, and cast doubt without requiring the patient to evaluate the statement.

10. A patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder tells the nurse, "Bad things that happen are always my fault." To assist the patient in reframing this overgeneralization, the nurse should respond: a. "I really doubt that one person can be blamed for all the bad things that happen." b. "Let's look at one bad thing that happened to see if another explanation exists." c. "You are being exceptionally hard on yourself when you say those things." d. "How does your belief in fate relate to your cultural heritage?"

ANS: B Evidence of genetic transmission is supported when twins or relatives of patients with a particular disorder also show an incidence of the disorder that is higher than the incidence in the general public. The incorrect options do not support the theory of genetic transmission of bipolar disorder.

10. The spouse of a patient with bipolar disorder asks what evidence supports the possibility of genetic transmission of bipolar disorders. Select the nurse's best response. a. "A high proportion of patients with bipolar disorders are found among creative writers." b. "A higher rate of relatives with bipolar disorder is found among patients with bipolar disorder." c. "Patients with bipolar disorder have higher rates of relatives who respond in an exaggerated way to daily stresses." d. "More individuals with bipolar disorder come from high socioeconomic and educational backgrounds."

ANS: D Nurses may have expectations for self and patients that are not wholly realistic, especially regarding the patient's progress toward health. Unmet expectations result in feelings of ineffectiveness, anger, or frustration. Guilt and despair might be observed when the nurse experiences feelings about patients because of sympathy. Interest is possible but not the most likely result. The correct response is more global than overinvolvement.

11. A nurse worked with a patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder who was severely withdrawn and dependent on others. After 3 weeks, the patient did not improve. The nurse is at risk for feelings of: a. overinvolvement. b. guilt and despair. c. interest and pleasure. d. ineffectiveness and frustration.

ANS: A The distractibility characteristic of manic episodes can assist the nurse to direct the patient toward more appropriate, constructive activities without entering into a power struggle. Humor usually backfires by either encouraging the patient or inciting anger. Limit setting and honest feedback may seem heavy-handed to a labile patient and may incite anger.

11. A patient with bipolar disorder commands other patients, "Get me a book. Take this stuff out of here," and other similar demands. The nurse wants to interrupt this behavior without entering into a power struggle. Select the best initial approach by the nurse. a. Distraction: "Let's go to the dining room for a snack." b. Humor: "How much are you paying servants these days?" c. Limit setting: "You must stop ordering other patients around." d. Honest feedback: "Your controlling behavior is annoying others."

ANS: A The normal range for a blood sample taken 8 to 12 hours after the last dose of lithium is 0.4 to 1 mEq/L.

12. A nurse receives this laboratory result: lithium level 1 mEq/L. This result is: a. within therapeutic limits b. below therapeutic limits c. above therapeutic limits d. incorrect because of inaccurate testing

ANS: B Some evidence indicates that suicidal ideation may worsen at the beginning of antidepressant therapy; thus close monitoring is necessary. Avoiding exposure to bright sunlight and restricting sodium intake are unnecessary. Tyramine restriction is associated with monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) therapy.

12. A patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder begins selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant therapy. Priority information given to the patient and family should include a directive to: a. avoid exposure to bright sunlight. b. report increased suicidal thoughts. c. restrict sodium intake to 1 g daily. d. maintain a tyramine-free diet.

ANS: A The correct answer describes a meal that contains little tyramine. Vegetables and fruits contain little or no tyramine, and fresh ground beef and apple pie should be safe. The other meals contain various amounts of tyramine-rich foods or foods that contain vasopressors: avocados, ripe bananas (banana bread), sausages and hot dogs, smoked meat (ham), cheddar cheese, yeast, caffeine drinks, and chocolate.

13. A nurse teaching a patient about a tyramine-restricted diet would approve which meal? a. Mashed potatoes, ground beef patty, corn, green beans, apple pie b. Avocado salad, ham, creamed potatoes, asparagus, chocolate cake c. Macaroni and cheese, hot dogs, banana bread, caffeinated coffee d. Noodles with cheddar cheese sauce, smoked sausage, lettuce salad, yeast rolls

ANS: C The three drugs in the stem of this question are all anticonvulsants. Lamotrigine is also an anticonvulsant. Clonazepam is an anxiolytic; aripiprazole and risperidone are antipsychotic drugs.

13. Consider these three drugs: divalproex (Depakote), carbamazepine (Tegretol), and gabapentin (Neurontin). Which drug also belongs to this group? a. clonazepam (Klonopin) b. risperidone (Risperdal) c. lamotrigine (Lamictal) d. aripiprazole (Abilify)

ANS: A During the immediate post-treatment period, the patient is recovering from general anesthesia, hence the need to establish and support physiologic stability. Monitoring pupillary responses is not a priority. Reducing disorientation and confusion is an acceptable intervention but not the priority. Assisting the patient in identifying and testing negative thoughts is inappropriate in the immediate post-treatment period because the patient may be confused.

14. What is the focus of priority nursing interventions for the period immediately after electroconvulsive therapy treatment? a. Supporting physiologic stability b. Reducing disorientation and confusion c. Monitoring pupillary responses d. Assisting the patient to identify and test negative thoughts

ANS: B This intervention provides support through the nurse's presence and provides structure as necessary while the patient's control is tenuous. Acting out may lead to the loss of behavioral control. The patient will probably be unable to focus on instructions and comply. Restraint is used only after other interventions have proved ineffective.

14. When a hyperactive patient with acute mania is hospitalized, what initial nursing intervention is a priority? a. Allow the patient to act out his or her feelings. b. Set limits on patient behavior as necessary. c. Provide verbal instructions to the patient to remain calm. d. Restrain the patient to reduce hyperactivity and aggression.

ANS: C Over-the-counter medicines may contain vasopressor agents or tyramine, a substance that must be avoided when the patient takes MAOI antidepressants. Medications for colds, allergies, or congestion or any preparation that contains ephedrine or phenylpropanolamine may precipitate a hypertensive crisis. MAOI antidepressant therapy is unrelated to the need for sodium limitation, support stockings, or leg elevation. MAOIs interact with tyramine-containing foods, not selenium, to produce dangerously high blood pressure.

15. A nurse provided medication education for a patient who takes phenelzine (Nardil) for depression. Which behavior indicates effective learning? The patient: a. monitors sodium intake and weight daily. b. wears support stockings and elevates the legs when sitting. c. consults the pharmacist when selecting over-the-counter medications. d. can identify foods with high selenium content, which should be avoided.

ANS: B The environment for a patient with mania should be as simple and nonstimulating as possible. Patients with mania are highly sensitive to environmental distractions and stimulation.

15. At a unit meeting, staff members discuss the decor for a special room for patients with mania. Select the best option. a. Extra-large window with a view of the street b. Neutral walls with pale, simple accessories c. Brightly colored walls and print drapes d. Deep colors for walls and upholstery

ANS: B When staff members are at their wits' end, the patient has succeeded in keeping the environment unsettled and avoided outside controls on behavior. Staff meetings can help minimize staff splitting and feelings of anger, helplessness, confusion, and frustration.

16. A patient with acute mania has exhausted the staff members by noon. The patient has joked, manipulated, insulted, and fought all morning. Staff members are feeling defensive and fatigued. Which is the best action? a. Confer with the health care provider to consider the use of seclusion for this patient. b. Hold a staff meeting to discuss consistency and limit-setting approaches. c. Conduct a meeting with all patients to discuss the behavior. d. Explain to the patient that the behavior is unacceptable.

ANS: C The patient's statements express feelings of worthlessness and most clearly relate to the nursing diagnosis of Situational low self-esteem. Insufficient information exists to justify the other diagnoses.

16. A patient's employment is terminated and major depressive disorder results. The patient says to the nurse, "I'm not worth the time you spend with me. I'm the most useless person in the world." Which nursing diagnosis applies? a. Powerlessness b. Defensive coping c. Situational low self-esteem d. Disturbed personal identity

ANS: A Making observations about neutral topics such as the environment draws the patient into the reality around him or her but places no burdensome expectations on the patient for answers. Acceptance and support are shown by the nurse's presence. Direct questions may make the patient feel that the encounter is an interrogation. Open-ended questions are preferable if the patient is able to participate in dialog. Platitudes are never acceptable; they minimize patient feelings and can increase feelings of worthlessness.

17. A patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder does not interact with others except when addressed and then only in monosyllables. The nurse wants to show nonjudgmental acceptance and support for the patient. Select the nurse's most effective approach to communication. a. Make observations. b. Ask the patient direct questions. c. Phrase questions to require "yes" or "no" answers. d. Frequently reassure the patient to reduce guilt feelings.

ANS: C Patients must be protected from the embarrassing consequences of their poor judgment whenever possible. Protecting the patient from public exposure by matter-of-factly covering the patient and removing him or her from the area with a sufficient number of staff members to avoid argument and provide control is an effective approach.

17. A patient with acute mania undresses in the group room and dances. The nurse's first intervention would be to: a. quietly ask the patient, "Why don't you put on your clothes?" b. firmly tell the patient, "Stop dancing, and put on your clothing." c. put a blanket around the patient, and walk with the patient to a quiet room. d. allow the patient stay in the group room. Move the other patients to a different area.

ANS: C The patient has symptoms associated with abrupt withdrawal of the tricyclic antidepressant. Taking a dose of the drug will ameliorate the symptoms. Seeing the health care provider will allow the patient to discuss the advisability of going off the medication and to be given a gradual withdrawal schedule if discontinuation is the decision. This situation is not a medical emergency, although it calls for medical advice. Resuming taking the antidepressant for 2 more weeks and then discontinuing again would produce the same symptoms the patient is experiencing.

18. A patient being treated for major depressive disorder has taken 300 mg amitriptyline (Elavil) daily for a year. The patient calls the case manager at the clinic and says, "I stopped taking my antidepressant 2 days ago. Now I am having cold sweats, nausea, a rapid heartbeat, and nightmares." The nurse should advise the patient: a. "Go to the nearest emergency department immediately." b. "Do not to be alarmed. Take two aspirin and drink plenty of fluids." c. "Take one dose of the antidepressant. Come to the clinic to see the health care provider." d. "Resume taking the antidepressant for 2 more weeks, and then discontinue it again."

ANS: B Situations such as this offer an opportunity to use the patient's distractibility to the staff's advantage. Patients become frustrated when staff members deny requests that the patient sees as entirely reasonable. Distracting the patient can avoid power struggles. Suggesting that a friend do the shopping would not satisfy the patient's need for immediacy and would ultimately result in the extravagant expenditure. Asking whether the patient has enough money would likely precipitate an angry response.

18. A patient with acute mania waves a newspaper and says, "I must have my credit card and use the computer right now. A store is having a big sale and I need to order 10 dresses and four pairs of shoes." Select the nurse's most appropriate intervention. a. Suggest to the patient to have a friend do the shopping and bring purchases to the unit. b. Invite the patient to sit with the nurse and look at new fashion magazines. c. Tell the patient that computer use is not allowed until self-control improves. d. Ask whether the patient has enough money to pay for the purchases.

ANS: A Some patients find that taking lithium with meals diminishes nausea. The incorrect options are less helpful.

19. A patient with bipolar disorder, who is being treated on an outpatient basis, takes lithium carbonate 300 mg three times daily. The patient complains of nausea. To reduce the nausea, the nurse can suggest that the lithium be taken with: a. meals b. an antacid c. an antiemetic medication d. a large glass of juice

ANS: A Sleeping 6 hours, participating in a group activity, and anticipating an event are all positive happenings. All the other options show at least one negative finding.

19. Which documentation indicates the treatment plan of a patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder was effective? a. Slept 6 hours uninterrupted. Sang with activity group. Anticipates seeing grandchild. b. Slept 10 hours uninterrupted. Attended craft group; stated "project was a failure, just like me." c. Slept 5 hours with brief interruptions. Personal hygiene adequate with assistance. Weight loss of 1 pound. d. Slept 7 hours uninterrupted. Preoccupied with perceived inadequacies. States, "I feel tired all the time."

ANS: B, C People with mania are hyperactive and often do not take the time to eat and drink properly. Their high levels of activity consume calories; therefore deficits in nutrition may occur. Sleep is reduced. Their socialization is impaired but not isolated. Confusion may be acute but not chronic.

2. A nurse prepares the plan of care for a patient having a manic episode. Which nursing diagnoses are most likely? Select all that apply. a. Imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements b. Disturbed thought processes c. Sleep deprivation d. Chronic confusion e. Social isolation

ANS: A Low self-esteem is reflected by making consistently negative statements about self and self-worth. Replacing negative cognitions with more realistic appraisals of self is an appropriate intermediate outcome. The incorrect options are not as clearly related to the nursing diagnosis. Outcomes are best when framed positively; identifying two personal behaviors that might alienate others is a negative concept.

2. A patient became depressed after the last of six children moved out of the home 4 months ago. The patient has been self-neglectful, slept poorly, lost weight, and repeatedly says, "No one cares about me anymore. I'm not worth anything." Select an appropriate initial outcome for the nursing diagnosis: Situational low self-esteem, related to feelings of abandonment. The patient will: a. verbalize realistic positive characteristics about self by (date) . b. consent to take antidepressant medication regularly by (date) . c. initiate social interaction with another person daily by (date) . d. identify two personal behaviors that alienate others by (date) .

Answer - d. Page 198 (Table 15-1). The correct response accomplishes two results: the nurse can further assess the patient's complaint and the nurse uses clarification, a therapeutic communication technique.

2. A patient tells the nurse, "No matter what I do, I feel like there's always a dark cloud following me." Select the nurse's initial action. a. Assess the patient's current sleep and eating patterns. b. Explain to the patient, "Everyone feels down from time to time." c. Suggest alternative activities for times when the patient feels depressed. d. Say to the patient, "Tell me more about what you mean by 'a dark cloud'."

ANS: A The patient has demonstrated angry behavior and pleasant, happy behavior within seconds of each other. Excessive happiness indicates euphoria. Mood swings are often rapid and seemingly without understandable reason in patients who are manic. These swings are documented as labile. Irritability, belligerence, excessive happiness, and confidence are not entirely correct terms for the patient's mood. A high level of suspicion is not evident.

2. A patient with bipolar disorder is dressed in a red leotard and brightly colored scarves. The patient says, "I'll punch you, munch you, crunch you," while twirling and shadowboxing. Then the patient says gaily, "Do you like my scarves? Here...they are my gift to you." How should the nurse document the patient's mood? a. Labile and euphoric b. Irritable and belligerent c. Highly suspicious and arrogant d. Excessively happy and confident

ANS: A, C, D, F Vegetative signs of depression are alterations in the body processes necessary to support life and growth, such as eating, sleeping, elimination, and sexual activity. These diagnoses are more closely related to vegetative signs than to diagnoses associated with feelings about self.

2. A student nurse caring for a patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder reads in the patient's medical record, "This patient shows vegetative signs of depression." Which nursing diagnoses most clearly relate to the vegetative signs? Select all that apply. a. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements b. Chronic low self-esteem c. Sexual dysfunction d. Self-care deficit e. Powerlessness f. Insomnia

Answer - c. Pages 13-14. In the correct response, the nurse answers rather than evades the question, provides accurate information, and uses terminology a 9- or 10-year-old child can understand. Many of the most prevalent and disabling mental disorders have been found to have strong biological influences, including genetic transmission.

2. The nurse presents a class about mental health and mental illness to a group of fourth graders. One student asks, "Why do people get mentally ill?" Select the nurse's best response. a. "There are many reasons why mental illness occurs." b. "The cause of mental illness is complicated and very hard to understand." c. "Sometimes a person's brain does not work correctly because something bad happens or they inherit a brain problem." d. "Most mental illnesses result from genetically transmitted abnormalities in cerebral structure; however, some are a consequence of traumatic life experiences."

Answer - b. Page 229. Numerous posts on a social network page indicate hyperactivity, which is a hallmark of mania.

2. Which comment by a patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder best indicates the patient is experiencing mania? a. "I have been sleeping about 6 hours each night." b. "Yesterday I made 487 posts on my social network page." c. "I am having dreams about my father's death 8 years ago." d. "My appetite is so robust that I've gained 4 pounds in the past 2 weeks."

ANS: A Sodium depletion and dehydration increase the chance for developing lithium toxicity. The other options offer inappropriate information.

20. A health teaching plan for a patient taking lithium should include instructions to: a. Maintain normal salt and fluids in the diet. b. Drink twice the usual daily amount of fluids. c. Double the lithium dose if diarrhea or vomiting occurs. d. Avoid eating aged cheese, processed meats, and red wine.

ANS: D When a new mother develops depression with a postpartum onset, ruminations or delusional thoughts about the infant often occur. The risk for harming the infant is increased; thus, it becomes the priority diagnosis. The other diagnoses are relevant but are of lower priority.

20. A woman gave birth to a healthy newborn 1 month ago. The patient now reports she cannot cope and is unable to sleep or eat. She says, "I feel like a failure. This baby is the root of my problems." The priority nursing diagnosis is: a. Insomnia b. Ineffective coping c. Situational low self-esteem d. Risk for other-directed violence

ANS: B A patient with depression who feels so worthless as to believe cancer is deserved is at risk for suicide. Safety concerns take priority over the other diagnoses listed.

21. A patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder repeatedly tells staff members, "I have cancer. It's my punishment for being a bad person." Diagnostic tests reveal no cancer. Select the priority nursing diagnosis. a. Powerlessness b. Risk for suicide c. Stress overload d. Spiritual distress

ANS: B Patients with mood disorders, both depression and mania, experience sleep pattern disturbances. Assessment data should be routinely gathered about this possible problem. Deficient diversional activity is more relevant for patients with depression. Defensive coping is more relevant for patients with mania. Fluid volume excess is less relevant for patients with mood disorders than is deficient fluid volume.

21. Which nursing diagnosis would most likely apply to both a patient with depression and one with acute mania? a. Deficient diversional activity b. Disturbed sleep pattern c. Fluid volume excess d. Defensive coping

ANS: D Milk is the only beverage listed that provides protein, fat, and carbohydrates. In addition, milk is fortified with vitamins.

22. Which beverage should the nurse offer to a patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder who refuses solid food? a. Tomato juice b. Orange juice c. Hot tea d. Milk

ANS: C These foods provide adequate nutrition, but, more importantly, they are finger foods that the hyperactive patient could "eat on the run." The foods in the incorrect options cannot be eaten without utensils.

22. Which dinner menu is best suited for the patient with bipolar disorder experiencing acute mania? a. Spaghetti and meatballs, salad, and a banana b. Beef and vegetable stew, a roll, and chocolate pudding c. Broiled chicken breast on a roll, an ear of corn, and an apple d. Chicken casserole, green beans, and flavored gelatin with whipped cream

ANS: B Mood is a person's self-reported emotional feeling state. Affect is the emotional feeling state that is outwardly observable by others.

23. During a psychiatric assessment, the nurse observes a patient's facial expressions that are without emotion. The patient says, "Life feels so hopeless to me. I've been feeling sad for several months." How should the nurse document the patient's affect and mood? a. Affect depressed; mood flat b. Affect flat; mood depressed c. Affect labile; mood euphoric d. Affect and mood are incongruent

ANS: B The desired outcome is that the patient will be able to control the grandiose thinking associated with acute mania as evidenced by making realistic comments about self, abilities, and plans. Patients with acute mania are already unduly optimistic as a result of their use of denial, and they are overly interested in their environment. Sleep stability is a desired outcome but is not related to distorted thought processes.

23. Outcome identification for the treatment plan of a patient with grandiose thinking associated with acute mania focuses on: a. developing an optimistic outlook b. self-control of distorted thinking c. maintaining an interest in the environment d. stabilizing the sleep pattern

ANS: D When patients are unable to perform self-care activities, staff members must assist them rather than ignore the issue. Better grooming increases self-esteem. Calmly telling the patient to bathe daily and bringing up the issue at a community meeting are punitive.

24. A disheveled patient with severe depression and psychomotor retardation has not bathed for several days. The nurse should: a. avoid forcing the issue. b. bring up the issue at the community meeting. c. calmly tell the patient, "You must bathe daily." d. firmly and neutrally assist the patient with showering.

ANS: A The descriptors given indicate the patient is functioning at an optimal level, using appropriate behavior, and thinking without becoming overstimulated by unit activities. The incorrect options reflect manic behavior.

24. Which documentation indicates that the treatment plan for a patient with acute mania has been effective? a. "Converses without interrupting, clothing matches, participates in activities." b. "Irritable, suggestible, distractible, napped for 10 minutes in afternoon." c. "Attention span short, writing copious notes, intrudes in conversations." d. "Heavy makeup, seductive toward staff, pressured speech."

ANS: C Escitalopram is an SSRI antidepressant. Between 1 and 3 weeks of treatment are usually necessary before a relief of symptoms occurs. This information is important to share with patients.

25. A patient was started on escitalopram (Lexapro) 5 days ago and now says, "This medicine isn't working." The nurse's best intervention would be to: a. discuss with the health care provider the need to change medications. b. reassure the patient that the medication will be effective soon. c. explain the time lag before antidepressants relieve symptoms. d. critically assess the patient for symptom relief.

ANS: B All the options are reasonable interventions with a patient with acute mania, but providing a subdued environment directly relates to the outcome of energy conservation by decreasing stimulation and helping balance activity and rest.

25. A patient with mania dances around the unit, seldom sits, monopolizes conversations, interrupts, and intrudes. Which nursing intervention will best assist the patient with energy conservation? a. Monitor physiologic functioning. b. Provide a subdued environment. c. Supervise personal hygiene. d. Observe for mood changes.

ANS: D Nonverbal communication is usually considered more powerful than verbal communication. Downward-casted eyes suggest feelings of worthlessness or hopelessness.

26. A nurse is caring for a patient with low self-esteem. Which nonverbal communication should the nurse anticipate? a. Arms crossed b. Staring at the nurse c. Smiling inappropriately d. Eyes pointed downward

ANS: D The patient is continuing to exhibit manic symptoms. The lithium level may be low as a result of "cheeking" the medication. The prescribed dose is high, so one would not expect a need for the dose to be increased.

26. A patient with bipolar disorder was hospitalized 7 days earlier and has been taking lithium 600 mg three times daily. Staff members observe increased agitation, pressured speech, poor personal hygiene, hyperactivity, and bizarre clothing. What is the nurse's best intervention? a. Educate the patient about the proper ways to perform personal hygiene and coordinate clothing. b. Continue to monitor and document the patient's speech patterns and motor activity. c. Ask the health care provider to prescribe an increased dose and frequency of lithium. d. Consider the need to check the lithium level. The patient may not be swallowing medications.

ANS: A Recent memory impairment or confusion or both are often present during and for a short time after electroconvulsive therapy. An inappropriate business decision might be made because of forgotten and important details. The incorrect responses contain rationales that are untrue. The patient needing time to reorient himself or herself to a pressured work schedule is less relevant than the correct rationale.

27. A patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder was hospitalized for 8 days. Treatment included six electroconvulsive therapy sessions and aggressive dose adjustments of antidepressant medications. The patient owns a small business and was counseled not to make major decisions for a month. Select the correct rationale for this counseling. a. Temporary memory impairments and confusion can be associated with electroconvulsive therapy. b. Antidepressant medications alter catecholamine levels, which impair decision-making abilities. c. Antidepressant medications may cause confusion related to a limitation of tyramine in the diet. d. The patient needs time to reorient himself or herself to a pressured work schedule.

ANS: D A patient who repeatedly disrobes, despite verbal limit setting, needs more structure. One-on-one supervision may provide the necessary structure. Directing the patient to wear clothes at all times has not proven successful, considering the behavior has continued. Asking whether the patient is bothered by clothing serves no purpose. Telling the patient that others are embarrassed will not make a difference to the patient whose grasp of social behaviors is impaired by the illness.

27. A patient with acute mania has disrobed in the hall three times in 2 hours. The nurse should: a. direct the patient to wear clothes at all times. b. ask if the patient finds clothes bothersome. c. tell the patient that others feel embarrassed. d. arrange for one-on-one supervision.

ANS: B Patients taking MAOIs must be on a tyramine-free diet to prevent hypertensive crisis. In the presence of MAOIs, tyramine is not destroyed by the liver and, in high levels, produces intense vasoconstriction, resulting in elevated blood pressure.

28. A nurse instructs a patient taking a drug that inhibits the action of monoamine oxidase (MAO) to avoid certain foods and drugs because of the risk of: a. hypotensive shock. b. hypertensive crisis. c. cardiac dysrhythmia. d. cardiogenic shock.

ANS: B Safety is of primary importance. Once other patients are out of the room, a plan for managing this patient can be implemented.

28. A patient with acute mania is dancing atop the pool table in the recreation room. The patient waves a cue in one hand and says, "I'll throw the pool balls if anyone comes near me." The nurse's first intervention is to: a. tell the patient, "You need to be secluded." b. clear the room of all other patients. c. help the patient down from the table. d. assemble a show of force.

ANS: D During the continuation phase of treatment for bipolar disorder, the physical needs of the patient are not as important an issue as they were during the acute episode. After hospital discharge, the treatment focuses on maintaining medication compliance and preventing a relapse, both of which are fostered by ongoing psychoeducation.

29. After hospital discharge, what is the priority intervention for a patient with bipolar disorder, who is taking antimanic medication, and for the patient's family? a. Decreasing physical activity b. Increasing food and fluids c. Meeting self-care needs d. Psychoeducation

Answer - a. Page 236 (Box 16-1). Patients should stop taking lithium if excessive diarrhea, vomiting, or sweating occurs. These problems can lead to dehydration, which can raise serum lithium to toxic levels.

3. A community mental health nurse counsels a group of patients about the upcoming flu season. What instruction does the nurse provide for patients who are prescribed lithium? a. "Stop taking your medicine and contact me if you have nausea, vomiting, and/or diarrhea." b. "Remember that lithium reduces your immunity, so you are more vulnerable to catching the flu." c. "The flu is contagious. Isolate yourself if you get the flu so that you avoid exposing others to it." d. "Because you take lithium, you may have flu symptoms that are not typically experienced by others."

ANS: B Patients with depression usually see the negative side of things. The meaning of compliments may be altered to "I didn't look nice yesterday" or "They didn't like my other shirt." Neutral comments such as an observation avoid negative interpretations. Saying "You look nice" or "I like your shirt" gives approval (nontherapeutic techniques). Saying "You must be feeling better today" is an assumption, which is nontherapeutic.

3. A nurse wants to reinforce positive self-esteem for a patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Today, the patient is wearing a new shirt and has neat, clean hair. Which remark is most appropriate? a. "You look nice this morning." b. "You are wearing a new shirt." c. "I like the shirt you're wearing." d. "You must be feeling better today."

ANS: A, B, C The correct interventions reflect routine electroconvulsive therapy preparation, which is similar to preoperative preparation: sedation and anticholinergic medication before anesthesia, maintaining nothing-by-mouth status to prevent aspiration during and after treatment, airway maintenance, and general safety by removing prosthetic devices. Restraint is not part of the pretreatment protocol. An advance directive is prepared independent of this treatment.

3. A patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder will begin electroconvulsive therapy tomorrow. Which interventions are routinely implemented before the treatment? Select all that apply. a. Administer pretreatment medication 30 to 45 minutes before treatment. b. Withhold food and fluids for a minimum of 6 hours before treatment. c. Remove dentures, glasses, contact lenses, and hearing aids. d. Restrain the patient in bed with padded limb restraints. e. Assist the patient to prepare an advance directive.

Answer - c. Pages 200-201. Helplessness is sometimes a finding in major depressive disorder. The nurse has a responsibility for patient advocacy. Helping the patient to advocate for self is empowering.

3. A patient experiencing depression says to the nurse, "My health care provider said I need 'talk' therapy but I think I need a prescription for an antidepressant medication. What should I do?" Select the nurse's best response. a. "Which antidepressant medication do you think would be helpful?" b. "There are different types of talk therapy. Most patients find it beneficial." c. "Let's consider some ways to address your concerns with your health care provider." d. "Are you willing to give 'talk therapy' a try before starting an antidepressant medication?"

ANS: A, C Chronic low self-esteem and powerlessness are interwoven in the patient's statements. No data support the other diagnoses.

3. A patient tells the nurse, "I am so ashamed of being bipolar. When I'm manic, my behavior embarrasses my family. Even if I take my medication, there's no guarantee I won't have a relapse. I am such a burden to my family." These statements support which nursing diagnoses? Select all that apply. a. Powerlessness b. Defensive coping c. Chronic low self-esteem d. Impaired social interaction e. Risk-prone health behavior

ANS: C Hyperactivity, poor nutrition, hydration, and not sleeping take priority in terms of the needs listed because they threaten the physical integrity of the patient. The other behaviors are less threatening to the patient's life.

3. A person is directing traffic on a busy street and rapidly shouting, "To work, you jerk, for perks," and making obscene gestures at cars. The person has not slept or eaten for 3 days. Which assessment findings will have priority concern for this patient's plan of care? a. Insulting, provocative behavior b. Pressured speech and grandiosity c. Hyperactivity; not eating and sleeping d. Poor concentration and decision making

Answer - d. Page 12. Resiliency is the ability to recover from or adjust successfully to trauma or change. A successful transition through a crisis builds resiliency for the next difficult trial. In the correct response, the person demonstrates acceptance of the paralysis and a focus on his or her abilities and assets.

3. An adult experienced a spinal cord injury resulting in quadriplegia 3 years ago and now lives permanently in a skilled care facility. Which comment by this person best demonstrates resiliency? a. "I often pray for a miracle that will heal my paralysis so I will be whole again." b. "I don't know what I did to deserve this fate or whether I am tough enough to endure it." c. "My accident was a twist of fate. I suppose there are worse things than being paralyzed." d. "Being paralyzed has taken things from me but it hasn't kept me from being mentally involved in life."

ANS: C Diaphoresis, weakness, and nausea are early signs of lithium toxicity. Problems mentioned in the incorrect options are unrelated to lithium therapy.

30. A patient receiving lithium should be assessed for which evidence of complications? a. Pharyngitis, mydriasis, and dystonia b. Alopecia, purpura, and drowsiness c. Diaphoresis, weakness, and nausea d. Ascites, dyspnea, and edema

ANS: B Patients with bipolar disorder may be indefinitely maintained on lithium to prevent recurrences. Helping the patient understand this need promotes medication compliance.

31. A patient with bipolar disorder is in the maintenance phase of treatment. The patient asks, "Do I have to keep taking this lithium even though my mood is stable now?" Select the nurse's most appropriate response. a. "You will be able to stop the medication in approximately 1 month." b. "Taking the medication every day helps prevent relapses and recurrences." c. "Usually patients take this medication for approximately 6 months after discharge." d. "It's unusual that the health care provider hasn't already stopped your medication."

ANS: B The symptoms described suggest lithium toxicity. The patient should have a lithium level drawn and may require further treatment. Because neurologic symptoms are present, the patient should not drive and should be accompanied by another person. The incorrect options will not ameliorate the patient's symptoms.

32. A patient with bipolar disorder and who takes lithium telephones the nurse at the clinic to say, "I've had severe diarrhea for 4 days. I feel very weak and unsteady when I walk. My usual hand tremor has gotten worse. What should I do?" The nurse should advise the patient: a. "Restrict food and fluids for 24 hours, and stay in bed." b. "Have someone bring you to the clinic immediately." c. "Drink a large glass of water with 1 teaspoon of salt added." d. "Take an over-the-counter antidiarrheal medication hourly until the diarrhea subsides."

ANS: D The patient with congestive heart failure will likely need diuretic drugs, which will complicate the maintenance of the fluid balance necessary to avoid lithium toxicity.

33. Lithium is prescribed for a new patient. Which information from the patient's history indicates that monitoring serum concentrations of the drug will be challenging and critical? a. Arthritis b. Epilepsy c. Psoriasis d. Congestive heart failure

Answer - a. Page 14. Diagnoses classify disorders that people have, not the person. For this reason, it is important to avoid use of expressions such as "a schizophrenic" or "an alcoholic." The nurse has a responsibility to educate the coworker.

4. A nursing assistant says to the nurse, "The schizophrenic in room 226 has been rambling all day." When considering the nurse's responsibility to manage the ancillary staff, which response should the nurse provide? a. "It is more respectful to refer to the patient by name than by diagnosis." b. "Thank you for informing me about that. I will document the behavior." c. "It is not unusual for schizophrenics to do that. It's just part of their illness." d. "You have a difficult job. I'm glad you are so accepting of our patients' behaviors."

ANS: A, B, C The correct options promote a normal elimination pattern. Although excessive intake of stimulants such as caffeine may make the patient feel jittery and anxious, small amounts may provide useful stimulation. No indication exists that processed foods should be restricted.

4. A patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder shows vegetative signs of depression. Which nursing actions should be implemented? Select all that apply. a. Offer laxatives, if needed. b. Monitor food and fluid intake. c. Provide a quiet sleep environment. d. Eliminate all daily caffeine intake. e. Restrict the intake of processed foods.

Answer - d. Page 239 (Box 16-2). The correct response shows use of the therapeutic communication technique of verbalizing the implied. Gaining insight contributes to relapse prevention.

4. A patient was diagnosed with bipolar disorder many years ago. The patient tells the nurse, "When I have a manic episode, there's always a feeling of gloom behind it and I know I will soon be totally depressed." What is the nurse's best response? a. "Most patients diagnosed with bipolar disorder report the same types of feelings." b. "Feelings of gloom associated with depression result from serotonin dysregulation." c. "If you take your medication as it is prescribed, you will not have those experiences." d. "Your comment indicates you have an understanding and insight about your disorder."

ANS: A Although each of the nursing diagnoses listed is appropriate for a patient having a manic episode, the priority lies with the patient's physiologic safety. Hyperactivity and poor judgment place the patient at risk for injury.

4. A patient with mania has not eaten or slept for 3 days. Which nursing diagnosis has priority? a. Risk for injury b. Ineffective coping c. Impaired social interaction d. Ineffective therapeutic regimen management

ANS: A Social skills training is helpful in treating and preventing the recurrence of depression. Training focuses on assertiveness and coping skills that lead to positive reinforcement from others and the development of a patient's support system. The use of complementary therapy refers to adjunctive therapies such as herbals. Assertiveness would be of greater value than relaxation training because passivity is a concern. Desensitization is used in the treatment of phobias.

4. An adult diagnosed with major depressive disorder was treated with medication and cognitive behavioral therapy. The patient now recognizes how passivity contributed to the depression. Which intervention should the nurse suggest? a. Social skills training b. Relaxation training classes c. Use of complementary therapy d. Learning desensitization techniques

Answer - c. Page 211. The possibility that antidepressant medication might contribute to suicidal behavior, especially in children and adolescents, has been a long-time concern and all antidepressants include a black box warning; however, there is no conclusive evidence to support this concern. Use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors shows a strong association with a reduction in suicide. All treatments have potential risks; each patient should be considered individually when antidepressants are prescribed. All consumers of antidepressants should be observed carefully for worsening of depression and suicidal thoughts.

4. The nurse cares for a hospitalized adolescent diagnosed with major depressive disorder. The health care provider prescribes a low-dose antidepressant. In consideration of published warnings about use of antidepressant medications in younger patients, which action should the nurse employ? a. Notify the facility's patient advocate about the new prescription. b. Teach the adolescent about Black Box warnings associated with antidepressant medications. c. Monitor the adolescent closely for evidence of adverse effects, particularly suicidal thinking or behavior. d. Remind the health care provider about warnings associated with the use of antidepressants in children and adolescents.

Which patient with schizophrenia would be expected to have the lowest score in global assessment of functioning?

40 years old; disorganized schizophrenia since age 18; frequent relapses

ANS: A, D, E The patient is taking the maximum dose of this SSRI and has ingested an additional unknown amount of the drug. Central serotonin syndrome must be considered. Symptoms include abdominal pain, diarrhea, tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, hyperpyrexia, increased motor activity, and muscle spasms. Central serotonin syndrome may progress to a full medical emergency if not treated early. Although assessing for suicidal ideation is never inappropriate, in this situation physiologic symptoms should be the initial focus. The patient may have urinary retention, but frequency would not be expected.

5. A patient being treated with paroxetine (Paxil) 50 mg/day orally for major depressive disorder reports to the clinic nurse, "I took a few extra tablets earlier in the day and now I feel bad." Which aspects of the nursing assessment are most critical? Select all that apply. a. Vital signs b. Urinary frequency c. Increased suicidal ideation d. Presence of abdominal pain and diarrhea e. Hyperactivity or feelings of restlessness

Answer - a. Pages 230-231. Safety is a priority. Mania impairs the person's judgment and impulse control, which may result in harm to self. The correct response identifies potential dangers and shows care for the patient.

5. A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder lives in the community and is showing early signs of mania. The patient says, "I need to go visit my daughter but she lives across the country. I put some requests on the Internet to get a ride. I'm sure someone will take me." What is the nurse's most therapeutic response? a. "I'm concerned about your safety when meeting or riding with strangers." b. "Have you asked friends and family to donate money for your airfare?" c. "You are not likely to get a ride. Let's consider some other strategies." d. "Have you asked your daughter if she wants you to come for a visit?"

ANS: C When the patient is unable to control his or her behavior and violates or threatens to violate the rights of others, limits must be set in an effort to de-escalate the situation. Limits should be set in simple, concrete terms. The first response does not offer appropriate assistance to the patient. The second response threatens the patient with seclusion as punishment. The fourth response asks a rhetorical question.

5. A patient with bipolar disorder is hyperactive after discontinuing lithium and has not slept for 3 days. The patient threatens to hit another patient. Which comment by the nurse is appropriate? a. "Stop that! No one did anything to provoke an attack by you." b. "If you do that one more time, you will be secluded immediately." c. "Do not hit anyone. If you are unable to control yourself, we will help you." d. "You know we will not let you hit anyone. Why do you continue this behavior?"

ANS: B Approximately two thirds of people with depression contemplate suicide. Patients with depression who exhibit feelings of worthlessness are at higher risk. Regularly planned observations of the patient with depression may prevent a suicide attempt on the unit.

5. A priority nursing intervention for a patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder is: a. distracting the patient from self-absorption. b. carefully and inconspicuously observing the patient around the clock. c. allowing the patient to spend long periods alone in self-reflection. d. offering opportunities for the patient to assume a leadership role in the therapeutic milieu.

Answer - d. Page 218. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is safe and effective and can achieve a 70% to 90% remission rate in depressed patients within 1 to 2 weeks. ECT is especially indicated when there is a need for a rapid, definitive response when a patient is suicidal or homicidal as well as in selected other circumstances.

5. Over the past 2 months a patient made eight suicide attempts with increasing lethality. The health care provider informs the patient and family that electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is needed. The family whispers to the nurse, "Isn't this a dangerous treatment?" How should the nurse reply? a. "Our facility has an excellent record of safety associated with use of electroconvulsive therapy." b. "Your family member will eventually be successful with suicide if aggressive measures are not promptly taken." c. "Yes, there are hazards with electroconvulsive therapy. You should discuss these concerns with the health care provider." d. "Electroconvulsive therapy is very effective when urgent help is needed. Your family member was carefully evaluated for possible risks."

Answer - c. Page 10. Many biological, cultural, and environmental factors influence mental health. Persons who are normal also may experience dysfunction during their lives. The death of a spouse is a difficult experience, so crying is expected.

5. Which scenario meets the criteria for "normal" behavior? a. An 8-year-old child's only verbalization is "No no no." b. A 16-year-old girl usually sleeps for 3 or 4 hours per night. c. A 43-year-old man cries privately for 1 month after the death of his wife. d. A 64-year-old woman has difficulty remembering the names of her grandchildren.

ANS: B High-calorie, high-protein food supplements will provide the additional calories needed to offset the patient's extreme hyperactivity. Sitting with others or asking for assistance does not mean the patient will eat or drink. The other indicator is unrelated to the nursing diagnosis.

6. This nursing diagnosis applies to a patient with mania: Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to insufficient caloric intake and hyperactivity as evidenced by 5-pound weight loss in 4 days. Select the most appropriate outcome. The patient will: a. ask staff for assistance with feeding within 4 days. b. drink six servings of a high-calorie, high-protein drink each day. c. consistently sit with others for at least 30 minutes at mealtime within 1 week. d. consistently wear appropriate attire for age and sex within 1 week while in the psychiatric unit.

ANS: C Cognitive behavioral therapy attempts to alter the patient's dysfunctional beliefs by focusing on positive outcomes rather than negative attributions. The patient is also taught the connection between thoughts and resultant feelings. Research shows that cognitive behavioral therapy involves the formation of new connections among nerve cells in the brain and that it is at least as effective as medication. Evidence does not support superior outcomes for the other psychotherapeutic modalities mentioned.

6. When counseling patients diagnosed with major depressive disorder, an advanced practice nurse will address the negative thought patterns by using: a. psychoanalytic therapy. b. desensitization therapy. c. cognitive behavioral therapy. d. alternative and complementary therapies.

ANS: B Anhedonia is a common finding in many types of depression and refers to feelings of a loss of pleasure in formerly pleasurable activities. Vegetative symptoms refer to somatic changes associated with depression. Euphoria refers to an elated mood. Anergia means without energy.

7. A patient says to the nurse, "My life does not have any happiness in it anymore. I once enjoyed holidays, but now they're just another day." How would the nurse document the complaint? a. Vegetative symptom b. Anhedonia c. Euphoria d. Anergia

ANS: B Manic symptoms are controlled by lithium only after a therapeutic serum level is attained. Because this takes several days to accomplish, a drug with rapid onset is necessary to reduce the hyperactivity initially. Antipsychotic drugs neither enhance lithium's antimanic activity nor minimize the side effects. Lithium is used for long-term control.

7. A patient with mania relapsed after discontinuing lithium. New orders are written to resume lithium twice daily and begin olanzapine (Zyprexa). The addition of olanzapine to the medication regimen will: a. minimize the side effects of lithium. b. bring hyperactivity under rapid control. c. enhance the antimanic actions of lithium. d. be used for long-term control of hyperactivity.

ANS: A Drowsiness, dizziness, and postural hypotension usually subside after the first few weeks of therapy with tricyclic antidepressants. Postural hypotension can be managed by teaching the patient to stay well hydrated and rise slowly. Knowing these facts may be enough to convince the patient to remain medication compliant. The minor inconvenience of side effects as compared with feelings of depression is a convincing reason to remain on the medication. Withholding the drug, forcing oral fluids, and having the health care provider examine the patient are unnecessary steps. Independent nursing action is appropriate. Pursed-lip breathing is irrelevant.

8. A patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder is taking a tricyclic antidepressant. The patient says, "I don't think I can keep taking these pills. They make me so dizzy, especially when I stand up." The nurse should: a. explain how to manage postural hypotension, and educate the patient that side effects go away after several weeks. b. tell the patient that the side effects are a minor inconvenience compared with the feelings of depression. c. withhold the drug, force oral fluids, and notify the health care provider to examine the patient. d. teach the patient how to use pursed-lip breathing.

ANS: C Some patients with bipolar disorder, especially those who have only short periods between episodes, have a favorable response to the anticonvulsants carbamazepine and valproate. Phenytoin is also an anticonvulsant but is not used for mood stabilization. Carbamazepine seems to work better in patients with rapid cycling and in severely paranoid, angry patients with manic episodes.

8. A patient with bipolar disorder has rapid cycles. The health care provider prescribes an anticonvulsant medication. To prepare teaching materials, which drug should the nurse anticipate will be prescribed? a. phenytoin (Dilantin) b. clonidine (Catapres) c. carbamazepine (Tegretol) d. chlorpromazine (Thorazine)

ANS: D All the side effects mentioned are the result of the anticholinergic effects of the drug. Only urinary retention and severe constipation warrant immediate medical attention. Dry mouth, blurred vision, and nasal congestion may be less troublesome as therapy continues.

9. A patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder is receiving imipramine (Tofranil) 200 mg every night at bedtime. Which assessment finding would prompt the nurse to collaborate with the health care provider regarding potentially hazardous side effects of this drug? a. Dry mouth b. Blurred vision c. Nasal congestion d. Urinary retention

ANS: A At this time, the interplay of complex independent variables is most likely the best explanation of the cause for bipolar disorder. Various theories implicate genetics, endocrine imbalance, early stress, and neurotransmitter imbalances.

9. The cause of bipolar disorder has not been determined, but: a. several factors, including genetics, are implicated. b. brain structures were altered by stresses early in life. c. excess norepinephrine is probably a major factor. d. excess sensitivity in dopamine receptors may exist.

A 12-year-old child has been the neighborhood bully for several years. The parents say, "We can't believe anything our child says." Recently, the child shot a dog with a pellet gun and set fire to a trash bin outside a store. The child's behaviors are most consistent with: a. conduct disorder CD. b. attention deficit ADHD. c. defiance of authority. d. anxiety over separation from a parent.

A

A 16-year-old adolescent with a conduct disorder (CD) has been in a residential program for 3 months. Which outcome should occur before discharge? a. The teen and parents create and consent to a behavioral contract with rules, rewards, and consequences. b. The teen completes an application to enter a military academy for continued structure and discipline. c. The teen is temporarily placed with a foster family until the parents complete a parenting skills class. d. The teen has an absence of anger and frustration for 1 week.

A

A child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is going to begin medication therapy. The nurse should plan to teach the family about which classification of medications? a. Central nervous system stimulants b. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) c. Antipsychotic medications d. Anxiolytic medications

A

A parent with schizophrenia and her 13-year-old child live in a homeless shelter. The child has formed a trusting relationship with a shelter volunteer. The child says, "My three friends and I got an A on our school science project." The nurse can assess that the child: a. displays resiliency. b. has a difficult temperament. c. is at risk for posttraumatic stress disorder. d. uses intellectualization to deal with problems.

A

An 11-year-old child, who has been diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder ODD, becomes angry over the rules at a residential treatment program and begins shouting at the nurse. Select the best method to defuse the situation. a. Suggest that the child go to the gym and shoot baskets. b. Administer an antipsychotic medication. c. Place the child in a basket-hold. d. Call a staff member to seclude the child.

A

An adolescent is arrested for prostitution and assault on a parent. The adolescent says, "I hate my parents. They focus all their attention on my brother, who's perfect in their eyes." Which nursing diagnosis is most applicable? a. Ineffective coping, related to seeking parental attention as evidenced by acting out b. Disturbed personal identity, related to acting out as evidenced by prostitution c. Impaired parenting, related to showing preference for one child over another d. Hopelessness, related to feeling unloved by parents

A

Shortly after an adolescent's parents announce a plan to divorce, the teen stops participating in sports, sits alone at lunch, and avoids former friends. The adolescent says, "If my parents loved me, then they would work out their problems." What nursing diagnosis is most applicable? a. Ineffective coping b. Decisional conflict c. Chronic low self-esteem d. Disturbed personal identity

A

Which assessment finding would cause the nurse to consider an 8-year-old child to be most at risk for the development of a psychiatric disorder? a. Being raised by a parent with chronic major depression b. Moving to three new homes over a 2-year period c. Not being promoted to the next grade d. Having an imaginary friend

A

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 19. Priority teaching for a patient taking clozapine (Clozaril) should include which instruction? a. Report sore throat and fever immediately. b. Avoid foods high in polyunsaturated fat. c. Use water-based lotions for rashes. d. Avoid unprotected sex.

A Clozapine therapy may produce agranulocytosis; therefore signs of infection should be immediately reported to the health care provider. In addition, the patient should have white blood cell levels measured weekly. The other options are not relevant to clozapine administration. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Page: 63 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

a. self-concept.

A 40-year-old adult living with parents states, "I'm happy but I don't socialize much. My work is routine. When new things come up, my boss explains them a few times to make sure I understand. At home, my parents make decisions for me, and I go along with them." A nurse should identify interventions to improve this patient's: a. self-concept. b. overall happiness. c. appraisal of reality. d. control over behavior.

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 3. A patient has dementia. The health care provider wants to make a differential diagnosis between Alzheimer disease and multiple infarctions. Which diagnostic procedure should a nurse expect to prepare the patient for first? a. Computed tomography (CT) scan b. Positron emission tomography (PET) scan c. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) d. Single-photon-emission computed tomography (SPECT) scan

A A CT scan shows the presence or absence of structural changes, including cortical atrophy, ventricular enlargement, and areas of infarction—information that will be helpful to the health care provider. The other tests focus on brain activity and are more expensive; they may be ordered later. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: Pages: 50-52 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 9. A nurse should assess a patient taking a medication with anticholinergic properties for inhibited function of the: a. parasympathetic nervous system b. sympathetic nervous system c. reticular activating system d. medulla oblongata

A Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter found in high concentration in the parasympathetic nervous system. When acetylcholine action is inhibited by anticholinergic drugs, parasympathetic symptoms such as blurred vision, dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention appear. The functions of the sympathetic nervous system, the reticular activating system, and the medulla oblongata are not affected by anticholinergic medications. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Page: 50|Page: 53|Pages: 56-57 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 22. A patient's spouse, who is a chemist, asks a nurse how serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) lift depression. The nurse should explain that SSRIs: a. destroy increased amounts of neurotransmitters. b. make more serotonin available at the synaptic gap. c. increase production of acetylcholine and dopamine. d. block muscarinic and alpha1norepinephrine receptors.

A Depression is thought to be related to the lowered availability of the neurotransmitter serotonin. SSRIs act by blocking the reuptake of serotonin, leaving a higher concentration available at the synaptic cleft. They actually prevent the destruction of serotonin, have no effect on acetylcholine and dopamine production, and do not block muscarinic or alpha1norepinephrine receptors. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Pages: 59-60 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 10. The therapeutic action of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) blocks neurotransmitter reuptake, causing: a. increased concentration of neurotransmitters in the synaptic gap b. decreased concentration of neurotransmitters in serum c. destruction of receptor sites d. limbic system stimulation a. increased concentration of neurotransmitters in the synaptic gap b. decreased concentration of neurotransmitters in serum c. destruction of receptor sites d. limbic system stimulation

A If the reuptake of a substance is inhibited, then it accumulates in the synaptic gap and its concentration increases, permitting the ease of the transmission of impulses across the synaptic gap. Normal transmission of impulses across synaptic gaps is consistent with a normal rather than a depressed mood. The other options are not associated with blocking neurotransmitter reuptake. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Pages: 58-59 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 6. A nurse administers a medication that potentiates the action of gammaaminobutyric acid (GABA). Which finding would be expected? a. Reduced anxiety b. Improved memory c. More organized thinking d. Fewer sensory perceptual alterations

A Increased levels of GABA reduce anxiety, thus any potentiation of GABA action should result in anxiety reduction. Memory enhancement is associated with acetylcholine and substance P. Thought disorganization is associated with dopamine. GABA is not associated with sensory perceptual alterations. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Pages: 56-57 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 16. A drug causes muscarinic-receptor blockade. A nurse will assess the patient for: a. dry mouth b. gynecomastia c. pseudoparkinsonism d. orthostatic hypotension

A Muscarinic-receptor blockade includes atropine-like side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, and constipation. Gynecomastia is associated with decreased prolactin levels. Movement defects are associated with dopamine blockade. Orthostatic hypotension is associated with alpha1-receptor antagonism. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Pages: 62-63 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 21. A nurse caring for a patient taking a serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) will develop outcome criteria related to: a. mood improvement b. logical thought processes c. reduced levels of motor activity d. decreased extrapyramidal symptoms a. mood improvement b. logical thought processes c. reduced levels of motor activity d. decreased extrapyramidal symptoms

A SSRIs affect mood, relieving depression in many patients. SSRIs do not act to reduce thought disorders. SSRIs reduce depression but have little effect on motor hyperactivity. SSRIs do not produce extrapyramidal symptoms. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Pages: 59-60 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 24. The laboratory report for a patient taking clozapine (Clozaril) shows a white blood cell count of 3000 mm3 and a granulocyte count of 1500 mm3. The nurse should: a. report the laboratory results to the health care provider. b. give the next dose as prescribed. c. administer aspirin and force fluids. d. repeat the laboratory tests.

A These laboratory values indicate the possibility of agranulocytosis, a serious side effect of clozapine therapy. These results must be immediately reported to the health care provider. The drug should be withheld because the health care provider will discontinue it. The health care provider may repeat the laboratory test, but, in the meantime, the drug should be withheld. Giving aspirin and forcing fluids are measures that are less important than stopping the administration of the drug. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: Page: 63 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation

d. "The DSM-IV-TR diagnosis influences the medical treatment; the nursing diagnosis offers a framework to identify interventions for problems a patient has or may experience."

A critical care nurse asks a psychiatric nurse about the difference between a DSM-IV-TR diagnosis and a nursing diagnosis. Select the psychiatric nurse's best response. a. "No functional difference exists between the two diagnoses. Both serve to identify a human deviance." b. "The DSM-IV-TR diagnosis disregards culture, whereas the nursing diagnosis includes cultural variables." c. "The DSM-IV-TR diagnosis profiles present distress or disability, whereas a nursing diagnosis considers past and present responses to actual mental health problems." d. "The DSM-IV-TR diagnosis influences the medical treatment; the nursing diagnosis offers a framework to identify interventions for problems a patient has or may experience."

b, c, e

A patient in the emergency department reports, "I hear voices saying someone is stalking me. They want to kill me because I found the cure for cancer. I will stab anyone that threatens me." Which aspects of mental health have the greatest immediate concern to a nurse? Select all that apply. a. Happiness b. Appraisal of reality c. Control over behavior d. Effectiveness in work e. Healthy self-concept

a. Safety

A mentally ill person's current global assessment of functioning (GAF) score is 10. Select the nurse's highest priority related to this patient's care. a. Safety b. Hygiene c. Nutrition d. Socialization

d. 10

A newly admitted patient is profoundly depressed, mute, and motionless. The patient has refused to bathe and eat for a week. Which score would be expected on the patient's global assessment of functioning? a. 100 b. 80 c. 50 d. 10

a. DSM-IV-TR

A nurse at a behavioral health clinic sees an unfamiliar psychiatric diagnosis on a patient's insurance form. Which resource should the nurse consult to discern the criteria used to establish this diagnosis? a. DSM-IV-TR b. Nursing Diagnosis Manual c. A psychiatric nursing textbook d. A behavioral health reference manual

b. Nursing and medical diagnoses are included.

A nurse explains multiaxial diagnoses to a psychiatric technician. Which information is accurate? a. It is a template for treatment planning. b. Nursing and medical diagnoses are included. c. Assessments of several aspects of functioning are included. d. It incorporates the framework of a specific biopsychosocial theory.

b. consult Axis IV of the DSM-IV-TR in the medical record.

A nurse finds a new patient uncommunicative about recent life events. The nurse suspects marital and economic problems. The social worker's assessment is not available. The most effective action the nurse can take is to: a. ask the patient who shares a room with him or her. b. consult Axis IV of the DSM-IV-TR in the medical record. c. focus questions on the topics of marital and economic issues. d. delay discussion of these topics until the social worker's assessment is available.

c. a continuum from mentally healthy to unhealthy.

A nurse must assess several new patients at a community mental health center. Conclusions concerning current functioning should be made on the basis of: a. the degree of conformity of the individual to society's norms. b. the degree to which an individual is logical and rational. c. a continuum from mentally healthy to unhealthy. d. the rate of intellectual and emotional growth.

d. DSM-IV-TR

A nurse wants to find a description of diagnostic criteria for a person with schizophrenia. Which resource should the nurse consult? a. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services b. Journal of the American Psychiatric Association c. North American Nursing Diagnosis Association (NANDA) International d. DSM-IV-TR

d. "Anxiety disorders"

A participant at a community education conference asks, "What is the most prevalent mental disorder in the United States?" Select the nurse's best response. a. "Why do you ask?" b. "Schizophrenia" c. "Affective disorders" d. "Anxiety disorders"

a, b, d, e

A patient asks a nurse, "The pamphlet I read about depression says psychosocial factors influence depression. What does that mean?" Which examples could the nurse cite to support the information? Select all that apply. a. Having a hostile family b. Having an over- or underinvolved family c. Having two first-degree relatives with bipolar disorder d. Experiencing the sudden death of a parent or loved one e. Feeling strong guilt over having an abortion when one's religion forbids it f. Experiencing symptom remission when treated with an antidepressant medication

b. describes mood as consistently sad, discouraged, and hopeless.

A patient is admitted to the psychiatric hospital for assessment and evaluation. Which assessment finding best indicates that the patient has a mental illness? The patient: a. describes coping and relaxation strategies used when feeling anxious. b. describes mood as consistently sad, discouraged, and hopeless. c. can perform tasks attempted within the limits of own abilities. d. reports occasional problems with insomnia.

d. "It sounds like you are concerned that others don't experience the same challenges as you."

A patient tells a nurse, "I have psychiatric problems and am in and out of hospitals all the time. Not one of my friends or relatives has these problems." Select the nurse's best response. a. "Comparing yourself with others has no real advantages." b. "Why do you blame yourself for having a psychiatric illness?" c. "Mental illness affects 50% of the adult population in any given year." d. "It sounds like you are concerned that others don't experience the same challenges as you."

d. Fulfilling relationships

A patient's history shows intense and unstable relationships with others. The patient initially idealizes an individual and then devalues the person when the patient's needs are not met. Which aspect of mental health is a problem? a. Effectiveness in work b. Communication skills c. Productive activities d. Fulfilling relationships

a. II

A psychiatric nurse addresses Axis I of the DSM-IV-TR as the focus of care but also considers the presence of other long-term, nonmedical disorders that may affect treatment. To which axis should the nurse refer for this information? a. II b. III c. IV d. V

Regression

A reversion to immature patterns of behavior.

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 3. An individual is experiencing problems associated with memory. Which cerebral structures are most likely to be involved in this deficit? Select all that apply. a. Prefrontal cortex b. Occipital lobe c. Temporal lobe d. Parietal lobe e. Basal ganglia a. Prefrontal cortex b. Occipital lobe c. Temporal lobe d. Parietal lobe e. Basal ganglia

A, C, D The prefrontal cortex, parietal, and temporal lobes of the cerebrum play a key role in the storage and processing of memories. The occipital lobe is predominantly involved with vision. The basal ganglia influence the integration of physical movement, as well as some thoughts and emotions. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Pages: 49-50 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. A nurse prepares to administer an antipsychotic medication to a patient with schizophrenia. Additional monitoring of the medication's effects and side effects will be most important if the patient is also diagnosed with which health problem? Select all that apply. a. Parkinson disease b. Graves disease c. Osteoarthritis d. Epilepsy e. Diabetes

A, D, E Antipsychotic medications may produce weight gain, which complicates the care of a patient with diabetes or lowers the seizure threshold or both, which complicates the care of a patient with epilepsy. Parkinson disease involves changes in transmission of dopamine and acetylcholine; therefore these drugs also complicate the care of a patient with the disorder. Osteoarthritis and Graves disease should have no synergistic effect with this medication. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: Pages: 62-65 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

3. A patient was admitted last night with a hip fracture sustained in a fall while intoxicated. The patient points to the Buck's traction and screams, "Somebody tied me up with ropes." The patient is experiencing: a. an illusion. b. a delusion. c. hallucinations. d. hypnagogic phenomenon.

ANS: A The patient is misinterpreting a sensory perception when seeing a noose instead of traction. Illusions are common in early withdrawal from alcohol. A delusion is a fixed, false belief. Hallucinations are sensory perceptions occurring in the absence of a stimulus. Hypnagogic phenomena are sensory disturbances that occur between waking and sleeping.

Which intervention is appropriate for a patient with an antisocial personality disorder who frequently manipulates others? a. Refer the patient's requests and questions related to care to the case manager. b. Encourage the patient to discuss his or her feelings of fear and inferiority. c. Provide negative reinforcement for acting-out behavior. d. Ignore, rather than confront, inappropriate behavior.

ANS: A Manipulative patients frequently make requests of many different staff members, hoping someone will give in. Having only one decision-maker provides consistency and avoids the potential for playing one staff member against another. Positive reinforcement of appropriate behaviors is more effective than negative reinforcement. The behavior should not be ignored; judicious use of confrontation is necessary. Patients with antisocial personality disorders rarely have feelings of fear and inferiority.

9. A patient asks for information about Alcoholics Anonymous (AA). Which is the nurse's best response? a. "It is a self-help group with the goal of sobriety." b. "It is a form of group therapy led by a psychiatrist." c. "It is a group that learns about drinking from a group leader." d. "It is a network that advocates strong punishment for drunk drivers."

ANS: A AA is a peer support group for recovering alcoholics. The goal is to maintain sobriety. Neither professional nor peer leaders are appointed.

18. Which statement most accurately describes substance addiction? a. It is a lack of control over use. Tolerance, craving, and withdrawal symptoms occur when intake is reduced or stopped. b. It occurs when psychoactive drug use interferes with the action of competing neurotransmitters. c. Symptoms occur when two or more drugs that affect the central nervous system (CNS) have additive effects. d. It involves using a combination of substances to weaken or inhibit the effect of another drug.

ANS: A Addiction involves a lack of control over substance use, as well as tolerance, craving, and withdrawal symptoms when intake is reduced or stopped.

14. The treatment team plans care for a person diagnosed with schizophrenia and cannabis abuse. The person has recently used cannabis daily and is experiencing increased hallucinations and delusions. Which principle applies to care planning? a. Consider each disorder primary and provide simultaneous treatment. b. The person will benefit from treatment in a residential treatment facility. c. Withdraw the person from cannabis, and then treat the schizophrenia. d. Treat the schizophrenia first, and then establish the goals for the treatment of substance abuse.

ANS: A Dual diagnosis (co-occurring disorders) clinical practice guidelines for both outpatient and inpatient settings suggest that the substance disorder and the psychiatric disorder should both be considered primary and receive simultaneous treatments. Residential treatment may or may not be effective.

23. A nurse with a history of narcotic abuse is found unconscious in the hospital locker room after overdosing. The nurse is transferred to an inpatient substance abuse unit for care. Which attitudes or behaviors by nursing staff may be enabling? a. Conveying understanding that pressures associated with nursing practice underlie substance abuse. b. Pointing out that work problems are the result, but not the cause, of substance abuse. c. Conveying empathy when the nurse discusses fears of disciplinary action by the state board of nursing. d. Providing health teaching about stress management.

ANS: A Enabling denies the seriousness of the patient's problem or supports the patient as he or she shifts responsibility from self to circumstances. The incorrect options are therapeutic and appropriate.

20. In the emergency department, a patient's vital signs are: blood pressure (BP), 66/40 mm Hg; pulse (P), 140 beats per minute (bpm); and respirations (R), 8 breaths per minute and shallow. The patient overdosed on illegally obtained hydromorphone (Dilaudid). Select the priority outcome. a. Within 8 hours, vital signs will stabilize as evidenced by BP greater than 90/60 mm Hg, P less than 100 bpm, and respirations at or above 12 breaths per minute. b. The patient will be able to describe a plan for home care and achieve a drug-free state before being released from the emergency department. c. The patient will attend daily meetings of Narcotics Anonymous within 1 week of beginning treatment. d. The patient will identify two community resources for the treatment of substance abuse by discharge.

ANS: A Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) is an opiate drug. The correct answer is the only one that relates to the patient's physical condition. It is expected that vital signs will return to normal when the CNS depression is alleviated. The distractors are desired outcomes later in the plan of care.

39. A patient in an alcohol treatment program says, "I have been a loser all my life. I'm so ashamed of what I have put my family through. Now, I'm not even sure I can succeed at staying sober." Which nursing diagnosis applies? a. Chronic low self-esteem b. Situational low self-esteem c. Disturbed personal identity d. Ineffective health maintenance

ANS: A Low self-esteem is present when a patient sees himself or herself as inadequate. It is a chronic problem because it is a lifelong feeling for the patient. Data are not present to support the other options.

21. Select the nursing intervention necessary after administering naloxone (Narcan) to a patient experiencing an opiate overdose. a. Monitor the airway and vital signs every 15 minutes. b. Insert a nasogastric tube and test gastric pH. c. Treat hyperpyrexia with cooling measures. d. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.

ANS: A Narcotic antagonists such as naloxone quickly reverse CNS depression; however, because the narcotics have a longer duration of action than antagonists, the patient may lapse into unconsciousness or require respiratory support again. The incorrect options are measures unrelated to naloxone use.

33. In what significant ways is the therapeutic environment different for a patient who has ingested D-lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) than for a patient who has ingested phencyclidine (PCP)? a. For LSD ingestion, one person stays with the patient and provides verbal support. For PCP ingestion, a regimen of limited contact with staff members is maintained, and continual visual monitoring is provided. b. For PCP ingestion, the patient is placed on one-on-one intensive supervision. For LSD ingestion, a regimen of limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation is maintained. c. For LSD ingestion, continual moderate sensory stimulation is provided. For PCP ingestion, continual high-level stimulation is provided. d. For LSD ingestion, the patient is placed in restraints. For PCP ingestion, seizure precautions are implemented.

ANS: A Patients who have ingested LSD respond well to being "talked down" by a supportive person. Patients who have ingested PCP are very sensitive to stimulation and display frequent, unpredictable, and violent behaviors. Although one person should perform care and talk gently to the patient, no one individual should be alone in the room with the patient. An adequate number of staff members should be gathered to manage violent behavior if it occurs.

15. When working with a patient beginning treatment for alcohol abuse, what is the nurse's most therapeutic approach? a. Empathetic, supportive b. Strong, confrontational c. Skeptical, guarded d. Cool, distant

ANS: A Support and empathy assist the patient to feel safe enough to start looking at problems. Counseling during the early stage of treatment needs to be direct, open, and honest. The other approaches will increase patient anxiety and cause the patient to cling to defenses.

40. Which documentation indicates that the treatment plan for a patient in an alcohol treatment program was effective? a. Is abstinent for 10 days and states, "I can maintain sobriety one day at a time." Spoke with employer, who is willing to allow the patient to return to work in three weeks. b. Is abstinent for 15 days and states, "My problems are under control." Plans to seek a new job where co-workers will not know history. c. Attends AA daily; states many of the members are "real" alcoholics and says, "I may be able to help some of them find jobs at my company." d. Is abstinent for 21 days and says, "I know I can't handle more than one or two drinks in a social setting."

ANS: A The answer reflects the AA beliefs. The incorrect options each contain a statement that suggests early relapse.

17. When a person first begins drinking alcohol, two drinks produce relaxation and drowsiness. After one year of drinking, four drinks are needed to achieve the same relaxed, drowsy state. Why does this change occur? a. Tolerance develops. b. The alcohol is less potent. c. Antagonistic effects occur. d. Hypomagnesemia develops.

ANS: A Tolerance refers to needing higher and higher doses of a drug to produce the desired effect. The potency of the alcohol is stable. Neither hypomagnesemia nor antagonistic effects would account for this change.

A nurse and social worker co-lead a reminiscence group for six "elite-old" adults. Which activity is appropriate to include in the group? a. Singing a song from World War II b. Learning to send and receive email c. Discussing national leadership during the Vietnam War d. Identifying the most troubling story in today's newspaper

ANS: A "Elite-old" adults are persons over 94 years of age; they were young during World War II. Reminiscence groups share memories of the past. Sending and receiving email is not an aspect of reminiscence. The other incorrect options are less relevant to this age group.

A patient asks the nurse, "What advantage does a durable power of attorney for health care have over a living will?" The nurse should reply, "A durable power of attorney for health care: a. gives your agent the authority to make decisions about your care if you are unable to during any illness." b. can be given only to a relative, usually the next of kin, who has your best interests at heart." c. authorizes your physician to make decisions about your care that are in your best interest." d. can be used only if you have a terminal illness and become incapacitated."

ANS: A A durable power of attorney for health care is an instrument that appoints a person other than a health care provider to act as an individual's agent in the event that he or she is unable to make medical decisions. The patient does not have to be terminally ill or incompetent for the appointed person to act on his or her behalf.

A 78-year-old nursing home resident diagnosed with hypertension and cardiac disease is usually alert and oriented. This morning, however, the resident says, "My family visited during the night. They stood by the bed and talked to me." In reality, the patient's family lives 200 miles away. The nurse should first suspect that the resident: a. may be experiencing side effects associated with medications. b. may be developing Alzheimer disease associated with advanced age. c. had a transient ischemic attack and developed sensory perceptual alterations. d. has previously unidentified alcohol abuse and is beginning alcohol withdrawal delirium.

ANS: A A resident taking medications is at high risk for becoming confused because of medication side effects, drug interactions, and delayed excretion. The nurse should report the event and continue to assess for cognitive impairment. Symptoms of dementia develop slowly but persist over time. Alcohol abuse and withdrawal are not the nurse's first suspicion in this scenario.

2. Which action by a psychiatric nurse best supports a patient's right to be treated with dignity and respect? a. Consistently addressing a patient by title and surname. b. Strongly encouraging a patient to participate in the unit milieu. c. Discussing a patient's condition with another health care provider in the elevator. d. Informing a treatment team that a patient is too drowsy to participate in care planning.

ANS: A A simple way of showing respect is to address the patient by title and surname rather than assuming that the patient would wish to be called by his or her first name. Discussing a patient's condition with a health care provider in the elevator violates confidentiality. Informing a treatment team that the patient is too drowsy to participate in care planning violates patient autonomy. Encouraging a patient to participate in the unit milieu exemplifies beneficence and fidelity.

1. Which behavior best demonstrates aggression? a. Stomping away from the nurses' station, going to the day room, and grabbing a pool cue from a patient standing by the pool table. b. Bursting into tears, leaving the community meeting, and sitting on a bed hugging a pillow and sobbing. c. Telling the primary nurse, "I felt angry when you said I could not have a second helping at lunch." d. Telling the medication nurse, "I am not going to take that or any other medication you try to give me."

ANS: A Aggression is harsh physical or verbal action that reflects rage, hostility, and the potential for physical or verbal destructiveness. Aggressive behavior violates the rights of others. The incorrect options do not feature violation of another's rights.

If an older adult patient must be physically restrained, who is responsible for the patient's safety? a. Nurse assigned to care for the patient b. Nursing assistant who applies the restraint c. Health care provider who ordered the application of restraint d. Family member who agrees to the application of the restraint

ANS: A Although restraint is ordered by a health care provider, it is carried out by a nursing staff member. The nurse caring for the patient is responsible for the safe application of restraining devices and for providing safe care while the patient is restrained. Nurses may delegate the application of restraining devices and the care of the patient in restraint but remain responsible for outcomes. Even when the family agrees to restraint, nurses are responsible for ensuring safe outcomes.

13. A patient tells the nurse, "My husband is abusive most often when he drinks too much. His family was like that when he was growing up. He always apologizes and regrets hurting me." What risk factor was most predictive for the husband to become abusive? a. History of family violence b. Loss of employment c. Abuse of alcohol d. Poverty

ANS: A An abuse-prone individual is an individual who has experienced family violence and was often abused as a child. This phenomenon is part of the cycle of violence. The other options may be present but are not as predictive.

11. Which is an effective nursing intervention to assist an angry patient to learn to manage anger without violence? a. Help the patient identify a thought that increases anger, find proof for or against the belief, and substitute reality-based thinking. b. Provide negative reinforcement such as restraint or seclusion in response to angry outbursts, whether or not violence is present. c. Use aversive conditioning, such as popping a rubber band on the wrist, to help extinguish angry feelings. d. Administer an antipsychotic or antianxiety medication.

ANS: A Anger has a strong cognitive component; therefore using cognition to manage anger is logical. The incorrect options do nothing to help the patient learn anger management.

The highest priority for assessment by nurses caring for older adults who self-administer medications is: a. use of multiple drugs with anticholinergic effects. b. overuse of medications for erectile dysfunction. c. misuse of antihypertensive medications. d. trading medications with acquaintances.

ANS: A Anticholinergic effects are cumulative in older adults and often have adverse consequences related to accidents and injuries. The incorrect options may be relevant but are not of the highest priority.

13. Which statement provides the best rationale for why a nurse should closely monitor a severely depressed patient during antidepressant medication therapy? a. As depression lifts, physical energy becomes available to carry out suicide. b. Suicide may be precipitated by a variety of internal and external events. c. Suicidal patients have difficulty using social supports. d. Suicide is an impulsive act.

ANS: A Antidepressant medication has the objective of relieving depression. The risk for suicide is greater as the depression lifts, primarily because the patient has more physical energy at a time when he or she may still have suicidal ideation. The other options have little to do with nursing interventions relating to antidepressant medication therapy.

18. A nurse counseling a patient diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder (DID) should understand that the assessment of highest priority is: a. risk for self-harm b. cognitive functioning c. identification of drug abuse d. readiness to reestablish identity or memory

ANS: A Assessments that relate to patient safety take priority. Patients diagnosed with dissociative identity disorders may be at risk for suicide or self-mutilation; therefore, the nurse must be alert for hints of hopelessness, helplessness and worthlessness, low self-esteem, and impulses to self-mutilate. The distractors are important assessments but rank beneath safety.

A person diagnosed with severe and persistent mental illness enters a shelter for the homeless. Which intervention should be the nurse's initial priority? a. Develop a relationship b. Find supported employment c. Administer prescribed medication d. Teach appropriate health care practices

ANS: A Basic psychosocial needs do not change because a person is homeless. The nurse's initial priority should be establishing rapport. Once a trusting relationship is established, then the nurse can pursue other interventions.

19. An unconscious person is brought to the emergency department by a friend. The friend found the person in a bedroom at a college fraternity party. Semen is observed on the person's underclothes. The priority actions of staff members should focus on: a. maintaining the airway. b. preserving rape evidence. c. obtaining a description of the rape. d. determining what drug was ingested.

ANS: A Because the patient is unconscious, the risk for airway obstruction is present. The incorrect options are of lower priority than preserving physiologic functioning.

11. A Mexican-American patient puts a picture of the Virgin Mary on the bedside table. Under which section of the assessment should the nurse document this behavior? a. Culture b. Ethnicity c. Verbal communication d. Nonverbal communication

ANS: A Cultural heritage is expressed through language, works of art, music, dance, ethnic clothing, customs, traditions, diet, and expressions of spirituality. This patient's prominent placement of the picture is an example of expression of cultural heritage. Verbal and nonverbal communications apply to all areas of an assessment.

19. A patient says, I feel detached and weird all the time, like Im looking at life through a cloudy window. Everything seems unreal. These feelings really interfere with my work and study. Which term should the nurse use to document this complaint? a. Depersonalization b. Hypochondriasis c. Dissociation d. Malingering

ANS: A Depersonalization involves a persistent or recurrent experience of feeling detached from and outside ones mental processes or body. Although reality testing is intact, the detached experience causes significant impairment in social or occupational functioning and distress to the individual. Malingering involves a conscious process of intentionally producing symptoms for an obvious benefit; dissociation is an unconscious defense mechanism to protect the individual against overwhelming anxiety. Hypochondriasis involves the interpretation of body sensations as symptomatic of a serious illness.

21. The assumption most useful to a nurse planning crisis intervention for any patient is that the patient: a. is experiencing a state of disequilibrium. b. is experiencing a type of mental illness. c. poses a threat of violence to others. d. has a high potential for self-injury.

ANS: A Disequilibrium is the only answer universally true for all patients in crisis. A crisis represents a struggle for equilibrium when problems seem unsolvable. Crisis does not reflect mental illness. The potential for self-violence or other-directed violence may or may not be a factor in crisis.

A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) is prescribed for an older adult patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Nursing assessment should include careful collection of information regarding: a. use of other prescribed medications and over-the-counter products. b. evidence of pseudoparkinsonism or tardive dyskinesia. c. history of psoriasis and any other skin disorders. d. history of diarrhea and electrolyte imbalances.

ANS: A Drug interactions, with both prescription and over-the-counter products, can be problematic for the geriatric patient taking an SSRI. Careful collection of information is important. The incorrect options do not pose problems with SSRIs.

A nurse at the mental health clinic plans a series of psychoeducational groups for persons with schizophrenia. Which two topics would take priority?

The importance of correctly taking your medication, Ways to quit smoking

A homeless patient diagnosed with severe and persistent mental illness became suspicious and delusional. The patient was given depot antipsychotic medication and housing was arranged at a local shelter. After 2 weeks, which statement by the patient indicates significant improvement? a. "I am feeling safe and comfortable here. Nobody bothers me." b. "They will not let me drink. They have many rules in the shelter." c. "Those guys are always watching me. I think someone stole my shoes." d. "That shot made my arm sore. I'm not going to take any more of them."

ANS: A Evaluation of a patient's progress is made based on patient satisfaction with the new health status and the health care team's estimation of improvement. For a formerly delusional patient to admit to feeling comfortable and free of being "bothered" by others denotes an improvement in the patient's condition. The other options suggest that the patient is in danger of relapse.

9. While talking with a patient with severe depression, a nurse notices the patient is unable to maintain eye contact. The patient's chin lowers to the chest while the patient looks at the floor. Which aspect of communication has the nurse assessed? a. Nonverbal communication b. A message filter c. A cultural barrier d. Social skills

ANS: A Eye contact and body movements are considered nonverbal communication. Insufficient data are available to determine the level of the patient's social skills or whether a cultural barrier exists.

5. A child was abducted and raped. In the emergency department, this victim is confused and crying. Which personal reaction by the nurse could interfere with this victim's care? a. Anger b. Concern c. Empathy d. Compassion

ANS: A Feelings of empathy, concern, and compassion are helpful. Anger, on the other hand, may make objectivity impossible.

14. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority for a patient diagnosed with bulimia nervosa? a. Assist the patient to identify triggers to binge eating. b. Provide corrective consequences for weight loss. c. Explore patient needs for health teaching. d. Assess for signs of impulsive eating.

ANS: A For most patients with bulimia nervosa, certain situations trigger the urge to binge; purging then follows. The triggers are often anxiety-producing situations. Identifying these triggers makes it possible to break the binge-purge cycle. Because binge eating and purging directly affect physical status, the need to promote physical safety assumes the highest priority. The question calls for an intervention rather than an assessment.

18. A patient is having difficulty making a decision. The nurse has mixed feelings about whether to provide advice. Which principle usually applies? Giving advice: a. is rarely helpful. b. fosters independence. c. lifts the burden of personal decision making. d. helps the patient develop feelings of personal adequacy.

ANS: A Giving advice fosters dependence on the nurse and interferes with the patient's right to make personal decisions. Giving advice also robs patients of the opportunity to weigh alternatives and to develop problem-solving skills. Furthermore, it contributes to patient feelings of personal inadequacy. It also keeps the nurse in control and feeling powerful.

A patient says, "I often make careless mistakes and have trouble staying focused. Sometimes it's hard to listen to what someone is saying. I have problems putting things in the right order and often lose equipment." Which problem should the nurse document? a. Inattention b. Impulsivity c. Hyperactivity d. Social impairment

ANS: A Inattention refers to the failure to stay focused. A number of the other problems are the result of failure to pay attention, which contributes to problems with organization. Impulsivity refers to acting without thinking through the consequences. Hyperactivity refers to excessive motor activity. Social impairment refers to the failure to use appropriate social skills.

9. The staff development coordinator plans to teach the use of physical management techniques when patients become assaultive. Which topic should be emphasized? a. Practice and teamwork b. Spontaneity and surprise c. Caution and superior size d. Diversion and physical outlets

ANS: A Intervention techniques are learned behaviors that must be practiced to be used in a smooth, organized fashion. Every member of the intervention team should be assigned a specific task to carry out before beginning the intervention. The other options are useless if the staff does not know how to use physical techniques and how to apply them in an organized fashion.

17. A patient being treated in an alcohol rehabilitation unit reveals to the nurse, "I feel terrible guilt for sexually abusing my 6-year-old child before I was admitted." Based on state and federal law, the best action for the nurse to take is to: a. anonymously report the abuse by telephone to the local child abuse hotline. b. reply, "I'm glad you feel comfortable talking to me about it." c. respect the nurse-patient relationship of confidentiality. d. file a written report on the agency letterhead.

ANS: A Laws regarding reporting child abuse discovered by a professional during a suspected abuser's alcohol or drug treatment differ by state. Federal law supersedes state law and prohibits disclosure without a court order except in instances in which the report can be made anonymously or without identifying the abuser as a patient in an alcohol or drug treatment facility. Anonymously reporting the abuse by telephone to the local child abuse hotline meets federal criteria. Respecting nurse-patient confidentiality and replying "I'm glad you feel comfortable talking to me about it" do not accomplish reporting. Filing a written report on agency letterhead violates federal law.

8. A soldier returns to the United States from active duty in a combat zone in Afghanistan. The soldier is diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). The nurse's highest priority is to screen this soldier for which problem? a. Major depression b. Bipolar disorder c. Schizophrenia d. Dementia

ANS: A Major depression frequently occurs with PTSD. The incidence of the disorders identified in the distracters is similar to the general population.

6. A patient was responding to auditory hallucinations earlier in the morning. The patient approaches the nurse, shaking a fist and shouting, "Back off!" and then goes into the day room. As the nurse follows the patient into the day room, the nurse should: a. make sure adequate physical space exists between the nurse and the patient. b. move into a position that allows the patient to be close to the door. c. maintain one arm's length distance from the patient. d. sit down in a chair near the patient.

ANS: A Making sure space is present between the nurse and the patient avoids invading the patient's personal space. Personal space needs increase when a patient feels anxious and threatened. Allowing the patient to block the nurse's exit from the room is not wise. Closeness may be threatening to the patient and provoke aggression. Sitting is inadvisable until further assessment suggests the patient's aggression is abating. One arm's length is inadequate space.

A patient diagnosed with severe and persistent mentally illness lives in a homeless shelter. The priority nursing diagnosis for this patient is Powerlessness. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care? a. Encourage mutual goal setting. b. Verbally communicate empathy. c. Reinforce participation in activities. d. Demonstrate an accepting attitude.

ANS: A Mutual goal setting is an intervention designed to promote feelings of personal autonomy and dispel feelings of powerlessness. Although it might be easier and faster for the nurse to establish a plan and outcomes, this action contributes to the patient's sense of powerlessness. Involving the patient in decision making empowers the patient and reduces feelings of powerlessness.

10. Several nurses are concerned that agency policies related to restraint and seclusion are inadequate. Which statement about the relationship of substandard institutional policies and individual nursing practice should guide nursing practice? a. The policies do not absolve an individual nurse of the responsibility to practice according to the professional standards of nursing care. b. Agency policies are the legal standard by which a professional nurse must act and therefore override other standards of care. c. In an institution with substandard policies, the nurse has a responsibility to inform the supervisor and leave the premises. d. Interpretation of policies by the judicial system is rendered on an individual basis and therefore cannot be predicted.

ANS: A Nurses are professionally bound to uphold the American Nurses Association (ANA) standards of practice, regardless of lesser standards established by a health care agency or state. Conversely, if the agency standards are higher than the ANA standards of practice, the agency standards must be upheld. The courts may seek to establish the standard of care through the use of expert witnesses when the issue is clouded.

20. The feeling experienced by a patient that should be assessed by the nurse as most predictive of elevated suicide risk is: a. hopelessness. b. sadness. c. elation. d. anger.

ANS: A Of the feelings listed, hopelessness is most closely associated with increased suicide risk. Depression, aggression, impulsivity, and shame are other feelings noted as risk factors for suicide.

6. Which assessment has priority when a nurse interviews a rape victim in the emergency department? a. Coping mechanisms the patient is using b. Patient's previous sexual experience c. Adequacy of interpersonal relationships d. Patient's history of sexually transmitted diseases

ANS: A Of the options listed, the priority assessment is the victim's coping mechanisms. The other options have little relevance.

18. An older adult with Alzheimer's disease lives with family. During the week, the person attends a day care center while the family is at work. In the evenings, members of the family provide care. Which factor makes this patient most vulnerable to abuse? a. Dementia b. Living in a rural area c. Being part of a busy family d. Being home only in the evening

ANS: A Older adults, particularly those with cognitive impairments, are at high risk for abuse. The other characteristics are not identified as placing an individual at high risk for abuse.

4. A patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa virtually stopped eating 5 months ago and has lost 25% of body weight. A nurse asks, Describe what you think about your present weight and how you look. Which response by the patient is most consistent with the diagnosis? a. I am fat and ugly. b. What I think about myself is my business. c. I am grossly underweight, but thats what I want. d. I am a few pounds overweight, but I can live with it.

ANS: A Patients diagnosed with anorexia nervosa do not recognize their thinness. They perceive themselves to be overweight and unattractive. The patient with anorexia will usually disclose perceptions about self to others. The patient with anorexia will persist in trying to lose more weight.

22. A patient diagnosed with mental illness asks a psychiatric technician, "What's the matter with me?" The technician replies, "Your wing nuts need tightening." The nurse who overheard the exchange should take action based on: a. violation of the patient's right to be treated with dignity and respect. b. the nurse's obligation to report caregiver negligence. c. preventing defamation of the patient's character. d. supervisory liability.

ANS: A Patients have the right to be treated with dignity and respect. Patients should never be made the butt of jokes about their illness. Patient emotional abuse has been demonstrated, not negligence. The technician's response was not clearly defamation. Patient abuse, not supervisory liability, is the issue.

23. Which statement is a nurse most likely to hear from a patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa? a. I would be happy if I could lose 20 more pounds. b. My parents dont pay much attention to me. c. Im thin for my height. d. I have nice eyes.

ANS: A Patients with eating disorders have distorted body images and cognitive distortions. They see themselves as overweight even when their weight is subnormal. Im thin for my height is therefore unlikely to be heard from a patient with anorexia nervosa. Poor self-image precludes making positive statements about self, such as I have nice eyes. Many patients with eating disorders see supportive others as intrusive and out of tune with their needs.

13. A nurse assesses a patient diagnosed with functional neurological (conversion) disorder. Which comment is most likely from this patient? a. Since my father died, Ive been short of breath and had sharp pains that go down my left arm, but I think its just indigestion. b. I have daily problems with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. My skin is very dry and I think Im getting seriously dehydrated. c. Sexual intercourse is painful. I pretend as if Im asleep so I can avoid it. I think its starting to cause problems with my marriage. d. I get choked very easily and have trouble swallowing when I eat. I think I might have cancer of the esophagus.

ANS: A Patients with functional neurologic (conversion) disorder often demonstrate a lack of concern regarding the seriousness of symptoms. This lack of concern is termed la belle indiffrence. In addition, a specific cause for the development of the symptoms is identifiable; in this instance, the death of a parent precipitates the stress. The incorrect options suggest other types of somatic symptom disorders.

9. A nurse at the mental health center prepares to administer a scheduled injection of haloperidol decanoate (Haldol depot) to a patient with schizophrenia. As the nurse swabs the site, the patient shouts, "Stop! I don't want to take that medicine anymore. I hate the side effects." Select the nurse's best initial action. a. Stop the medication administration procedure and say to the patient, "Tell me more about the side effects you've been having." b. Say to the patient, "Since I've already drawn the medication in the syringe, I'm required to give it, but let's talk to the doctor about skipping next month's dose." c. Proceed with the injection but explain to the patient that other medications are available that may help reduce the unpleasant side effects. d. Notify other staff members to report to the room for a show of force and proceed with the injection, using restraint if necessary.

ANS: A Patients with mental illness retain their civil rights unless clear, cogent, and convincing evidence of dangerousness exists. The patient in this situation presents no evidence of being dangerous. The nurse, an as advocate and educator, should seek more information about the patient's decision and should not force the medication.

15. One bed is available on the inpatient eating disorders unit. Which patient should be admitted? The patient whose weight dropped from: a. 150 to 100 pounds over a 4-month period. Vital signs: temperature, 35.9 C; pulse, 38 beats/min; blood pressure, 60/40 mm Hg b. 120 to 90 pounds over a 3-month period. Vital signs: temperature, 36 C; pulse, 50 beats/min; blood pressure, 70/50 mm Hg c. 110 to 70 pounds over a 4-month period. Vital signs: temperature, 36.5 C; pulse, 60 beats/min; blood pressure, 80/66 mm Hg d. 90 to 78 pounds over a 5-month period. Vital signs: temperature, 36.7 C; pulse, 62 beats/min; blood pressure, 74/48 mm Hg

ANS: A Physical criteria for hospitalization include weight loss of more than 30% of body weight within 6 months, temperature below 36 C (hypothermia), heart rate less than 40 beats/min, and systolic blood pressure less than 70 mm Hg.

20. Physical assessment of a patient diagnosed with bulimia nervosa often reveals: a. prominent parotid glands. b. peripheral edema. c. thin, brittle hair. d. amenorrhea.

ANS: A Prominent parotid glands are associated with repeated vomiting. The other options are signs of anorexia nervosa and are not usually observed in bulimia.

5. Which technique will best communicate to a patient that the nurse is interested in listening? a. Restate a feeling or thought the patient has expressed. b. Ask a direct question, such as, "Did you feel angry?" c. Make a judgment about the patient's problem. d. Say, "I understand what you're saying."

ANS: A Restating allows the patient to validate the nurse's understanding of what has been communicated. Restating is an active listening technique. Judgments should be suspended in a nurse-patient relationship. Closed-ended questions such as "Did you feel angry?" ask for specific information rather than show understanding. When the nurse simply states that he or she understands the patient's words, the patient has no way of measuring the understanding.

A health care provider writes these new prescriptions for a resident in a skilled care facility: "2 g sodium diet; restraint as needed; limit fluids to 2000 ml daily; 1 dose milk of magnesia 30 ml orally if no bowel movement occurs for 3 days." Which prescription should the nurse question? a. Restraint b. Fluid restriction c. Milk of magnesia d. Sodium restriction

ANS: A Restraints may be applied only on the written order of the health care provider that specifies the duration during which the restraints can be used. The Joint Commission guidelines and Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act regulations also mandate a number of other conditions that must be considered and documented before restraints are used. The other orders may be appropriate for implementation.

A nurse cares for a patient diagnosed with paraphilia. The nurse expects the health care provider may prescribe which type of medication to reduce paraphilic behaviors? a. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) b. Erectile dysfunction medication c. Atypical antipsychotic medication d. Mood stabilizer

ANS: A SSRIs are reported to have a positive effect on paraphilia. The other medications are not indicated for this disorder.

A nurse asks the following questions while assessing an older adult. The nurse will add the Geriatric Depression Scale as part of the assessment if the patient answers "yes" to which question? a. "Would you say your mood is often sad?" b. "Are you having any trouble with your memory?" c. "Have you noticed an increase in your alcohol use?" d. "Do you often experience moderate-to-severe pain?"

ANS: A Sadness may be a symptom of depression. Sad moods occurring with regularity should signal the need to assess further for other symptoms of depression. The incorrect options do not focus on mood.

5. While conducting the initial interview with a patient in crisis, the nurse should: a. speak in short, concise sentences. b. convey a sense of urgency to the patient. c. be forthright about time limits of the interview. d. let the patient know the nurse controls the interview.

ANS: A Severe anxiety narrows perceptions and concentration. By speaking in short, concise sentences, the nurse enables the patient to grasp what is being said. Conveying urgency will increase the patient's anxiety. Letting the patient know who controls the interview or stating that time is limited is nontherapeutic.

3. A patient was abducted and raped at gunpoint by an unknown assailant. Which assessment finding best indicates the patient is in the acute phase of rape trauma syndrome? a. Confusion and disbelief b. Decreased motor activity c. Flashbacks and dreams d. Fears and phobias

ANS: A Shock, emotional numbness, confusion, disbelief, restlessness, and agitated motor activity depict the acute phase of rape trauma syndrome. Flashbacks, dreams, fears, and phobias occur in the long-term reorganization phase of rape trauma syndrome. Decreased motor activity, by itself, is not indicative of any particular phase.

11. Which assessment finding best supports the diagnosis of dissociative amnesia with fugue? The patient states: a. I cannot recall why Im living in this town. b. I feel as if Im living in a fuzzy dream state. c. I feel like different parts of my body are at war. d. I feel very anxious and worried about my problems.

ANS: A The patient in a fugue state frequently relocates and assumes a new identity while not recalling his or her previous identity or places previously inhabited. The distractors are more consistent with depersonalization, generalized anxiety disorder, or dissociative identity disorder.

14. A soldier in a combat zone tells the nurse, "I saw a child get blown up over a year ago, but I keep seeing bits of flesh everywhere. I see something red and the visions race back to my mind." Which phenomenon associated with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is this soldier describing? a. Reexperiencing b. Hyperarousal c. Avoidance d. Psychosis

ANS: A Spontaneous or cued recurrent, involuntary, and intrusive distressing memories of the traumatic events are often associated with PTSD. The soldier has described intrusive thoughts and visions associated with reexperiencing the traumatic event. This description does not indicate psychosis, hypervigilance, or avoidance.

15. A victim of spousal violence comes to the crisis center seeking help. The nurse uses crisis intervention strategies that focus on: a. supporting emotional security and reestablishing equilibrium b. offering a long-term resolution of issues precipitating the crisis c. promoting growth of the individual d. providing legal assistance

ANS: A Strategies of crisis intervention are directed toward the immediate cause of the crisis and are aimed at bolstering the emotional security and reestablishing equilibrium, rather than focusing on underlying issues and long-term resolutions. The goal is to return the individual to the pre-crisis level of function. Crisis intervention is, by definition, short term. Promoting growth is a focus of long-term therapy. Providing legal assistance might be applicable.

22. The causes of somatic system disorders may be related to: a. faulty perceptions of body sensations. b. traumatic childhood events. c. culture-bound phenomena. d. mood instability.

ANS: A Structural or functional abnormalities of the brain have been suggested to lead to the somatic system disorders, resulting in disturbed processes of perception and interpretation of bodily sensations. Furthermore, cognitive theorists believe patients misinterpret the meaning of certain bodily sensations and then become excessively alarmed by them. Traumatic childhood events are related to the dissociative disorders. Culture-bound phenomena may explain the prevalence of some symptoms but cannot explain the cause. Somatic system disorders are not a facet of mood instability; however, depression may coexist with a somatic system disorder.

27. A patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa has a body mass index (BMI) of 14.8 kg/m2. Which assessment finding is most likely to accompany this value? a. Cachexia b. Leukocytosis c. Hyperthermia d. Hypertension

ANS: A The BMI value indicates extreme malnutrition. Cachexia is a hallmark of this problem. The patient would be expected to have leukopenia rather than leukocytosis. Hypothermia and hypotension are likely assessment findings.

16. A victim of a sexual assault that occurred approximately 1 hour earlier sits in the emergency department rocking back and forth and repeatedly saying, "I can't believe I've been raped." This behavior is characteristic of which phase of the rape trauma syndrome? a. Acute phase b. Outward adjustment phase c. Long-term reorganization phase d. Anger phase

ANS: A The victim's response is typical of the acute phase and evidences cognitive, affective, and behavioral disruptions. The response is immediate and does not include a display of behaviors suggestive of the outward adjustment, long-term, or anger phase.

When admitting older adult patients, health care agencies receiving federal funds must provide written information about: a. advance health care directives. b. the financial status of the institution. c. how to sign out against medical advice. d. the institution's policy on the use of restraints.

ANS: A The Patient Self-Determination Act of 1990 requires that patients have the opportunity to prepare advance directives.

17. A nurse talks with the caregiver of a combat veteran with severe traumatic brain injuries. The caregiver says, "I don't know how much longer I can do it. My whole life is consumed with taking care of my partner." Select the nurse's best response. a. "How are you taking care of yourself?" b. "Let's review your partner's diagnostic results." c. "I have some web-based programs for you to visit." d. "Your partner is lucky to have someone so devoted."

ANS: A The caregiver is the focus of the nurse's attention. The caregiver is suffering. The nurse must be empathetic and assess how the caregiver is caring for self. Reassurance and isolated computer activities do not help. The partner is already aware of the diagnostic results.

18. A professor's 4-year-old child has a body temperature of 101.6° F, diarrhea, and complains of stomach pain. The professor is scheduled to teach three classes today. Which nursing diagnosis best applies to this scenario? a. Decisional conflict b. Unilateral neglect c. Disabled family coping d. Ineffective management of the therapeutic regimen

ANS: A The caregiver is the focus of the nurse's attention. The professor is under stress, related to the conflict between his parenting and professional roles. This scenario presents a decisional conflict. No evidence suggests that family coping is disabled or that a therapeutic regimen is not managed. Unilateral neglect refers to the awareness of the body.

9. An 11-year-old child says, "My parents don't like me. They call me stupid and say I never do anything right, but it doesn't matter. I'm too dumb to learn." Which nursing diagnosis applies to this child? a. Chronic low self-esteem, related to negative feedback from parents b. Deficient knowledge, related to interpersonal skills with parents c. Disturbed personal identity, related to negative self-evaluation d. Complicated grieving, related to poor academic performance

ANS: A The child has indicated a belief in being too dumb to learn. The child receives frequent negative and demeaning feedback from the parents. Deficient knowledge is a nursing diagnosis that refers to knowledge of health care measures. Disturbed personal identity refers to an alteration in the ability to distinguish between self and nonself. Grieving may apply, but a specific loss is not evident in this scenario. Low self-esteem is more relevant to the child's statements.

23. Which family scenario presents the greatest risk for family violence? a. An unemployed husband with low self-esteem, a wife who loses her job, and a developmentally delayed 3-year-old child b. A husband who finds employment 2 weeks after losing his previous job, a wife with stable employment, and a child doing well in school c. A single mother with an executive position, a talented child, and a widowed grandmother living in the home to provide child care d. A single homosexual male parent, an adolescent son who has just begun dating girls, and the father's unmarried sister who has come to visit for 2 weeks

ANS: A The family with an unemployed husband with low self-esteem, a newly unemployed wife, and a developmentally challenged young child has the greatest number of stressors. The other families described have fewer negative events occurring.

13. A nurse assesses soldiers in a combat zone in Afghanistan. When is it most important for the nurse to screen for signs and symptoms of traumatic brain injury (TBI)? a. After a fall, vehicle crash, or exposure to a blast b. Before departing Afghanistan to return to the United States c. One year after returning to the United States from Afghanistan d. Immediately upon return to the United States from Afghanistan

ANS: A The military estimates that up to 20% of the combat veterans in both Afghanistan and Iraq suffer some degree of TBI. TBI exhibits signs shortly after the injury, and these signs usually resolve in days or weeks. Screening after an exposure to an explosion and before returning to the United States is important.

14. When a female Mexican-American patient and a female nurse sit together, the patient often holds the nurse's hand. The patient also links arms with the nurse when they walk. The nurse is uncomfortable with this behavior and thinks the patient is homosexual. Which alternative is a more accurate assessment? a. The patient is accustomed to touch during conversations, as are members of many Hispanic subcultures. b. The patient understands that touch makes the nurse uncomfortable and controls the relationship based on that factor. c. The patient is afraid of being alone. When touching the nurse, the patient is reassured and comforted. d. The nurse is homophobic.

ANS: A The most likely answer is that the patient's behavior is culturally influenced. Hispanic women frequently touch women they consider to be their friends. Although the other options are possible, they are less likely.

15. A depressed patient says, "Nothing matters anymore." What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? a. "Are you having thoughts of suicide?" b. "I am not sure I understand what you are trying to say." c. "Try to stay hopeful. Things have a way of working out." d. "Tell me more about what interested you before you began feeling depressed."

ANS: A The nurse must make overt what is covert; that is, the possibility of suicide must be openly addressed. Often, patients feel relieved to be able to talk about suicidal ideation.

16. A victim of physical abuse by a domestic partner is treated for a broken wrist. The patient has considered leaving but says, "You stay together, no matter what happens." Which outcome should be met before the patient leaves the emergency department? The patient will: a. name two community resources that can be contacted. b. limit contact with the abuser by obtaining a restraining order. c. demonstrate insight into the abusive relationship. d. facilitate counseling for the abuser.

ANS: A The only outcome indicator clearly attainable within this time is for a staff member to provide the victim with information about community resources that can be contacted. The development of insight into the abusive relationship requires time. Securing a restraining order can be quickly accomplished but not while the patient is in the emergency department. Facilitating the abuser's counseling may require weeks or months.

6. A college student who attempted suicide by overdose is hospitalized. When the parents are contacted, they respond, "There must be a mistake. This could not have happened. We've given our child everything." The parents' reaction reflects: a. denial. b. anger. c. anxiety. d. rescue feelings.

ANS: A The parents' statements indicate denial. Denial or minimization of suicidal ideation or attempts is a defense against uncomfortable feelings. Family members are often unable to acknowledge suicidal ideation in someone close to them. The feelings suggested in the distractors are not clearly described in the scenario.

19. An older adult with Alzheimer disease lives with family. After observing multiple bruises, the home health nurse talks with the older adult's daughter, who becomes defensive and says, "My mother often wanders at night. Last night she fell down the stairs." Which nursing diagnosis has priority? a. Risk for injury, related to poor judgment, cognitive impairment, and lack of caregiver supervision b. Noncompliance, related to confusion and disorientation as evidenced by lack of cooperation c. Impaired verbal communication, related to brain impairment as evidenced by the confusion d. Insomnia, related to cognitive impairment as evidenced by wandering at night

ANS: A The patient is at high risk for injury because of her confusion. The risk increases when caregivers are unable to provide constant supervision. No assessment data support the diagnoses of Impaired verbal communication or Noncompliance. Sleep pattern disturbance certainly applies to this patient; however, the diagnosis Risk for injury is a higher priority.

A patient tells a nurse, "I sometimes get into trouble because I make quick decisions and act on them." A therapeutic response would be: a. "Let's consider the advantages of being able to stop and think before acting." b. "It sounds as though you've developed some insight into your situation." c. "I'll bet you have some interesting stories to share about overreacting." d. "It's good that you're showing readiness for behavioral change."

ANS: A The patient is showing openness to learning techniques for impulse control. One technique is to teach the patient to stop and think before acting impulsively. The patient can then be taught to evaluate the outcomes of possible actions and choose an effective action. The incorrect responses shift the encounter to a social level or are judgmental.

8. An adult attempts suicide after declaring bankruptcy. The patient is hospitalized and takes an antidepressant medication for five days. The patient is now more talkative and shows increased energy. Select the highest priority nursing intervention. a. Supervise the patient 24 hours a day. b. Begin discharge planning for the patient. c. Refer the patient to art and music therapists. d. Consider the discontinuation of suicide precautions.

ANS: A The patient now has more energy and may have decided on suicide, especially considering the history of the prior suicide attempt. The patient is still a suicide risk; therefore, continuous supervision is indicated.

21. A patient has a history of physical violence against family members when frustrated and then experiences periods of remorse after each outburst. Which finding indicates success in the plan of care? The patient: a. expresses frustration verbally instead of physically. b. explains the rationale for behaviors to the victim. c. identifies three personal strengths. d. agrees to seek counseling.

ANS: A The patient will develop a healthier way of coping with frustration if it is expressed verbally instead of physically. The incorrect options do not confirm the achievement of outcomes.

20. An adult has cared for a debilitated parent for 10 years. The parent's condition has recently declined, and the health care provider has recommended placement in a skilled care facility. The adult says, "I've always been able to care for my parents. Nursing home placement goes against everything I believe." Successful resolution of this person's crisis will most closely relate to: a. resolving the feelings associated with the threat to the person's self-concept b. maintaining the ability to identify situational supports in the community c. relying on the assistance from role models within the person's culture d. mobilizing automatic relief behaviors by the person

ANS: A The patient's crisis clearly relates to a loss of (or threatened change in) self-concept. Her capacity to care for her parents, regardless of the deteriorating condition, has been challenged. Crisis resolution involves coming to terms with the feelings associated with this loss. Identifying situational supports is relevant but less so than coming to terms with the threat to self-concept. Reliance on lessons from role models can be helpful but is not the primary factor associated with resolution in this case. Automatic relief behaviors are not helpful and are part of the fourth phase of crisis.

20. A victim of a violent rape has been in the emergency department for 3 hours. Evidence collection is complete. As discharge counseling begins, the patient says softly, "I will never be the same again. I can't face my friends. There is no sense of trying to go on." Select the nurse's most important response. a. "Are you thinking of suicide?" b. "It will take time, but you will feel the same as before." c. "Your friends will understand when you tell them." d. "You will be able to find meaning in this experience as time goes on."

ANS: A The patient's words suggest hopelessness. Whenever hopelessness is present, so is the risk for suicide. The nurse should directly address the possibility of suicidal ideation with the patient. The other options attempt to offer reassurance before making an assessment.

1. A woman was grabbed by an attacker as she walked home from work. The attacker put a gun to her head, taped her mouth, tied her hands, took her to a remote location, and raped her. Which aspect of this crisis produced the greatest amount of psychologic trauma? a. Threat to her life b. Memory of the event c. Being in a remote location d. Physical pain experienced

ANS: A The psychologic trauma associated with rape is produced by a number of factors. Of the options given, the threat to life is by far the most traumatic aspect of the crisis. The other options may, however, add significantly to the trauma.

15. The family of a patient whose insurance will not pay for continuing hospitalization considers transferring the patient to a public psychiatric hospital. The family expresses concern that the patient will "never get any treatment." Which reply by the nurse would be most helpful? a. "Under the law, treatment must be provided. Hospitalization without treatment violates patients' rights." b. "That's a justifiable concern because the right to treatment extends only to the provision of food, shelter, and safety." c. "Much will depend on other patients, because the right to treatment for a psychotic patient takes precedence over the right to treatment of a patient who is stable." d. "All patients in public hospitals have the right to choose both a primary therapist and a primary nurse."

ANS: A The right to medical and psychiatric treatment was conferred on all patients hospitalized in public mental hospitals with the enactment of the federal Hospitalization of Mentally Ill Act in 1964. Stating that the concern is justifiable supports the family's erroneous belief. The provisions mentioned in the third and fourth options are not part of this or any other statute governing psychiatric care.

A community mental health nurse plans an educational program for staff members at a home health agency that specializes in the care of older adults. A topic of high priority should be: a. identifying clinical depression in older adults. b. providing cost-effective foot care for older adults. c. identifying nutritional deficiencies in older adults. d. psychosocial stimulation for those who live alone.

ANS: A The topic of greatest immediacy is identification of clinical depression in older adults. Home health staff are often better versed in the physical aspects of care and less knowledgeable about mental health topics. Statistics show that older adult patients with mental health problems are less likely than young adults to be diagnosed accurately. This is especially true for those with depression and anxiety, both of which are likely to be misinterpreted as normal aging. Undiagnosed and untreated depression and anxiety result in unnecessary suffering. The other options are of lesser importance.

21. Four individuals have given information about their suicide plans. Which plan evidences the highest suicide risk? a. Jumping from a 100-foot-high railroad bridge located in a deserted area late at night b. Turning on the oven and letting gas escape into the apartment during the night c. Cutting the wrists in the bathroom while the spouse reads in the next room d. Overdosing on aspirin with codeine while the spouse is out with friends

ANS: A This is a highly lethal method with little opportunity for rescue. The other options are lower lethality methods with higher rescue potential.

A nurse wants to perform a preliminary assessment for suicidal ideation in an older adult patient. Which question would obtain the desired data? a. "What thoughts do you have about a person's right to take his or her own life?" b. "If you felt suicidal, would you communicate your feelings to anyone?" c. "Do you have any risk factors that potentially contribute to suicide?" d. "Do you think you are vulnerable to developing a depressed mood?"

ANS: A This question is clear, direct, and respectful. It will produce information relative to the acceptability of suicide as an option to the patient. If the patient deems suicide unacceptable, then no further assessment is necessary. If the patient deems suicide as acceptable, then the nurse can continue to assess the patient's intent, plan, and means to carry out the plan, as well as the lethality of the chosen method. The incorrect options are less direct.

28. The parents of identical twins ask a nurse for advice. One twin committed suicide a month ago. Now the parents are concerned that the other twin may also have suicidal tendencies. Which comment by the nurse is accurate? a. "Genetics are associated with suicide risk. Monitoring and support are important." b. "Apathy underlies suicide. Instilling motivation is the key to health maintenance." c. "Your child is unlikely to act out suicide when identifying with a suicide victim." d. "Fraternal twins are at higher risk for suicide than identical twins."

ANS: A Twin studies suggest the presence of genetic factors in suicide; however, separating genetic predisposition to suicide from predisposition to depression or alcoholism is difficult. Primary interventions can be helpful in promoting and maintaining health and possibly counteracting the genetic load. The incorrect options are untrue statements or oversimplifications.

27. A new nurse says to a peer, "My newest patient is diagnosed with schizophrenia. At least I won't have to worry about suicide risk." Which response by the peer would be most helpful? a. "Let's reconsider your plan. Suicide risk is high in patients diagnosed with schizophrenia." b. "Suicide is a risk for any patient diagnosed with schizophrenia who uses alcohol or drugs." c. "Patients diagnosed with schizophrenia are usually too disorganized to attempt suicide." d. "Visual hallucinations often prompt suicide among patients diagnosed with schizophrenia."

ANS: A Up to 10% of patients diagnosed with schizophrenia die from suicide, usually related to depressive symptoms occurring in the early years of the illness. Depressive symptoms are related to suicide among patients diagnosed with schizophrenia. Patients diagnosed with schizophrenia usually have auditory, not visual, hallucinations. Although the use of drugs and alcohol compounds the risk for suicide, it is independent of schizophrenia.

10. The nurse cares for a victim of a violent sexual assault. What is the most therapeutic intervention? a. Use accepting, nurturing, and empathetic communication techniques. b. Educate the victim about strategies to avoid attacks in the future. c. Discourage the expression of feelings until the victim stabilizes. d. Maintain a matter-of-fact manner and objectivity.

ANS: A Victims require the nurse to provide unconditional acceptance of them as individuals, because they often feel guilty and engage in self-blame. The nurse must be nurturing if the victim's needs are to be met and must be empathetic to convey understanding and to promote an establishment of trust.

25. An outpatient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa has begun re-feeding. Between the first and second appointments, the patient gained 8 pounds. The nurse should: a. assess lung sounds and extremities. b. suggest the use of an aerobic exercise program. c. positively reinforce the patient for the weight gain. d. establish a higher goal for weight gain the next week.

ANS: A Weight gain of more than 2 to 5 pounds weekly may overwhelm the hearts capacity to pump, leading to cardiac failure. The nurse must assess for signs of pulmonary edema and congestive heart failure. The incorrect options are undesirable because they increase the risk for cardiac complications.

Others describe a worker as very shy and lacking in self-confidence. This worker stays in an office cubicle all day, and never comes out for breaks or lunch. Which term best describes this behavior? a. Avoidant b. Dependent c. Histrionic d. Paranoid

ANS: A Patients with avoidant personality disorder are timid, socially uncomfortable, and withdrawn and avoid situations in which they might fail. They believe themselves to be inferior and unappealing. Individuals with dependent personality disorder are clinging, needy, and submissive. Individuals with histrionic personality disorder are seductive, flamboyant, shallow, and attention seeking. Individuals with paranoid personality disorder are suspicious and hostile and project blame.

What is the priority intervention for a nurse beginning to work with a patient with a schizotypal personality disorder? a. Respect the patient's need for periods of social isolation. b. Prevent the patient from violating the nurse's rights. c. Engage the patient in many community activities. d. Teach the patient how to match clothing.

ANS: A Patients with schizotypal personality disorder are eccentric and often display perceptual and cognitive distortions. They are suspicious of others and have considerable difficulty trusting. They become highly anxious and frightened in social situations, thus the need to respect their desire for social isolation. Teaching the patient to match clothing is not the priority intervention. Patients with schizotypal personality disorder rarely engage in behaviors that violate the nurse's rights or exploit the nurse.

A patient with borderline personality disorder is hospitalized several times after self-mutilating episodes. The patient remains impulsive. Dialectical behavior therapy starts on an outpatient basis. Which nursing diagnosis is the focus of this therapy? a. Risk for self-directed violence b. Impaired skin integrity c. Risk for injury d. Powerlessness

ANS: A Risk for self-mutilation is a nursing diagnosis relating to patient safety needs and is therefore a high priority. Impaired skin integrity and powerlessness may be appropriate foci for care but are not the priority or related to this therapy. Risk for injury implies accidental injury, which is not the case for the patient with borderline personality disorder.

A patient with borderline personality disorder has a history of self-mutilation and suicide attempts. The patient reveals feelings of depression and anger with life. The psychiatrist suggests the use of a medication. Which type of medication should the nurse expect? a. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) b. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) c. Benzodiazepine d. Antipsychotic

ANS: A SSRIs are used to treat depression. Many patients with borderline personality disorder are fearful of taking something over which they have little control. Because SSRIs have a good side effect profile, the patient is more likely to comply with the medication. Low- dose antipsychotic or anxiolytic medications are not supported by the data given in this scenario. MAOIs require great diligence in adherence to a restricted diet and are rarely used for patients who are impulsive.

3. Which situations qualify as abandonment on the part of a nurse? (Select all that apply.) The nurse: a. allows a patient with acute mania to refuse hospitalization without taking further action. b. terminates employment without referring a seriously mentally ill for aftercare. c. calls police to bring a suicidal patient to the hospital after a suicide attempt. d. refers a patient with persistent paranoid schizophrenia to community treatment. e. asks another nurse to provide a patient's care because of concerns about countertransference.

ANS: A, B Abandonment arises when a nurse does not place a patient safely in the hands of another health professional before discontinuing treatment. Calling the police to bring a suicidal patient to the hospital after a suicide attempt and referring a patient with schizophrenia to community treatment both provide for patient safety. Asking another nurse to provide a patient's care because of concerns about countertransference demonstrates self-awareness.

4. A professor's 4-year-old child has a temperature of 101.6° F, diarrhea, and complains of stomach pain. The professor is scheduled to teach three classes today. Which actions by the professor demonstrate effective parenting? Select all that apply. a. Telephoning a grandparent to stay with the child at home for the day. b. Telephoning a colleague to teach his classes and stays home with the sick child. c. Taking the child to the university and keeps the child in a private office for the day. d. Taking the child to a daycare center and hopes daycare workers will not notice the child is sick. e. Giving the child one dose of ibuprofen (Motrin) and takes the child to the daycare center.

ANS: A, B The correct responses demonstrate fulfillment of the role as a parent. The distracters indicate the professor has not cared for the sick child in an effective way. Taking the child to a daycare center exposes other children to a potential infection. Taking the child to one's office does not keep the child comfortable or provide for the child while the professor is teaching.

3. A community health nurse visits a family with four children. The father behaves angrily, finds fault with a child, and asks twice, "Why are you such a stupid kid?" The wife says, "I have difficulty disciplining the children. It's so frustrating." Which comments by the nurse will facilitate the interview with these parents? Select all that apply. a. "Tell me how you punish your children." b. "How do you stop your baby from crying?" c. "Caring for four small children must be difficult." d. "Do you or your husband ever beat the children?" e. "Calling children 'stupid' injures their self-esteem."

ANS: A, B, C An interview with possible abusing individuals should be built on concern and carried out in a nonthreatening, nonjudgmental way. Empathic remarks are helpful in creating rapport. Questions requiring a descriptive response are less threatening and elicit more relevant information than questions that can be answered by "yes" or "no."

1. A 10-year-old child cares for siblings while the parents work because the family cannot afford a babysitter. This child says, "My father doesn't like me. He calls me stupid all the time." The mother says the father is easily frustrated and has trouble disciplining the children. The community health nurse should consider which resources to stabilize the home situation? Select all that apply. a. Parental sessions to teach childrearing practices b. Anger management counseling for the father c. Continuing home visits to provide support d. Safety plan for the wife and children e. Placement of the children in foster care

ANS: A, B, C Anger management counseling for the father is appropriate. Support for this family will be an important component of treatment. By the wife's admission, the family has deficient knowledge of parenting practices. Whenever possible, the goal of intervention should be to keep the family together; thus removing the children from the home should be considered a last resort. Physical abuse is not suspected, so a safety plan is not a priority at this time.

2. A person was abducted and raped at gunpoint by an unknown assailant. Which interventions should the nurse use while caring for this person in the emergency department? Select all that apply. a. Allow the patient to talk at a comfortable pace. b. Pose questions in nonjudgmental, empathic ways. c. Place the patient in a private room with a caregiver. d. Reassure the patient that a family member will arrive as soon as possible. e. Invite family members to the examination room and involve them in taking the history. f. Put an arm around the patient to offer reassurance that the nurse is caring and compassionate.

ANS: A, B, C Neutral, nonjudgmental care and emotional support are critical to crisis management for the victim of rape. The rape victim should have privacy but not be left alone. Some rape victims prefer not to have family members involved. The patient's privacy may be compromised by the presence of family. The rape victim's anxiety may escalate when he or she is touched by a stranger, even when the stranger is a nurse.

2. A patient with suicidal impulses is on the highest level of suicide precautions. Which measures should the nurse incorporate into the patient's plan of care? Select all that apply. a. Allow no glass or metal on meal trays. b. Remove all potentially harmful objects from the patient's possession. c. Maintain arm's length, one-on-one nursing observation around the clock. d. Check the patient's whereabouts every hour. Make verbal contact at least three times each shift. e. Check the patient's whereabouts every 15 minutes, and make frequent verbal contacts. f. Keep the patient within visual range while he or she is awake. Check every 15 to 30 minutes while the patient is sleeping.

ANS: A, B, C One-on-one observation is necessary for anyone who has limited control over suicidal impulses. Plastic dishes on trays and the removal of potentially harmful objects from the patient's possession are measures included in any level of suicide precautions. The remaining options are used in less stringent levels of suicide precautions.

An adult patient tells the case manager, "I don't have bipolar disorder anymore, so I don't need medicine. After I was in the hospital last year, you helped me get an apartment and disability checks. Now I'm bored and don't have any friends." Which resources should the nurse suggest for the patient? Select all that apply. a. Psychoeducation classes b. Vocational rehabilitation c. Social skills training d. Homeless shelter e. Crisis intervention

ANS: A, B, C The patient does not understand the illness and the need for adhering to the medication regimen. Psychoeducation for the patient (and family) can address this lack of knowledge. Work gives meaning and purpose to life; vocational rehabilitation can assist with this aspect of care. The patient, who considers himself friendless, could also profit from social skills training to improve the quality of interpersonal relationships. Many patients with severe mental illness have such poor communication skills that others are uncomfortable interacting with them. Interactional skills can be effectively taught by breaking down the skill into small verbal and nonverbal components. The patient presently has a home and does not require the services of a homeless shelter. The nurse case manager functions in the role of crisis stabilizer, so no related referral is needed.

2. Which benefits are most associated with the use of telehealth? Select all that apply. a. Cost savings for patients b. Maximization of care management c. Access to services for patients in rural areas d. Prompt reimbursement by third-party payers e. Rapid development of trusting relationships with patients

ANS: A, B, C Use of telehealth technologies has shown that it can maximize health and improve disease management skills and confidence with the disease process. Many rural patients have felt disconnected from services; telehealth technologies can solve these problems. Although telehealth's improved health outcomes regularly show cost savings for payers, one significant barrier is the current lack of reimbursement for remote patient monitoring by third-party payers. Telehealth is not associated with rapid development of trusting relationships.

1. An individual says to the nurse, "I feel so stressed out lately. I think the stress is affecting my body also." Which somatic complaints are most likely to accompany this feeling? Select all that apply. a. Headache b. Neck pain c. Insomnia d. Anorexia e. Myopia

ANS: A, B, C, D When individuals feel "stressed-out," they often have accompanying somatic complaints, especially associated with sleep, eating, and headache or back pain. Changes in vision, such as myopia, would not be expected.

2. A nurse assesses a patient suspected to have somatic system disorder. Which findings support the diagnosis? Select all that apply. a. Female b. Reports frequent syncope c. Complains of heavy menstrual bleeding d. First diagnosed with psoriasis at 12 years of age e. Reports of back pain, painful urination, frequent diarrhea, and hemorrhoids

ANS: A, B, C, E No chronic disease explains the symptoms for patients with somatic system disorder. Patients report multiple symptoms; gastrointestinal, sexual, and pseudoneurological symptoms are common. This disorder is more common in women than in men.

2. A nurse directs the intervention team who must take an aggressive patient to seclusion. Other patients were removed from the area. Before approaching the patient, the nurse should ensure that the staff takes which of the following actions? Select all that apply. a. Remove jewelry, glasses, and harmful items from the patient and staff members. b. Appoint a person to clear a path and open, close, or lock doors. c. Quickly approach the patient, and grab the closest extremity. d. Select the person who will communicate with the patient. e. Move behind the patient to use the element of surprise.

ANS: A, B, D Injury to staff members and to the patient should be prevented. Only one person should explain what will happen and direct the patient; this person might be the nurse or staff member who has a good relationship with the patient. A clear pathway is essential; those restraining a limb cannot use keys, move furniture, or open doors. The nurse is usually responsible for administering the medication once the patient is restrained. Each staff member should have an assigned limb rather than just grabbing the closest limb. This system could leave one or two limbs unrestrained. Approaching in full view of the patient reduces suspicion.

For which patients with personality disorders would a family history of similar problems be most likely? Select all that apply. a. Obsessive-compulsive b. Antisocial c. Dependent d. Schizotypal e. Narcissistic

ANS: A, B, D Some personality disorders have evidence of genetic links; therefore the family history would show other family members with similar traits. Heredity plays a role in schizotypal and antisocial problems, as well as obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.

Which information should a nurse include in health teaching for adults diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and their significant others? Select all that apply. a. Tendency for genetic transmission b. Prevention strategies related to substance abuse c. Negative reinforcement strategies to help modify behaviors d. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are usually prescribed for hyperactivity e. Cognitive therapy may help resolve internalized negative beliefs about self

ANS: A, B, E Evidence suggests that ADHD has a biological basis. This fact can help adults with the disorder to cope with low self-esteem. Cognitive therapy is helpful in reframing negative beliefs about self. Adults diagnosed with ADHD have a higher incidence of substance abuse problems. Psychostimulant medications, rather than SSRIs, are usually prescribed.

Which statements most clearly indicate that the speaker views mental illness with stigma? Select all that apply. a. "We are all a little bit crazy." b. "If people with mental illness would go to church, their problems would be solved." c. "Many mental illnesses are genetically transmitted. It's no one's fault that the illness occurs." d. "Anyone can have a mental illness. War or natural disasters can be too stressful for healthy people." e. "People with mental illness are lazy. They get government disability checks instead of working."

ANS: A, B, E Stigma is represented by judgmental remarks that discount the reality and validity of mental illness. It is evidenced in stereotypical statements, by oversimplification, and by multiple other messages of guilt or shame.

3. A nurse assesses five newly hospitalized patients. Which patients have the highest suicide risk? Select all that apply. a. 82-year-old white man b. 17-year-old white female adolescent c. 39-year-old African-American man d. 29-year-old African-American woman e. 22-year-old man with traumatic brain injury

ANS: A, B, E Whites have suicide rates almost twice those of nonwhites, and the rate is particularly high for older adult men, adolescents, and young adults. Other high risk groups include young African-American men, Native-American men, older Asian Americans, and persons with traumatic brain injury.

A nurse leads a staff development session about ageism among health care workers. What information should the nurse include about the consequences of ageism? Select all that apply. a. Failure of older adults to receive necessary medical information b. Development of public policy that favors programs for older adults c. Staff shortages because caregivers prefer working with younger adults d. Perception that older adults consume a small share of medical resources e. More ancillary than professional personnel discriminate with regard to age

ANS: A, C Because of society's negative stereotyping of older adults as having little to offer, some staff members avoid working with older patients. Staff shortages in long-term care facilities are often greater than those for acute care settings. Older adult patients often receive less information about their conditions and are offered fewer treatment options than younger patients; some health care staff members perceive them as less able to understand. This problem exists among professional and ancillary personnel. Public policy discriminates against programs for older adults. Societal anger exists because older adults are perceived to consume a disproportionately large share of the medical resources.

A health care provider decided that the emotional distress of an older adult patient warrants the use of risperidone (Risperdal). Which interventions should the nurse add to the patient's plan of care? Select all that apply. a. Monitor for signs and symptoms of diabetes. b. Use disposable briefs for incontinence. c. Monitor for cerebrovascular changes. d. Implement a tyramine-free diet. e. Monitor for dehydration.

ANS: A, C Use of atypical antipsychotic medications increases the risk of diabetes and cerebrovascular events in the older adult population; therefore, the nurse should carefully monitor the patient for changes suggestive of these problems. This medication does not place the patient at great risk for the other options.

5. Because an intervention is required to control a patient's aggressive behavior, a critical incident debriefing takes place. Which topics are the primary focuses of the discussion? Select all that apply. a. Patient behavior associated with the incident b. Genetic factors associated with aggression c. Intervention techniques used by staff d. Effect of environmental factors e. Review of theories of aggression

ANS: A, C, D The patient's behavior, the intervention techniques used, and the environment in which the incident occurred are important to establish realistic outcomes and effective nursing interventions. Discussing the views about the theoretical origins of aggression is less effective.

Which economic factors are most critical to the success of discharge planning for a patient diagnosed with severe and persistent mental illness? Select all that apply. a. Access to housing b. Individual psychotherapy c. Income to meet basic needs d. Availability of health insurance e. Ongoing interdisciplinary evaluation

ANS: A, C, D The success of discharge planning requires careful attention to the patient's economic status. Access to housing is the first priority of the seriously mentally ill, and lack of income and health insurance is a barrier to effective treatment and rehabilitation. Although important aspects of ongoing care of the seriously mentally ill patient, ongoing interdisciplinary evaluation and individual psychotherapy are not economic factors.

1. When an emergency department nurse teaches a victim of the rape trauma syndrome about reactions that may occur during the long-term reorganization phase, which symptoms should be included? Select all that apply. a. Development of fears and phobias b. Decreased motor activity c. Feelings of numbness d. Flashbacks, dreams e. Syncopal episodes

ANS: A, C, D These reactions are common to the long-term phase. Victims of rape frequently have a period of increased motor activity rather than decreased motor activity during the long-term reorganization phase. Syncopal episodes are not expected.

1. A patient referred to the eating disorders clinic has lost 35 pounds in 3 months and has developed amenorrhea. For which physical manifestations of anorexia nervosa should a nurse assess? Select all that apply. a. Peripheral edema b. Parotid swelling c. Constipation d. Hypotension e. Dental caries f. Lanugo

ANS: A, C, D, F Peripheral edema is often present because of hypoalbuminemia. Constipation related to starvation is often present. Hypotension is often present because of dehydration. Lanugo is often present and is related to starvation. Parotid swelling is associated with bulimia. Dental caries are associated with bulimia.

2. A nurse can assist a patient diagnosed with addiction and the patient's family in which aspects of relapse prevention? Select all that apply. a. Rehearsing techniques to handle anticipated stressful situations b. Advising the patient to accept residential treatment if relapse occurs c. Assisting the patient to identify life skills needed for effective coping d. Isolating self from significant others and social situations until sobriety is established e. Teaching the patient about the physical changes to expect as the body adapts to functioning without substances

ANS: A, C, E Nurses can be helpful as a patient assesses needed life skills and in providing appropriate referrals. Anticipatory problem solving and role playing are good ways of rehearsing effective strategies for handling stressful situations. The nurse can participate in role playing and help the patient evaluate the usefulness of new strategies. The nurse can also provide valuable information about the physiologic changes that can be expected and the ways in which to cope with these changes. Residential treatment is not usually necessary after relapse. Patients need the support of friends and family to establish and maintain sobriety.

1. A patient diagnosed with somatic symptom disorder says, Why has God chosen me to be sick all the time and unable to provide for my family? The burden on my family is worse than the pain I bear. Which nursing diagnoses apply to this patient? Select all that apply. a. Spiritual distress b. Decisional conflict c. Adult failure to thrive d. Impaired social interaction e. Ineffective role performance

ANS: A, E The patients verbalization is consistent with spiritual distress. Moreover, the patients description of being unable to provide for and burdening the family suggests ineffective role performance. No data support diagnoses of adult failure to thrive, impaired social interaction, or decisional conflict.

2. A nurse assists a victim of spousal abuse to create a plan for escape if it becomes necessary. The plan should include which components? Select all that apply. a. Keep a cell phone fully charged. b. Hide money with which to buy new clothes. c. Have the telephone number for the nearest shelter. d. Take enough toys to amuse the children for 2 days. e. Secure a supply of current medications for self and children. f. Determine a code word to signal children that it is time to leave. g. Assemble birth certificates, Social Security cards, and licenses.

ANS: A, C, E, F, G The victim must prepare for a quick exit and so should assemble necessary items. Keeping a cell phone fully charged will help with access to support persons or agencies. The individual should be advised to hide a small suitcase containing a change of clothing for self and for each child. Taking a large supply of toys would be cumbersome and might compromise the plan. People are advised to take one favorite small toy or security object for each child, but most shelters have toys to further engage the children. Accumulating enough money to purchase clothing may be difficult.

3. Which central nervous system structures are most associated with anger and aggression? Select all that apply. a. Amygdala b. Cerebellum c. Basal ganglia d. Temporal lobe e. Parietal lobe

ANS: A, D The amygdala mediates anger experiences and helps a person judge an event as either rewarding or aversive. The temporal lobe, which is part of the limbic system, also plays a role in aggressive behavior. The cerebellum manages equilibrium, muscle tone, and movement. The basal ganglia are involved in movement. The parietal lobe is involved in interpreting sensations.

4. Which behaviors are most consistent with the clinical picture of a patient who is becoming increasingly aggressive? Select all that apply. a. Pacing b. Crying c. Withdrawn affect d. Rigid posture with clenched jaw e. Staring with narrowed eyes into the eyes of another

ANS: A, D, E Crying and a withdrawn affect are not cited by experts as behaviors indicating that the individual has a high potential to behave violently. The other behaviors are consistent with the increased risk for other-directed violence.

1. A nurse driving home after work comes upon a serious automobile accident. The driver gets out of the car with no apparent physical injuries. Which assessment findings would be expected from the driver immediately after this event? Select all that apply. a. Difficulty using a cell phone b. Long-term memory losses c. Fecal incontinence d. Rapid speech e. Trembling

ANS: A, D, E Immediate responses to crisis commonly include shock, numbness, denial, confusion, disorganization, difficulty with decision making, and physical symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, tremors, profuse sweating, and dizziness associated with anxiety. Incontinence and long-term memory losses would not be expected.

1. A patient with a history of command hallucinations approaches the nurse, yelling obscenities. The patient mumbles and then walks away. The nurse follows. Which nursing actions are most likely to be effective in de-escalating this scenario? Select all that apply. a. State the expectation that the patient will stay in control. b. State that the patient cannot be understood when mumbling. c. Tell the patient, "You are behaving inappropriately." d. Offer to provide the patient with medication to help. e. Speak in a firm but calm voice.

ANS: A, D, E Stating the expectation that the patient will maintain control of behavior reinforces positive, healthy behavior and avoids challenging the patient. Offering an as-needed medication provides support for the patient trying to maintain control. A firm but calm voice will likely comfort and calm the patient. Belittling remarks may lead to aggression. Criticism will probably prompt the patient to begin shouting.

10. Police bring a patient to the emergency department after an automobile accident. The patient is ataxic with slurred speech and mild confusion. The blood alcohol level is 400 mg/dl (0.40 mg %). Considering the relationship between behavior and blood alcohol level, which conclusion can the nurse draw? The patient: a. rarely drinks alcohol. b. has a high tolerance to alcohol. c. has been treated with disulfiram (Antabuse). d. has recently ingested both alcohol and sedative drugs.

ANS: B A nontolerant drinker would be in a coma with a blood alcohol level of 400 mg/dl (0.40 mg %). The fact that the patient is walking and talking shows a discrepancy between blood alcohol level and expected behavior. It strongly suggests that the patient's body has become tolerant to the drug. If disulfiram and alcohol are ingested together, then an entirely different clinical picture would result. The blood alcohol level gives no information about the ingestion of other drugs.

1. A patient with a history of daily alcohol abuse was hospitalized at 0200 today. When would the nurse expect withdrawal symptoms to peak? a. Between 0800 and 1000 today (6 to 8 hours after drinking stopped) b. Between 0200 tomorrow and hospital day 2 (24 to 48 hours after drinking stopped) c. About 0200 on hospital day 3 (72 hours after drinking stopped) d. About 0200 on hospital day 4 (96 hours after drinking stopped)

ANS: B Alcohol withdrawal usually begins 6 to 8 hours after cessation or significant reduction of alcohol intake. It peaks between 24 and 48 hours, then resolves or progresses to delirium.

25. Which nursing diagnosis would likely apply both to a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia as well as a patient diagnosed with amphetamine-induced psychosis? a. Powerlessness b. Disturbed thought processes c. Ineffective thermoregulation d. Impaired oral mucous membrane

ANS: B Both types of patients commonly experience paranoid delusions; thus, the nursing diagnosis of Disturbed thought processes is appropriate for both. The incorrect options are not specifically applicable to both.

13. During the third week of treatment, the spouse of a patient in an alcoholism rehabilitation program says, "After discharge, I'm sure everything will be just fine." Which remark by the nurse will be most helpful to the spouse? a. "It is good that you're supportive of your spouse's sobriety and want to help maintain it." b. "Although sobriety solves some problems, new ones may emerge as one adjusts to living without alcohol." c. "It will be important for you to structure life to avoid as much stress as possible. You will need to provide social protection." d. "Remember that alcoholism is a disorder of self-destruction. You will need to observe your spouse's behavior carefully."

ANS: B During recovery, patients identify and use alternative coping mechanisms to reduce their reliance on alcohol. Physical adaptations must occur. Emotional responses, formerly dulled by alcohol, are now fully experienced and may cause considerable anxiety. These changes inevitably have an effect on the spouse and children, who should be given anticipatory guidance and accurate information.

38. Which question has the highest priority when assessing a newly admitted patient with a history of alcohol abuse? a. "Have you ever had blackouts?" b. "When did you have your last drink?" c. "Has drinking caused you any problems?" d. "When did you decide to seek treatment?"

ANS: B Learning when the patient had the last drink is essential to knowing when to begin to observe for symptoms of withdrawal. The other questions are relevant but of lower priority.

28. A patient has smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for many years. When the patient does not smoke or tries to cut back, anxiety, craving, poor concentration, and headache result. What does this scenario describe? a. Substance abuse b. Substance addiction c. Substance intoxication d. Recreational use of a social drug

ANS: B Nicotine meets the criteria for a substance, the criterion for addiction (tolerance) is present, and withdrawal symptoms are noted with abstinence or a reduction of the dose. The scenario does not meet the criteria for substance abuse, intoxication, or recreational use of a social drug.

37. Select the most appropriate outcome for a patient completing the fourth alcohol detoxification program in one year. Before discharge, the patient will a. use rationalization in healthy ways. b. state, "I see the need for ongoing treatment." c. identify constructive outlets for expression of anger. d. develop a trusting relationship with one staff member.

ANS: B The answer refers to the need for ongoing treatment after detoxification and is the best goal related to controlling relapse. The scenario does not provide enough information to know whether anger has been identified as a problem. A trusting relationship, although desirable, would not help the patient maintain sobriety.

22. A nurse worked at a hospital for several months, resigned, and then took a position at another hospital. In the new position, the nurse often volunteers to be the medication nurse. After several serious medication errors, an investigation reveals that the nurse was diverting patient narcotics for self-use. What early indicator of the nurse's drug use was evident? a. Accepting responsibility for medication errors. b. Seeking to be assigned as a medication nurse. c. Frequent complaints of physical pain. d. High sociability with peers.

ANS: B The nurse intent on diverting drugs for personal use often attempts to isolate him- or herself from peers rather than being sociable. The person seeks access to medications. Usually, the person will blame errors on others rather than accepting responsibility.

Severe and persistent mental illness is characterized as a: a. mental illness with longer than 2 weeks' duration. b. major ongoing mental illness marked by significant functional impairments. c. mental illness accompanied by physical impairment and severe social problems. d. major mental illness that cannot be treated to prevent deterioration of cognitive and social abilities.

ANS: B "Severe and persistent mental illness" has replaced the phrase "chronic mental illness." Global impairments in function are evident, including social skills. Physical impairments may be present. Severe mental illness can be treated, but remissions and exacerbations are part of the course of the illness.

24. A staff nurse tells another nurse, "I evaluated a new patient using the SAD PERSONS scale and got a score of 10. I'm wondering if I should send the patient home." Select the best reply by the second nurse. a. "That action would seem appropriate." b. "A score over 8 requires immediate hospitalization." c. "I think you should strongly consider hospitalization for this patient." d. "Give the patient a follow-up appointment. Hospitalization may be needed soon."

ANS: B A SAD PERSONS scale score of 0 to 5 suggests home care with follow-up. A score of 6 to 8 requires psychiatric consultation. A score over 8 calls for hospitalization.

1. A patient comes to the clinic with superficial cuts on the left wrist. The patient paces around the room sobbing but cringes when approached and responds to questions with only shrugs or monosyllables. Select the nurse's best initial statement to this patient. a. "Everything is going to be all right. You are here at the clinic, and the staff will keep you safe." b. "I see you are feeling upset. I'm going to stay and talk with you to help you feel better." c. "You need to try to stop crying so we can talk about your problems." d. "Let's set some guidelines and goals for your visit here."

ANS: B A crisis exists for this patient. The two primary thrusts of crisis intervention are to provide for the safety of the individual and use anxiety-reduction techniques to facilitate the use of inner resources. The nurse offers therapeutic presence, which provides caring, ongoing observation relative to the patient's safety, and interpersonal reassurance.

14. A nurse counsels a patient diagnosed with body dysmorphic disorder. Which nursing diagnosis would be a priority for the plan of care? a. Anxiety b. Risk for suicide c. Disturbed body image d. Ineffective role performance

ANS: B A high risk of completed suicide exists in patients with body dysmorphic disorder. Safety is always a high priority for the nurse; in this instance, the plan of care should include an awareness of the risk for self-inflicted harm.

12. Which assessment finding presents the greatest risk for violent behavior? A patient who: a. is severely agoraphobic. b. has a history of spousal abuse. c. demonstrates bizarre somatic delusions. d. verbalizes hopelessness and powerlessness.

ANS: B A history of prior aggression or violence is the best predictor of patients who may become violent. Patients with anxiety disorders are not particularly prone to violence unless panic occurs. Patients experiencing hopelessness and powerlessness may have co-existing anger, but violence is not often demonstrated. Patients with paranoid delusions are at greater risk for violence than those with bizarre somatic delusions.

7. An intramuscular dose of antipsychotic medication needs to be given to a patient who is becoming increasingly more aggressive. The patient is in the day room. The nurse should enter the day room: a. and say, "Would you like to come to your room and take some medication your doctor prescribed for you?" b. accompanied by three staff members and say, "Please come to your room so I can give you some medication that will help you feel more comfortable." c. and place the patient in a basket-hold and then say, "I am going to take you to your room to give you an injection of medication to calm you." d. accompanied by a male nursing assistant and tell the patient, "You can come to your room willingly so I can give you this medication, or the aide and I will take you there."

ANS: B A patient gains feelings of security if he or she sees that others are present to help with control. The nurse gives a simple direction, honestly states what is going to happen, and reassures the patient that the intervention will be helpful. This positive approach assumes that the patient can act responsibly and will maintain control. Physical control measures should be used only as a last resort.

14. A voluntarily hospitalized patient tells the nurse, "Get me the forms for discharge against medical advice so I can leave now." What is the nurse's best initial response? a. "I can't give you those forms without your health care provider's knowledge." b. "I will get them for you, but let's talk about your decision to leave treatment." c. "Since you signed your consent for treatment, you may leave if you desire." d. "I'll get the forms for you right now and bring them to your room."

ANS: B A patient who has been voluntarily admitted as a psychiatric inpatient has the right to demand and obtain release in most states. However, as a patient advocate, the nurse is responsible for weighing factors related to the patient's wishes and best interests. By asking for information, the nurse may be able to help the patient reconsider the decision. The statement that discharge forms cannot be given without the health care provider's knowledge is not true. Facilitating discharge without consent is not in the patient's best interest before exploring the reason for the request.

8. A patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa is resistant to weight gain. What is the rationale for establishing a contract with the patient to participate in measures designed to produce a specified weekly weight gain? a. Because severe anxiety concerning eating is expected, objective and subjective data must be routinely collected. b. Patient involvement in decision-making increases a sense of control and promotes compliance with the treatment. c. A team approach to planning the diet ensures that physical and emotional needs of the patient are met. d. Because of increased risk for physical problems with re-feeding, obtaining patient permission is required.

ANS: B A sense of control for the patient is vital to the success of therapy. A diet that controls weight gain can allay patient fears of a too-rapid weight gain. Data collection is not the reason for contracting. A team approach is wise but is not a guarantee that the patients needs will be met. Permission for treatment is a separate issue. The contract for weight gain is an additional aspect of treatment.

A student nurse visiting a senior center tells the instructor, "It's so depressing to see all these old people. They are so weak and frail. They are probably all confused." The student is expressing: a. reality. b. ageism. c. empathy. d. advocacy.

ANS: B Ageism is defined as a bias against older people because of their age. None of the other options can be identified from the ideas expressed by the student.

A clinic nurse interviews four patients between 70 and 80 years of age. Which patient should have further assessment regarding the risk of alcohol addiction? The patient: a. with a history of intermittent problems of alcohol misuse early in life and who now consumes one glass of wine nightly with dinner. b. with no history of alcohol-related problems until age 65 years, when the patient began to drink alcohol daily "to keep my mind off my arthritis." c. who drank socially throughout adult life and continues this pattern, saying, "I've earned the right to do as I please." d. who abused alcohol between the ages of 25 and 40 years but now abstains and occasionally attends Alcoholics Anonymous.

ANS: B Alcohol addiction can develop at any age, and the geriatric population is particularly at risk. The geriatric problem drinker is defined as someone who has no history of alcohol-related problems but develops an alcohol-abuse pattern in response to the stresses of aging. The incorrect responses profile alcohol use that is not problematic.

18. A patient comes to the hospital for treatment of injuries sustained during a rape. The patient abruptly decides to decline treatment and return home. Before the patient leaves, the nurse should: a. tell the patient, "You may not leave until you receive prophylactic treatment for sexually transmitted diseases." b. provide written information concerning the physical and emotional reactions that may be experienced. c. explain the need and importance of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing. d. offer verbal information about legal resources.

ANS: B All information given to a patient before he or she leaves the emergency department should be in writing. Patients who are anxious are unable to concentrate and therefore cannot retain much of what is verbally imparted. Written information can be read and referred to at later times. Patients cannot be kept against their will or coerced into receiving medication as a condition of being allowed to leave. This constitutes false imprisonment.

4. An adolescent comes to the crisis clinic and reports sexual abuse by an uncle. The patient told the parents about the uncle's behavior, but the parents did not believe the adolescent. What type of crisis exists? a. Maturational b. Adventitious c. Situational d. Organic

ANS: B An adventitious crisis is a crisis of disaster that is not a part of everyday life; it is unplanned or accidental. Adventitious crises include natural disasters, national disasters, and crimes of violence. Sexual molestation falls within this classification. Maturational crisis occurs as an individual arrives at a new stage of development, when old coping styles may be ineffective. Situational crisis arises from an external source such as a job loss, divorce, or other loss affecting self-concept or self-esteem. Organic is not a type of crisis.

6. As part of the stress response, the HPA axis is stimulated. Which structures make up this system? a. Hippocampus, parietal lobe, and amygdala b. Hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and adrenal glands c. Hind brain, pyramidal nervous system, and anterior cerebrum d. Hepatic artery, parasympathetic nervous system, and acoustic nerve

ANS: B As part of the physiologic response of stress, the hypothalamus stimulates the HPA axis, which is made up of the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, antd adrenal glands.

A 75-year-old patient comes to the clinic reporting frequent headaches. After an introduction at the beginning of the interview, the nurse should: a. initiate a neurologic assessment. b. ask if the patient can hear clearly as the nurse speaks. c. suggest that the patient lie down in a darkened room for a few minutes. d. administer medication to relieve the patient's pain before performing the assessment.

ANS: B Before proceeding, the nurse should assess the patient's ability to hear questions. Hearing ability often declines with age. Impaired hearing could lead to inaccurate answers. The nurse should not administer medication (an intervention) until after the assessment is complete.

21. After leaving work, a staff nurse realizes that documentation of the administration of a medication to a patient was omitted. This off-duty nurse telephones the unit and tells the nurse, "Please document the administration of the medication I forgot to do. My password is alpha1." The nurse should: a. fulfill the request. b. refer the matter to the charge nurse to resolve. c. access the record and document the information. d. report the request to the patient's health care provider.

ANS: B At most hospitals, termination is a possible penalty for unauthorized entry into a patient record. Referring the matter to the charge nurse will allow the observance of hospital policy while ensuring that documentation occurs. Making an exception and fulfilling the request places the on-duty staff nurse in jeopardy. Reporting the request to the patient's health care provider would be unnecessary. Accessing the record and documenting the information would be unnecessary when the charge nurse can resolve the problem.

A man tells the nurse, "All my life, I have felt and acted like a woman while living in a man's body. For the past year, I have lived and dressed as a woman. I changed jobs to protect my new identity." Which request is the patient likely to make to the health care provider? a. "Can you refer me for psychological testing?" b. "Will you prescribe estrogen therapy?" c. "Will you alter my medical records?" d. "What should I tell my parents?"

ANS: B Before sexual reassignment surgery, the step that follows living as a member of the other sex is hormone therapy. The patient's decision to live as a woman makes this a natural request. Psychological testing occurs before sexual reassignment surgery, often after hormone therapy has begun. The patient has likely told his parents by this point.

17. A person comes to the clinic reporting, I wear a scarf across my lower face when I go out but because of my ugly appearance. Assessment reveals an average appearance with no actual disfigurement. Which problem is most likely? a. Dissociative identity disorder b. Body dysmorphic disorder c. Pseudocyesis d. Malingering

ANS: B Body dysmorphic disorder involves a preoccupation with an imagined defect in appearance. Dissociative identity disorder involves the existence of two or more distinct subpersonalities, each with its own patterns of relating, perceiving, and thinking. Pseudocyesis is the false belief that one is pregnant. Malingering is intentionally producing symptoms for a personal gain.

An adult diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) says, "I've always been stupid. I never had friends when I was a child. My parents often punished me because I made mistakes. Now, I can't keep a job." The nurse managing care should consider: a. aversive therapy to extinguish negative behaviors. b. cognitive therapy to help address internalized beliefs. c. group therapy to allow comparison of feelings with others. d. vocational counseling to identify needed occupational skills.

ANS: B Cognitive therapy and knowledge of ADHD will make it possible for the patient to reframe the past and present in a more positive and realistic light and to challenge internalized false beliefs about self. Aversive therapy would not be useful for the patient. Group therapy may be valuable later to allow for the testing of new coping behaviors in a safe environment. Vocational counseling can help the patient explore suitable career options while pursuing treatment.

7. Cortisol is released in response to a patient's prolonged stress. Which initial effect would the nurse expect to result from the increased cortisol level? a. Diuresis and electrolyte imbalance b. Focused and alert mental status c. Drowsiness and lethargy d. Restlessness and anxiety

ANS: B Cortisol is the primary stress hormone and is released in response to prolonged stress. Cortisol helps supply cells with amino acids and fatty acids for energy supply, as well as diverting glucose from muscles for use by the brain. As a result, the brain stays alert and focused. The distracters present effects that would not be expected.

12. A college student observes a roommate going out wearing uncharacteristically seductive clothing, returning 12 to 24 hours later, and then sleeping for 8 to 12 hours. At other times, the roommate sits on the floor speaking like a young child. Which health problem should be considered? a. Functional neurological (conversion) disorder b. Dissociative identity disorder c. Dissociative amnesia d. Body dysmorphic disorder

ANS: B Dissociative identity disorder involves the existence of two or more distinct subpersonalities, each with its own patterns of relating, perceiving, and thinking. At least two of the subpersonalities take control of the persons behavior but leave the individual unable to remember the periods of time in which the subpersonality is in control.

7. What is a nurse's legal responsibility if child abuse or neglect is suspected? a. Discuss the findings with the child's teacher, principal, and school psychologist. b. Report the suspected abuse or neglect according to state regulations. c. Document the observations and speculations in the medical record. d. Continue the assessment.

ANS: B Each state has specific regulations for reporting child abuse that must be observed. The nurse is usually a mandated reporter. The reporter does not need to be sure that abuse or neglect has occurred but only that it is suspected. Speculation should not be documented; only the facts are recorded.

25. A new patient immediately requires seclusion on admission. The assessment is incomplete, and no prescriptions have been written. Immediately after safely secluding the patient, which action has priority? a. Provide an opportunity for the patient to go to the bathroom. b. Notify the health care provider and obtain a seclusion order. c. Notify the hospital risk manager. d. Debrief the staff.

ANS: B Emergency seclusion can be effected by a credentialed nurse but must be followed by securing a medical order within the period specified by the state and agency. The incorrect options are not immediately necessary from a legal standpoint.

1. Which scenario best demonstrates an example of eustress? An individual: a. loses a beloved family pet. b. prepares to take a 1 week vacation to a tropical island with a group of close friends. c. receives a bank notice there were insufficient funds in their account for a recent rent payment. d. receives notification that their current employer is experiencing financial problems and some workers will be terminated.

ANS: B Eustress is beneficial stress; it motivates people to develop skills they need to solve problems and meet personal goals. Positive life experiences produce eustress. Going on a tropical vacation is an exciting, relaxing experience and an example of eustress. Losing the family pet, worrying about employment security, and having financial problems are examples of distress, a negative experience that drains energy and can lead to significant emotional problems.

7. Which nursing intervention demonstrates false imprisonment? a. A confused and combative patient says, "I'm getting out of here and no one can stop me." The nurse restrains this patient without a health care provider's order and then promptly obtains an order. b. A patient has been irritating, seeking the attention of nurses most of the day. Now a nurse escorts the patient down the hall, saying, "Stay in your room or you'll be put in seclusion." c. An involuntarily hospitalized patient with suicidal ideation runs out of the psychiatric unit. A nurse rushes after the patient and convinces the patient to return to the unit. d. An involuntarily hospitalized patient with suicidal ideation attempts to leave the unit. A nurse calls the security team and uses established protocols to prevent the patient from leaving.

ANS: B False imprisonment involves holding a competent person against his or her will. Actual force is not a requirement of false imprisonment. The individual needs only to be placed in fear of imprisonment by someone who has the ability to carry out the threat. The patient in one distractor is not competent, and the nurse is acting beneficently. The patients in the other distractors have been admitted as involuntary patients and should not be allowed to leave without permission of the treatment team.

10. A soldier returned home from active duty in a combat zone in Afghanistan and was diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). The soldier says, "If there's a loud noise at night, I get under my bed because I think we're getting bombed." What type of experience has the soldier described? a. Illusion b. Flashback c. Nightmare d. Auditory hallucination

ANS: B Flashbacks are dissociative reactions in which an individual feels or acts as if the traumatic event were recurring. Illusions are misinterpretations of stimuli; although the experience is similar, the more accurate term is flashback because of the diagnosis of PTSD. Auditory hallucinations have no external stimuli. Nightmares commonly accompany PTSD, but this experience is stimulated by an actual environmental sound.

12. An African-American patient says to a Caucasian nurse, "There's no sense talking. You wouldn't understand because you live in a white world." The nurse's best action would be to: a. explain, "Yes, I do understand. Everyone goes through the same experiences." b. say, "Please give an example of something you think I wouldn't understand." c. reassure the patient that nurses interact with people from all cultures. d. change the subject to one that is less emotionally disturbing.

ANS: B Having the patient speak in specifics rather than globally helps the nurse understand the patient's perspective. This approach helps the nurse engage the patient.

17. A patient has a history of impulsively acting out anger by striking others. Which would be an appropriate plan for avoiding such incidents? a. Explain that restraint and seclusion will be used if violence occurs. b. Help the patient identify incidents that trigger impulsive acting out. c. Offer one-on-one supervision to help the patient maintain control. d. Give the patient lorazepam (Ativan) every 4 hours to reduce anxiety.

ANS: B Identifying trigger incidents allows the patient and nurse to plan interventions to reduce irritation and frustration that lead to acting out anger and to put more adaptive coping strategies eventually into practice.

15. When a victim of sexual assault is discharged from the emergency department, the nurse should: a. arrange support from the victim's family. b. provide referral information verbally and in writing. c. advise the victim to try not to think about the assault. d. offer to stay with the victim until stability is regained.

ANS: B Immediately after the assault, rape victims are often disorganized and unable to think well or remember what they have been told. Written information acknowledges this fact and provides a solution. The incorrect options violate the patient's right to privacy, evidence a rescue fantasy, and offer a platitude that is neither therapeutic nor effective.

3. What feelings are most commonly experienced by nurses working with abusive families? a. Outrage toward the victim and sympathy for the abuser b. Sympathy for the victim and anger toward the abuser c. Unconcern for the victim and dislike for the abuser d. Vulnerability for self and empathy with the abuser

ANS: B Intense protective feelings, sympathy for the victim, and anger and outrage toward the abuser are common emotions of a nurse working with an abusive family.

12. What behavior by a nurse caring for a patient diagnosed with an eating disorder indicates the nurse needs supervision? a. The nurses comments are nonjudgmental. b. The nurse uses an authoritarian manner when interacting with the patient. c. The nurse teaches the patient to recognize signs of increasing anxiety and ways to intervene. d. The nurse refers the patient to a self-help group for individuals with eating disorders.

ANS: B In the effort to motivate the patient and take advantage of the decision to seek help and be healthier, the nurse must take care not to cross the line toward authoritarianism and assume the role of a parent. The helpful nurse uses a problem-solving approach and focuses on the patients feelings of shame and low self-esteem. Referral to a self-help group is an appropriate intervention.

5. A clinic nurse interviews a patient who reports fatigue, back pain, headaches, and sleep disturbances. The patient seems tense, then becomes reluctant to provide more information, and is in a hurry to leave. How can the nurse best serve the patient? a. Explore the possibility of patient social isolation. b. Have the patient fill out an abuse assessment screen. c. Ask whether the patient has ever had psychiatric counseling. d. Ask the patient to disrobe; then assess for signs of physical abuse.

ANS: B In this situation, the nurse should consider the possibility that the patient is a victim of domestic violence. Although the patient is reluctant to discuss issues, he or she may be willing to fill out an abuse assessment screen, which would then open the door to discussion.

A nurse prepares for an initial interview with a patient with suspected adult attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Questions should be focused to elicit information about which problem? a. Headaches b. Inattention c. Sexual impulses d. Trichotillomania

ANS: B Inattention usually persists from childhood into adult ADHD, although hyperactivity, impulsivity, and social impairments may also be present. Headaches would not be expected. Sexual impulses may be affected by adult ADHD, but this area is assessed later. Trichotillomania refers to pulling out one's hair as a tension-relieving behavior.

3. A patient comes to the crisis center saying, "I'm in a terrible situation. I don't know what to do." The triage nurse can initially assume that the patient is: a. suicidal. b. anxious and fearful. c. misperceiving reality. d. potentially homicidal.

ANS: B Individuals in crisis are universally anxious. They are often frightened and may be mildly confused. Perceptions are often narrowed.

25. A patient recently hospitalized for two weeks committed suicide during the night. Which initial measure will be most helpful for staff members and other patients regarding this event? a. Request the public information officer to make an announcement to the local media. b. Hold a staff meeting to express feelings and plan the care for other patients. c. Ask the patient's roommate not to discuss the event with other patients. d. Quickly discharge as many patients as possible to prevent panic.

ANS: B Interventions should be aimed at helping the staff and patients come to terms with the loss and to grow because of the incident. Then, a community meeting should be scheduled to allow other patients to express their feelings and request help. Staff members should be prepared to provide additional support and reassurance to patients and should seek opportunities for peer support. The incorrect options will not control information or may result in unsafe care.

2. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia tells the nurse, "The CIA is monitoring us through the fluorescent lights in this room. Be careful what you say." Which response by the nurse would be most therapeutic? a. "Let's talk about something other than the CIA." b. "It sounds like you're concerned about your privacy." c. "The CIA is prohibited from operating in health care facilities." d. "You have lost touch with reality, which is a symptom of your illness."

ANS: B It is important not to challenge the patient's beliefs, even if they are unrealistic. Challenging undermines the patient's trust in the nurse. The nurse should try to understand the underlying feelings or thoughts the patient's message conveys. The correct response uses the therapeutic technique of reflection. The other comments are nontherapeutic. Asking to talk about something other than the concern at hand is changing the subject. Saying that the CIA is prohibited from operating in health care facilities gives false reassurance. Stating that the patient has lost touch with reality is truthful but uncompassionate.

19. Which statement by a patient during an assessment interview should alert the nurse to the patient's need for immediate, active intervention? a. "I am mixed up, but I know I need help." b. "I have no one for help or support." c. "It is worse when you are a person of color." d. "I tried to get attention before I shot myself."

ANS: B Lack of social support and social isolation increase the suicide risk. The willingness to seek help lowers the risk. Being a person of color does not suggest a higher risk; more whites commit suicide than do individuals of other racial groups. Attention seeking is not correlated with a higher risk of suicide.

21. Which personality characteristic is a nurse most likely to assess in a patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa? a. Carefree flexibility b. Rigidity, perfectionism c. Open displays of emotion d. High spirits and optimism

ANS: B Rigid thinking, inability to demonstrate flexibility, and difficulty changing cognitions are characteristic of patients diagnosed with eating disorders. The incorrect options are rare in a patient with anorexia nervosa. Inflexibility, controlled emotions, and pessimism are more the norm.

3. The patient says, "My marriage is just great. My spouse and I usually agree on everything." The nurse observes the patient's foot moving continuously as the patient twirls a shirt button. What conclusion can the nurse draw? The patient's communication is: a. clear. b. mixed. c. precise. d. inadequate.

ANS: B Mixed messages involve the transmission of conflicting or incongruent messages by the speaker. The patient's verbal message that all is well in the relationship is modified by the nonverbal behaviors denoting anxiety. Data are not present to support the choice of the verbal message being clear, explicit, or inadequate.

13. A rape victim tells the emergency department nurse, "I feel so dirty. Please let me take a shower before the doctor examines me." The nurse should: a. arrange for the patient to shower. b. explain that washing would destroy evidence. c. give the patient a basin of hot water and towels. d. instruct the victim to wash above the waist only.

ANS: B No matter how uncomfortable, the patient should not bathe until the forensic examination is completed. The collection of evidence is critical if the patient is to be successful in court. The incorrect options would result in the destruction of evidence or are untrue.

11. An appropriate intervention for a patient diagnosed with bulimia nervosa who binges and purges is to teach the patient to: a. eat a small meal after purging. b. avoid skipping meals or restricting food. c. concentrate oral intake after 4 PM daily. d. understand the value of reading journal entries aloud to others.

ANS: B One goal of health teaching is the normalization of eating habits. Food restriction and skipping meals lead to rebound bingeing. Teaching the patient to eat a small meal after purging will probably perpetuate the need to induce vomiting. Teaching the patient to concentrate intake after 4 PM will lead to late-day bingeing. Journal entries are private.

14. Which situation constitutes consensual sex rather than rape? a. After coming home intoxicated from a party, a person forces the spouse to have sex. The spouse objects. b. A person's lover pleads to have oral sex. The person gives in but then regrets the decision. c. A person is beaten, robbed, and forcibly subjected to anal penetration by an assailant. d. A physician gives anesthesia for a procedure and has intercourse with an unconscious patient.

ANS: B Only the correct answer describes a scenario in which the sexual contact is consensual. Consensual sex is not considered rape if the participants are, at least, the age of majority.

22. An appropriate question for the nurse to ask to assess situational support is: a. "Has anything upsetting occurred in the past few days?" b. "Who can be helpful to you during this time?" c. "How does this problem affect your life?" d. "What led you to seek help at this time?"

ANS: B Only the correct answer focuses on situational support. The incorrect options focus on the patient's perception of the precipitating event.

1. Over the past year, a woman has cooked gourmet meals for her family but eats only tiny servings. She wears layered, loose clothing and now has amenorrhea. Her current weight is 95 pounds, a loss of 35 pounds. Which medical diagnosis is most likely? a. Binge eating disorder b. Anorexia nervosa c. Bulimia nervosa d. Pica

ANS: B Overly controlled eating behaviors, extreme weight loss, amenorrhea, preoccupation with food, and wearing several layers of loose clothing to appear larger are part of the clinical picture of an individual with anorexia nervosa. The individual with bulimia usually is near normal weight. The binge eater is often overweight. Pica refers to eating nonfood items.

25. Which treatment modality should a nurse recommend to help a patient diagnosed with somatic symptom disorder cope more effectively? a. Flooding b. Relaxation c. Response prevention d. Systematic desensitization

ANS: B Pain, a common complaint in patients diagnosed with somatic symptom disorder, increases when the patient has muscle tension. Relaxation can diminish the patients perceptions of the intensity of pain. The distractors are modalities useful in treating selected anxiety disorders.

20. A patient reports fears of having cervical cancer and says to the nurse, Ive had Pap smears by six different doctors. The results are normal, but Im sure thats because of errors in the laboratory. Which disorder would the nurse suspect? a. Functional neurologic (conversion) disorder b. Illness anxiety disorder (hypochondriasis) c. Body dysmorphic disorder d. Dissociative amnesia with fugue

ANS: B Patients with illness anxiety disorder (hypochondriasis) have fears of serious medical problems such as cancer or heart disease. These fears persist, despite medical evaluations, and interfere with daily functioning. No complaints of pain are made, and no evidence of dissociation or conversion exists. Body dysmorphic disorder involves a belief that ones appearance is flawed.

1. A medical-surgical nurse works with a patient diagnosed with a somatic system disorder. Care planning is facilitated by understanding that the patient will probably: a. readily seek psychiatric counseling. b. be resistant to accepting psychiatric help. c. attend psychotherapy sessions without encouragement. d. be eager to discover the true reasons for physical symptoms.

ANS: B Patients with somatic system disorders go from physician to physician trying to establish a physical cause for their symptoms. When a psychological basis is suggested and a referral for counseling is offered, these patients reject both.

20. An emergency department nurse realizes that the spouse of a patient is becoming increasingly irritable while waiting. Which intervention should the nurse use to prevent escalation of anger? a. Explain that the patient's condition is not life threatening. b. Periodically provide an update and progress report on the patient. c. Explain that all patients are treated in order, based on their medical needs. d. Suggest that the spouse return home until the patient's treatment is completed.

ANS: B Periodic updates reduce anxiety and defuse anger. This strategy acknowledges the spouse's presence and concerns. The incorrect options would be likely to increase anger because they imply that the anxiety is inappropriate.

14. Which situation demonstrates the use of primary care related to crisis intervention? a. Implementing suicide precautions for a patient with depression. b. Teaching stress reduction techniques to a beginning student nurse. c. Assessing coping strategies used by a patient who has attempted suicide. d. Referring a patient with schizophrenia to a partial hospitalization program.

ANS: B Primary crisis intervention promotes mental health and reduces mental illness. The incorrect options are examples of secondary or tertiary intervention.

2. A patient has blindness related to a functional neurological (conversion) disorder but is unconcerned about this problem. Which understanding should guide the nurses planning for this patient? The patient is: a. suppressing accurate feelings regarding the problem. b. relieving anxiety through the physical symptom. c. meeting needs through hospitalization. d. refusing to disclose genuine fears.

ANS: B Psychoanalytic theory suggests conversion reduces anxiety through the production of a physical symptom that is symbolically linked to an underlying conflict. Conversion, not suppression, is the operative defense mechanism in this disorder. The other distractors oversimplify the dynamics, suggesting that only dependency needs are of concern, or suggest conscious motivation (conversion operates unconsciously).

The treatment team believes medication will help a patient diagnosed with adult attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which class of medications does the nurse expect will be prescribed? a. Benzodiazepines b. Psychostimulants c. Antipsychotics d. Anxiolytics

ANS: B Psychostimulants, such as methylphenidate and amphetamines, provide the basis for treatment of both adult and childhood ADHD. They are the most commonly used medications; therefore the nurse could expect the health care provider to prescribe a drug in this class. None of the other drugs listed as options have proved useful in the treatment of ADHD.

24. A patient says, I know I have a brain tumor despite the results of the magnetic resonance image (MRI). The radiologist is wrong. People who have brain tumors vomit, and yesterday I vomited all day. Which response by the nurse fosters cognitive restructuring? a. You do not have a brain tumor. The more you talk about it, the more it reinforces your illogical thinking. b. Lets see whether any other explanations for your vomiting are possible. c. You seem so worried. Lets talk about how youre feeling. d. We should talk about something else.

ANS: B Questioning the evidence is a cognitive restructuring technique. Identifying causes other than the feared disease can be helpful in changing distorted perceptions. Distraction by changing the subject will not be effective.

A 74-year-old patient is regressed and apathetic. This patient responds to others only when they initiate the interaction. Which therapy would be most useful to promote resocialization? a. Life review b. Remotivation c. Group psychotherapy d. Individual psychotherapy

ANS: B Remotivation therapy is designed to resocialize patients who are regressed and apathetic by focusing on a single topic, creating a bridge to reality as group members talk about the world in which they live and work, and hobbies related to the topic. Group leaders give group members acceptance and appreciation.

1. Which changes in brain biochemical function is most associated with suicidal behavior? a. Dopamine excess b. Serotonin deficiency c. Acetylcholine excess d. Gamma-aminobutyric acid deficiency

ANS: B Research suggests that low levels of serotonin may play a role in the decision to commit suicide. The other neurotransmitter alterations have not been implicated in suicidal crises.

15. After treatment for a detached retina, a victim of domestic violence says, "My partner only abuses me when intoxicated. I've considered leaving, but I was brought up to believe you stay together, no matter what happens. I always get an apology, and I can tell my partner feels bad after hitting me." Which nursing diagnosis applies? a. Social isolation, related to lack of community support system b. Risk for injury, related to partner's physical abuse when intoxicated c. Deficient knowledge, related to resources for escape from the abusive relationship d. Disabled family coping, related to uneven distribution of power within a relationship

ANS: B Risk for injury is the priority diagnosis because the partner has already inflicted physical injury during violent episodes. The episodes are likely to become increasingly violent. Data are not present that show social isolation or disabled family coping, although both are common among victims of violence. Deficient knowledge does not apply to this patient's use of defense mechanisms.

16. A patient with a history of anger and impulsivity is hospitalized after an accident resulting in injuries. When in pain, the patient loudly scolds the nursing staff for "not knowing enough to give me pain medicine when I need it." Which nursing intervention would best address this problem? a. Tell the patient to notify nursing staff 30 minutes before the pain returns so the medication can be prepared. b. Urge the health care provider to change the prescription for pain medication from as needed to a regular schedule. c. Tell the patient that verbal assaults on nurses will not shorten the wait for pain medication. d. Have the clinical nurse leader request a psychiatric consultation.

ANS: B Scheduling the medication at specific intervals will help the patient anticipate when the medication can be given. Receiving the medication promptly on schedule, rather than expecting nurses to anticipate the pain level, should reduce anxiety and anger. The patient cannot predict the onset of pain before it occurs.

2. A patient with liver failure has been on the transplant waiting list for 8 months. The patient says to the nurse, "Why is it taking so long to have the surgery? Maybe I'm meant to die for all the bad things I've done." The nurse should document the patient's comment in which section of the assessment? a. Physical b. Spiritual c. Financial d. Psychological

ANS: B Stress can be evident in a person's spirituality. This patient's comment indicates questioning of one's place in the universe and consequences for wrongdoing, both of which are elements of spirituality. Stress can be related to psychologic, physical, or psychosocial well-being, but spirituality is the best answer.

4. Which rationale best explains why a nurse should be aware of personal feelings while working with a family experiencing family violence? a. Self-awareness protects one's own mental health. b. Strong negative feelings interfere with assessment and judgment. c. Strong positive feelings lead to underinvolvement with the victim. d. Positive feelings promote the development of sympathy for patients.

ANS: B Strong negative feelings cloud the nurse's judgment and interfere with assessment and intervention, no matter how well the nurse tries to cover or deny personal feelings. Strong positive feelings lead to overinvolvement with the victim.

12. Which intervention should a nurse recommend for the distressed family and friends of someone who has committed suicide? a. Participating in reminiscence therapy b. Attending a self-help group for survivors c. Contracting for two sessions of group therapy d. Completing a psychological postmortem assessment

ANS: B Survivors need outlets for their feelings about the loss and the deceased person. Self-help groups provide peer support while survivors work through feelings of loss, anger, and guilt. Psychological postmortem assessment would not provide the support necessary to work through feelings of loss associated with the suicide of a family member. Reminiscence therapy is not geared to loss resolution. Contracting for two sessions of group therapy would probably not provide sufficient time to work through the issues associated with a death by suicide.

9. A woman says, "I can't take it anymore! Last year my husband had an affair and now we don't communicate. Three months ago, I found a lump in my breast. Yesterday my daughter said she's quitting college." If this person's immediate family is unable to provide sufficient situational support, the nurse should: a. suggest hospitalization for a short period. b. ask what other relatives or friends are available for support. c. tell the patient, "You must be strong. Don't let this crisis overwhelm you." d. foster insight by relating the present situation to earlier situations involving loss.

ANS: B The assessment of situational supports should continue. Although the patient's nuclear family may not be supportive, other situational supports may be available. If they are adequate, admission to an inpatient unit will be unnecessary. Psychotherapy is not appropriate for crisis intervention. Advice is usually nontherapeutic.

A new staff nurse tells the clinical nurse specialist, "I'm unsure about my role when patients bring up sexual problems." Which information should the clinical nurse specialist provide? All nurses: a. qualify as sexual counselors. Each has knowledge about the biopsychosocial aspects of sexuality throughout the life cycle. b. should be able to screen for sexual dysfunction and give basic information about sexual feelings, behaviors, and myths. c. should defer questions about sex to other health care professionals because of their limited knowledge of sexuality. d. who are interested in sexual dysfunction can provide sex therapy for individuals and couples.

ANS: B The basic education of nurses provides information sufficient to qualify as a generalist to assess for sexual dysfunction and perform health teaching. Taking a detailed sexual history and providing sex therapy require additional training in sex education and counseling. Nurses with basic education are not qualified to be sexual counselors; additional education is necessary. The registered nurse may provide basic information about sexual function, but complex questions may require referral.

For patients diagnosed with severe and persistent mental illness, what is the major advantage of case management? A case manager can: a. modify traditional psychotherapy. b. efficiently access and use resources. c. focus on social skills training and self-esteem building. d. bring groups of patients together to discuss common problems.

ANS: B The case manager not only provides entrance into the system of care, but he or she also coordinates the multiple referrals that so often confuse the patient who is severely and persistently mentally ill and the patient's family. Case management promotes the efficient use of services. The other options are lesser advantages or may be irrelevant.

1. A nurse visits the home of an 11-year-old child and finds the child caring for three younger siblings. Both parents are at work. The child says, "I want to go to school but we can't afford a babysitter. It doesn't matter though; I'm too dumb to learn." What preliminary assessment is evident? a. Insufficient data are present to make an assessment. b. Child and siblings are experiencing neglect. c. Children are at high risk for sexual abuse. d. Children are experiencing physical abuse.

ANS: B The child is experiencing neglect when the parents take away the opportunity to attend school. The other children may also be experiencing physical neglect, but more data should be gathered before making the actual assessment. The information presented does not indicate a high risk for sexual abuse, and no concrete evidence of physical abuse is present.

6. A nurse's neighbor asks, "Why aren't people with mental illness kept in state institutions anymore?" What is the nurse's best response? a. "Many people are still in psychiatric institutions. Inpatient care is needed because many people who are mentally ill are violent." b. "Less restrictive settings are now available to care for individuals with mental illness." c. "Our nation has fewer persons with mental illness; therefore fewer hospital beds are needed." d. "Psychiatric institutions are no longer popular as a consequence of negative stories in the press."

ANS: B The community is a less restrictive alternative than hospitals for the treatment of people with mental illness. The remaining options are incorrect and part of the stigma of mental illness.

19. During the initial interview at the crisis center, a patient says, "I've been served with divorce papers. I'm so upset and anxious that I can't think clearly." What could the nurse say to assess personal coping skills? a. "What would you like us to do to help you feel more relaxed?" b. "In the past, how did you handle difficult or stressful situations?" c. "Do you think you deserve to have things like this happen to you?" d. "I can see you are upset. You can rely on us to help you feel better."

ANS: B The correct answer is the only option that assesses coping skills. The incorrect options offer unrealistic reassurance, are concerned with self-esteem, and ask the patient to decide on treatment at a time when he or she "cannot think clearly."

Which is the best comment for a nurse to use when beginning an interview with an older adult patient? a. "Hello, [call patient by first name]. I am going to ask you some questions to get to know you better." b. "Hello. My name is [nurse's name]. I am a nurse. Please tell me how you would like to be addressed by the staff." c. "I am going to ask you some questions about yourself. I would like to call you by your first name if you don't mind." d. "You look as though you are comfortable and ready to participate in an admission interview. Shall we get started?"

ANS: B The correct response identifies the nurse's role and politely seeks direction for addressing the patient in a way that will make him or her comfortable. This is particularly important when a considerable age difference exists between the nurse and the patient. The nurse should address a patient by name, but should not assume the patient wants to be called by his or her first name. The nurse should always introduce himself or herself.

10. An adult patient assaults another patient and is restrained. One hour later, which statement by this restrained patient necessitates the nurse's immediate attention? a. "I hate all of you!" b. "My fingers are tingly." c. "You wait until I tell my lawyer." d. "It was not my fault. The other patient started it."

ANS: B The correct response indicates impaired circulation and necessitates the nurse's immediate attention. The incorrect responses indicate that the patient has continued aggressiveness and agitation.

9. A soldier returns to the United States from active duty in a combat zone in Afghanistan. The soldier is diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which comment by the soldier requires the nurse's immediate attention? a. "It's good to be home. I missed my family and friends." b. "I saw my best friend get killed by a roadside bomb. It should have been me instead." c. "Sometimes I think I hear bombs exploding, but it's just the noise of traffic in my hometown." d. "I want to continue my education but I'm not sure how I will fit in with other college students."

ANS: B The correct response indicates the soldier is thinking about death and feeling survivor's guilt. These emotions may accompany suicidal ideation, which warrants the nurse's follow-up assessment. Suicide is a high risk among military personnel diagnosed with PTSD. One distracter indicates flashbacks, which is common with individuals with PTSD but is not solely indicative of further problems. The other distracters are normal emotions associated with returning home and change.

17. A patient in the long-term reorganization phase of the rape trauma syndrome has experienced intrusive thoughts of the rape and developed a fear of being alone. Which finding demonstrates the patient has made improvement? The patient: a. temporarily withdraws from social situations. b. plans coping strategies for fearful situations. c. uses increased activity to reduce fear. d. expresses a desire to be with others.

ANS: B The correct response shows a willingness and ability to take personal action to reduce the disabling fear. The incorrect responses demonstrate continued ineffective coping.

6. A person at the emergency department is diagnosed with a concussion. The individual is accompanied by a spouse who insists on staying in the room and answering all questions. The patient avoids eye contact and has a sad affect and slumped shoulders. Assessment of which additional problem has priority? a. Phobia of crowded places b. Risk of domestic abuse c. Migraine headaches d. Major depression

ANS: B The diagnosis of a concussion suggests violence as a cause. The patient is exhibiting indicators of abuse including fearfulness, depressed affect, poor eye contact, and a possessive spouse. The patient may be also experiencing depression, anxiety, and migraine headaches, but the nurse's advocacy role necessitates an assessment for domestic violence.

20. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia believes evil spirits are being summoned by a local minister and verbally threatens to bomb a local church. The psychiatrist notifies the minister. The psychiatrist has: a. released information without proper authorization. b. demonstrated the duty to warn and protect. c. violated the patient's confidentiality. d. avoided charges of malpractice.

ANS: B The duty of a health care professional is to warn or notify an intended victim after a threat of harm has been made. Informing a potential victim of a threat is a legal responsibility of the health care professional and not considered a violation of confidentiality.

A patient diagnosed with severe and persistent mental illness lives independently. This patient has command hallucinations and shouts warnings to neighbors. After a short hospitalization, the patient is prohibited from returning to the apartment. The landlord says, "You can't come back here. You cause too much trouble." What problem is the patient experiencing? a. Grief b. Stigma c. Recidivism d. Lack of insurance parity

ANS: B The inability to obtain shelter because of negative attitudes about mental illness is an example of stigma. Stigma is defined as damage to reputation, shame, and ridicule society places on mental illness. Data are not present to identify grief as the patient's problem. Recidivism refers to repetition of a previous offense. Insurance parity is not relevant to this scenario.

7. An adolescent tells the school nurse, "My friend threatened to take an overdose of pills." The nurse talks to the friend who verbalized the suicide threat. The most critical question for the nurse to ask would be: a. "Why do you want to kill yourself?" b. "Do you have access to medications?" c. "Have you been taking drugs and alcohol?" d. "Did something happen with your parents?"

ANS: B The nurse must assess the patient's access to the means to carry out the plan and, if there is access, alert the parents to remove them from the home. The other questions may be important to ask but are not the most critical.

20. A patient with severe depression states, "God is punishing me for my past sins." What is the nurse's best response? a. "Why do you think that?" b. "You sound very upset about this." c. "You believe God is punishing you for your sins?" d. "If you feel this way, you should talk to a member of your clergy."

ANS: B The nurse reflects on the patient's comment, a therapeutic technique to encourage sharing for perceptions and feelings. The incorrect responses reflect probing, closed-ended comments, and giving advice, all of which are nontherapeutic.

An 80-year-old patient has difficulty walking because of arthritis and says, "It's awful to be old. Every day is a struggle. No one cares about old people." Which is the nurse's most therapeutic response? a. "Everyone here cares about old people. That's why we work here." b. "It sounds like you're having a difficult time. Tell me about it." c. "Let's not focus on the negative. Tell me something good." d. "You are still able to get around, and your mind is alert."

ANS: B The nurse uses empathic understanding to permit the patient to express frustration and clarify the "struggle" for the nurse. The other options are nontherapeutic and block communication.

13. Which communication technique is used more in crisis intervention than traditional counseling? a. Role modeling b. Giving direction c. Information giving d. Empathic listening

ANS: B The nurse working in crisis intervention must be creative and flexible in looking at the patient's situation and suggesting possible solutions to the patient. Giving direction is part of the active role a crisis intervention therapist takes. The other options are used equally in crisis intervention and traditional counseling roles.

7. Which nursing intervention has priority as a patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa begins to gain weight? a. Assess for depression and anxiety. b. Observe for adverse effects of re-feeding. c. Communicate empathy for the patients feelings. d. Help the patient balance energy expenditure and caloric intake.

ANS: B The nursing intervention of observing for adverse effects of re-feeding most directly relates to weight gain and is a priority. Assessing for depression and anxiety and communicating empathy relate to coping. Helping the patient balance energy expenditure and caloric intake is an inappropriate intervention.

In a sad voice, a patient tells the nurse of the recent deaths of a spouse of 50 years as well as an adult child in an automobile accident. The patient has no other family and only a few friends in the community. What is the priority nursing diagnosis? a. Spiritual distress, related to being angry with God for taking the family b. Risk for suicide, related to recent deaths of significant others c. Anxiety, related to sudden and abrupt lifestyle changes d. Social isolation, related to loss of existing family

ANS: B The patient appears to be experiencing normal grief related to the loss of the family; however, because of age and social isolation, the risk for suicide should be determined and has high priority. No defining characteristics exist for the diagnosis of anxiety or spiritual distress. Risk for suicide is a higher priority than social isolation.

23. An adult comes to the crisis clinic after being terminated from a job of 15 years. The patient says, "I don't know what to do. How can I get another job? Who will pay the bills? How will I feed my family?" Which nursing diagnosis applies? a. Hopelessness b. Powerlessness c. Chronic low self-esteem d. Disturbed thought processes

ANS: B The patient describes feelings of the lack of control over life events. No direct mention is made of hopelessness or chronic low self-esteem. The patient's thought processes are not shown to be altered at this point.

A 79-year-old white man tells a visiting nurse, "I've been feeling down lately. My family and friends are all dead. My money is running out, and my health is failing." The nurse should analyze this comment as: a. normal negativity of older adults. b. evidence of suicide risk. c. a cry for sympathy. d. normal grieving.

ANS: B The patient describes the loss of significant others, economic insecurity, and declining health. He describes mood alteration and expresses the thought that he has little to live for. Combined with his age, sex, and single status, each is a risk factor for suicide. Older adult white men have the highest risk for completed suicide.

3. A patient has blindness related to a functional neurological (conversion) disorder. To help the patient eat, the nurse should: a. establish a buddy system with other patients who can feed the patient at each meal. b. expect the patient to feed himself or herself after explaining the arrangement of the food on the tray. c. direct the patient to locate items on the tray independently and feed himself or herself unassisted. d. address the needs of other patients in the dining room, and then feed this patient.

ANS: B The patient is expected to maintain some level of independence by feeding himself or herself, whereas the nurse is supportive in a matter-of-fact way. The distractors support dependency or offer little support.

4. A patient with blindness related to a functional neurological (conversion) disorder says, All the doctors and nurses in this hospital stop by often to check on me. Too bad people outside the hospital dont find me interesting. Which nursing diagnosis is most relevant? a. Social isolation b. Chronic low self-esteem c. Interrupted family processes d. Ineffective health maintenance

ANS: B The patient mentions that the symptoms make people more interested, which indicates that the patient believes he or she is uninteresting and unpopular without the symptoms, thus supporting the nursing diagnosis of Chronic low self-esteem. Defining characteristics for the other nursing diagnoses are not present in this scenario.

9. A patient diagnosed with a somatic symptom disorder has the nursing diagnosis: Interrupted family processes, related to patients disabling symptoms as evidenced by the spouse and children assuming roles and tasks that previously belonged to patient. An appropriate outcome is that the patient will: a. assume roles and functions of the other family members. b. demonstrate a resumption of former roles and tasks. c. focus energy on problems occurring in the family. d. rely on family members to meet his or her personal needs.

ANS: B The patient with a somatic symptom disorder has typically adopted a sick role in the family, characterized by dependence. Increasing independence and the resumption of former roles are necessary to change this pattern. The distractors are inappropriate outcomes.

20. An older adult with dementia lives with family and attends day care. After observing poor hygiene, the nurse at the center talks with the patient's adult child. This caregiver becomes defensive and says, "It takes all my time and energy to care for my mother. She's awake all night. I never get any sleep." Which nursing intervention has priority? a. Teach the caregiver more about the effects of dementia. b. Secure additional resources for the mother's evening and night care. c. Support the caregiver to grieve the loss of the mother's ability to function. d. Teach the family how to give physical care more effectively and efficiently.

ANS: B The patient's child and family were coping with care until the patient began to stay awake at night. The family needs assistance with evening and night care to resume their precrisis state of functioning. Secondary prevention calls for the nurse to mobilize community resources to relieve overwhelming stress. The other interventions may then be accomplished.

13. A patient being admitted suddenly pulls a knife from a coat pocket and threatens, "I will kill anyone who tries to get near me." An emergency code is called. The patient is safely disarmed and placed in seclusion. Justification for the use of seclusion is that the patient: a. evidences a thought disorder, rendering rational discussion ineffective. b. presents a clear and present danger to others. c. presents a clear escape risk. d. is psychotic.

ANS: B The patient's threat to kill self or others with the knife he possesses constitutes a clear and present danger to self and others. The distracters are not sufficient reasons for seclusion.

10. During the first interview with a parent whose child died in a car accident, the nurse feels empathic and reaches out to take the patient's hand. Select the correct analysis of the nurse's behavior. a. It shows empathy and compassion. It will encourage the patient to continue to express feelings. b. The gesture is premature. The patient's cultural and individual interpretation of touch is unknown. c. The patient will perceive the gesture as intrusive and overstepping boundaries. d. The action is inappropriate. Patients in a psychiatric setting should not be touched.

ANS: B Touch has various cultural and individual interpretations. Nurses should refrain from using touch until an assessment can be made regarding the way in which the patient will perceive touch. The other options present prematurely drawn conclusions.

What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with antisocial personality disorder who has made threats against staff, ripped art off the walls, and thrown objects? a. Disturbed sensory perception-auditory b. Risk for other-directed violence c. Ineffective denial d. Ineffective coping

ANS: B Violence against property, along with threats to harm staff, makes this diagnosis the priority. Patients with antisocial personality disorders rarely have psychotic symptoms. When patients with antisocial personality disorders use denial, they use it effectively. Although ineffective coping applies, the risk for violence is a higher priority.

19. The relationship between a nurse and patient as it relates to status and power is best described by which term? a. Symmetric b. Complementary c. Incongruent d. Paralinguistic

ANS: B When a difference in power exists, as between a student and teacher or between a nurse and patient, the relationship is said to be complementary. Symmetrical relationships exist between individuals of like or equal status. Incongruent and paralinguistic are not terms used to describe relationships.

23. A patient with burn injuries has had good coping skills for several weeks. Today, a newly assigned nurse is poorly organized. The patient's usual schedule was not followed. By mid-afternoon, the patient is angry and loudly complains to the nurse manager. Which is the nurse manager's best response? a. Explain the reasons for the disorganization, and take over the patient's care for the rest of the shift. b. Acknowledge and validate the patient's distress and ask, "What would you like to have happen?" c. Apologize and explain that the patient will have to accept the situation for the rest of the shift. d. Ask the patient to control the anger and explain that allowances must be made for new staff members.

ANS: B When a patient with good coping skills is angry and overwhelmed, the goal is to reestablish a means of dealing with the situation. The nurse should solve the problem with the patient by acknowledging the patient's feelings, validating them as understandable, apologizing as necessary, and then seeking an acceptable solution. Often patients can tell the nurse what they would like to have happen as a reasonable first step.

A patient with borderline personality disorder has self-inflicted wrist lacerations. The health care provider prescribes daily dressing changes. The nurse performing this care should: a. encourage the patient to express anger. b. provide care in a matter-of-fact manner. c. be very kind, sympathetic, and concerned. d. offer to listen to the patient's feelings about cutting.

ANS: B A matter-of-fact approach does not provide the patient with positive reinforcement for self-mutilation. The goal of providing emotional consistency is supported by this approach. All other options provide positive reinforcement of the behavior.

Which commonality would be most applicable to the patient with a personality disorder? The patient: a. demonstrates behaviors that cause distress to self rather than to others. b. has self-esteem issues, despite his or her outward presentation. c. usually becomes psychotic when exposed to stress. d. does not experience real distress from symptoms.

ANS: B Self-esteem issues are present, despite patterns of withdrawal, grandiosity, suspiciousness, or unconcern. They seem to relate to early life experiences and are reinforced through unsuccessful experiences in loving and working. Personality disorders involve lifelong, inflexible, dysfunctional, and deviant patterns of behavior that cause distress to others and, in some cases, to self. Patients with personality disorders may experience very real anxiety and distress when stress levels rise. Some individuals with personality disorders, but not all, may decompensate and show psychotic behaviors under stress.

A nurse set limits for a patient with a borderline personality disorder. The patient tells the nurse, "You used to care about me. I thought you were wonderful. Now I can see I was mistaken. You're terrible." This outburst can be assessed as: a. denial. b. splitting. c. reaction formation. d. separation-individuation strategies.

ANS: B Splitting involves loving a person and then hating the person; the patient is unable to recognize that an individual can have both positive and negative qualities. Denial is an unconscious motivated refusal to believe something. Reaction formation involves unconsciously doing the opposite of a forbidden impulse. Separation-individuation strategies refer to childhood behaviors related to developing independence from the caregiver.

A nurse in the emergency department tells an adult, "Your mother had a severe stroke." The adult tearfully says, "Who will take care of me now? My mother always told me what to do, what to wear, and what to eat. I need someone to reassure me when I get anxious." Which term best describes this behavior? a. Histrionic b. Dependent c. Narcissistic d. Borderline

ANS: B The main characteristic of the dependent personality is a pervasive need to be taken care of that leads to submissive behaviors and a fear of separation. Histrionic behavior is characterized by flamboyance, attention seeking, and seductiveness. Narcissistic behavior is characterized by grandiosity and exploitive behavior. Patients with borderline personality disorder demonstrate separation anxiety, impulsivity, and splitting.

An older patient drinks a six-pack of beer daily. The patient tells the community health nurse, "I've been having trouble with my arthritis lately, so I take acetaminophen four times a day for pain." What are the nurse's priority interventions? Select all that apply. a. Inquiring about sleep disturbances caused by mixing alcohol and analgesic medications. b. Determining the safety of the daily acetaminophen dose the patient is ingesting. c. Advising the patient of harmful effects of alcohol and acetaminophen on the liver. d. Suggesting an increase in the acetaminophen dose because alcohol causes faster excretion. e. Assessing the patient for declining functional status associated with medication-induced dementia.

ANS: B, C The nurse should be concerned with the patient's use of alcohol and acetaminophen because the toxicity of acetaminophen is enhanced by alcohol and by the age-related decrease in clearance. The nurse must determine whether the acetaminophen dose is within safe limits or is excessive and provide this information to the patient. Next, the nurse must provide health education regarding the danger of combined use of acetaminophen and alcohol. The patient will need to discontinue or reduce alcohol intake. Another analgesic with less hepatotoxicity could be used. Additional acetaminophen would cause greater liver damage. The scenario does not suggest dementia.

Which beliefs facilitate provision of safe, effective care for older adult patients? Select all that apply. a. Sexual interest declines with aging. b. Older adults are able to learn new tasks. c. Aging results in a decline in restorative sleep. d. Older adults are prone to become crime victims. e. Older adults are usually lonely and socially isolated.

ANS: B, C, D Myths about aging are common and can negatively impact the quality of care older patients receive. Older individuals are more prone to become crime victims. A decline in restorative sleep occurs as one ages. Learning continues long into life. These factors affect care delivery.

1. A patient cries as the nurse explores the patient's relationship with a deceased parent. The patient says, "I shouldn't be crying like this. It happened a long time ago." Which responses by the nurse will facilitate communication? Select all that apply. a. "Why do you think you are so upset?" b. "I can see that you feel sad about this situation." c. "The loss of your parent is very painful for you." d. "Crying is a way of expressing the hurt you're experiencing." e. "Let's talk about something else because this subject is upsetting you."

ANS: B, C, D Reflecting ("I can see that you feel sad" or "This is very painful for you") and giving information ("Crying is a way of expressing hurt") are therapeutic techniques. "Why" questions often imply criticism or seem intrusive or judgmental, and they are difficult to answer. Changing the subject is a barrier to communication.

A nurse assessing an older adult patient for depression should include questions about mood as well as which other symptoms? Select all that apply. a. Increased appetite b. Sleep pattern changes c. Anhedonia and anergia d. Increased social isolation e. Increased concern with bodily functions

ANS: B, C, D, E These symptoms are often noted in older adult patients experiencing depression. Somatic symptoms are often present but are missed by nurses as being related to depression. Anorexia, rather than hyperphagia, is observed in major depressive disorder. Low self-esteem is more often associated with major depressive disorder.

4. After assessing a victim of sexual assault, which terms could the nurse use in the documentation? Select all that apply. a. Alleged b. Reported c. Penetration d. Intercourse e. Refused f. Declined

ANS: B, C, F The nurse should refrain from using pejorative language when documenting assessments of victims of sexual assault. "Reported" should be used instead of "alleged." "Penetration" should be used instead of "intercourse." "Declined" should be used instead of "refused."

A nurse plans the care for an individual diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder. Which characteristic behaviors will the nurse expect? Select all that apply. a. Reclusive behavior b. Callous attitude c. Perfectionism d. Aggression e. Clinginess f. Anxiety

ANS: B, D Individuals with antisocial personality disorders characteristically demonstrate manipulative, exploitative, aggressive, callous, and guilt-instilling behaviors. Individuals with antisocial personality disorders are more extroverted than reclusive, rarely show anxiety, and rarely demonstrate clinging or dependent behaviors. Individuals with antisocial personality disorders are more likely to be impulsive than to be perfectionists.

3. Which activities are in the scope of practice of a sexual assault nurse examiner? Select all that apply. a. Requiring HIV testing of a victim b. Collecting and preserving evidence c. Providing long-term counseling for rape victims d. Obtaining signed consents for photographs and examinations e. Providing pregnancy and sexually transmitted disease prophylaxis

ANS: B, D, E HIV testing is not mandatory for a victim of sexual assault. Long-term counseling would be provided by other members of the team. The other activities would be included within this practice role.

1. A patient undergoing alcohol rehabilitation decides to accept disulfiram (Antabuse) therapy to avoid impulsively responding to drinking cues. Which information should be included in the discharge teaching for this patient? Select all that apply. a. Avoid aged cheeses. b. Read labels of all liquid medications. c. Wear sunscreen and avoid bright sunlight. d. Maintain an adequate dietary intake of sodium. e. Avoid breathing fumes of paints, stains, and stripping compounds.

ANS: B, E The patient must avoid hidden sources of alcohol. Many liquid medications, such as cough syrups, contain small amounts of alcohol that could trigger an alcohol-disulfiram reaction. Using alcohol-based skin products such as aftershave or cologne; smelling alcohol-laden fumes; and eating foods prepared with wine, brandy, beer, or spirits of any sort may also trigger reactions. The other options do not relate to hidden sources of alcohol.

As a nurse prepares to administer a medication to a patient with a borderline personality disorder, the patient says, "Just leave it on the table. I'll take it when I finish combing my hair." What is the nurse's best response? a. Reinforce this assertive action by the patient. Leave the medication on the table as requested. b. Respond to the patient, "I'm worried that you might not take it. I'll come back later." c. Say to the patient, "I must watch you take the medication. Please take it now." d. Ask the patient, "Why don't you want to take your medication now?"

ANS: C The individual with a borderline personality disorder characteristically demonstrates manipulative, splitting, and self-destructive behaviors. Consistent limit setting is vital for the patient's safety, as well as to prevent splitting other staff members. "Why" questions are not therapeutic.

35. A patient is admitted in a comatose state after ingesting 30 capsules of pentobarbital sodium. A friend of the patient says, "Often my friend drinks, along with taking more of the drug than is prescribed." What is the effect of the use of alcohol with this drug? a. The drug's metabolism is stimulated. b. The drug's effect is diminished. c. A synergistic effect occurs. d. There is no effect.

ANS: C Both pentobarbital and alcohol are CNS depressants and have synergistic effects. Taken together, the action of each would potentiate the other.

30. A newly hospitalized patient has needle tracks on both arms. A friend states that the patient uses heroin daily but has not used in the past 24 hours. The nurse should assess the patient for: a. slurred speech, excessive drowsiness, and bradycardia. b. paranoid delusions, tactile hallucinations, and panic. c. runny nose, yawning, insomnia, and chills. d. anxiety, agitation, and aggression.

ANS: C Early signs and symptoms of narcotic withdrawal resemble symptoms of onset of a flulike illness, but without temperature elevation. The incorrect options reflect signs of intoxication or CNS depressant overdose and CNS stimulant or hallucinogen use.

11. A patient visiting the crisis clinic for the first time asks, "How long will I be coming here?" The nurse's reply should consider that the usual duration of crisis intervention is _____________ weeks. a. 1 to 2 b. 3 to 4 c. 4 to 6 d. 6 to 12

ANS: C The disorganization associated with crisis is so distressing that it usually cannot be tolerated for more than 4 to 6 weeks. If the crisis is not resolved by that time, the individual usually adopts dysfunctional behaviors that reduce anxiety without solving the problem. Crisis intervention can shorten the duration.

4. A patient was admitted 48 hours ago for injuries sustained while intoxicated. The patient is shaky, irritable, anxious, and diaphoretic. The pulse rate is 130 beats per minute. The patient shouts, "Snakes are crawling on my bed. I've got to get out of here." What is the most accurate assessment of the situation? The patient: a. is attempting to obtain attention by manipulating staff. b. may have sustained a head injury before admission. c. has symptoms of alcohol withdrawal delirium. d. is having a recurrence of an acute psychosis.

ANS: C Symptoms of agitation, elevated pulse, and perceptual distortions point to alcohol withdrawal delirium, a medical emergency. The findings are inconsistent with manipulative attempts, head injury, or functional psychosis.

19. A patient who was admitted for a heroin overdose received naloxone (Narcan), which improved the breathing pattern. Two hours later, the patient reports muscle aches, abdominal cramps, gooseflesh and says, "I feel terrible." Which analysis is correct? a. The patient is exhibiting a prodromal symptom of seizures. b. An idiosyncratic reaction to naloxone is occurring. c. Symptoms of opiate withdrawal are present. d. The patient is experiencing a relapse.

ANS: C The symptoms given in the question are consistent with narcotic withdrawal and result from administration of naloxone. Early symptoms of narcotic withdrawal are flulike in nature. Seizures are more commonly observed in alcohol withdrawal syndrome.

27. Which assessment findings best correlate to the withdrawal from central nervous system depressants? a. Dilated pupils, tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, elation b. Labile mood, lack of coordination, fever, drowsiness c. Nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis, anxiety, tremors d. Excessive eating, constipation, headache

ANS: C The symptoms of withdrawal from various CNS depressants are similar. Generalized seizures are possible.

7. A hospitalized patient, injured in a fall while intoxicated, believes spiders are spinning entrapping webs in the room. The patient is anxious, agitated, and diaphoretic. Which nursing intervention has priority? a. Check the patient every 15 minutes. b. Rigorously encourage fluid intake. c. Provide one-on-one supervision. d. Keep the room dimly lit.

ANS: C This patient is experiencing alcohol withdrawal delirium. One-on-one supervision is necessary to promote physical safety until sedation reduces the patient's feelings of terror. Checks every 15 minutes would not be sufficient to provide for safety. A dimly lit room promotes illusions. Oral fluids are important, but safety is a higher priority.

6. A patient admitted yesterday for injuries sustained while intoxicated believes the window blinds are snakes trying to get into the room. The patient is anxious, agitated, and diaphoretic. Which medication can the nurse anticipate the health care provider will prescribe? a. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor, such as phenelzine (Nardil) b. Phenothiazine, such as thioridazine (Mellaril) c. Benzodiazepine, such as lorazepam (Ativan) d. Narcotic analgesic, such as morphine

ANS: C This patient is experiencing alcohol withdrawal delirium. Sedation allows for the safe withdrawal from alcohol. Benzodiazepines are the drugs of choice in most regions because of their high therapeutic safety index and anticonvulsant properties. Antidepressant, antipsychotic, and opioid medications will not relieve the patient's symptoms.

A nurse and social worker co-lead a reminiscence group for eight "young-old" adults. Which activity is most appropriate to include in the group? a. Singing a song from World War II b. Learning how to join an online social network c. Discussing national leadership during the Vietnam War d. Identifying the most troubling story in today's newspaper

ANS: C "Young-old" adults are persons 65 to 74 years of age. These adults were attuned to conflicts in national leadership associated with the Vietnam War. Reminiscence groups share memories of the past. Learning how to join a social network would not be an aspect of reminiscence. Singing a song from World War II is more appropriate for an elite old reminiscence group. The other incorrect option is less relevant to this age group.

When a patient with a personality disorder uses manipulation to get his or her needs met, the staff decides to apply limit-setting interventions. What is the correct rationale for this action? a. It provides an outlet for feelings of anger and frustration. b. It respects the patient's wishes so assertiveness will develop. c. External controls are necessary while internal controls are developed. d. Anxiety is reduced when staff members assume responsibility for the patient's behavior.

ANS: C A lack of internal controls leads to manipulative behaviors such as lying, cheating, conning, and flattering. To protect the rights of others, external controls must be consistently maintained until the patient is able to behave appropriately.

8. A rape victim tells the nurse, "I should not have been out on the street alone." Which is the nurse's most therapeutic response? a. "Rape can happen anywhere." b. "Blaming yourself only increases your anxiety and discomfort." c. "You believe this would not have happened if you had not been alone?" d. "You are right. You should not have been alone on the street at night."

ANS: C A reflective communication technique is helpful. Looking at one's role in the event serves to explain events that the victim would otherwise find incomprehensible. The incorrect options discount the victim's perceived role and interfere with further discussion.

7. A woman says, "I can't take it anymore! Last year my husband had an affair and now we don't communicate. Three months ago, I found a lump in my breast. Yesterday my daughter said she's quitting college." What type of crisis is this person experiencing? a. Maturational b. Adventitious c. Situational d. Recurring

ANS: C A situational crisis arises from an external source and involves a loss of self-concept or self-esteem. An adventitious crisis is a crisis of disaster, such as a natural disaster or crime of violence. Maturational crisis occurs as an individual arrives at a new stage of development, when old coping styles may be ineffective. No classification of recurring crisis exists.

3. A patient who is referred to the eating disorders clinic has lost 35 pounds in the past 3 months. To assess the patients oral intake, the nurse should ask: a. Do you often feel fat? b. Who plans the family meals? c. What do you eat in a typical day? d. What do you think about your present weight?

ANS: C Although all the questions might be appropriate to ask, only What do you eat in a typical day? focuses on the eating patterns. Asking if the patient often feels fat focuses on distortions in body image. Questions about family meal planning are unrelated to eating patterns. Asking for the patients thoughts on present weight explores the patients feelings about weight.

18. A patient with severe injuries is irritable, angry, and belittles the nurses. As a nurse changes a dressing, the patient screams, "Don't touch me! You are so stupid. You will make it worse!" Which intervention uses a cognitive technique to help the patient? a. Wordlessly discontinue the dressing change, and then leave the room. b. Stop the dressing change, saying, "Perhaps you would like to change your own dressing." c. Continue the dressing change, saying, "Do you know this dressing change is needed so your wound will not get infected?" d. Continue the dressing change, saying, "Unfortunately, you have no choice in this because your doctor ordered this dressing change."

ANS: C Anger is cognitively driven. The correct answer helps the patient test his cognitions and may help lower his anger. The incorrect options will escalate the patient's anger by belittling or escalating the patient's sense of powerlessness.

6. A patient discloses several concerns and associated feelings. If the nurse wants to seek clarification, which comment would be appropriate? a. "What are the common elements here?" b. "Tell me again about your experiences." c. "Am I correct in understanding that?8??" d. "Tell me everything from the beginning."

ANS: C Asking, "Am I correct in understanding that...?" permits clarification to ensure that both the nurse and patient share mutual understanding of the communication. Asking about common elements encourages comparison rather than clarification. The remaining responses are implied questions that suggest the nurse was not listening.

22. Which referral is most appropriate for a woman who is severely beaten by her husband, has no relatives or friends in the community, is afraid to return home, and has limited financial resources? a. Support group b. Law enforcement c. Women's shelter d. Vocational counseling

ANS: C Because the woman has no safe place to go, referral to a shelter is necessary. The shelter will provide other referrals as necessary.

10. A woman wears a size 7 shoe. She says, My feet are huge. Ive asked three orthopedists to surgically reduce my feet. The patient tries to buy shoes to make her feet look smaller and, in social settings, conceals both feet under a table or chair. Which health problem is likely? a. Dissociative amnesia with fugue b. Illness anxiety disorder c. Body dysmorphic disorder d. Dissociative identity disorder

ANS: C Body dysmorphic disorder refers to a preoccupation with an imagined defect in appearance in a normal-appearing person. The patients feet are proportional to the rest of her body. Dissociative amnesia with fugue is characterized by sudden, unexpected travel away from the customary locale and the inability to recall ones identity and information about some or all of the past. Illness anxiety disorder involves a belief that one has a serious, life-threatening illness when none exists. Dissociative identity disorder involves the existence of two or more personality states that take control of ones behavior.

When making a distinction as to whether a patient is experiencing confusion related to depression or dementia, what information would be most important for the nurse to consider? a. The patient with dementia is persistently angry and hostile. b. Early morning agitation and hyperactivity occur in dementia. c. Confusion seems to worsen at night when dementia is present. d. A patient who is depressed is constantly preoccupied with somatic symptoms.

ANS: C Both dementia and depression in older adults may produce symptoms of confusion. Noting whether the confusion seems to increase at night, which occurs more often with dementia than with depression, will help distinguish whether depression or dementia is producing the confused behavior. The other options are not necessarily true.

7. A patient tells the nurse, "I don't think I will ever get out of here." Select the nurse's most therapeutic response. a. "Don't talk that way. Of course you will leave here!" b. "Keep up the good work and you certainly will." c. "You don't think you're making progress?" d. "Everyone feels that way sometimes."

ANS: C By asking if the patient does not believe that progress has been made, the nurse is reflecting by putting into words what the patient is hinting. By making communication more explicit, issues are easier to identify and resolve. The remaining options are nontherapeutic techniques. Telling the patient not to "talk that way" is disapproving. Saying that everyone feels that way at times minimizes feelings. Telling the patient that good work will always result in success is falsely reassuring.

4. A confused older adult patient in a skilled care facility is in bed sleeping. The nurse enters the room quietly and touches the bed to see if it is wet. The patient awakens and hits the nurse in the face. Which statement best explains the patient's action? a. Older adult patients often demonstrate exaggerations of behaviors used earlier in life. b. Crowding in skilled care facilities increases individual tendencies toward violence. c. The patient interpreted the health care worker's behavior as potentially harmful. d. This patient learned violent behavior by watching other patients act out.

ANS: C Confused patients are not always able to evaluate accurately the actions of others. This patient behaved as though provoked by the intrusive actions of the staff member.

27. A patient diagnosed with somatic symptom disorder has been in treatment for 4 weeks. The patient says, Although Im still having pain, I notice it less and am able to perform more activities. The nurse should evaluate the treatment plan as: a. unsuccessful. b. minimally successful. c. partially successful. d. totally achieved.

ANS: C Decreased preoccupation with symptoms and an increased ability to perform activities of daily living suggest partial success of the treatment plan. Total success is rare because of patient resistance.

10. A tearful, anxious patient at the outpatient clinic reports, "I should be dead." The initial task of the nurse conducting the assessment interview is to: a. assess the lethality of a suicide plan. b. encourage expression of anger. c. establish a rapport with the patient. d. determine risk factors for suicide.

ANS: C Establishing rapport will allow the nurse to obtain relevant assessment data such as the presence of a suicide plan, the lethality of a suicide plan, and the presence of risk factors for suicide.

2. An 11-year-old child is absent from school to care for siblings while the parents work. The family cannot afford a babysitter. When asked about the parents, the child reluctantly says, "My parents don't like me. They call me stupid and say I never do anything right." Which type of abuse is likely? a. Sexual b. Physical c. Emotional d. Economic

ANS: C Examples of emotional abuse include having an adult demean a child's worth or frequently criticize or belittle a child. No data support physical battering or endangerment, sexual abuse, or economic abuse.

An adult has been feeling significant tension since losing a home through foreclosure. This person goes to a park, feeds the birds, and then impulsively exposes himself to a group of parents and children. Which term applies to this behavior? a. Voyeurism b. Frotteurism c. Exhibitionism d. Sexual masochism

ANS: C Exhibitionism is obtaining sexual pleasure from exposing one's genitalia to unsuspecting strangers. Voyeurism refers to obtaining sexual pleasure from observing people who are naked. Frotteurism is associated with obtaining sexual arousal by rubbing one's genitals against an unsuspecting person. Sexual masochism refers to deriving sexual pleasure from being humiliated, beaten, or otherwise made to suffer.

The father of a child diagnosed with schizophrenia says, "I lost my job, so we have no health insurance." The mother says, "I must watch this child all the time. Without supervision, our child becomes violent and destroys furniture." The sibling says, "My parents don't pay very much attention to me." These comments signify: a. life-cycle stressors. b. psychobiologic issues. c. family burden of mental illness. d. stigma associated with mental illness.

ANS: C Family burden refers to the meaning that the experience of living with a person who is mentally ill has for families. The stressors mentioned are not related to live-cycle issues. The stressors described are psychosocial. Stigma refers to shame and ridicule associated with mental illness.

Which characteristic of individuals with personality disorders makes it most necessary for staff to schedule frequent meetings? a. Ability to achieve true intimacy b. Flexibility and adaptability to stress c. Ability to evoke interpersonal conflict d. Inability to develop trusting relationships

ANS: C Frequent team meetings are held to counteract the effects of the patient's attempts to split staff and set them against one another, causing interpersonal conflict. Patients with personality disorders are inflexible and demonstrate maladaptive responses to stress. They are usually unable to develop true intimacy with others and are unable to develop trusting relationships. Although problems with trust may exist, it is not the characteristic that requires frequent staff meetings.

2. A college student failed two tests. Afterward, the student cried for hours and then tried to telephone a parent but got no answer. The student then gave several expensive sweaters to a roommate. Which behavior provides the strongest clue of an impending suicide attempt? a. Calling parents b. Excessive crying c. Giving away sweaters d. Staying alone in a dorm room

ANS: C Giving away prized possessions may signal that the individual thinks he or she will have no further need for the items, such as when a suicide plan has been formulated. Calling parents and crying do not provide clues to suicide, in and of themselves. Remaining in the dormitory would be an expected behavior because the student has nowhere else to go.

16. While providing health teaching for a patient diagnosed with bulimia nervosa, a nurse should emphasize information about: a. self-monitoring of daily food and fluid intake. b. establishing the desired daily weight gain. c. recognizing symptoms of hypokalemia. d. self-esteem maintenance.

ANS: C Hypokalemia results from potassium loss associated with vomiting. Physiologic integrity can be maintained if the patient can self-diagnose potassium deficiency and adjust the diet or seek medical assistance. Self-monitoring of daily food and fluid intake is not useful if the patient purges. Daily weight gain may not be desirable for a patient with bulimia nervosa. Self-esteem is an identifiable problem but is of lesser priority than the risk for hypokalemia.

17. When assessing a patient's plan for suicide, what aspect has priority? a. Patient's financial and educational status b. Patient's insight into suicidal motivation c. Availability of means and lethality of method d. Quality and availability of patient's social support

ANS: C If a person has definite plans that include choosing a method of suicide readily available, and if the method is one that is lethal (i.e., will cause the person to die with little probability for intervention), the suicide risk is considered high. These areas provide a better indication of risk than the areas mentioned in the other options.

6. A patient who fears serious heart disease was referred to the mental health center by a cardiologist after diagnostic evaluation showed no physical illness. The patient says, My heart misses beats. Im frequently absent from work. I dont go out much because I need to rest. Which health problem is most likely? a. Body dysmorphic disorder b. Antisocial personality disorder c. Illness anxiety disorder (hypochondriasis) d. Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)

ANS: C Illness anxiety disorder (hypochondriasis) involves a preoccupation with fears of having a serious disease, even when evidence to the contrary is available. The preoccupation causes impairment in social or occupational functioning. Body dysmorphic disorder involves a preoccupation with ones perceived defective body parts or appearance. Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) is a disorder of lowered mood. Antisocial disorder applies to a personality disorder in which the individual has little regard for the rights of others.

Health maintenance and promotion efforts for patients diagnosed with severe and persistent mental illness should include education about the importance of regular: a. home safety inspections. b. monitoring of self-care abilities. c. screening for cancer, hypertension, and diabetes. d. determination of adequacy of a patient's support system.

ANS: C Individuals diagnosed with severe and persistent mental illness have an increased prevalence of medical disorders. Patients should be taught the importance of regular visits to a primary care physician for screening for these illnesses. Home safety inspections are more often suggested for patients with physical impairments. Caregivers and family members usually evaluate self-care abilities, rather than the patient. Assessment of a patient's support system is not usually considered part of health promotion and maintenance.

8. Several children are seen in the emergency department for treatment of illnesses and injuries. Which finding would create a high index of suspicion for child abuse? The child who has: a. repeated middle ear infections b. severe colic c. bite marks d. croup

ANS: C Injuries such as immersion or cigarette burns, facial fractures, whiplash, bite marks, traumatic injuries, bruises, and fractures in various stages of healing suggest the possibility of abuse. In older children, vague complaints such as back pain may also be suspicious. Ear infections, colic, and croup are not problems induced by violence.

5. A patient is pacing the hall near the nurses' station, swearing loudly. An appropriate initial intervention for the nurse would be to address the patient by name and say: a. "Hey, what's going on?" b. "Please quiet down immediately." c. "I'd like to talk with you about how you're feeling right now." d. "You must go to your room and try to get control of yourself."

ANS: C Intervention should begin with an analysis of the patient and situation. With this response, the nurse is attempting to hear the patient's feelings and concerns, which leads to the next step of planning an intervention.

8. A patient should be considered for involuntary commitment for psychiatric care when he or she: a. is noncompliant with the treatment regimen. b. sells and distributes illegal drugs. c. threatens to harm self and others. d. fraudulently files for bankruptcy.

ANS: C Involuntary commitment protects patients who are dangerous to themselves or others and cannot care for their own basic needs. Involuntary commitment also protects other individuals in society. The behaviors described in the other options are not sufficient to require involuntary hospitalization.

Which nursing diagnosis is likely to apply to a homeless individual diagnosed with severe and persistent mental illness? a. Insomnia b. Substance abuse c. Chronic low self-esteem d. Impaired environmental interpretation syndrome

ANS: C Many individuals with severe mental illness do not live with their families and are homeless. Life on the street or in a shelter has a negative influence on the individual's self-esteem, making this nursing diagnosis one that should be considered. Insomnia may be noted in some patients but is not a universal problem. Substance abuse is not an approved North American Nursing Diagnosis Association International (NANDA-I) diagnosis. Impaired environmental interpretation syndrome refers to persistent disorientation, which is not observed in a majority of the homeless population.

16. After celebrating a 40th birthday, an individual becomes concerned with the loss of youthful appearance. What type of crisis has occurred? a. Reactive b. Situational c. Maturational d. Adventitious

ANS: C Maturational crises occur when a person arrives at a new stage of development and finds that old coping styles are ineffective but has not yet developed new strategies. Situational crises arise from sources external to the individual, such as divorce and job loss. No classification called reactive crisis exists. Adventitious crises occur when disasters such as natural disasters (e.g., floods, hurricanes), war, or violent crimes disrupt coping styles.

11. A married individual has recently been absent from work for 3-day periods on several occasions. Each time, the individual returns to work wearing dark glasses. Facial and body bruises are apparent. What is the occupational health nurse's priority question? a. "Do you drink excessively?" b. "Did your partner beat you?" c. "How did this happen to you?" d. "What did you do to deserve this?"

ANS: C Obtaining the victim's explanation is necessary. If the explanation does not match the injuries or if the victim minimizes the injuries, abuse should be suspected.

19. Which medication should a nurse administer to provide immediate intervention for a psychotic patient whose aggressive behavior continues to escalate despite verbal intervention? a. lithium (Eskalith) b. trazodone (Desyrel) c. olanzapine (Zyprexa) d. valproic acid (Depakene)

ANS: C Olanzapine is a short-acting antipsychotic drug that is useful in calming angry, aggressive patients regardless of their diagnosis. The other drugs listed require long-term use to reduce anger. Lithium is for patients with bipolar disorder. Trazodone is for patients with depression, insomnia, or chronic pain. Valproic acid is for patients with bipolar disorder or for those who are borderline bipolar.

Before working with patients regarding sexual concerns, a prerequisite for providing nonjudgmental care is: a. sympathy. b. assertiveness training. c. sexual self-awareness. d. effective communication.

ANS: C Only when a nurse has accepted his or her own feelings and values related to sexuality can he or she provide fully nonjudgmental care to a patient. If the nurse is uncomfortable, the patient might misinterpret discomfort as disapproval. The distractors are not prerequisites.

3. Two hospitalized patients fight when they are in the same room. During a team meeting, a nurse asserts that safety is of paramount importance and therefore the treatment plans should call for both patients to be secluded to prevent them from injuring each other. This assertion: a. reveals that the nurse values the principle of justice. b. reinforces the autonomy of the two patients. c. violates the civil rights of the two patients. d. represents the intentional tort of battery.

ANS: C Patients have a right to treatment in the least restrictive setting. Less restrictive measures should be tried first. Unnecessary seclusion may result in a charge of false imprisonment. Seclusion removes the patient's autonomy. The principle by which the nurse is motivated is beneficence, not justice. The tort represented is false imprisonment, not battery.

22. A patient with pneumonia has been hospitalized for 4 days. Family members describe the patient as "a difficult person who finds fault with others." The patient verbally abuses nurses for their poor care. The most likely explanation lies in: a. poor childrearing that did not teach respect for others. b. automatic thinking, leading to cognitive distortion. c. personality style that externalizes problems. d. delusions that others wish to deliver harm

ANS: C Patients whose personality style causes them to externalize blame see the source of their discomfort and anxiety as being outside themselves. They displace anger and are often unable to soothe themselves. The incorrect options are less likely to have a bearing on this behavior.

15. A soldier who served in a combat zone returned to the United States. The soldier's spouse complains to the nurse, "We had planned to start a family, but now he won't talk about it. He won't even look at children." The spouse is describing which symptom associated with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? a. Reexperiencing b. Hyperarousal c. Avoidance d. Psychosis

ANS: C Physiologic reactions to reminders of the event include a persistent avoidance of the stimuli associated with the trauma; the individual avoids talking about the event or avoids activities, people, or places that arouse memories of the trauma. Avoidance is exemplified by a sense of foreshortened future and estrangement. No evidence suggests that this soldier is having a hyperarousal reaction or is reexperiencing war-related traumas. Psychosis is not evident.

21. A patient diagnosed with somatic symptom disorder says, I have pain from an undiagnosed injury. I cant take care of myself. I need pain medicine six or seven times a day. I feel like a baby because my family has to help me so much. It is important for the nurse to assess: a. mood. b. cognitive style. c. secondary gains. d. identity and memory.

ANS: C Secondary gains should be assessed. The patients dependency needs may be met through care from the family. When secondary gains are prominent, the patient is more resistant to giving up the symptom. The scenario does not allude to a problem of mood. Cognitive style and identity and memory assessment are of lesser concern because the patients diagnosis has been established.

5. To assist a patient diagnosed with a somatic system disorder, a nursing intervention of high priority is to: a. imply that somatic symptoms are not real. b. help the patient suppress feelings of anger. c. shift the focus from somatic symptoms to feelings. d. investigate each physical symptom as soon as it is reported.

ANS: C Shifting the focus from somatic symptoms to feelings or to neutral topics conveys an interest in the patient as a person rather than as a condition. The need to gain attention with the use of symptoms is reduced over the long term. A desired outcome is that the patient expresses feelings, including anger, if it is present. Once physical symptoms have been investigated, they do not need to be reinvestigated each time the patient reports them.

17. Which principle should guide the nurse in determining the extent of silence to use during patient interview sessions? a. Nurses are responsible for breaking silences. b. Patients withdraw if silences are prolonged. c. Silence can provide meaningful moments for reflection. d. Silence helps patients know that what they said is understood.

ANS: C Silence can be helpful to both participants by giving each an opportunity to contemplate what has transpired, weigh alternatives, and formulate ideas. A nurse breaking silences is not a principle related to silences. Saying that patients withdraw during long silences or that silence helps patients know that they are understood are both inaccurate statements. Feedback helps patients know they have been understood.

18. Which agency provides coordination in the event of a terrorist attack? a. U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) b. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) c. National Incident Management System (NIMS) d. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)

ANS: C The NIMS provides a systematic approach to guide departments and agencies at all levels of government, nongovernmental organizations, and the private sector during disaster situations.

3. A nurse uses the SAD PERSONS scale to interview a patient. This tool provides data relevant to: a. current stress level. b. mood disturbance. c. suicide potential. d. level of anxiety.

ANS: C The SAD PERSONS tool evaluates 10 major risk factors in suicide potential: sex, age, depression, previous attempt, ethanol use, rational thinking loss, social supports lacking, organized plan, no spouse, and sickness. The tool does not have appropriate categories to provide information on the other options listed.

17. An older adult with dementia lives with family and attends a day care center. A nurse at the day care center notices the adult has a disheveled appearance, a strong odor of urine, and bruises on the limbs and back. What type of abuse might be occurring? a. Psychological b. Financial c. Physical d. Sexual

ANS: C The assessment of physical abuse is supported by the nurse's observation of bruises. Physical abuse includes evidence of improper care, as well as physical endangerment behaviors such as reckless behavior toward a vulnerable person that could lead to serious injury. No data substantiate the other options.

4. A person with a fear of heights drives across a high bridge. Which division of the autonomic nervous system is stimulated in response to this experience? a. Limbic system b. Peripheral nervous system c. Sympathetic nervous system d. Parasympathetic nervous system

ANS: C The autonomic nervous system is made up of the sympathetic (fight or flight response) and parasympathetic (relaxation response) nervous systems. In times of stress the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated. A person fearful of heights would experience stress associated with the experience of driving across a high bridge. The peripheral nervous system responds to messages from the sympathetic nervous system. The limbic system processes emotional responses but is not specifically part of the autonomic nervous system.

2. Which scenario predicts the highest risk for directing violent behavior toward others? a. Major depression with delusions of worthlessness b. Obsessive-compulsive disorder; performing many rituals c. Paranoid delusions of being followed by alien monsters d. Completing alcohol withdrawal and beginning a rehabilitation program

ANS: C The correct answer illustrates the greatest disruption of ability to perceive reality accurately. People who feel persecuted may strike out against those believed to be persecutors. The patients identified in the distracters have better reality-testing ability.

9. A nurse and patient construct a no-suicide contract. Select the preferable wording for the contract. a. "I will not try to harm myself during the next 24 hours." b. "I will not make a suicide attempt while I am hospitalized." c. "For the next 24 hours, I will not kill or harm myself in any way." d. "I will not kill myself until I call my primary nurse or a member of the staff."

ANS: C The correct answer leaves no loopholes. The wording about not harming oneself and not making an attempt leaves loopholes or can be ignored by the patient who thinks, "I am not going to harm myself, I am going to kill myself," or "I am not going to attempt suicide, I am going to commit suicide." A patient may call a therapist and leave the telephone to carry out the suicidal plan.

8. After an assault by a patient, a nurse has difficulty sleeping, startles easily, and is preoccupied with the incident. The nurse says, "I dread facing potentially violent patients." Which response would be the most urgent reason for this nurse to seek supervision? a. Startle reactions b. Difficulty sleeping c. Wish for revenge d. Preoccupation with the incident

ANS: C The desire for revenge signals an urgent need for professional supervision to work through anger and counter the aggressive feelings. The distracters are normal in a person who has been assaulted. Nurses are usually relieved with crisis intervention and follow-up designed to give support, help the individual regain a sense of control, and make sense of the event.

17. As a patient admitted to the eating disorders unit undresses, a nurse observes that the patients body is covered by fine, downy hair. The patient weighs 70 pounds and is 5 feet, 4 inches tall. Which condition should be documented? a. Amenorrhea b. Alopecia c. Lanugo d. Stupor

ANS: C The fine, downy hair noted by the nurse is called lanugo. It is frequently seen in patients with anorexia nervosa. None of the other conditions can be supported by the data the nurse has gathered.

22. When working with rape victims, immediate care focuses first on: a. collecting evidence. b. notifying law enforcement. c. helping the victim feel safe. d. documenting the victim's comments.

ANS: C The first focus of care is helping the victim feel safe. An already vulnerable individual may view assessment questions and the physical procedures as intrusive violations of privacy and even physically threatening. The patient might refuse to have evidence collected or to involve law enforcement.

14. An adult tells the nurse, "My partner abuses me most often when drinking. The drinking has increased lately, but I always get an apology afterward and a box of candy. I've considered leaving but haven't been able to bring myself to actually do it." Which phase in the cycle of violence prevents the patient from leaving? a. Tension building b. Acute battering c. Honeymoon d. Recovery

ANS: C The honeymoon stage is characterized by kindly, loving behaviors toward the abused spouse when the perpetrator feels remorseful. The victim believes the promises and drops plans to leave or seek legal help. The tension-building stage is characterized by minor violence in the form of abusive verbalization or pushing. The acute battering stage involves the abuser beating the victim. The violence cycle does not include a recovery stage.

3. A person with a fear of heights drives across a high bridge. Which structure will stimulate a response from the autonomic nervous system? a. Thalamus b. Parietal lobe c. Hypothalamus d. Pituitary gland

ANS: C The individual will find this experience stressful. The hypothalamus functions as the command-and-control center when receiving stressful signals. The hypothalamus responds to signals of stress by engaging the autonomic nervous system. The parietal lobe is responsible for the interpretation of other sensations. The thalamus processes messages associated with pain and wakefulness. The pituitary gland may be involved in other aspects of the person's response but would not stimulate the autonomic nervous system.

26. At the last contracted visit in the crisis intervention clinic, an adult says, "I've emerged from this a stronger person. You helped me feel like my life is back in balance." The nurse responds, "I think it would be worthwhile to have two more sessions to explore why your reactions were so intense." Which analysis applies? a. The patient is experiencing transference. b. The patient demonstrates a need for continuing support. c. The nurse is having difficulty terminating the relationship. d. The nurse is empathizing with the patient's feelings of dependency.

ANS: C The nurse's remark is clearly an invitation to work on other problems and prolong contact with the patient. The focus of crisis intervention is on the problem that precipitated the crisis, not other issues. The scenario does not describe transference. The patient's need for continuing support is not demonstrated in the scenario. The scenario does not describe dependency needs.

A patient with borderline personality disorder and a history of self-mutilation has now begun dialectical behavior therapy on an outpatient basis. Counseling focuses on self-harm behavior management. Today the patient telephones to say, "I'm feeling empty and want to cut myself." The nurse should: a. arrange for emergency inpatient hospitalization. b. send the patient to the crisis intervention unit for 8 to 12 hours. c. assist the patient to identify the trigger situation and choose a coping strategy. d. advise the patient to take an antianxiety medication to decrease the anxiety level.

ANS: C The patient has responded appropriately to the urge for self-harm by calling a helping individual. A component of dialectical behavior therapy is telephone access to the therapist for "coaching" during crises. The nurse can assist the patient to choose an alternative to self-mutilation. The need for a protective environment may not be necessary if the patient is able to use cognitive strategies to determine a coping strategy that reduces the urge to mutilate. Taking a sedative and going to sleep should not be the first-line intervention; sedation may reduce the patient's ability to weigh alternatives to mutilating behavior.

A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia tells the community mental health nurse, "I threw away my pills because they interfere with God's voice." The nurse identifies the cause of the patient's ineffective management of the medication regimen as: a. inadequate discharge planning. b. poor therapeutic alliance with clinicians. c. impaired reasoning secondary to schizophrenia. d. dislike of the side effects of antipsychotic medications.

ANS: C The patient's ineffective management of the medication regimen is most closely related to impaired reasoning. The patient believes in being an exalted personage who hears God's voice, rather than an individual with a serious mental disorder who needs medication to control symptoms. Data do not suggest that any of the other factors often relate to medication nonadherence.

12. A nurse working a rape telephone hotline should focus communication to: a. arrange long-term patient counseling. b. provide callers with a sympathetic listener. c. explain immediate steps that a victim of rape should take. d. obtain information to relay to the local police.

ANS: C The telephone counselor establishes where the victim is and what has happened and provides the necessary information to enable the victim to decide what steps to take immediately. Long-term aftercare is not the focus until immediate problems are resolved. The victim remains anonymous. The incorrect options are inappropriate or incorrect because counselors should be empathic rather than sympathetic.

16. Which individual with a mental illness may need emergency or involuntary hospitalization for mental illness? The individual who: a. resumes using heroin while still taking methadone. b. reports hearing angels playing harps during thunderstorms. c. throws a heavy plate at a waiter at the direction of command hallucinations. d. does not show up for an outpatient appointment with the mental health nurse.

ANS: C Throwing a heavy plate is likely to harm the waiter and is evidence of being dangerous to others. This behavior meets the criteria for emergency or involuntary hospitalization for mental illness. The behaviors in the other options evidence mental illness but not dangerousness.

4. A person intentionally overdoses on antidepressant drugs. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority? a. Powerlessness b. Social isolation c. Risk for suicide d. Ineffective management of the therapeutic regimen

ANS: C This diagnosis is the only one with life-or-death ramifications and is therefore higher in priority than the other options.

12. An adult tells the nurse, "I can't take it anymore! Last year my husband had an affair and now we don't communicate. Three months ago, I found a lump in my breast. Yesterday my daughter told me she's quitting college and moving in with her boyfriend." What is the priority nursing diagnosis? a. Fear, related to impending surgery b. Deficient knowledge, related to breast lesion c. Ineffective coping, related to perceived loss of daughter d. Impaired verbal communication, related to spousal estrangement

ANS: C This nursing diagnosis is the priority because it reflects the precipitating event associated with the patient's crisis. Data are not present to make the other diagnoses of Deficient knowledge, Fear, or Impaired verbal communication.

A child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) has hyperactivity, distractibility, and impaired play. The health care provider prescribed methylphenidate (Concerta). The desired behavior for which the nurse should monitor is: a. increased expressiveness in communicating with others b. improved ability to participate in play with other children c. ability to identify anxiety and implement self-control strategies d. improved socialization skills with other children and authority figures

B

15. A cognitively impaired patient has been a widow for 30 years. This patient is frantically trying to leave the unit, saying, "I have to go home to cook dinner before my husband arrives from work." To intervene with validation therapy, the nurse should say: a. "You must come away from the door." b. "You have been a widow for many years." c. "You want to go home to prepare your husband's dinner?" d. "Was your husband angry if you did not have dinner ready on time?"

ANS: C Validation therapy meets the patient "where she or he is at the moment" and acknowledges the patient's wishes. Validation does not seek to redirect, reorient, or probe. The other options do not validate patient feelings.

14. A nurse assesses a patient who reports a 3-week history of depression and crying spells. The patient says, "My business is bankrupt, and I was served with divorce papers." Which subsequent statement by the patient alerts the nurse to a concealed suicidal message? a. "I wish I were dead." b. "Life is not worth living." c. "I have a plan that will fix everything." d. "My family will be better off without me."

ANS: C Verbal clues to suicide may be overt or covert. The incorrect options are overt references to suicide. The correct option is more veiled. It alludes to the patient's suicide as being a way to "fix everything" but does not say it outright.

8. Documentation in a patient's chart shows, "Throughout a 5-minute interaction, patient fidgeted and tapped left foot, periodically covered face with hands, and looked under chair while stating, 'I enjoy spending time with you.'" Which analysis is most accurate? a. Patient is giving positive feedback about the nurse's communication techniques. b. Nurse is viewing the patient's behavior through a cultural filter. c. Patient's verbal and nonverbal messages are incongruent. d. Patient is demonstrating psychotic behaviors.

ANS: C When a verbal message is not reinforced with nonverbal behavior, the message is confusing and incongruent. Some clinicians call it a "mixed message." It is inaccurate to say that the patient is giving positive feedback about the nurse's communication techniques. The concept of a cultural filter is not relevant to the situation; a cultural filter determines what a person will pay attention to and what he or she will ignore. Data are insufficient to draw the conclusion that the patient is demonstrating psychotic behaviors.

What is an appropriate initial outcome for a patient with a personality disorder who frequently manipulates others? The patient will: a. Identify when feeling angry. b. Use manipulation only to get legitimate needs met. c. Acknowledge manipulative behavior when it is called to his or her attention. d. Accept fulfillment of his or her requests within an hour rather than immediately.

ANS: C Acknowledging manipulative behavior is an early outcome that paves the way for taking greater responsibility for controlling manipulative behavior at a later time. Identifying anger relates to anger and aggression control. Using manipulation to get legitimate needs is an inappropriate outcome. The patient will ideally use assertive behavior to promote the fulfillment of legitimate needs. Accepting fulfillment of requests within an hour rather than immediately relates to impulsivity and immediacy control.

A nurse reports to the interdisciplinary team that a patient with an antisocial personality disorder lies to other patients, verbally abuses a patient with dementia, and flatters the primary nurse. This patient is detached and superficial during counseling sessions. Which behavior most clearly warrants limit setting? a. Flattering the nurse b. Lying to other patients c. Verbal abuse of another patient d. Detached superficiality during counseling

ANS: C Limits must be set in areas in which the patient's behavior affects the rights of others. Limiting verbal abuse of another patient is a priority intervention. The other concerns should be addressed during therapeutic encounters.

The most challenging nursing intervention with patients with personality disorders who use manipulation to get their needs met is: a. supporting behavioral change. b. monitoring suicide attempts. c. maintaining consistent limits. d. using aversive therapy.

ANS: C Maintaining consistent limits is by far the most difficult intervention because of the patient's superior skills at manipulation. Supporting behavioral change and monitoring patient safety are less difficult tasks. Aversive therapy would probably not be part of the care plan; positive reinforcement strategies for acceptable behavior are more effective than aversive techniques.

Consider these comments to three different nurses by a patient with an antisocial personality disorder: "You're a better nurse than the day shift nurse said you were"; "Another nurse said you don't do your job right"; "You think you're perfect, but I've seen you make three mistakes." Collectively, these interactions can be assessed as: a. Seductive b. Detached c. Manipulative d. Guilt producing

ANS: C Patients manipulate and control staff members in various ways. By keeping staff members off balance or fighting among themselves, the person with an antisocial personality disorder is left to operate as he or she pleases. Seductive behavior has sexual connotations. The patient is displaying the opposite of detached behavior. Guilt is not evidenced in the comments.

2. In which situations does a nurse have a duty to intervene and report? Select all that apply. a. A peer is unable to write behavioral outcomes. b. A health care provider consults the Physicians' Desk Reference. c. A peer tries to provide patient care in an alcohol-impaired state. d. A team member has violated the boundaries of a vulnerable patient. e. A patient refuses a medication prescribed by a licensed health care provider.

ANS: C, D Both instances jeopardize patient safety. The nurse must practice within the Code of Ethics for Nurses. A peer being unable to write behavioral outcomes is a concern but can be informally resolved. A health care provider consulting the Physicians' Desk Reference is acceptable practice.

3. A patients roommate has observed the patient behaving in uncharacteristic ways, but the patient cannot remember the episodes. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is suspected. Which questions are most relevant to the assessment of this patient? Select all that apply. a. Are you sexually promiscuous? b. Do you think you need an antidepressant medication? c. Have you ever found yourself someplace and did not know how you got there? d. Are your memories of childhood clear and complete, or do you have blank spots? e. Have you ever found new things in your belongings that you cant remember buying?

ANS: C, D, E Asking, Are you sexually promiscuous? would probably produce defensiveness on the part of the patient. If a subpersonality acts out sexually, the main personality is probably not aware of the behavior. Do you think you need an antidepressant medication? is a premature question and not in the nurses scope of practice. All of the other questions are pertinent.

1. A college student failed two examinations. The student cried for hours and then tried to call a parent but got no answer. The student then suspended access to his social networking web site. Which suicide risk factors are present? Select all that apply. a. History of earlier suicide attempt b. Co-occurring medical illness c. Recent stressful life event d. Self-imposed isolation e. Shame or humiliation

ANS: C, D, E Failing examinations in the academic major constitutes a recent stressful life event. Shame and humiliation related to the failure can be hypothesized. The inability to contact parents can be seen as a recent lack of social support, as can the roommate's absence from the dormitory. Terminating access to one's social networking site represents self-imposed isolation. This scenario does not provide data regarding a history of an earlier suicide attempt, a family history of suicide, or of co-occurring medical illness.

2. Which experiences are most likely to precipitate post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? Select all that apply. a. A young adult jumps from a bridge with a bungee cord with a best friend. b. An 8-year-old child watches an R-rated movie with both parents. c. An adolescent is kidnapped and held for 2 years in the home of a sexual predator. d. A passenger is in a bus that overturns on a sharp curve in the road, tumbling down an embankment. e. An adult is trapped for 3 hours at an angle in an elevator after a portion of the supporting cable breaks.

ANS: C, D, E PTSD usually follows a traumatic event that is outside the range of usual experience. Examples are childhood physical abuse, torture or kidnapping, military combat, sexual assault, and natural disasters such as floods, tornados, earthquakes, and tsunamis; human disasters such as a bus or elevator accident or crime-related events such being taken hostage are additional examples. The common element in these experiences is the individual's extraordinary helplessness or powerlessness in the face of such stressors. Bungee jumping by adolescents is part of the developmental task and might be frightening but in an exhilarating way rather than a harmful way. A child may be disturbed by an R-rated movie, but the presence of the parents would modify the experience in a positive way.

2. A patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa is hospitalized for treatment. What features should the milieu provide? Select all that apply. a. Flexible mealtimes b. Unscheduled weight checks c. Adherence to a selected menu d. Observation during and after meals e. Monitoring during bathroom trips f. Privileges correlated with emotional expression

ANS: C, D, E Priority milieu interventions support the restoration of weight and a normalization of eating patterns. These goals require close supervision of the patients eating habits and the prevention of exercise, purging, and other activities. Menus are strictly adhered to. Patients are observed during and after meals to prevent them from throwing away food or purging. All trips to the bathroom are monitored. Mealtimes are structured, not flexible. Weighing is performed on a regular schedule. Privileges are correlated with weight gain and treatment plan compliance.

1. A nurse volunteers for a committee that must revise the hospital policies and procedures for suicide precautions. Which resources would provide the best guidance? Select all that apply. a. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (fifth edition) (DSM-5) b. State's nurse practice act c. State and federal regulations that govern hospitals d. Summary of common practices of several local hospitals e. American Nurses Association Scope and Standards of Practice for Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing

ANS: C, E Regulations regarding hospitals provide information about the minimal standard. The American Nurses Association (ANA) national standards focus on elevating practice by setting high standards for nursing practice. The DSM-5 and the state's nurse practice act would not provide relevant information. A summary of common practices of several local hospitals cannot be guaranteed to be helpful because the customs may or may not comply with laws or best practices.

3. A nurse assesses the health status of soldiers returning from Afghanistan. Screening will be a priority for signs and symptoms of which health problems? Select all that apply. a. Schizophrenia b. Eating disorder c. Traumatic brain injury d. Seasonal affective disorder e. Posttraumatic stress disorder

ANS: C, E TBI and PTSD each occur in approximately 20% of soldiers returning from Afghanistan. Some soldiers have both problems. The incidence of disorders identified in the distracters would be expected to parallel the general population.

4. A nurse assesses the health status of soldiers returning from Afghanistan. Screening for which health problems will be a priority? Select all that apply. a. Schizophrenia b. Eating disorder c. Traumatic brain injury d. Oppositional defiant disorder e. Post-traumatic stress disorder

ANS: C, E Traumatic brain injury and post-traumatic stress disorder each occur in approximately 20% of soldiers returning from Afghanistan. Some soldiers have both problems. The incidence of disorders identified in the distractors would be expected to parallel the general population.

29. Which assessment findings will the nurse expect in an individual who has just injected heroin? a. Anxiety, restlessness, paranoid delusions b. Heightened sexuality, insomnia, euphoria c. Muscle aching, dilated pupils, tachycardia d. Drowsiness, constricted pupils, slurred speech

ANS: D Heroin, an opiate, is a CNS depressant. Blood pressure, pulse, and respirations are decreased, and attention is impaired. The incorrect options describe behaviors consistent with amphetamine use, symptoms of narcotic withdrawal, and cocaine abuse.

2. A woman in the last trimester of pregnancy drinks 8 to 12 ounces of alcohol daily. The nurse plans for the delivery of an infant who is: a. jaundiced. b. dependent on alcohol. c. healthy but underweight. d. microcephalic and cognitively impaired.

ANS: D Fetal alcohol syndrome is the result of alcohol's inhibiting fetal development in the first trimester. The fetus of a woman who drinks that much alcohol will probably have this disorder. Alcohol use during pregnancy is not likely to produce the findings listed in the distractors.

34. When assessing a patient who has ingested flunitrazepam (Rohypnol), the nurse would expect: a. acrophobia. b. hypothermia. c. hallucinations. d. anterograde amnesia.

ANS: D Flunitrazepam is known as the date rape drug. It produces disinhibition and a relaxation of voluntary muscles, as well as anterograde amnesia for events that occur. The other options do not reflect symptoms commonly observed after use of this drug.

41. Which assessment findings support a nurse's suspicion that a patient has been using inhalants? a. Pinpoint pupils and respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute b. Perforated nasal septum and hypertension c. Drowsiness, euphoria, and constipation d. Confusion, mouth ulcers, and ataxia

ANS: D Inhalants are usually CNS depressants, giving rise to confusion and ataxia. Mouth ulcers come from the irritation of buccal mucosa by the inhalant. The incorrect options relate to cocaine snorting and opioid abuse.

11. A patient admitted to an alcoholism rehabilitation program says, "I'm just a social drinker. I usually have a drink or two at brunch, a few cocktails in the afternoon, wine at dinner, and several drinks during the evening." The patient is using which defense mechanism? a. Rationalization b. Introjection c. Projection d. Denial

ANS: D Minimizing one's drinking is a form of denial of alcoholism. The patient's own description indicates that "social drinking" is not an accurate name for the behavior. Projection involves blaming another for one's faults or problems. Rationalization involves making excuses. Introjection involves taking a quality into one's own system.

36. Which medication is the nurse most likely to see prescribed as part of the treatment plan for both a patient in an alcoholism treatment program and a patient in a program for the treatment of opioid addiction? a. methadone (Dolophine) b. bromocriptine (Parlodel) c. disulfiram (Antabuse) d. naltrexone (Revia)

ANS: D Naltrexone is useful for treating both opioid and alcohol addictions. As an opioid antagonist, it blocks the action of opioids. Because it blocks the mechanism of reinforcement, it also reduces or eliminates alcohol craving.

16. A patient comes to an outpatient appointment obviously intoxicated. The nurse should: a. explore the patient's reasons for drinking today. b. arrange admission to an inpatient psychiatric unit. c. coordinate emergency admission to a detoxification unit. d. tell the patient, "We cannot see you today because you've been drinking."

ANS: D One cannot conduct meaningful therapy with an intoxicated patient. The patient should be taken home to recover and then make another appointment. Hospitalization is not necessary.

31. A nurse is called to the home of a neighbor and finds an unconscious person still holding a medication bottle labeled "pentobarbital sodium." What is the nurse's first action? a. Test reflexes b. Check pupils c. Initiate vomiting d. Establish a patent airway

ANS: D Pentobarbital sodium is a barbiturate. Maintaining a patent airway is the priority when the patient is unconscious. Assessing neurologic function by testing reflexes and checking pupils can wait. Vomiting should not be induced when a patient is unconscious because of the danger of aspiration.

26. Which is an important nursing intervention when giving care to a patient withdrawing from a central nervous system (CNS) stimulant? a. Make physical contact by frequently touching the patient. b. Offer intellectual activities requiring concentration. c. Avoid manipulation by denying the patient's requests. d. Observe for depression and suicidal ideation.

ANS: D Rebound depression occurs with the withdrawal from CNS stimulants, probably related to neurotransmitter depletion. Touch may be misinterpreted if the patient is experiencing paranoid tendencies. Concentration is impaired during withdrawal. Denying requests is inappropriate; maintaining established limits will suffice.

24. Which treatment approach is most appropriate for a patient with antisocial tendencies who has been treated several times for substance addiction but has relapsed? a. One-week detoxification program b. Long-term outpatient therapy c. Twelve-step self-help program d. Residential program

ANS: D Residential programs and therapeutic communities have goals of complete change in lifestyle, abstinence from drugs, elimination of criminal behaviors, development of employable skills, self-reliance, and honesty. Residential programs are more effective than outpatient programs for patients with antisocial tendencies.

12. A new patient in an alcoholism rehabilitation program says, "I'm just a social drinker. I usually have a drink or two at brunch, a few cocktails in the afternoon, wine at dinner, and a few drinks in the evening." Which response by the nurse will help the patient view the drinking more honestly? a. "I see," and use interested silence. b. "I think you may be drinking more than you report." c. "Being a social drinker involves having a drink or two once or twice a week." d. "You describe drinking steadily throughout the day and evening. Am I correct?"

ANS: D The answer summarizes and validates what the patient reported but is accepting rather than strongly confrontational. Defenses cannot be removed until healthier coping strategies are in place. Strong confrontation does not usually take place so early in treatment.

8. A patient with a history of daily alcohol abuse says, "Drinking helps me cope with being a single parent." Which response by the nurse would help the individual conceptualize the drinking more objectively? a. "Sooner or later, alcohol will kill you. Then what will happen to your children?" b. "I hear a lot of defensiveness in your voice. Do you really believe this?" c. "If you were coping so well, why were you hospitalized again?" d. "Tell me what happened the last time you drank."

ANS: D The individual is rationalizing. The correct response will help the patient see alcohol as a cause of the problems, not the solution. This approach can also help the patient become receptive to the possibility of change. The incorrect responses directly confront and attack defenses against anxiety that the patient still needs. They reflect the nurse's frustration with the patient.

32. An adult in the emergency department states, "I feel restless. Everything I look at wavers. Sometimes I'm outside my body looking at myself. I hear colors. I think I'm losing my mind." Vital signs are slightly elevated. The nurse should suspect a: a. cocaine overdose. b. schizophrenic episode. c. phencyclidine (PCP) intoxication. d. D-lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) ingestion.

ANS: D The patient who has ingested LSD often experiences synesthesia (visions in sound), depersonalization, and concerns about going "crazy." Synesthesia is not common in schizophrenia. CNS stimulant overdose more commonly involves elevated vital signs and assaultive, grandiose behaviors. PCP use commonly causes bizarre or violent behavior, nystagmus, elevated vital signs, and repetitive jerking movements.

5. A patient admitted yesterday for injuries sustained in a fall while intoxicated believes snakes are crawling on the bed. The patient is anxious, agitated, and diaphoretic. What is the priority nursing diagnosis? a. Disturbed sensory perception b. Ineffective coping c. Ineffective denial d. Risk for injury

ANS: D clouded sensorium, agitation, sensory perceptual distortions, and poor judgment increase the risk for injury. Disturbed sensory perception is an applicable diagnosis, but safety has a higher priority. The scenario does not provide data to support the other diagnoses.

When preparing to interview a patient with narcissistic personality disorder, a nurse can anticipate the assessment findings will include: a. preoccupation with minute details; perfectionist. b. charm, drama, seductiveness; seeking admiration. c. difficulty being alone; indecisive, submissiveness. d. grandiosity, self-importance, and a sense of entitlement.

ANS: D According to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (fourth edition, text revision) (DSM-IV-TR), the characteristics of grandiosity, self-importance, and a sense of entitlement are consistent with narcissistic personality disorder. Charm, drama, seductiveness, and admiration seeking are observed in patients with histrionic personality disorder. Preoccupation with minute details and perfectionism are observed in individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. Patients with dependent personality disorder often express difficulty being alone and are indecisive and submissive.

4. A nurse interacts with a newly hospitalized patient. Select the nurse's comment that applies the communication technique of "offering self." a. "I've also had traumatic life experiences. Maybe it would help if I told you about them." b. "Why do you think you had so much difficulty adjusting to this change in your life?" c. "I hope you will feel better after getting accustomed to how this unit operates." d. "I'd like to sit with you for a while to help you get comfortable talking to me."

ANS: D "Offering self" is a technique that should be used in the orientation phase of the nurse-patient relationship. Sitting with the patient, an example of "offering self," helps build trust and conveys that the nurse cares about the patient. Two incorrect responses are ineffective and nontherapeutic. The other incorrect response is therapeutic but an example of "offering hope."

2. A patient comes to the clinic with superficial cuts on the left wrist. The patient is pacing and sobbing. After a few minutes with the nurse, the patient is calmer. What should the nurse ask to determine the patient's perception of the precipitating event? a. "Tell me why you were crying." b. "How did your wrist get injured?" c. "How can I help you feel more comfortable?" d. "What was happening just before you started to feel this way?"

ANS: D A clear definition of the immediate problem provides the best opportunity to find a solution. Asking about recent upsetting events permits the assessment of the precipitating event. Asking "why" questions is a poor communication technique.

26. When a nurse finds a patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa vigorously exercising before gaining the agreed-upon weekly weight, the nurse should state: a. You and I will have to sit down and discuss this problem. b. It bothers me to see you exercising. Youll lose more weight. c. Lets discuss the relationship between exercise and weight loss and how that affects your body. d. According to our agreement, no exercising is permitted until you have gained a specific amount of weight.

ANS: D A matter-of-fact statement that the nurses perceptions are different helps avoid a power struggle. Treatment plans have specific goals for weight restoration. Exercise is limited to promote weight gain. Patients must be held accountable for required behaviors.

A patient tells the nurse, "My sexual functioning is normal when my partner wears lace. Without it, I'm not interested in sex." This comment evidences: a. exhibitionism. b. voyeurism. c. pedophilia. d. fetishism.

ANS: D A person with a sexual fetish finds it necessary to have some external object present, in fantasy or in reality, to be sexually satisfied. Exhibitionism refers to exposing one's genitalia publicly. Voyeurism refers to viewing others in intimate situations. Pedophilia refers to the preference for having sexual relations with a child.

5. Which scenario is an example of a tort? a. The primary nurse does not complete the plan of care for a patient within 24 hours of the patient's admission. b. An advanced practice nurse recommends that a patient who is dangerous to self and others be voluntarily hospitalized. c. A patient's admission status is changed from involuntary to voluntary after the patient's hallucinations subside. d. A nurse gives an as-needed dose of an antipsychotic drug to a patient to prevent violence because a unit is short staffed.

ANS: D A tort is a civil wrong against a person that violates his or her rights. Giving unnecessary medication for the convenience of staff members controls behavior in a manner similar to secluding a patient; thus false imprisonment is a possible charge. The other options do not exemplify torts.

An adult says, "When I was a child, I took medication because I couldn't follow my teachers' directions. I stopped taking it when I was about 13. I still have trouble getting organized, which causes difficulty doing my job." Which disorder is most likely? a. Stress intolerance disorder b. Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) c. Borderline personality disorder d. Adult attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

ANS: D Adult ADHD is usually diagnosed in early life and treated until adolescence. Treatment is often stopped because professionals think the disorder resolves itself because the hyperactive impulsive behaviors may diminish; the inattentive and disorganized behaviors tend to persist, however. Stress intolerance disorder is not found in the DSM-5. The scenario description is inconsistent with generalized anxiety disorder and borderline personality disorder.

An advance directive gives valid direction to health care providers when a patient is: a. aggressive. b. dehydrated. c. unable to verbally communicate. d. unable to make decisions for himself or herself.

ANS: D Advance directives are invoked when patients are unable to make their own decisions. Aggression, dehydration, or an inability to speak does not mean the patient is unable to make a decision.

9. The nursing diagnosis rape trauma syndrome applies to a rape victim in the emergency department. Which outcome should occur before the patient's discharge? a. Patient states, "I feel safe and entirely relaxed." b. Memory of the rape is less vivid and frightening. c. Physical symptoms of pain and discomfort are no longer present. d. Patient agrees to keep a follow-up appointment with the rape victim advocate.

ANS: D Agreeing to keep a follow-up appointment is a realistic short-term outcome. The incorrect options are unlikely to occur during the limited time the victim is in the emergency department.

27. Which health care worker should be referred to critical incident stress debriefing? a. Nurse who works at an oncology clinic where patients receive chemotherapy b. Case manager whose patients are seriously mentally ill and are being cared for at home c. Health care employee who worked 8 hours at the information desk of an intensive care unit d. Emergency medical technician (EMT) who treated victims of a car bombing at a department store

ANS: D Although each of the individuals mentioned experiences job-related stress on a daily basis, the person most in need of critical incident stress debriefing is the EMT, who experienced an adventitious crisis event by responding to a bombing and provided care to victims of trauma.

11. A newly admitted patient who is acutely psychotic is a private patient of the senior psychiatrist. To whom does the psychiatric nurse who is assigned to this patient owe the duty of care? a. Health care provider b. Profession c. Hospital d. Patient

ANS: D Although the nurse is accountable to the health care provider, the agency, the patient, and the profession, the duty of care is owed to the patient.

7. A rape victim asks an emergency department nurse, "Maybe I did something to cause this attack. Was it my fault?" Which response by the nurse is the most therapeutic? a. Pose questions about the rape, helping the patient explore why it happened. b. Reassure the victim that the outcome of the situation will be positive. c. Make decisions for the victim because of the temporary confusion. d. Support the victim to separate issues of vulnerability from blame.

ANS: D Although the victim may have made choices that increased vulnerability, the victim is not to blame for the rape. The incorrect options either suggest the use of a nontherapeutic communication technique or do not permit the victim to restore control. No confusion is evident.

2. A person was abducted and raped at gunpoint. The nurse observes this victim is confused, talks rapidly in disconnected phrases, and is unable to concentrate or make simple decisions. What is the patient's level of anxiety? a. Weak b. Mild c. Moderate d. Severe

ANS: D Anxiety is the result of a personal threat to the victim's safety and security. In this case, the patient's symptoms of rapid, dissociated speech, confusion, and indecisiveness indicate severe anxiety. "Weak" is not a level of anxiety. Mild and moderate levels of anxiety allow the patient to function at a higher level.

1. A psychiatric nurse best implements the ethical principle of autonomy when he or she: a. intervenes when a self-mutilating patient attempts to harm self. b. stays with a patient who is demonstrating a high level of anxiety. c. suggests that two patients who are fighting be restricted to the unit. d. explores alternative solutions with a patient, who then makes a choice.

ANS: D Autonomy is the right to self-determination, that is, to make one's own decisions. When the nurse explores alternatives with the patient, the patient is better equipped to make an informed, autonomous decision. Staying with a highly anxious patient or intervening with a self-mutilating patient demonstrates beneficence and fidelity. Suggesting that two fighting patients be restricted to the unit demonstrates the principles of fidelity and justice.

Which nursing action should occur first when preparing to work with a patient who has a problem of sexual functioning? a. Acquire knowledge of the patient's sexual roles and preferences b. Develop an understanding of human sexual responses c. Assess the patient's sexual functioning d. Clarify the nurse's own personal values

ANS: D Before a nurse can be helpful to patients with sexual dysfunction, he or she must be aware of and comfortable with his or her own feelings about sex and sexuality. Nurses must be comfortable with the idea that patients have a right to their own values and must avoid criticism and censure.

2. Disturbed body image is the nursing diagnosis for a patient diagnosed with an eating disorder. Which outcome indicator is most appropriate to monitor? a. Weight, muscle, and fat are congruent with height, frame, age, and sex. b. Calorie intake is within the required parameters of the treatment plan. c. Weight reaches the established normal range for the patient. d. Patient expresses satisfaction with body appearance.

ANS: D Body image disturbances are considered improved or resolved when the patient is consistently satisfied with his or her own appearance and body function. This consideration is subjective. The other indicators are more objective but less related to the nursing diagnosis.

13. An adolescent hospitalized after a violent physical outburst tells the nurse, "I'm going to kill my father, but you can't tell anyone." Select the nurse's best response. a. "You're right. Federal law requires me to keep that information private." b. "Those kinds of thoughts will make your hospitalization longer." c. "You really should share this thought with your psychiatrist." d. "I am required to share information with the treatment team."

ANS: D Breach of nurse-patient confidentiality does not pose a legal dilemma for the nurse in this circumstance because a team approach to the delivery of psychiatric care presumes communication of patient information to other staff members to develop treatment plans and outcome criteria. The patient should know that the team may have to warn the father of the risk for harm.

24. A troubled adolescent opened fire in a high school cafeteria, fatally shooting three people and injuring many others. Hundreds of parents come to the high school after hearing the news reports. After the police arrest the shooter, which action should occur next? a. Ask the police to encircle the school campus with yellow tape to prevent parents from entering. b. Announce over the loudspeakers, "The campus is now secure. Please return to your classrooms." c. Require parents to pass through metal detectors and then allow them to look for their children in the school. d. Designate zones according to the alphabet, and direct students to the zones based on their surnames to facilitate reuniting them with their parents.

ANS: D Chaos is likely among students and desperate parents. A directive approach is best. Once the scene is secure, creative solutions are needed. Creating zones by letters of the alphabet helps anxious parents and their children to unite. Preventing parents from uniting with their children would further incite the situation.

12. An adult has recently been absent from work on several occasions. Each time, the adult returns wearing dark glasses. Facial and body bruises are apparent. During the occupational health nurse's interview, the adult says, "My partner beat me, but it was because there are problems at work." What should the nurse's next action be? a. Call the police. b. Arrange for hospitalization. c. Call the adult protective agency. d. Document injuries with a body map.

ANS: D Documentation of the injuries provides a basis for possible legal intervention. The abused adult will need to make the decision to involve the police. Because the worker is not an older adult and is competent, the adult protective agency is unable to assist. Admission to the hospital is not necessary.

8. A woman says, "I can't take it anymore! Last year my husband had an affair and now we don't communicate. Three months ago, I found a lump in my breast. Yesterday my daughter said she's quitting college." What is the nurse's priority assessment? a. Identifying measures useful to help improve the couple's communication b. Discussing the patient's feelings about the possibility of having a mastectomy c. Determining whether the husband is still engaged in an extramarital affair d. Clarifying what the patient means by, "I can't take it anymore!"

ANS: D During crisis intervention, the priority concern is patient safety. This question helps assess personal coping skills. The other options are incorrect because the focus of crisis intervention is on the event that occurred immediately before the patient sought help.

19. A nurse conducting group therapy on the eating disorders unit schedules the sessions immediately after meals for the primary purpose of: a. maintaining patients concentration and attention. b. shifting the patients focus from food to psychotherapy. c. focusing on weight control mechanisms and food preparation. d. processing the heightened anxiety associated with eating.

ANS: D Eating produces high anxiety for patients with eating disorders. Anxiety levels must be lowered if the patient is to be successful in attaining therapeutic goals. Shifting the patients focus from food to psychotherapy and focusing on weight control mechanisms and food preparation are not desirable. Maintaining patients concentration and attention is important, but not the primary purpose of the schedule.

22. Which individual in the emergency department should be considered at the highest risk for completing suicide? a. An adolescent Asian-American girl with superior athletic and academic skills who has asthma b. A 38-year-old single African-American female church member with fibrocystic breast disease c. A 60-year-old married Hispanic man with 12 grandchildren who has type 2 diabetes d. A 79-year-old single white man with cancer of the prostate gland

ANS: D High-risk factors include being an older adult, single, and male and having a co-occurring medical illness. Cancer is one of the somatic conditions associated with increased suicide risk. Protective factors for African-American women and Hispanic individuals include strong religious and family ties. Asian Americans have a suicide rate that increases with age.

18. Which understanding about individuals who attempt suicide will help a nurse plan the care for a suicidal patient? Every suicidal person should be considered: a. mentally ill. b. intent on dying. c. cognitively impaired. d. experiencing hopelessness.

ANS: D Hopelessness is the characteristic common among people who attempt suicide. The incorrect options reflect myths about suicide. Not all who attempt suicide are intent on dying. Not all are mentally ill or cognitively impaired.

An older adult patient brings a bag of medication to the clinic. The nurse finds one bottle labeled "Ativan" and one labeled "lorazepam," and both are labeled "Take two times daily." Bottles of hydrochlorothiazide, Inderal, and rofecoxib, each labeled "Take one daily," are also included. Which conclusion is accurate? a. Rofecoxib should not be taken with Ativan. b. The patient's blood pressure is likely to be very high. c. This patient should not self-administer any medication. d. Lorazepam and Ativan are the same drug; consequently, the dose is excessive.

ANS: D Lorazepam and Ativan are generic and trade names for the same drug, creating an accidental overdose situation. The patient needs medication education and help with proper, consistent labeling of bottles. No evidence suggests that the patient is unable to self-administer medication. The distractors are not factual statements.

15. A Puerto Rican-American patient uses dramatic body language when describing emotional discomfort. Which analysis most likely explains the patient's behavior? The patient: a. likely has a histrionic personality disorder. b. believes dramatic body language is sexually appealing. c. wishes to impress staff with the degree of emotional pain. d. belongs to a culture in which dramatic body language is the norm.

ANS: D Members of Hispanic-American subcultures tend to use high affect and dramatic body language as they communicate. The other options are more remote possibilities.

21. A nurse cares for a rape victim who received flunitrazepam (Rohypnol) from the assailant. Which intervention has priority? Monitoring for: a. coma. b. seizures. c. hypotonia. d. respiratory depression.

ANS: D Monitoring for respiratory depression takes priority over hypotonia, seizures, or coma in this situation.

15. Select the correct etiology to complete this nursing diagnosis for a patient diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder: Disturbed personal identity, related to: a. obsessive fears of harming self or others. b. poor impulse control and lack of self-confidence. c. depressed mood secondary to nightmares and intrusive thoughts. d. cognitive distortions associated with unresolved childhood abuse issues.

ANS: D Nearly all patients with dissociative identity disorder have a history of childhood abuse or trauma. None of the other etiology statements is relevant.

An older adult patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder is being treated with sertraline (Zoloft). This medication is often chosen for older adult patients because it: a. has a high degree of sedation. b. is effective when given in smaller doses. c. has few adverse interactions with other drugs. d. is less affected by changes associated with aging.

ANS: D Older adults are particularly susceptible to side effects, so selecting a drug with a low side-effect profile is desirable. The pharmacokinetics of sertraline are less affected by changes associated with aging. The other options are either incorrect or of lesser relevance.

Which statement about aging provides the best rationale for focused assessment of older adult patients? a. Older adults are often socially isolated and lonely. b. As people age, they become more rigid in their thinking. c. The majority of older adults sleep more than 12 hours per day. d. The senses of vision, hearing, touch, taste, and smell decline with age.

ANS: D Only the correct answer is true and cues the nurse to assess carefully the sensory functions of the older adult patient. The incorrect options are myths about aging.

6. Outpatient treatment is planned for a patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Select the most important outcome related to the nursing diagnosis: Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements. Within 1 week, the patient will: a. weigh self accurately using balanced scales. b. limit exercise to less than 2 hours daily. c. select clothing that fits properly. d. gain 1 to 2 pounds.

ANS: D Only the outcome of a gain of 1 to 2 pounds can be accomplished within 1 week when the patient is an outpatient. The focus of an outcome is not on the patient weighing self. Limiting exercise and selecting proper clothing are important, but weight gain takes priority.

16. A soldier returned home last year after deployment to a war zone. The soldier's spouse complains, "We were going to start a family but now he won't talk about it. He will not look at children. I wonder if we're going to make it as a couple." Select the nurse's best response. a. "Posttraumatic stress disorder often changes a person's sexual functioning." b. "I encourage you to continue to participate in social activities where children are present." c. "Have you talked with your spouse about these reactions? Sometimes we just need to confront behavior." d. "Posttraumatic stress disorder often strains relationships. Here are some community resources for help and support."

ANS: D PSTD precipitates changes that often lead to divorce. Providing support to both the veteran and spouse is important. Confrontation will not be effective. Although providing information is important, ongoing support is more effective.

12. A soldier served in combat zones in Iraq in 2010 and was deployed to Afghanistan in 2011. When is it most important for the nurse to screen for signs and symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? a. Immediately upon return to the United States from Afghanistan b. Before departing Afghanistan to return to the United States c. One year after returning from Afghanistan d. Screening should be ongoing

ANS: D PTSD can have a long lag time, of months to years. Screening should be ongoing.

A patient diagnosed with severe and persistent mental illness who recently moved to a homeless shelter says, "My life is out of control. I'm like a leaf at the mercy of the wind." The nurse formulates the diagnosis Powerlessness. Outcomes will focus on: a. instilling hope. b. controlling anxiety. c. planning social activities. d. developing personal autonomy.

ANS: D Powerlessness is associated with feeling unable to control events in one's life. It is often associated with low self-esteem. The goal is to increase one's sense of autonomy. The scenario does not indicate hopelessness or anxiety. Socialization is not the primary need.

11. What is the primary motivator for most rapists? a. Anxiety b. Need for humiliation c. Overwhelming sexual desires d. Desire to humiliate or control others

ANS: D Rape is not a crime of sex; rather, it is a crime of power, control, and humiliation. The perpetrator wishes to subjugate the victim. The dynamics listed in the other options are not the major motivating factors for rape.

A physical therapist recently convicted of multiple counts of Medicare fraud says to a nurse, "Sure I overbilled. Why not? Everyone takes advantage of the government. They have so many rules; no one can follow them." These statements show: a. shame. b. suspiciousness. c. superficial remorse. d. lack of guilt feelings.

ANS: D Rationalization is being used to explain behavior and deny wrongdoing. The individual who does not believe he or she has done anything wrong will not exhibit anxiety, remorse, or guilt about the act. The patient's remarks cannot be assessed as shameful. Lack of trust or concern that others are determined to cause harm is not evident.

A 37-year-old is involuntarily committed to outpatient treatment after sexually molesting a 12-year-old child. The patient says, "That girl looked like she was 19 years old." Which defense mechanism is this patient using? a. Denial b. Identification c. Displacement d. Rationalization

ANS: D Rationalization is used to justify upsetting behaviors by creating reasons that would allow the individual to believe that the behaviors were warranted or appropriate. The patient is rationalizing molestation of a minor. Denial is used to avoid dealing with the problems and responsibilities related to one's behaviors. Identification is incorporating the image of an emulated person and then acting, thinking, and feeling like that person. Displacement is the discharge of pent-up feelings onto something or someone else in the environment that is less threatening than the original source of the feelings.

9. The nursing care plan for a patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa includes the intervention Monitor for complications of re-feeding. Which body system should a nurse closely monitor for dysfunction? a. Renal b. Endocrine c. Central nervous d. Cardiovascular

ANS: D Re-feeding resulting in a too-rapid weight gain can overwhelm the heart, resulting in cardiovascular collapse. Focused assessment becomes a necessity to ensure patient physiologic integrity. The other body systems are not initially involved in the re-feeding syndrome.

24. When a patient's aggression quickly escalates, which principle applies to the selection of nursing interventions? a. Staff members should match the patient's affective level and tone of voice. b. Ask the patient what intervention would be most helpful. c. Immediately use physical containment measures. d. Begin with the least restrictive measure possible.

ANS: D Standards of care require that staff members use the least restrictive measure possible. This becomes the guiding principle for intervention. Physical containment is seldom the least restrictive measure. Asking the out-of-control patient what to do is rarely helpful. It may be an effective strategy during the preaggressive phase but is less effective during escalation.

The parent of an adult diagnosed with severe and persistent mental illness asks the nurse, "Why are you making a referral to that vocational rehabilitation program? My child won't ever be able to hold a job." Which is the nurse's best reply? a. "We make this referral to continue eligibility for federal funding." b. "Are you concerned that we're trying to make your child too independent?" c. "If you think the program would be detrimental, we can postpone it for a time." d. "Most patients are capable of employment at some level, competitive or supported."

ANS: D Studies have shown that most patients who complete vocational rehabilitation programs are capable of some level of employment; also they demonstrate significant improvement in assertiveness and work behaviors, as well as decreased depression.

5. A person attempts suicide by overdose, is treated in the emergency department, and then hospitalized. What is the best initial outcome? The patient will: a. verbalize a will to live by the end of the second hospital day. b. describe two new coping mechanisms by the end of the third hospital day. c. accurately delineate personal strengths by the end of first week of hospitalization. d. exercise suicide self-restraint by refraining from gestures or attempts to kill self for 24 hours.

ANS: D Suicide self-restraint relates most directly to the priority problem of risk for self-directed violence. The other outcomes are related to hope, coping, and self-esteem.

19. A nurse cares for an older adult patient admitted for treatment of depression. The health care provider prescribes an antidepressant medication, but the dose is more than the usual adult dose. The nurse should: a. implement the order. b. consult a drug reference. c. give the usual geriatric dosage. d. hold the medication and consult the health care provider.

ANS: D The dose of an antidepressant medication for older adult patients is often less than the usual adult dose. The nurse should withhold the medication and consult the health care provider who wrote the order. The nurse's duty is to intervene and protect the patient. Consulting a drug reference is unnecessary because the nurse already knows the dose is excessive. Implementing the order is negligent. Giving the usual geriatric dose would be wrong; a nurse without prescriptive privileges cannot change the dose.

22. Which assessment finding for a patient diagnosed with an eating disorder meets a criterion for hospitalization? a. Urine output: 40 ml/hr b. Pulse rate: 58 beats/min c. Serum potassium: 3.4 mEq/L d. Systolic blood pressure: 62 mm Hg

ANS: D Systolic blood pressure less than 70 mm Hg is an indicator for inpatient care. Many people without eating disorders have bradycardia (pulse less than 60 beats/min). Urine output should be more than 30 ml/hr. A potassium level of 3.4 mEq/L is within the normal range.

26. A patient diagnosed with depersonalization disorder tells the nurse, Its starting again. I feel as though Im going to float away. The nurse should help the patient by: a. encouraging meditation. b. administering an anxiolytic medication. c. helping the patient visualize a pleasant scene. d. helping the patient focus on the here and now.

ANS: D Talking with someone who can help the patient focus on reality allows the patient to interrupt the stimulus to dissociate. The incorrect options foster detachment.

18. The spouse of a patient who has delusions asks the nurse, "Are there any circumstances under which the treatment team is justified in violating the patient's right to confidentiality?" The nurse must reply that confidentiality may be breached: a. under no circumstances. b. at the discretion of the psychiatrist. c. when questions are asked by law enforcement. d. if the patient threatens the life of another person.

ANS: D The duty to warn a person whose life has been threatened by a patient under psychiatric treatment overrides the patient's right to confidentiality. The right to confidentiality is not suspended at the discretion of the therapist or for legal investigations.

16. For a patient diagnosed with dissociative amnesia, complete this outcome: Within 4 weeks, the patient will demonstrate an ability to execute complex mental processes by: a. functioning independently. b. verbalizing feelings of safety. c. regularly attending diversional activities. d. describing previously forgotten experiences.

ANS: D The ability to recall previously repressed or dissociated material is an indication that the patient is integrating identity and memory. A patient may verbalize feeling safe but may be disoriented and have memory deficits. A patient may be able to function independently on a basic level without being able to remember significant information. Attending activities is possible without being able to remember antecedent events.

13. A Filipino-American patient had this nursing diagnosis: Situational low self-esteem, related to poor social skills as evidenced by lack of eye contact. Interventions were used to raise the patient's self-esteem; however, after 3 weeks, the patient's eye contact did not improve. What is the most accurate analysis of this scenario? a. The patient's eye contact should have been directly addressed by role-playing to increase comfort with eye contact. b. The nurse should not have independently embarked on assessment, diagnosis, and planning for this patient. c. The patient's poor eye contact is indicative of anger and hostility that remain unaddressed. d. The nurse should have assessed the patient's culture before making this diagnosis and plan.

ANS: D The amount of eye contact in which a person engages is often culturally determined. In some cultures, eye contact is considered insolent, whereas in other cultures, eye contact is expected. Asian Americans, including persons from the Philippines, often prefer not to engage in direct eye contact.

23. What is the primary difference between somatic system disorders and dissociative disorders? a. Somatic system disorders are under voluntary control, whereas dissociative disorders are unconscious and automatic. b. Dissociative disorders are precipitated by psychological factors, whereas somatic system disorders are related to stress. c. Dissociative disorders are individually determined and related to childhood sexual abuse, whereas somatic system disorders are culture bound. d. Dissociative disorders entail stress-related disruptions of memory, consciousness, or identity, whereas somatic system disorders involve the expression of psychological stress through somatic symptoms.

ANS: D The correct response is the only fully accurate statement. Somatic system disorders are not under voluntary control and are not culture bound.

10. A psychiatric clinical nurse specialist uses cognitive therapy techniques with a patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Which statement by the staff nurse supports this type of therapy? a. What are your feelings about not eating the food that you prepare? b. You seem to feel much better about yourself when you eat something. c. It must be difficult to talk about private matters to someone you just met. d. Being thin does not seem to solve your problems. You are thin now but still unhappy.

ANS: D The correct response is the only strategy that attempts to question the patients distorted thinking.

3. A patient is hospitalized after an arrest for breaking windows in the home of a former domestic partner. The history reveals childhood abuse by a punitive parent, torturing family pets, and an arrest for disorderly conduct. Which nursing diagnosis has priority? a. Risk for injury b. Posttrauma response c. Disturbed thought processes d. Risk for other-directed violence

ANS: D The defining characteristics for Risk for other-directed violence include a history of being abused as a child, having committed other violent acts, and demonstrating poor impulse control. The defining characteristics for the other diagnoses are not present in this scenario.

14. A patient sits in silence for 20 minutes after a therapy appointment, appearing tense and vigilant. The patient abruptly stands and paces back and forth, clenching and unclenching fists, and then stops and stares in the face of a staff member. The patient is: a. demonstrating withdrawal. b. working through angry feelings. c. attempting to use relaxation strategies. d. exhibiting clues to potential aggression.

ANS: D The description of the patient's behavior shows the classic signs of someone whose potential for aggression is increasing.

23. Which documentation of a patient's behavior best demonstrates a nurse's observations? a. Isolates self from others. Frequently fell asleep during group. Vital signs stable. b. Calmer and more cooperative. Participated actively in group. No evidence of psychotic thinking. c. Appeared to hallucinate. Patient frequently increased volume on television, causing conflict with others d. Wears four layers of clothing. States, "I need protection from dangerous bacteria trying to penetrate my skin."

ANS: D The documentation states specific observations of the patient's appearance and the exact statements made. The other options are vague or subjective statements and can be interpreted in different ways.

11. A soldier returned 3 months ago from Afghanistan and was diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which social event would most likely be disturbing for this soldier? a. Halloween festival with neighborhood children b. Singing carols around a Christmas tree c. Family outing to the seashore d. Fireworks display on July 4th

ANS: D The exploding noises associated with fireworks are most likely to provoke exaggerated responses for this soldier. The distracters are not associated with offensive sounds.

10. A woman says, "I can't take it anymore! Last year my husband had an affair and now we don't communicate. Three months ago, I found a lump in my breast. Yesterday my daughter said she's quitting college and moving in with her boyfriend." Which issue should be the focus for crisis intervention? a. Possible mastectomy b. Disordered family communication c. Effects of the husband's infidelity d. Coping with the reaction to the daughter's events

ANS: D The focus of crisis intervention is on the most recent problem—"the straw that broke the camel's back." The patient has coped with the breast lesion, the husband's infidelity, and the disordered communication. Disequilibrium occurs only with the introduction of the daughter leaving college and moving.

6. An adult seeks counseling after the spouse is murdered. The adult angrily says, "I hate the beast that did this. It has ruined my life. During the trial, I don't know what I'll do if the jury doesn't return a guilty verdict." What is the nurse's highest priority response? a. "Would you like to talk to a psychiatrist about some medication to help you cope during the trial?" b. "What resources do you need to help you cope with this situation?" c. "Do you have enough support from your family and friends?" d. "Are you having thoughts of hurting yourself or others?"

ANS: D The highest nursing priority is safety. The nurse should assess suicidal and homicidal potentials. The incorrect options are important but not the highest priority.

10. An adult has recently been absent from work for 3-day periods on several occasions. Each time, the individual returns wearing dark glasses. Facial and body bruises are apparent. What is the occupational health nurse's priority assessment? a. Interpersonal relationships b. Work responsibilities c. Socialization skills d. Physical injuries

ANS: D The individual should be assessed for possible battering. Physical injuries are abuse indicators and are the primary focus for assessment. No data support the other options.

16. A nurse counsels a patient with recent suicidal ideation. Which is the nurse's most therapeutic comment? a. "Let's make a list of all your problems and think of solutions for each one." b. "I'm happy you're taking control of your problems and trying to find solutions." c. "When you have bad feelings, try to focus on positive experiences from your life." d. "Let's consider which problems are most important and which are less important."

ANS: D The nurse helps the patient develop effective coping skills. He or she assists the patient to reduce the overwhelming effects of problems by prioritizing them. The incorrect options continue to present overwhelming approaches to problem solving.

4. In a team meeting a nurse says, "I'm concerned whether we are behaving ethically by using restraint to prevent one patient from self-mutilation while the care plan for another patient who has also self-mutilated calls for one-on-one supervision." Which ethical principle most clearly applies to this situation? a. Beneficence b. Autonomy c. Fidelity d. Justice

ANS: D The nurse is concerned about justice, that is, the fair treatment with the least restrictive methods for both patients. Beneficence means promoting the good of others. Autonomy is the right to make one's own decisions. Fidelity is the observance of loyalty and commitment to the patient.

21. Information from a patient's record that indicates marginal coping skills and the need for careful assessment of the risk for violence is a history of: a. childhood trauma. b. family involvement. c. academic problems. d. chemical dependence.

ANS: D The nurse should suspect marginal coping skills in a patient with chemical dependence. He or she is often anxious, may be concerned about inadequate pain relief, and may have a personality style that externalizes blame. The incorrect options do not signal as high a degree of risk as chemical dependence.

A nurse prepares a plan of care for a patient diagnosed with adult attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which intervention should be included? a. Remind the patient of priorities and deadlines. b. Teach work-related skills such as basic computer literacy. c. Establish penalties for failing to organize and prioritize tasks. d. Give encouragement and strategies for managing and organizing.

ANS: D The nurse's major responsibilities lie with encouraging the patient to learn and use necessary skills, assisting the patient to stay on task. The nurse is not an ever-present taskmaster or disciplinarian. The nurse does not teach work-related skills; vocational staff members assume those types of tasks.

13. A nursing diagnosis for a patient diagnosed with bulimia nervosa is: Ineffective coping, related to feelings of loneliness as evidenced by overeating to comfort self, followed by self-induced vomiting. The best outcome related to this diagnosis is, Within 2 weeks the patient will: a. appropriately express angry feelings. b. verbalize two positive things about self. c. verbalize the importance of eating a balanced diet. d. identify two alternative methods of coping with loneliness.

ANS: D The outcome of identifying alternative coping strategies is most directly related to the diagnosis of Ineffective coping. Verbalizing positive characteristics of self and verbalizing the importance of eating a balanced diet are outcomes that might be used for other nursing diagnoses. Appropriately expressing angry feelings is not measurable.

7. A nurse assessing a patient diagnosed with a somatic system disorder is most likely to note that the patient: a. readily sees a relationship between symptoms and interpersonal conflicts. b. rarely derives personal benefit from the symptoms. c. has little difficulty communicating emotional needs. d. has unmet needs related to comfort and activity.

ANS: D The patient diagnosed with a somatic system disorder frequently has altered comfort and activity needs. In addition, hygiene, safety, and security needs may also be compromised. The patient is rarely able to see a relation between symptoms and events in his or her life, which is readily discernible to health professionals. Patients with somatic system disorders often derive secondary gain from their symptoms and/or have considerable difficulty identifying feelings and conveying emotional needs to others.

23. A nurse answers a suicide crisis line. A caller says, "I live alone in a home several miles from my nearest neighbors. I have been considering suicide for 2 months. I have had several drinks and now my gun is loaded. I'm going to shoot myself in the heart." How would the nurse assess the lethality of this plan? a. No risk b. Low level c. Moderate level d. High level

ANS: D The patient has a highly detailed plan, a highly lethal method, the means to carry it out, lowered impulse control because of alcohol ingestion, and a low potential for rescue.

25. After completing the contracted number of visits to the crisis clinic, an adult says, "I've emerged from this as a stronger person. You supported me while I worked through my feelings of loss and helped me find community resources. I'm benefiting from a support group." The nurse can evaluate the patient's feelings about the care received as: a. not at all satisfied b. somewhat satisfied c. moderately satisfied d. very satisfied

ANS: D The patient mentions a number of indicators that suggest a high degree of satisfaction with the Nursing Outcomes Classification of patient satisfaction: psychologic care. No indicators express low-to-moderate satisfaction.

24. Which nursing diagnosis is more applicable for a patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa who restricts intake and is 20% below normal weight than for a 130-pound patient diagnosed with bulimia nervosa who purges? a. Powerlessness b. Ineffective coping c. Disturbed body image d. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements

ANS: D The patient with bulimia nervosa usually maintains a close to normal weight, whereas the patient with anorexia nervosa may approach starvation. The incorrect options may be appropriate for patients with either anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa.

5. A patient is brought to the emergency department after a motorcycle accident. The patient is alert, responsive, and diagnosed with a broken leg. The patient's vital signs are temperature (T), 98.6° F; pulse (P), 72 beats per minute (bpm); and respirations (R), 16 breaths per minute. After being informed that surgery is required for the broken leg, which vital sign readings would be expected? a. T, 98.6°; P, 64; R, 14 b. T, 98.6°; P, 68; R, 12 c. T, 98.6°; P, 62; R, 16 d. T, 98.6°; P, 84; R, 22

ANS: D The patient would experience stress associated with the anticipation of surgery. In times of stress, the sympathetic nervous system takes over (fight or flight response) and sends signals to the adrenal glands thereby releasing norepinephrine. The circulating norepinephrine increases the heart rate. Respirations increase bringing more oxygen to the lungs.

4. A nurse interviews a person abducted and raped at gunpoint by an unknown assailant. The person says, "I can't talk about it. Nothing happened. I have to forget!" What is the person's present coping strategy? a. Somatic reaction b. Repression c. Projection d. Denial

ANS: D The patient's statements reflect the use of the ego defense mechanism denial. This mechanism may be unconsciously used to protect the person from the emotionally overwhelming reality of rape. The patient's statements do not reflect somatic symptoms, repression, or projection.

5. A patient was diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. The history shows the patient virtually stopped eating 5 months ago and has lost 25% of body weight. The patients current serum potassium is 2.7 mg/dl. Which nursing diagnosis applies? a. Adult failure to thrive, related to abuse of laxatives as evidenced by electrolyte imbalances and weight loss b. Disturbed energy field, related to physical exertion in excess of energy produced through caloric intake as evidenced by weight loss and hyperkalemia c. Ineffective health maintenance, related to self-induced vomiting as evidenced by swollen parotid glands and hyperkalemia d. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements, related to malnutrition as evidenced by loss of 25% of body weight and hypokalemia

ANS: D The patients history and laboratory results support the correct nursing diagnosis. Available data do not confirm that the patient uses laxatives, induces vomiting, or exercises excessively. The patient has hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia.

18. A patient being admitted to the eating disorders unit has a yellow cast to the skin and fine, downy hair covering the body. The patient weighs 70 pounds; height is 5 feet, 4 inches. The patient is quiet and says only, I wont eat until I look thin. What is the priority initial nursing diagnosis? a. Anxiety, related to fear of weight gain b. Disturbed body image, related to weight loss c. Ineffective coping, related to lack of conflict resolution skills d. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements, related to self-starvation

ANS: D The physical assessment shows cachexia, which indicates imbalanced nutrition. Addressing the patients self-starvation is the priority above the incorrect responses.

12. An example of a breach of a patient's right to privacy occurs when a nurse: a. asks a family to share information about a patient's prehospitalization behavior. b. discusses the patient's history with other staff members during care planning. c. documents the patient's daily behaviors during hospitalization. d. releases information to the patient's employer without consent.

ANS: D The release of information without patient authorization violates the patient's right to privacy. The other options are acceptable nursing practices.

17. Which scenario is an example of an adventitious crisis? a. Death of a child from sudden infant death syndrome b. Being fired from a job because of company downsizing c. Retirement of a 55-year-old d. Riot at a rock concert

ANS: D The rock concert riot is unplanned, accidental, violent, and not a part of everyday life. The incorrect options are examples of situational or maturational crises.

1. A patient says to the nurse, "I dreamed I was stoned. When I woke up, I felt emotionally drained, as though I hadn't rested well." Which comment would be appropriate if the nurse seeks clarification? a. "It sounds as though you were uncomfortable with the content of your dream." b. "I understand what you're saying. Bad dreams leave me feeling tired, too." c. "So, all in all, you feel as though you had a rather poor night's sleep?" d. "Can you give me an example of what you mean by 'stoned'?"

ANS: D The technique of clarification is therapeutic and helps the nurse examine the meaning of the patient's statement. Asking for a definition of "stoned" directly asks for clarification. Restating that the patient is uncomfortable with the dream's content is parroting, a nontherapeutic technique. The other responses fail to clarify the meaning of the patient's comment.

11. Select the most helpful response for a nurse to make when a patient being treated as an outpatient states, "I am considering suicide." a. "I'm glad you shared this. Please do not worry. We will handle it together." b. "I think you should admit yourself to the hospital to get help." c. "We need to talk about the good things you have to live for." d. "Bringing this up is a very positive action on your part."

ANS: D This response gives the patient reinforcement and validation for making a positive response rather than acting out the suicidal impulse. It gives neither advice nor false reassurance, and it does not imply stereotypes such as, "You have a lot to live for." It uses the patient's ambivalence and sets the stage for more realistic problem-solving strategies.

The manager of a health club put a hidden camera in the women's locker room and videotaped women as they showered and dressed. Which sexual dysfunction is evident? a. Frotteurism b. Exhibitionism c. Pedophilia d. Voyeurism

ANS: D Voyeurism is the viewing of others in intimate situations such as undressing, bathing, or having sexual relations. Voyeurs are often called "peeping Toms." Frotteurism is touching or rubbing against a nonconsenting person to achieve sexual gratification. Exhibitionists are interested in exposing their genitals to others. Pedophiles seek sexual contact with prepubescent children.

26. A severely depressed patient who has been on suicide precautions tells the nurse, "I am feeling a lot better, so you can stop watching me. I have taken too much of your time already." Which is the nurse's best response? a. "I wonder what this sudden change is all about. Please tell me more." b. "I am glad you are feeling better. The team will consider your request." c. "You should not try to direct your care. Leave that to the treatment team." d. "Because we are concerned about your safety, we will continue with our plan."

ANS: D When a patient seeks to have precautions lifted by professing to feel better, the patient may be seeking greater freedom in which to attempt suicide. Changing the treatment plan requires careful evaluation of outcome indicators by the staff. The incorrect options will not cause the patient to admit to a suicidal plan, do not convey concern for the patient, or suggest that the patient is not a partner in the care process.

16. During an interview, a patient attempts to shift the focus from self to the nurse by asking personal questions. The nurse should respond by saying: a. "You've turned the tables on me." b. "Nurses direct the interviews with patients." c. "Do not ask questions about my personal life." d. "The time we spend together is to discuss your concerns."

ANS: D When a patient tries to focus on the nurse, the nurse should refocus the discussion back onto the patient. Telling the patient that interview time should be used to discuss patient concerns refocuses discussion in a neutral way. Telling patients not to ask about the nurse's personal life shows indignation. Saying that nurses prefer to direct the interview reflects superiority. Saying "You've turned the tables on me" states the fact but does not refocus the interview.

8. To plan effective care for patients diagnosed with somatic system disorders, the nurse should understand that patients have difficulty giving up the symptoms because the symptoms: a. are generally chronic in nature. b. have a physiological basis. c. can be voluntarily controlled. d. provide relief from health anxiety.

ANS: D the unconscious level, the patients primary gain from the symptoms is anxiety relief. Considering that the symptoms actually make the patient more psychologically comfortable and may also provide a secondary gain, patients frequently and fiercely cling to the symptoms. The symptoms tend to be chronic; however, this does not explain why they are difficult to give up. The symptoms are not under voluntary control or physiologically based.

A patient with borderline personality disorder self-inflicted wrist lacerations after gaining new privileges on the unit. The cause of the self-mutilation is probably related to: a. inherited disorder that manifests itself as an incapacity to tolerate stress b. use of projective identification and splitting to bring anxiety to manageable levels c. constitutional inability to regulate affect, predisposing to psychic disorganization d. fear of abandonment associated with progress toward autonomy and independence

ANS: D Fear of abandonment is a central theme for most patients with borderline personality disorder. This fear is often exacerbated when patients with borderline personality disorder experience success or growth.

Which statement made by a patient with borderline personality disorder indicates the treatment plan is effective? a. "I think you are the best nurse on the unit." b. "I'm never going to get high on drugs again." c. "I hate my doctor for not giving me what I ask for." d. "I felt empty and wanted to cut myself, so I called you."

ANS: D Seeking a staff member instead of impulsively self-mutilating shows an adaptive coping strategy. The incorrect responses demonstrate idealization, devaluation, and wishful thinking.

The history shows that a newly admitted patient has impulsivity. The nurse would expect behavior characterized by: a. adherence to a strict moral code. b. manipulative, controlling strategies. c. postponing gratification to an appropriate time. d. little time elapsed between thought and action.

ANS: D The impulsive individual acts in haste without taking time to consider the consequences of the action. None of the other options describes impulsivity.

A patient's spouse filed charges of battery. The patient says, "I'm sorry for what I did. I need psychiatric help." The patient has a long history of acting-out behaviors and several arrests. Which statement by the patient suggests an antisocial personality disorder? a. "I have a quick temper, but I can usually keep it under control." b. "I've done some stupid things in my life, but I've learned a lesson." c. "I'm feeling terrible about the way my behavior has hurt my family." d. "I hit because I'm tired of being nagged. My spouse deserves the beating."

ANS: D The patient with an antisocial personality disorder often impulsively acts out feelings of anger and feels no guilt or remorse. Patients with antisocial personality disorders rarely seem to learn from experience or feel true remorse. Problems with anger management and impulse control are common.

For which behavior would limit setting be most essential? The patient: a. clings to the nurse and asks for advice about inconsequential matters. b. is flirtatious and provocative with staff members of the opposite sex. c. is hypervigilant and refuses to attend unit activities. d. urges a suspicious patient to hit anyone who stares.

ANS: D This option is an example of a manipulative behavior. Because manipulation violates the rights of others, limit setting is absolutely necessary. Furthermore, limit setting is necessary in this case because the safety of at least two other patients is at risk. Limit setting may be occasionally used with dependent behavior (clinging to the nurse) and histrionic behavior (flirting with staff members), but other therapeutic techniques are also useful. Limit setting is not needed for a patient who is hypervigilant and refuses to attend unit activities; rather, the need to develop trust is central to patient compliance.

3. While caring for a patient with a methamphetamine overdose, which tasks are the priorities of care? Select all that apply. a. Administration of naloxone (Narcan) b. Vitamin B12 and folate supplements c. Restoring nutritional integrity d. Prevention of seizures e. Reduction of fever

ANS: D, E Hyperpyrexia and convulsions are common when a patient has overdosed on a CNS stimulant. These problems are life threatening and take priority. Naloxone (Narcan) is administered for opiate overdoses. Vitamin B12 and folate may be helpful for overdoses from solvents, gases, or nitrates. Nutrition is not a priority in an overdose situation.

4. A patient says, "Please don't share information about me with the other people." How should the nurse respond? a. "I won't share information with others without your permission, but I will share information about you with other staff members." b. "A therapeutic relationship is just between the nurse and the patient. It's up to you to tell others what you want them to know." c. "It really depends on what you choose to tell me. I will be glad to disclose at the end of each session what I will report to others." d. "I cannot tell anyone about you. It will be as though I am talking about my own problems, and we can help each other by keeping it between us."

ANS:A A patient has the right to know with whom the nurse will share information and that confidentiality will be protected. Although the relationship is primarily between the nurse and patient, other staff members need to know pertinent data. The other incorrect responses promote incomplete disclosure on the part of the patient, require daily renegotiation of an issue that should be resolved as the nurse-patient contract is established, and suggest mutual problem solving. The relationship must be patient centered.

24. A community mental health nurse has worked with a patient for 3 years but is moving out of the city and terminates the relationship. A new nurse who begins work with this patient will: a. begin at the orientation phase. b. resume the working relationship. c. enter into a social relationship. d. return to the emotional catharsis phase.

ANS:A After the termination of a long-term relationship, the patient and new nurse usually have to begin at ground zero, the orientation phase, to build a new relationship. If termination is successfully completed, then the orientation phase sometimes progresses quickly to the working phase. Other times, even after successful termination, the orientation phase may be prolonged.

17. A patient says, "I've done a lot of cheating and manipulating in my relationships." Select a nonjudgmental response by the nurse. a. "How do you feel about that?" b. "It's good that you realize this." c. "That's not a good way to behave." d. "Have you outgrown that type of behavior?"

ANS:A Asking a patient to reflect on feelings about his or her actions does not imply any judgment about those actions, and it encourages the patient to explore feelings and values. The remaining options offer negative judgments.

2. Which statement shows a nurse has empathy for a patient who made a suicide attempt? a. "You must have been very upset when you tried to hurt yourself." b. "It makes me sad to see you going through such a difficult experience." c. "If you tell me what is troubling you, I can help you solve your problems." d. "Suicide is a drastic solution to a problem that may not be such a serious matter."

ANS:A Empathy permits the nurse to see an event from the patient's perspective, understand the patient's feelings, and communicate this to the patient. The incorrect responses are nurse centered (focusing on the nurse's feelings rather than the patient's), belittling, and sympathetic.

13. A nurse explains to the family of a patient who is mentally ill how the nurse-patient relationship differs from social relationships. Which is the best explanation? a. "The focus is on the patient. Problems are discussed by the nurse and patient, but solutions are implemented by the patient." b. "The focus shifts from nurse to patient as the relationship develops. Advice is given by both, and solutions are implemented." c. "The focus of the relationship is socialization. Mutual needs are met, and feelings are openly shared." d. "The focus is the creation of a partnership in which each member is concerned with the growth and satisfaction of the other."

ANS:A Only the correct response describes the elements of a therapeutic relationship. The remaining responses describe events that occur in social or intimate relationships.

22. As a nurse discharges a patient, the patient gives the nurse a card of appreciation made in an arts and crafts group. What is the nurse's best action? a. Recognize the effectiveness of the relationship and patient's thoughtfulness. Accept the card. b. Inform the patient that accepting gifts violates the policies of the facility. Decline the card. c. Acknowledge the patient's transition through the termination phase but decline the card. d. Accept the card and invite the patient to return to participate in other arts and crafts groups.

ANS:A The nurse must consider the meaning, timing, and value of the gift. In this instance, the nurse should accept the patient's expression of gratitude.

9. At what point in the nurse-patient relationship should a nurse plan to first address termination? a. In the orientation phase b. During the working phase c. In the termination phase d. When the patient initially brings up the topic

ANS:A The patient has a right to know the conditions of the nurse-patient relationship. If the relationship is to be time limited, then the patient should be informed of the number of sessions. If it is open ended, then the termination date will not be known at the outset and the patient will know that the issue will be negotiated at a later date. The nurse is responsible for bringing up the topic of termination early in the relationship, usually during the orientation phase.

26. A nurse says, "I am the only one who truly understands this patient. Other staff members are too critical." The nurse's statement indicates: a. boundary blurring. b. sexual harassment. c. positive regard. d. advocacy.

ANS:A When the role of the nurse and the role of the patient shift, boundary blurring may arise. In this situation, the nurse is becoming overinvolved with the patient as a probable result of unrecognized countertransference. When boundary issues occur, the need for supervision exists. The situation does not describe sexual harassment. Data are not present to suggest positive regard or advocacy.

A nurse ends a relationship with a patient. Which actions by the nurse should be included in the termination phase? Select all that apply. a. Focus dialog with the patient on problems that may occur in the future. b. Help the patient express feelings about the relationship with the nurse. c. Help the patient prioritize and modify socially unacceptable behaviors. d. Reinforce expectations regarding the parameters of the relationship. e. Help the patient identify strengths, limitations, and problems.

ANS:A, B The correct actions are part of the termination phase. The other actions are used in the working and orientation phases.

Which descriptors exemplify consistency regarding therapeutic nurse-patient relationships? Select all that apply. a. Having the same nurse care for a patient on a daily basis b. Encouraging a patient to share initial impressions of staff c. Providing a schedule of daily activities to a patient d. Setting a time for regular sessions with a patient e. Offering solutions to a patient's problems

ANS:A, C, D Consistency implies predictability. Having the same nurse see the patient daily, providing a daily schedule of patient activities, and setting a regular time for sessions help a patient to predict what will happen during each day and to develop a greater degree of security and comfort. Encouraging a patient to share initial impressions of staff and giving advice are not related to consistency and would not be considered a therapeutic intervention.

A new psychiatric nurse has a parent diagnosed with bipolar disorder. This nurse angrily recalls embarrassing events concerning the parent's behavior in the community. Select the best ways for this nurse to cope with these feelings. Select all that apply. a. Seek ways to use the understanding gained from childhood to help patients cope with their own illnesses. b. Recognize that these feelings are unhealthy, and try to suppress them when working with patients. c. Recognize that psychiatric nursing is not an appropriate career choice, and explore other nursing specialties. d. Begin new patient relationships by saying, "My own parent had mental illness, so I accept it without stigma." e. Recognize that the feelings may add sensitivity to the nurse's practice, but supervision is important.

ANS:A, E The nurse needs to explore these feelings. An experienced psychiatric nurse is a resource who may be helpful. The knowledge and experience gained from the nurse's relationship with a parent who is mentally ill may contribute sensitivity to a compassionate practice. Self-disclosure and suppression are not adaptive coping strategies. The nurse should not give up on this area of practice without first seeking ways to cope with the memories.

10. A nurse should introduce the matter of a contract during the first session with a new patient because contracts: a. specify what the nurse will do for the patient. b. spell out the participation and responsibilities of each party. c. indicate the feeling tone established between the participants. d. are binding and prevent either party from prematurely ending the relationship.

ANS:B A contract emphasizes that the nurse works with the patient rather than doing something for the patient. "Working with" is a process that suggests each party is expected to participate and share responsibility for the outcomes. Contracts do not, however, stipulate roles or feeling tone, or that premature termination is forbidden.

1. A nurse assesses a confused older adult. The nurse experiences sadness and reflects, "The patient is like one of my grandparents . . . so helpless." What feelings does the nurse describe? a. Transference b. Countertransference c. Catastrophic reaction d. Defensive coping reaction

ANS:B Countertransference is the nurse's transference or response to a patient that is based on the nurse's unconscious needs, conflicts, problems, or view of the world.

14. A nurse wants to demonstrate genuineness with a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia. The nurse should: a. restate what the patient says. b. use congruent communication strategies. c. use self-disclosure in patient interactions. d. consistently interpret the patient's behaviors.

ANS:B Genuineness is a desirable characteristic involving an awareness of one's own feelings as they arise and the ability to communicate them when appropriate. The incorrect options are undesirable in a therapeutic relationship.

16. A nurse wants to enhance the growth of a patient by showing positive regard. The action consistent with this wish is: a. making rounds daily. b. staying with a tearful patient. c. administering daily medication as prescribed. d. examining personal feelings about a patient.

ANS:B Staying with a crying patient offers support and shows positive regard. Administering daily medication and making rounds are tasks that could be part of an assignment and do not necessarily reflect positive regard. Examining feelings regarding a patient addresses the nurse's ability to be therapeutic.

7. What is the desirable outcome for the orientation stage of a nurse-patient relationship? The patient will demonstrate behaviors that indicate: a. great sense of independence. b. rapport and trust with the nurse. c. self-responsibility and autonomy. d. resolution of feelings of transference.

ANS:B The development of rapport and trust is necessary before the relationship can progress to the working phase. Behaviors indicating a greater sense of independence, self-responsibility, and resolved transference occur in the working phase.

25. As a patient diagnosed with mental illness is being discharged from a facility, a nurse invites the patient to the annual staff picnic. What is the best analysis of this scenario? a. The invitation facilitates dependency on the nurse. b. The nurse's action blurs the boundaries of the therapeutic relationship. c. The invitation is therapeutic for the patient's diversional activity deficit. d. The nurse's action assists the patient's integration into community living.

ANS:B The invitation creates a social relationship rather than a therapeutic relationship.

23. A patient says, "I'm still on restriction, but I want to attend some off-unit activities. Would you ask the doctor to change my privileges?" What is the nurse's best response? a. "Why are you asking me when you're able to speak for yourself?" b. "I will be glad to address it when I see your doctor later today." c. "That's a good topic for you to take up with your doctor." d. "Do you think you can't speak to a doctor?"

ANS:C Nurses should encourage patients to work at their optimal level of functioning. A nurse does not act for the patient unless it is necessary. Acting for a patient increases feelings of helplessness and dependency.

A new nurse tells a mentor, "I want to convey to my patients that I am interested in them and that I want to listen to what they have to say." Which behaviors are helpful in meeting the nurse's goal? Select all that apply. a. Sitting behind a desk, facing the patient. b. Introducing self to a patient and identifying own role. c. Using facial expressions that convey interest and encouragement. d. Assuming an open body posture and sometimes mirror imaging. e. Maintaining control of the topic under discussion by asking direct questions.

ANS:B, C, D Trust is fostered when the nurse gives an introduction and identifies his or her role. Facial expressions that convey interest and encouragement support the nurse's verbal statements to that effect and strengthen the message. An open body posture conveys openness to listening to what the patient has to say. Mirror imaging enhances patient comfort. A desk would place a physical barrier between the nurse and patient. A face-to-face stance should be avoided when possible, and a less intense, 90- or 120-degree angle is used to permit either party to look away without discomfort. Once introductions have been made, the nurse focuses the interview on the patient by using open-ended questions, such as, "Where should we start?"

11. As a nurse escorts a patient being discharged after treatment for major depressive disorder, the patient gives the nurse a gold necklace with a heart pendant and says, "Thank you for helping mend my broken heart." Which is the nurse's best response? a. "Accepting gifts violates the policies and procedures of the facility." b. "I'm glad you feel so much better now. Thank you for the beautiful necklace." c. "I'm glad I could help you, but I can't accept the gift. My reward is seeing you with a renewed sense of hope." d. "Helping people is what nursing is all about. It's rewarding to me when patients recognize how hard we work."

ANS:C Accepting a gift creates a social rather than a therapeutic relationship with the patient and blurs the boundaries of the relationship. A caring nurse will acknowledge the patient's gesture of appreciation, but the gift should not be accepted.

8. During which phase of the nurse-patient relationship can the nurse anticipate that identified patient issues will be explored and resolved? a. Preorientation b. Orientation c. Working d. Termination

ANS:C During the working phase, the nurse strives to assist the patient in making connections among dysfunctional behaviors, thinking, and emotions and offers support while alternative coping behaviors are tried.

A patient with schizophrenia is acutely disturbed and violent. After several doses of haloperidol (Haldol), the patient is calm. Two hours later the nurse sees the patient's head rotated to one side in a stiff position; the lower jaw is thrust forward, and the patient is drooling. Which problem is most likely?

Acute dystonic reaction

19. Which issues should a nurse address during the first interview with a patient diagnosed with a psychiatric disorder? a. Trust, congruence, attitudes, and boundaries b. Goals, resistance, unconscious motivations, and diversion c. Relationship parameters, the contract, confidentiality, and termination d. Transference, countertransference, intimacy, and developing resources

ANS:C Relationship parameters, the contract, confidentiality, and termination are issues that should be considered during the orientation phase of the relationship. The remaining options are issues that are dealt with later.

3. After several therapeutic encounters with a patient who recently attempted suicide, which occurrence should cause the nurse to consider the possibility of countertransference? a. The patient's reactions toward the nurse seem realistic and appropriate. b. The patient states, "Talking to you feels like talking to my parents." c. The nurse feels unusually happy when the patient's mood begins to lift. d. The nurse develops a trusting relationship with the patient.

ANS:C Strong positive or negative reactions toward a patient or an overidentification with a patient signals possible countertransference. Nurses must carefully monitor their own feelings and reactions to detect countertransference and then seek supervision. Realistic and appropriate reactions from a patient toward a nurse are desirable. One incorrect response suggests transference. A trusting relationship with the patient is desirable

6. Termination of a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship with a patient has been successful when the nurse: a. avoids upsetting the patient by shifting focus to other patients before the discharge. b. gives the patient a personal telephone number and permission to call after discharge. c. discusses with the patient changes that have happened during the relationship and evaluates the outcomes. d. offers to meet the patient for coffee and conversation three times a week after discharge.

ANS:C Summarizing and evaluating progress help validate the experience for the patient and the nurse and facilitate closure. Termination must be discussed; avoiding the discussion by spending little time with the patient promotes feelings of abandonment. Successful termination requires that the relationship be brought to closure without the possibility of dependency-producing ongoing contact.

21. Which behavior shows that a nurse values autonomy? The nurse: a. sets limits on a patient's romantic overtures toward the nurse. b. suggests one-on-one supervision for a patient who is suicidal. c. informs a patient that the spouse will not be in during visiting hours. d. discusses available alternatives and helps the patient weigh the consequences.

ANS:D A high level of valuing is acting on one's belief. Autonomy is supported when the nurse helps a patient weigh alternatives and their consequences before the patient makes a decision. Autonomy or self-determination is not the issue in any of the other behaviors.

20. During the first interview, a nurse notices that the patient does not make eye contact. The nurse can correctly analyze that: a. the patient is not truthful. b. the patient is feeling sad. c. the patient has a poor self-concept. d. more information is needed to draw a conclusion.

ANS:D The data are insufficient to draw a conclusion. The nurse must continue to assess.

15. A nurse caring for a withdrawn, suspicious patient recognizes the development of feelings of anger toward the patient. The nurse should: a.suppress the angry feelings. b.express the anger openly and directly with the patient. c.tell the nurse manager to assign the patient to another nurse. d.discuss the anger with a clinician during a supervisory session.

ANS:D The nurse is accountable for the relationship. Objectivity is threatened by strong positive or negative feelings toward a patient. Supervision is necessary to work through a countertransference of feelings.

12. Which remark by a patient indicates passage from the orientation phase to the working phase of a nurse-patient relationship? a. "I don't have any problems." b. "It is so difficult for me to talk about my problems." c. "I don't know how talking about things twice a week can help." d. "I want to find a way to deal with my anger without becoming violent."

ANS:D Thinking about a more constructive approach to dealing with anger indicates a readiness to make a behavioral change. Behavioral change is associated with the working phase of the relationship. Denial is often seen in the orientation phase. It is common early in the relationship, before rapport and trust are firmly established, for a patient to express difficulty in talking about problems. Stating skepticism about the effectiveness of the nurse-patient relationship is more typically a reaction during the orientation phase.

18. A patient says, "People should be allowed to commit suicide without interference from others." A nurse replies, "You're wrong. Nothing is bad enough to justify death." What is the best analysis of this interchange? a. The patient is correct. b. The nurse is correct. c. Neither person is totally correct. d. Differing values are reflected in the two statements.

ANS:D Values guide beliefs and actions. The individuals stating their positions place different values on life and autonomy. Nurses must be aware of their own values and be sensitive to the values of others.

5. A nurse is talking with a patient, and 5 minutes remain in the session. The patient has been silent for most of the session. Another patient comes to the door of the room, interrupts, and says to the nurse, "I really need to talk to you right now." The nurse should: a. say to the interrupting patient, "I am not available to talk with you at the present time." b. end the unproductive session with the current patient and spend time with the patient who has just interrupted. c. invite the interrupting patient to join in the session with the current patient. d. tell the patient who interrupted, "This session is 5 more minutes; then, I will talk with you."

ANS:D When a specific duration for a session has been set, the nurse must adhere to the schedule. Leaving the first patient would be equivalent to abandonment and would destroy any trust the patient had in the nurse. Adhering to the contract demonstrates that the nurse can be trusted and that the patient and the sessions are important. The incorrect responses preserve the nurse-patient relationship with the silent patient but may seem abrupt to the interrupting patient, abandon the silent patient, or fail to observe the contract with the silent patient.

An acutely violent patient with schizophrenia receives several doses of haloperidol (Haldol). Two hours later the nurse notices the patient's head rotated to one side in a stiffly fixed position; the lower jaw is thrust forward, and the patient is drooling. Which intervention by the nurse is indicated?

Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 50 mg IM from the PRN medication administration record.

A patient with delusions of persecution about being poisoned has refused all hospital meals for 3 days. Which intervention is most likely to be acceptable to the patient?

Allowing the patient to have supervised access to food vending machines

A patient diagnosed with disorganized schizophrenia says, "It's beat. Time to eat. No room for the cat." What type of verbalization is evident?

Associative looseness

Withdrawn patients with schizophrenia:

Avoid relationships because they become anxious with emotional closeness.

A child blurts out answers to questions before the questions are complete, demonstrates an inability to take turns, and persistently interrupts and intrudes in the conversations of others. Assessment data show these behaviors relate primarily to: a. hyperactivity b. impulsivity c. inattention d. defiance

B

When assessing a 2-year-old toddler with suspected autistic disorder, a nurse expects: a. hyperactivity and attention deficits. b. failure to develop interpersonal skills. c. history of disobedience and destructive acts. d. high levels of anxiety when separated from a parent.

B

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 4. A patient has delusions and hallucinations. Before beginning treatment with a psychotropic medication, the health care provider wants to rule out the presence of a brain tumor. For which test will a nurse need to prepare the patient? a. Cerebral arteriogram b. Computed tomography (CT) scan or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) c. Positron emission tomography (PET) or single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) d. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)

B A CT scan and an MRI visualize neoplasms and other structural abnormalities. A PET scan, SPECT scan, and fMRI, which give information about brain function, are not indicated. An arteriogram would not be appropriate. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Page: 52 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 14. A patient is hospitalized for major depression. Of the medications listed, a nurse can expect to provide the patient with teaching about: a. chlordiazepoxide (Librium) b. fluoxetine (Prozac) c. clozapine (Clozaril) d. tacrine (Cognex)

B Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), an antidepressant that blocks the reuptake of serotonin with few anticholinergic and sedating side effects; clozapine (Clozaril) is an antipsychotic medication; chlordiazepoxide (Librium) is an anxiolytic drug; and tacrine (Cognex) is used to treat Alzheimer disease. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Page: 54|Pages: 59-60 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 11. A patient taking medication for mental illness develops restlessness and an uncontrollable need to be in motion. A nurse can correctly analyze that these symptoms are related to which drug action? a. Anticholinergic effects b. Dopamine-blocking effects c. Endocrine-stimulating effects d. Ability to stimulate spinal nerves

B Medications that block dopamine often produce disturbances of movement such as akathisia because dopamine affects neurons involved in both the thought processes and movement regulation. Anticholinergic effects include dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation. Akathisia is not caused by endocrine stimulation or spinal nerve stimulation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Pages: 56-57|Pages: 61-62 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

4: Biological Basis for Understanding Psychopharmacology Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A patient asks a nurse, "What are neurotransmitters? My doctor says mine are out of balance." The best reply would be: a. "You must feel relieved to know that your problem has a physical basis." b. "Neurotransmitters are chemicals that pass messages between brain cells." c. "It is a high-level concept to explain. You should ask the doctor to tell you more." d. "Neurotransmitters are substances we eat daily that influence memory and mood."

B Stating that neurotransmitters are chemicals that pass messages between brain cells gives the most accurate information. Neurotransmitters are messengers in the central nervous system. They are released from the axon terminal, diffuse across the synapse, and attach to specialized receptors on the postsynaptic neuron. The incorrect responses do not answer the patient's question, are demeaning, and provide untrue and misleading information. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Pages: 51-52 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 15. A patient hospitalized with a mood disorder has aggression, agitation, talkativeness, and irritability. A nurse begins the care plan based on the expectation that the health care provider is most likely to prescribe a medication classified as a(n): a. anticholinergic b. mood stabilizer c. psychostimulant d. antidepressant

B The symptoms describe a manic attack. Mania is effectively treated by the antimanic drug lithium and selected anticonvulsants such as carbamazepine, valproic acid, and lamotrigine. No drugs from the other classifications listed are effective in the treatment of mania. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Pages: 61-62 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

What are the primary distinguishing factors between the behavior of children with oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) and those with conduct disorder (CD)? The child with: (select all that apply). a. ODD relives traumatic events by acting them out. b. ODD tests limits and disobeys authority figures. c. ODD has difficulty separating from the parents. d. CD uses stereotypical or repetitive language. e. CD often violates the rights of others.

BE

A 15-year-old adolescent has run away from home six times. After the adolescent was arrested for prostitution, the parents told the court, "We can't manage our teenager." The adolescent is physically abusive to the mother and defiant with the father. The adolescent's problem is most consistent with criteria for: a. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder ADHD. b. Childhood depression. c. Conduct disorder CD. d. autism spectrum disorder ASD

C

An adolescent acts out in disruptive ways. When this adolescent threatens to throw a pool ball at another adolescent, which comment by the nurse would set limits? a. "Attention, everyone. We are all going to the craft room." b. "You will be taken to seclusion if you throw that ball." c. "Do not throw the ball. Put it back on the pool table." d. "Please do not lose control of your emotions."

C

An adolescent was arrested for prostitution and assault on a parent. The adolescent says, "I hate my parents. They focus all their attention on my brother, who's perfect in their eyes." Which type of therapy might promote the greatest change in this adolescent's behavior? a. Bibliotherapy b. Play therapy c. Family therapy d. Art therapy

C

Shortly after a 15-year-old's parents announce a plan to divorce, the adolescent stops participating in sports, sits alone at lunch, and avoids former friends. The adolescent says, "All the other kids have families. If my parents loved me, then they would stay together." Which nursing intervention is most appropriate? a. Develop a plan for activities of daily living. b. Communicate disbelief relative to the adolescent's feelings. c. Assist the adolescent to differentiate reality from perceptions. d. Assess and document the adolescent's level of depression daily.

C

The parent of a child with Tourette's disorder says to the nurse, "I think my child is faking the tics because they come and go." Which response by the nurse is accurate? a. "Perhaps your child was misdiagnosed." b. "Your observation indicates the medication is effective." c. "Tics often change frequency or severity. That doesn't mean they aren't real." d. "This finding is unexpected. How have you been administering your child's medication?"

C

When a 5-year-old child is disruptive, the nurse says, "You must take a time-out." The expectation is that the child will: a. go to a quiet room until called for the next meal. b. slowly count to 20 before returning to the group activity. c. sit on the edge of the activity until able to regain self-control. d. sit quietly on the lap of a staff member until able to apologize for the behavior.

C

Which behavior indicates that the treatment plan for a child with autism spectrum disorder was effective? The child: a. plays with one toy for 30 minutes. b. repeats words spoken by a parent. c. holds the parent's hand while walking. d. spins around and claps hands while walking.

C

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 5. The nurse wants to assess for disturbances in circadian rhythms in a patient admitted for depression. Which question best implements this assessment? a. "Do you ever see or hear things that others do not?" b. "Do you have problems with short-term memory?" c. "What are your worst and best times of day?" d. "How would you describe your thinking?"

C Mood changes throughout the day are related to circadian rhythms. Questions about sleep pattern would also be relevant to circadian rhythms. The question about seeing or hearing things is relevant to the assessment for illusions and hallucinations. The question about thinking is relevant to the assessment of thought processes. The other question is relevant to assessment of memory. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Page: 50 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 25. A nurse administering psychotropic medications should be prepared to intervene when giving a drug that blocks the attachment of norepinephrine to alpha1 receptors because the patient may experience: a. increased psychotic symptoms b. severe appetite disturbance c. orthostatic hypotension d. hypertensive crisis

C Sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction is essential for maintaining normal blood pressure in the upright position. Blockage of alpha1 receptors leads to vasodilation and orthostatic hypotension. Orthostatic hypotension may cause fainting and falls. Patients should be taught ways of minimizing this phenomenon. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Pages: 54-55|Pages: 62-63 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation

A nurse prepares the plan of care for a 15-year-old adolescent with moderate intellectual developmental disorder. What are the highest outcomes that are realistic for this patient? Within 5 years, the patient will: select all that apply. a. Live unaided in an apartment. b. Complete high school or earn a general equivalency diploma (GED). c. Independently perform his or her own personal hygiene. d. Obtain employment in a local sheltered workshop. e. Correctly use public buses to travel in the community.

CDE

A 15-year-old adolescent is referred to a residential program after an arrest for theft and running away from home. At the program, the adolescent refuses to participate in scheduled activities and pushes a staff member, causing a fall. Which approach by the nursing staff would be most therapeutic? a. Neutrally permit refusals b. Coax to gain compliance c. Offer rewards in advance d. Establish firm limits

D

A 4-year-old child cries and screams from the time the parents leave the child at preschool until the child is picked up 4 hours later. The child is calm and relaxed when the parents are present. The parents ask, "What should we do?" What is the nurse's best recommendation? a. "Send a picture of yourself to school to keep with the child." b. "Arrange with the teacher to let the child call home at playtime." c. "Talk with the school about withdrawing the child until maturity increases." d. "Talk with your health care provider about a referral to a mental health clinic."

D

A 5-year-old child moves and talks constantly, is easily distracted, and does not listen to the parents. The child awakens before the parents every morning. The child attended kindergarten, but the teacher could not handle the behavior. What is this child's most likely problem? a. Mental retardation b. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) c. Pervasive developmental disorder d. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

D

A 5-year-old child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) bounces out of a chair in the waiting room, runs across the room, and begins to slap another child. What is the nurse's best action? a. Call for emergency assistance from another staff member. b. Instruct the parents to take the child home immediately. c. Direct this child to stop, and then comfort the other child. d. Take the child into another room with toys to act out feelings.

D

A parent with schizophrenia and 13-year-old child live in a homeless shelter. The child has formed a trusting relationship with a volunteer. The teen says, "I have three good friends at school. We talk and sit together at lunch." What is the nurse's best suggestion to the treatment team? a. Suggest foster home placement. b. Seek assistance from the domestic violence program. c. Make referrals for existing and emerging developmental problems. d. Foster healthy characteristics and existing environmental supports.

D

The child most likely to receive propranolol (Inderal) to control aggression, deliberate self-injury, and temper tantrums is one diagnosed with: a. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder ADHD. b. Posttraumatic stress disorder. c. Separation anxiety . d. Autistic disorder ASD.

D

When group therapy is to be used as a treatment modality, the nurse should suggest placing a 9-year-old in a group that uses: a. play activities exclusively. b. group discussion exclusively. c. talk focused on a specific issue. d. play and talk about the play activity.

D

Which child shows behaviors indicative of mental illness? a. 4-year-old who stuttered for 3 weeks after the birth of a sibling b. 9-month-old who does not eat vegetables and likes to be rocked c. 3-month-old who cries after feeding until burped and sucks a thumb d. 3-year-old who is mute, passive toward adults, and twirls while walking

D

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 18. A nurse can anticipate anticholinergic side effects will be likely when a patient is taking: a. lithium (Lithobid) b. buspirone (BuSpar) c. risperidone (Risperdal) d. fluphenazine (Prolixin)

D Fluphenazine, a first-generation antipsychotic medication, exerts muscarinic blockade, resulting in dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention. Lithium therapy is more often associated with fluid balance problems, including polydipsia, polyuria, and edema. Risperidone therapy is more often associated with movement disorders, orthostatic hypotension, and sedation. Buspirone is associated with anxiety reduction without major side effects. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Pages: 62-63 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 7. On the basis of current knowledge of neurotransmitter effects, a nurse anticipates that the treatment plan for a patient with memory difficulties may include medications designed to: a. inhibit GABA production. b. increase dopamine sensitivity. c. decrease dopamine at receptor sites. d. prevent destruction of acetylcholine.

D Increased acetylcholine plays a role in learning and memory. Preventing the destruction of acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase results in higher levels of acetylcholine with the potential for improved memory. GABA is known to affect anxiety level rather than memory. Increased dopamine causes symptoms associated with schizophrenia or mania rather than improves memory. Decreasing dopamine at receptor sites is associated with Parkinson disease rather than improving memory. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Pages: 53-57 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 23. A patient has taken many conventional antipsychotic drugs over years. The health care provider, who is concerned about early signs of tardive dyskinesia, prescribes risperidone (Risperdal). A nurse planning care for this patient understands that atypical antipsychotics: a. are less costly. b. have higher potency. c. are more readily available. d. produce fewer motor side effects.

D Atypical antipsychotic drugs often exert their action on the limbic system rather than the basal ganglia. The limbic system is not involved in motor disturbances. Atypical antipsychotic medications are not more readily available. They are not considered to be of higher potency; rather, they have different modes of action. Atypical antipsychotic drugs tend to be more expensive. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Page: 50|Pages: 62-63 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 13. A patient has symptoms of acute anxiety related to the death of a parent in an automobile accident 2 hours earlier. The nurse should prepare to teach the patient about a medication from which group? a. Tricyclic antidepressants b. Atypical antipsychotics c. Anticonvulsants d. Benzodiazepines

D Benzodiazepines provide anxiety relief. Tricyclic antidepressants are used to treat symptoms of depression. Anticonvulsants are used to treat bipolar disorder or seizures. Antipsychotic drugs are used to treat psychosis. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Pages: 60-61 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 12. A patient has anxiety, increased heart rate, and fear. The nurse would suspect the presence of a high concentration of which neurotransmitter? a. GABA b. Histamine c. Acetylcholine d. Norepinephrine

D Norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter associated with sympathetic nervous system stimulation, preparing the individual for "fight or flight" response. GABA is a mediator of anxiety level. A high concentration of histamine is associated with an inflammatory response. A high concentration of acetylcholine is associated with parasympathetic nervous system stimulation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Pages: 54-57 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 20. A nurse cares for patients taking various medications, including buspirone (BuSpar), haloperidol (Haldol), trazodone (Desyrel), and phenelzine (Nardil). The nurse will order a special diet for the patient taking: a. buspirone b. haloperidol c. trazodone d. phenelzine

D Patients taking phenelzine, an MAOI, must be on a tyramine-free diet to prevent hypertensive crisis. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Page: 59 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 17. A patient begins therapy with a phenothiazine medication. What teaching should a nurse provide related to the drug's strong dopaminergic effect? a. Chew sugarless gum. b. Increase dietary fiber. c. Arise slowly from bed. d. Report muscle stiffness.

D Phenothiazines block dopamine receptors in both the limbic system and basal ganglia. Dystonia is likely to occur early in the course of treatment and is often heralded by sensations of muscle stiffness. Early intervention with an antiparkinsonian medication can increase the patient's comfort and prevent dystonic reactions. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Pages: 62-63 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 2. The parent of an adolescent with schizophrenia asks a nurse, "My child's doctor ordered a positron-emission tomography (PET) scan. What is that?" Select the nurse's best reply. a. "PET uses a magnetic field and gamma waves to identify problems areas in the brain. Does your teenager have any metal implants?" b. "It's a special type of x-ray image that shows structures of the brain and whether a brain injury has ever occurred." c. "PET is a scan that passes an electrical current through the brain and shows brain wave activity. PET can help diagnose seizures." d. "PET is a special scan that shows blood flow and activity in the brain."

D The parent is seeking information about PET scans. It is important to use terms the parent can understand. The correct option is the only reply that provides factual information relevant to PET scans. The incorrect responses describe magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), computed tomographic (CT) scans, and electroencephalography (EEG). DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Pages: 50-52 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 8. A patient has disorganized thinking associated with schizophrenia. Neuroimaging would most likely show dysfunction in which part of the brain? a. Brainstem b. Cerebellum c. Temporal lobe d. Prefrontal cortex

D The prefrontal cortex is responsible for intellectual functioning. The temporal lobe is responsible for the sensation of hearing. The cerebellum regulates skeletal muscle coordination and equilibrium. The brainstem regulates internal organs. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Pages: 47-48 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 2. The spouse of a patient with schizophrenia asks, "Which neurotransmitters are more active when a person has schizophrenia?" The nurse should state, "The current thinking is that the thought disturbances are related to increased activity of: (Select all that apply.) a. GABA." b. substance P." c. histamine." d. dopamine." e. norepinephrine."

D, E Dopamine plays a role in the integration of thoughts and emotions, and excess dopamine is implicated in the thought disturbances of schizophrenia. Increased activity of norepinephrine also occurs. Substance P is most related to the pain experience. Histamine decrease is associated with depression. Increased GABA is associated with anxiety reduction. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Pages: 52-57 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation

A patient diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia says, "My co-workers are out to get me. I also saw two doctors plotting to kill me." How does this patient perceive the environment?

Dangerous

A patient's care plan includes monitoring for auditory hallucinations. Which assessment findings suggest the patient may be hallucinating?

Darting eyes, tilted head, mumbling to self

d. Person who attends a charismatic church and describes hearing God's voice

In the majority culture of the United States, which individual is at greatest risk to be incorrectly labeled mentally ill? a. Person who is usually pessimistic but strives to meet personal goals b. Wealthy person who gives $20 bills to needy individuals in the community c. Person with an optimistic viewpoint about life and getting his or her own needs met d. Person who attends a charismatic church and describes hearing God's voice

The family members of a patient newly diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia state that they do not understand what has caused the illness. The nurse's response should be based on which models? Select all that apply.

Neurobiological, Genetic

A patient receiving risperidone (Risperdal) reports severe muscle stiffness at 10:30 AM. By noon, the patient has difficulty swallowing and is drooling. By 4:00 PM, vital signs are body temperature, 102.8° F; pulse, 110 beats per minute; respirations, 26 breaths per minute; and blood pressure, 150/90 mm Hg. The patient is diaphoretic. Select the nurse's best analysis and action.

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Immediately notify the health care provider.

A patient with schizophrenia says, "Contagious bacteria are everywhere. When they get in your body, you will be locked up with other infected people." Which problem is evident?

Paranoia

A patient with catatonic schizophrenia exhibits little spontaneous movement and demonstrates waxy flexibility. Which patient needs are of priority importance?

Physiologic

The family of a patient with undifferentiated schizophrenia is unfamiliar with the illness and the family's role in recovery. Which type of therapy should the nurse recommend?

Psychoeducational

A patient with schizophrenia has auditory hallucinations, delusions of grandeur, poor personal hygiene, and motor agitation. Which assessment finding would the nurse regard as a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

Poor personal hygiene

A patient with schizophrenia has taken fluphenazine (Prolixin) 5 mg orally twice daily for 3 weeks. The nurse now assesses a shuffling propulsive gait, a masklike face, and drooling. Which term applies to these symptoms?

Pseudoparkinsonism

A patient with paranoid schizophrenia is hospitalized after arguing with co-workers and threatening to harm them. The patient is aloof and suspicious and says, "Two staff members I saw talking were plotting to kill me." Based on data gathered at this point, which nursing diagnoses relate? Select all that apply.

Risk for other-directed violence, Disturbed thought processes

Recognizing the risk for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) among older adults, nurses should provide health teaching aimed at: a. discouraging sexual expression. b. using birth control measures. c. avoiding blood transfusions. d. encouraging condom use.

Safe sex continues to be important and should be taught to the older adult population. Because the risk for pregnancy is nonexistent in postmenopausal women, condom use is diminished, which places older adults at risk for AIDS and other sexually transmitted diseases. Sexual expression is a basic human need. Little to no danger exists from blood transfusions.

When a patient with paranoid schizophrenia was discharged 6 months ago, haloperidol (Haldol) was prescribed. The patient now says, "I stopped taking those pills. They made me feel like a robot." What common side effects should the nurse validate with the patient?

Sedation and muscle stiffness

Which symptoms are expected for a patient with disorganized schizophrenia?

Social withdrawal and ineffective communication

A patient has taken trifluoperazine (Stelazine) 30 mg/day orally for 3 years. The clinic nurse notes that the patient grimaces and constantly smacks both lips. The patient's neck and shoulders twist in a slow, snakelike motion. Which problem would the nurse suspect?

Tardive dyskinesia

c. identify healthy coping behaviors in response to stressful events.

The goal for a patient is to increase resiliency. Which outcome should a nurse add to the plan of care? Within 3 days, the patient will: a. describe feelings associated with loss and stress. b. meet own needs without considering the rights of others. c. identify healthy coping behaviors in response to stressful events. d. allow others to assume responsibility for major areas of own life.

d. "Although this disorder more likely has a biological rather than psychological origin, the support and involvement of caregivers is very important."

The spouse of a patient with schizophrenia says, "I don't understand why childhood experiences have anything to do with this disabling illness." Select the nurse's response that will best help the spouse understand this condition. a. "Psychological stress is actually at the root of most mental disorders." b. "We now know that all mental illnesses are the result of genetic factors." c. "It must be frustrating for you that your spouse is sick so much of the time." d. "Although this disorder more likely has a biological rather than psychological origin, the support and involvement of caregivers is very important."

A nurse works with a patient with paranoid schizophrenia regarding the importance of medication management. The patient repeatedly says, "I don't like taking pills." Family members say they feel helpless to foster compliance. Which treatment strategy should the nurse discuss with the health care provider?

Use of a long-acting antipsychotic preparation

A community mental health nurse wants to establish a relationship with a very withdrawn patient diagnosed with schizophrenia. The patient lives at home with a supportive family. Select the nurse's best plan.

Visit daily for 4 days, then visit every other day for 1 week; stay with the patient for 20 minutes; accept silence; state when the nurse will return.

A nurse observes a patient who is in a catatonic state and standing immobile, facing the wall with one arm extended in a salute. The patient remains immobile in this position for 15 minutes, moving only when the nurse gently lowers the arm. What is the name of this phenomenon?

Waxy flexibility

A patient with schizophrenia begins a new prescription for lurasidone HCl (Latuda). The patient is 5', 6" tall and currently weighs 204 pounds. Which topic is most important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan related to this medication?

Weight management strategies

d. Some symptoms of mental disorders reflect a person's cultural patterns.

Which belief by a nurse supports the highest degree of patient advocacy during a multidisciplinary patient care planning session? a. All mental illnesses are culturally determined. b. Schizophrenia and bipolar disorder are cross-cultural disorders. c. Symptoms of mental disorders are constant from culture to culture. d. Some symptoms of mental disorders reflect a person's cultural patterns.

d. I Generalized anxiety disorder II Avoidant personality disorder III Fibromyalgia IV Declared bankruptcy 6 months ago V 60 Axis I, a personality disorder on Axis II, a medical problem on Axis III, a psychosocial problem on Axis IV, and global assessment of functioning (GAF) on Axis V

Which documentation of diagnosis would a nurse expect for a person with mental illness? a. I Rheumatoid arthritis II 100 III Posttraumatic stress disorder IV Arrested for shoplifting 2 months earlier V None b. I Mental retardation II Histrionic personality disorder III 75 IV Hypertension V Home destroyed by tornado last year c. I Schizophrenia, paranoid II Death of spouse last year III 40 IV None V Alcohol abuse d. I Generalized anxiety disorder II Avoidant personality disorder III Fibromyalgia IV Declared bankruptcy 6 months ago V 60

c, d, e

Which statements most clearly reflect the stigma of mental illness? Select all that apply a. "Many mental illnesses are hereditary." b. "Mental illness can be evidence of a brain disorder." c. "People claim mental illness so they can get disability checks." d. "If people with mental illness went to church, they would be fine." e. "Mental illness is a result of the breakdown of the American family."

What assessment findings mark the prodromal stage of schizophrenia?

Withdrawal, misinterpreting, poor concentration, and preoccupation with religion

A patient states, "I'm starting cognitive behavioral therapy. What can I expect from the sessions?" Which responses by the nurse are appropriate? Select all that apply. a. "The therapist will be active and questioning." b. "You may be given homework assignments." c. "The therapist will ask you to describe your dreams." d. "The therapist will help you look at ideas and beliefs you have about yourself." e. "The goal is to increase your subjectivity about thoughts that govern your behavior."

a, b, d

A basic level registered nurse works with patients in a community setting. Which groups should this nurse expect to lead? Select all that apply. a. Symptom management b. Medication education c. Family therapy d. Psychotherapy e. Self-care

a, b, e

A nurse performing an assessment interview for a patient with a substance use disorder decides to use a standardized rating scale. Which scales are appropriate? Select all that apply. a. Addiction Severity Index (ASI) b. Brief Drug Abuse Screen Test (B-DAST) c. Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS) d. Cognitive Capacity Screening Examination (CCSE) e. Recovery Attitude and Treatment Evaluator (RAATE)

a, b, e

When a nurse assesses an older adult patient, answers seem vague or unrelated to the questions. The patient also leans forward and frowns, listening intently to the nurse. An appropriate question for the nurse to ask would be: a. "Are you having difficulty hearing when I speak?" b. "How can I make this assessment interview easier for you?" c. "I notice you are frowning. Are you feeling annoyed with me?" d. "You're having trouble focusing on what I'm saying. What is distracting you?"

a. "Are you having difficulty hearing when I speak?"

A 26-month-old child displays negative behaviors. The parent says, "My child refuses toilet training and shouts, 'No!' when given direction. What do you think is wrong?" Select the nurse's best reply. a. "This is normal for your child's age. The child is striving for independence." b. "The child needs firmer control. Punish the child for disobedience and say, 'No.'" c. "There may be developmental problems. Most children are toilet trained by age 2 years." d. "Some undesirable attitudes are developing. A child psychologist can help you develop a remedial plan."

a. "This is normal for your child's age. The child is striving for independence."

A student nurse tells the instructor, "I don't need to interact with my patients. I learn what I need to know by observation." The instructor can best interpret the nursing implications of Sullivan's theory to the student by responding: a. "nurses cannot be isolated. We must interact to provide patients with opportunities to practice interpersonal skills." b. "observing patient interactions can help you formulate priority nursing diagnoses and appropriate interventions." c. "I wonder how accurate your assessment of the patient's needs can be if you do not interact with the patient." d. "noting patient behavioral changes is important because these signify changes in personality."

a. "nurses cannot be isolated. We must interact to provide patients with opportunities to practice interpersonal skills."

A nurse assesses an older adult patient brought to the emergency department by a family member. The patient was wandering outside, saying, "I can't find my way home." The patient is confused and unable to answer questions. Select the nurse's best action. a. Document the patient's mental status. Obtain other assessment data from the family member. b. Record the patient's answers to questions on the nursing assessment form. c. Ask an advanced practice nurse to perform the assessment interview. d. Call for a mental health advocate to maintain the patient's rights.

a. Document the patient's mental status. Obtain other assessment data from the family member.

A patient with major depression has lost 20 pounds in one month has chronic low self-esteem and a plan for suicide. The patient has taken an antidepressant medication for 1 week. Which nursing intervention is most directly related to this outcome: "Patient will refrain from gestures and attempts to harm self"? a. Implement suicide precautions. b. Frequently offer high-calorie snacks and fluids. c. Assist the patient to identify three personal strengths. d. Observe patient for therapeutic effects of antidepressant medication.

a. Implement suicide precautions.

A nurse wishes to teach alternative coping strategies to a patient who is experiencing severe anxiety. The nurse will first need to: a. Lower the patient's current anxiety level b. Verify the patient's learning style. c. Create outcomes and a teaching plan. d. Assess how the patient uses defense mechanisms.

a. Lower the patient's current anxiety level A patient experiencing severe anxiety has a significantly narrowed perceptual field and difficulty attending to events in the environment. A patient experiencing severe anxiety will not learn readily. Determining preferred modes of learning, devising outcomes, and constructing teaching plans are relevant to the task but are not the priority measure. The nurse has already assessed the patient's anxiety level. Using defense mechanisms does not apply.

A nurse assesses that a patient is suspicious and frequently manipulates others. Using the Freudian theory, these traits are related to which psychosexual stage? a. Oral b. Anal c. Phallic d. Genital

a. Oral

A psychiatric technician says, "Little of what takes place on the behavioral health unit seems to be theory based." A nurse educates the technician by identifying which common use of Sullivan's theory? a. Structure of the therapeutic milieu of most behavioral health units b. Frequent use of restraint and seclusion as behavior management tools c. Assessment tools based on age- appropriate versus arrested behaviors d. Method nurses use to determine the best sequence for nursing actions

a. Structure of the therapeutic milieu of most behavioral health units

A child is placed in a foster home after being removed from parental contact because of abuse. The child is apprehensive and overreacts to environmental stimuli. The foster parents ask the nurse how to help the child. What should the nurse recommend? (select all that apply) a. Use a calm manner and low voice. b. Maintain simplicity in the environment. c. Avoid repetition in what is said to the child. d. Minimize opportunities for exercise and play. e. Explain and reinforce reality to avoid distortions.

a. Use a calm manner and low voice b. Maintain simplicity in the environment e. Explain and reinforce reality to avoid distortions

A nurse plans health teaching for a patient with generalized anxiety disorder who takes lorazepam (Ativan). What information should be included? (select all that apply) a. Use caution when operating machinery. b. Allowed tyramine-free foods in diet. c. Understand the importance of caffeine restriction. d. Avoid alcohol and other sedatives. e. Take the medication on an empty stomach.

a. Use caution when operating machinery c. Understand the importance of caffeine restriction d. Avoid alcohol and other sedatives

A 4-year-old child grabs toys from siblings, saying, "I want that toy now!" The siblings cry, and the child's parent becomes upset with the behavior. Using the Freudian theory, a nurse can interpret the child's behavior as a product of impulses originating in the: a. id. b. ego. c. superego. d. preconscious.

a. id.

A nurse assessing a new patient asks, "What is meant by the saying, 'You can't judge a book by its cover'?" Which aspect of cognition is the nurse assessing? a. Mood b. Attention c. Orientation d. Abstraction

d. Abstraction

An advanced practice nurse determines a group of patients would benefit from therapy in which peers and interdisciplinary staff all have a voice in determining the level of the patients' privileges. The nurse would arrange for: a. milieu therapy b. cognitive therapy c. short-term dynamic therapy d. systematic desensitization

a. milieu therapy

A patient with a high level of motor activity runs from chair to chair and cries, "They're coming! They're coming!" The patient does not follow the staff's directions or respond to verbal interventions. The initial nursing intervention of highest priority is to: a. provide for patient safety b. increase environmental stimuli. c. respect the patient's personal space. d. encourage the clarification of feelings.

a. provide for patient safety

A nurse uses Maslow's hierarchy of needs to plan care for a psychotic patient. Which problem will receive priority? The patient: a. refuses to eat or bathe. b. reports feelings of alienation from family. c. is reluctant to participate in unit social activities. d. needs to be taught about medication action and side effects.

a. refuses to eat or bathe.

A health care provider considers which antipsychotic medication to prescribe for a patient with schizophrenia who has auditory hallucinations and poor social functioning. The patient is also overweight and has hypertension. Which drug should the nurse advocate?

aripiprazole (Abilify)

A patient is very suspicious and states, "The FBI has me under surveillance." Which strategies should a nurse use when gathering initial assessment data about this patient? Select all that apply. a. Tell the patient that medication will help this type of thinking. b. Ask the patient, "Tell me about the problem as you see it." c. Seek information about when the problem began. d. Tell the patient, "Your ideas are not realistic." e. Reassure the patient, "You are safe here."

b, c, e

A nurse assesses a patient who reluctantly participates in activities, answers questions with minimal responses, and rarely makes eye contact. What information should be included when documenting the assessment? Select all that apply. a. Uncooperative patient b. Patient's subjective responses c. Only data obtained from the patient's verbal responses d. Description of the patient's behavior during the interview e. Analysis of why the patient is unresponsive during the interview

b, d

Which patient statement would lead a nurse to suspect that the developmental task of infancy was not successfully completed? a. "I have very warm and close friendships." b. "I'm afraid to let anyone really get to know me." c. "I am always right, so don't bother saying more." d. "I'm ashamed that I didn't do it correctly in the first place."

b. "I'm afraid to let anyone really get to know me."

Which entry in the medical record best meets the requirement for problem-oriented charting? a. "A: Pacing and muttering to self. P: Sensory perceptual alteration, related to internal auditory stimulation. I: Given fluphenazine (Prolixin) 2.5 mg at 0900, and went to room to lie down. E: Calmer by 0930. Returned to lounge to watch TV." b. "S: States, 'I feel like I'm ready to blow up.' O: Pacing hall, mumbling to self. A: Auditory hallucinations. P: Offer haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg . I: (Haldol) 2 mg at 0900. E: Returned to lounge at 0930 and quietly watched TV." c. "Agitated behavior. D: Patient muttering to self as though answering an unseen person. A: Given haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg and went to room to lie down. E: Patient calmer. Returned to lounge to watch TV." d. "Pacing hall and muttering to self as though answering an unseen person. haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg administered at 0900 with calming effect in 30 minutes. Stated, 'I'm no longer bothered by the voices.'"

b. "S: States, 'I feel like I'm ready to blow up.' O: Pacing hall, mumbling to self. A: Auditory hallucinations. P: Offer haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg . I: (Haldol) 2 mg at 0900. E: Returned to lounge at 0930 and quietly watched TV."

A 26-month-old child displays negative behavior, refuses toilet training, and often shouts, "No!" when given directions. Using Freud's stages of psychosexual development, a nurse would assess the child's behavior is based on which stage? a. Oral b. Anal c. Phallic d. Genital

b. Anal

A patient approaches the nurse and impatiently blurts out, "You've got to help me! Something terrible is happening. My heart is pounding." The nurse responds, "It's almost time for visiting hours. Let's get your hair combed." Which approach has the nurse used? a. Distracting technique to lower anxiety b. Bringing up an irrelevant topic c. Responding to physical needs d. Addressing false cognitions

b. Bringing up an irrelevant topic The nurse has closed off patient-centered communication. The introduction of an irrelevant topic makes the nurse feel better. The nurse is uncomfortable dealing with the patient's severe anxiety.

A nurse asks a patient, "If you had fever and vomiting for 3 days, what would you do?" Which aspect of the mental status examination is the nurse assessing? a. Behavior b. Cognition c. Affect and mood d. Perceptual disturbances

b. Cognition

A nurse encourages an anxious patient to talk about feelings and concerns. What is the rationale for this intervention? a. Offering hope allays and defuses the patient's anxiety. b. Concerns stated aloud become less overwhelming and help problem solving to begin. c. Anxiety is reduced by focusing on and validating what is occurring in the environment d. Encouraging patients to explore alternatives increases the sense of control and lessens anxiety

b. Concerns stated aloud become less overwhelming and help problem solving to begin

After formulating the nursing diagnoses for a new patient, what is the next action a nurse should take? a. Design interventions to include in the plan of care. b. Determine the goals and outcome criteria. c. Implement the nursing plan of care. d. Complete the spiritual assessment.

b. Determine the goals and outcome criteria.

A patient tells the nurse, "I wanted my health care provider to prescribe diazepam (Valium) for my anxiety disorder, but buspirone (BuSpar) was prescribed instead. Why?" The nurse's reply should be based on the knowledge that buspirone: a. Does not produce blood dyscrasias. b. Does not cause dependence. c. Can be administered as needed. d. Is faster acting than diazepam.

b. Does not cause dependence Buspirone is considered effective in the long-term management of anxiety because it is not habituating. Because it is long acting, buspirone is not valuable as an as-needed or as a fast-acting medication. The fact that buspirone does not produce blood dyscrasias is less relevant in the decision to prescribe buspirone.

The acronym QSEN refers to: a. Qualitative Standardized Excellence in Nursing. b. Quality and Safety Education for Nurses. c. Quantitative Effectiveness in Nursing. d. Quick Standards Essential for Nurses.

b. Quality and Safety Education for Nurses.

Before assessing a new patient, a nurse is told by another health care worker, "I know that patient. No matter how hard we work, there isn't much improvement by the time of discharge." The nurse's responsibility is to: a. document the other worker's assessment of the patient. b. assess the patient based on data collected from all sources. c. validate the worker's impression by contacting the patient's significant other. d. discuss the worker's impression with the patient during the assessment interview.

b. assess the patient based on data collected from all sources.

A nurse uses Peplau's interpersonal therapy while working with an anxious, withdrawn patient. Interventions should focus on: a. changing the patient's perceptions about self b. improving the patient's interactional skills c. using medications to relieve anxiety d. reinforcing specific behaviors

b. improving the patient's interactional skills

What information is conveyed by nursing diagnoses? Select all that apply. a. Medical judgments about the disorder b. Goals and outcomes for the plan of care c. Unmet patient needs currently present d. Supporting data that validate the diagnoses e. Probable causes that will be targets for nursing interventions

c, d, e

Which assessment questions are most appropriate to ask a patient with possible obsessive-compulsive disorder? (select all that apply) a. "Have you been a victim of a crime or seen someone badly injured or killed?" b. "Are there certain social situations that cause you to feel especially uncomfortable?" c. "Do you have to do things in a certain way to feel comfortable?" d. "Is it difficult to keep certain thoughts out of awareness?" e. "Do you do certain things over and over again?"

c. "Do you have to do things in a certain way to feel comfortable?" d. "Is it difficult to keep certain thoughts out of awareness?" e. "Do you do certain things over and over again?"

A patient who is experiencing moderate anxiety says, "I feel undone." An appropriate response for the nurse would be: a. "Why do you suppose you are feeling anxious?" b. "What would you like me to do to help you?" c. "I'm not sure I understand. Give me an example." d. "You must get your feelings under control before we can continue."

c. "I'm not sure I understand. Give me an example." Increased anxiety results in scattered thoughts and an inability to articulate clearly. Clarification helps the patient identify his or her thoughts and feelings. Asking the patient why he or she feels anxious is nontherapeutic, and the patient will not likely have an answer. The patient may be unable to determine what he or she would like the nurse to do to help. Telling the patient to get his or her feelings under control is a directive the patient is probably unable to accomplish.

The parent of a child who has schizophrenia tearfully asks a nurse, "What could I have done differently to prevent this illness?" Select the nurse's most caring response. a. "Although schizophrenia is caused by impaired family relationships, try not to feel guilty. No one can predict how a child will respond to parental guidance." b. "Most of the damage is done, but there is still hope. Changing your parenting style can help your child learn to cope more effectively with the environment." c. "Schizophrenia is a biological illness with similarities to diabetes and heart disease. You are not to blame for your child's illness." d. "Most mental illnesses result from genetic inheritance. Your genes are more at fault than your parenting."

c. "Schizophrenia is a biological illness with similarities to diabetes and heart disease. You are not to blame for your child's illness."

An adolescent asks a nurse conducting an assessment interview, "Why should I tell you anything? You'll just tell my parents whatever you find out." Select the nurse's best reply. a. "That isn't true. What you tell us is private and held in strict confidence. Your parents have no right to know." b. "Yes, your parents may find out what you say, but it is important that they know about your problems." c. "What you say about feelings is private, but some things, like suicidal thinking, must be reported to the treatment team." d. "It sounds as though you are not really ready to work on your problems and make changes."

c. "What you say about feelings is private, but some things, like suicidal thinking, must be reported to the treatment team."

A patient comments, "I never know the right answer" and "My opinion is not important." Using Erikson's theory, which psychosocial crisis did the patient have difficulty resolving? a. Initiative versus Guilt b. Trust versus Mistrust c. Autonomy versus Shame and Doubt d. Generativity versus Self-Absorption

c. Autonomy versus Shame and Doubt

When alprazolam (Xanax) is prescribed for acute anxiety, health teaching should include instructions to: a. Report drowsiness. b. Eat a tyramine-free diet c. Avoid alcoholic beverages d. Adjust dose and frequency based on anxiety level.

c. Avoid alcoholic beverages Drinking alcohol or taking other anxiolytic medications along with the prescribed benzodiazepine should be avoided because depressant effects of both drugs will be potentiated. Tyramine-free diets are necessary only with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs).

Which finding indicates that a patient with moderate-to-severe anxiety has successfully lowered the anxiety level to mild? The patient: a. Asks, "What's the matter with me?" b. Stays in a room alone and paces rapidly. c. Can concentrate on what the nurse is saying. d. States, "I don't want anything to eat. My stomach is upset."

c. Can concentrate on what the nurse is saying. The ability to concentrate and attend to reality is increased slightly in mild anxiety and decreased in moderate-, severe-, and panic-level anxiety. Patients with high levels of anxiety often ask, "What's the matter with me?" Staying in a room alone and pacing suggest moderate anxiety. Expressing a lack of hunger is not necessarily a criterion for evaluating anxiety.

A nurse works with a patient to establish outcomes. The nurse believes that one outcome suggested by the patient is not in the patient's best interest. What is the nurse's best action? a. Remain silent. b. Educate the patient that the outcome is not realistic. c. Explore with the patient possible consequences of the outcome. d. Formulate an appropriate outcome without the patient's input.

c. Explore with the patient possible consequences of the outcome.

Operant conditioning will be used to encourage speech in a child who is nearly mute. Which technique would a nurse include in the treatment plan? a. Ignore the child for using silence. b. Have the child observe others talking. c. Give the child a small treat for speaking. d. Teach the child relaxation techniques, then coax speech.

c. Give the child a small treat for speaking.

A new staff nurse completes orientation to the psychiatric unit. This nurse will expect to ask an advanced practice nurse to perform which action for patients? a. Perform mental health assessment interviews. b. Establish therapeutic relationships. c. Prescribe psychotropic medications. d. Individualize nursing care plans.

c. Prescribe psychotropic medications.

A newly admitted patient with major depression has lost 20 pounds over the past month and has suicidal ideation. The patient has taken an antidepressant medication for 1 week without remission of symptoms. Select the priority nursing diagnosis. a. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements b. Chronic low self-esteem c. Risk for suicide d. Hopelessness

c. Risk for suicide

A person received an invitation to be in the wedding of a friend who lives across the country. The individual is afraid of flying. What type of therapy should the nurse recommend? a. Psychoanalysis b. Milieu therapy c. Systematic desensitization d. Short-term dynamic therapy

c. Systematic desensitization

A cognitive strategy a nurse could use to assist a very dependent patient would be to help the patient: a. reveal dream content. b. take prescribed medications. c. examine thoughts about being independent. d. role model ways to ask for help from others.

c. examine thoughts about being independent.

When a new patient is hospitalized, a nurse takes the patient on a tour, explains the rules of the unit, and discusses the daily schedule. The nurse is engaged in: a. counseling. b. health teaching. c. milieu management. d. psychobiologic intervention.

c. milieu management.

The parent of a 4-year-old rewards and praises the child for helping a younger sibling, being polite, and using good manners. A nurse supports the use of praise because according to the Freudian theory, these qualities will likely be internalized and become part of the child's: a. id. b. ego. c. superego. d. preconscious.

c. superego.

Which statement made by a patient during an initial assessment interview should serve as the priority focus for the plan of care? a. "I can always trust my family." b. "It seems like I always have bad luck." c. "You never know who will turn against you." d. "I hear evil voices that tell me to do bad things."

d. "I hear evil voices that tell me to do bad things."

Cognitive therapy was provided for a patient who frequently said, "I'm stupid." Which statement by the patient indicates the therapy was effective? a. "I'm disappointed in my lack of ability." b. "I always fail when I try new things." c. "Things always go wrong for me." d. "Sometimes I do stupid things."

d. "Sometimes I do stupid things."

A 26-month-old child displays negative behavior, refuses toilet training, and often shouts, "No!" when given direction. The nurse's counseling with the parent should be based on the premise that the child is engaged in which of Erikson's psychosocial crises? a. Trust versus Mistrust b. Initiative versus Guilt c. Industry versus Inferiority d. Autonomy versus Shame and Doubt

d. Autonomy versus Shame and Doubt

A patient diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia angrily tells a nurse, "You act like a homosexual. No one trusts you or wants to be around you." Select the most likely analysis. The patient:

may be projecting homosexual urges.

A person who feels unattractive repeatedly says, "Although I'm not beautiful, I am smart." This is an example of: a. Repression b. Devaluation c. Identification d. Compensation

d. Compensation Compensation is an unconscious process that allows an individual to make up for deficits in one area by excelling in another area to raise self-esteem. Repression unconsciously puts an idea, event, or feeling out of awareness. Identification is an unconscious mechanism calling for an imitation of the mannerisms or behaviors of another. Devaluation occurs when the individual attributes negative qualities to self or to others.

A nurse listens to a group of recent retirees. One says, "I volunteer with Meals on Wheels, coach teen sports, and do church visitation." Another laughs and says, "I'm too busy taking care of myself to volunteer. I don't have time to help others." These comments contrast which developmental tasks? a. Trust versus Mistrust b. Industry versus Inferiority c. Intimacy versus Isolation d. Generativity versus Self-Absorption

d. Generativity versus Self-Absorption

A nurse documents: "Patient is mute, despite repeated efforts to elicit speech. Makes no eye contact. Is inattentive to staff. Gazes off to the side or looks upward rather than at the speaker." Which nursing diagnosis should be considered? a. Defensive coping b. Decisional conflict c. Risk for other-directed violence d. Impaired verbal communication

d. Impaired verbal communication

A patient begins a new program to assist with building social skills. In which part of the plan of care should a nurse record the item "Encourage patient to attend one psychoeducational group daily"? a. Assessment b. Analysis c. Planning d. Implementation e. Evaluation

d. Implementation

A person tells a nurse, "I was the only survivor in a small plane crash, but three business associates died. I got anxious and depressed and saw a counselor three times a week for a month. We talked about my feelings related to being a survivor, and now I'm fine, back to my old self." Which type of therapy was used? a. Milieu therapy b. Psychoanalysis c. Behavior modification d. Interpersonal therapy

d. Interpersonal therapy

A patient's nursing diagnosis is Insomnia. The desired outcome is: "Patient will sleep for a minimum of 5 hours nightly by October 31." On November 1, a review of the sleep data shows the patient sleeps an average of 4 hours nightly and takes a 2-hour afternoon nap. Which evaluation should be documented? a. Consistently demonstrated b. Often demonstrated c. Sometimes demonstrated d. Never demonstrated

d. Never demonstrated

An adult expresses the wish to be taken care of and often behaves in a helpless fashion. This adult has needs related to which of Freud's stages of psychosexual development? a. Latency b. Phallic c. Anal d. Oral

d. Oral

A patient's nursing diagnosis is Insomnia. The desired outcome is: "Patient will sleep for a minimum of 5 hours nightly by October 31." On November 1, a review of the sleep data shows the patient sleeps an average of 4 hours nightly and takes a 2-hour afternoon nap. What is the nurse's next action? a. Continue the current plan without changes. b. Remove this nursing diagnosis from the plan of care. c. Write a new nursing diagnosis that better reflects the problem. d. Revise the target date for outcome attainment and examine interventions.

d. Revise the target date for outcome attainment and examine interventions.

A patient underwent psychotherapy weekly for 3 years. The therapist used free association, dream analysis, and facilitated transference to help the patient understand unconscious processes and foster personality changes. Which type of therapy was used? a. Short-term dynamic psychotherapy b. Transactional analysis c. Cognitive therapy d. Psychoanalysis

d. Psychoanalysis

A nurse supports parental praise of a child who is behaving in a helpful way. When the individual behaves with politeness and helpfulness in adulthood, which feeling will most likely result? a. Guilt b. Anxiety c. Loneliness d. Self-esteem

d. Self-esteem

Select the most appropriate label to complete this nursing diagnosis: ___________, related to feelings of shyness and poorly developed social skills as evidenced by watching television alone at home every evening. a. Deficient knowledge b. Ineffective coping c. Powerlessness d. Social isolation

d. Social isolation

A patient states, "I'm not worth anything. I have negative thoughts about myself. I feel anxious and shaky all the time. Sometimes I feel so sad that I want to go to sleep and never wake up." Which nursing intervention should have the highest priority? a. Self-esteem-building activities b. Anxiety self-control measures c. Sleep enhancement activities d. Suicide precautions

d. Suicide precautions

Nursing behaviors associated with the implementation phase of the nursing process are concerned with: a. participating in the mutual identification of patient outcomes. b. gathering accurate and sufficient patient- centered data. c. comparing patient responses and expected outcomes. d. carrying out interventions and coordinating care.

d. carrying out interventions and coordinating care.

At what point in an assessment interview would a nurse ask, "How does your faith help you in stressful situations?" During the assessment of: a. childhood growth and development. b. substance use and abuse. c. educational background. d. coping strategies.

d. coping strategies.

A nurse psychotherapist works with an anxious, dependent patient. The therapeutic strategy most consistent with the framework of psychoanalytic psychotherapy is: a. emphasizing medication compliance b. identifying the patient's strengths and assets c. offering psychoeducational materials and groups d. focusing on feelings developed by the patient toward the nurse

d. focusing on feelings developed by the patient toward the nurse

A single parent is experiencing feelings of inadequacy related to work and family since one teenaged child ran away several weeks ago. The parent seeks the help of a therapist specializing in cognitive therapy. The psychotherapist who uses cognitive therapy will treat the patient by: a. discussing ego states b. focusing on unconscious mental processes c. negatively reinforcing an undesirable behavior d. helping the patient identify and change faulty thinking

d. helping the patient identify and change faulty thinking

Select the best outcome for a patient with the nursing diagnosis: Impaired social interaction, related to sociocultural dissonance as evidenced by stating, "Although I'd like to, I don't join in because I don't speak the language very well." The patient will: a. demonstrate improved social skills. b. express a desire to interact with others. c. become more independent in decision making. d. select and participate in one group activity per day.

d. select and participate in one group activity per day.

Acrophobia

fear of heights

A newly admitted patient diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia is hypervigilant and constantly scans the environment. The patient states, "I saw two doctors talking in the hall. They were plotting to kill me." The nurse may correctly assess this behavior as:

idea of reference

Repression

involves unconsciously placing an idea, feeling, or event out of awareness.

A patient with schizophrenia anxiously says, "I can see the left side of my body merging with the wall, then my face appears and disappears in the mirror." While listening, the nurse should:

maintain a normal social interaction distance from the patient.

A patient with schizophrenia begins to talks about "volmers" hiding in the warehouse at work. The term "volmers" should be documented as:

neologism

A patient with schizophrenia has taken a conventional antipsychotic medication for a year. Hallucinations are less intrusive, but the patient continues to have apathy, poverty of thought, and social isolation. The nurse expects a change to which medication?

olanzapine (Zyprexa)

A patient with catatonic schizophrenia is semistuporous, demonstrates little spontaneous movement, and has waxy flexibility. The patient's activities of daily living are severely compromised. An appropriate outcome is that the patient will:

perform self-care activities with coaching by the end of day 3.

A patient with schizophrenia has been stable for a year; however, the family now reports the patient is tense, sleeps 3 to 4 hours per night, and has difficulty concentrating. The patient says, "Volmers are hiding in the house." The nurse can correctly assess this information as an indication of:

relapse