Mental Health Final Exam (1&2)

2. Which statements are important reasons for why the problem of substance abuse must be addressed? Select all that apply. A) Increasing numbers of infants are suffering the physiologic and emotional consequences of prenatal exposure to alcohol or drugs. B) Chemical abuse results in increased violence. C) Drug abuse costs business and industry an estimated $102 billion annually. D) Alcohol abuse is a too frequent cause of or contributor to death. E) Substance abuse is decreasing.

Ans: A, B, C, D Feedback: Increasing numbers of infants are suffering the physiologic and emotional consequences of prenatal exposure to alcohol or drugs. Chemical abuse results in increased violence. Drug abuse costs business and industry an estimated $102 billion annually. Alcohol abuse is a too frequent cause of or contributor to death. Substance use/abuse and related disorders are a national health problem.

5. Under which conditions would it be in the client's best interest for the court to appoint a conservator, or legal guardian? Select all that apply. A) Gravely disabled B) Mentally incompetent C) Noncompliant D) Unable to provide basic needs when resources exist E) Act only on his or her own interests

Ans: A, B, D Feedback: The appointment of a conservator or legal guardian is a separate process from civil commitment. People who are gravely disabled; are found to be incompetent; cannot provide food, clothing, and shelter for themselves even when resources exist; and cannot act in their own best interests may require appointment of a conservator. In these cases, the court appoints a person to act as a legal guardian who assumes many responsibilities for the person.

20. The school nurse is teaching a health class about recognizing the signs of abusive relationships. The nurse describes the cycle of violence. The nurse would document effective teaching if the students identify the cycle of violence to be which of the following patterns? Select the order in which the events occur. A. Tension building B. Honeymoon period C. Violent behavior D. Period of remorse

Ans: A, C, D, B Feedback: The tension-building phase begins; there may be arguments, stony silence, or complaints from the husband. The tension ends in another violent episode after which the abuser once again feels regret and remorse and promises to change. This cycle continually repeats itself. Each time, the victim keeps hoping the violence will stop.

2. An abnormality of which of the following structures of the cerebrum would be associated with schizophrenia? A) Parietal lobes B) Frontal lobe C) Occipital lobe D) Temporal lobes

Ans: B Feedback: Abnormalities in the frontal lobes are associated with schizophrenia, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), and dementia. The parietal lobes interpret sensations of taste and touch and assist in spatial orientation. The temporal lobes are centers for the senses of smell and hearing and for memory and emotional expression. The occipital lobe assists in coordinating language generation and visual interpretation, such as depth perception.

25. A 16-year-old female with anorexia nervosa is admitted to the unit. Which is the most appropriate short-term outcome? A) The client will accept herself as having value and worth. B) The client will admit she has a fear of gaining weight. C) The client will follow a nutritionally balanced diet for her age. D) The client will identify her problems and potential alternative coping strategies.

Ans: B Feedback: Admitting her fears is an initial step in recovery. Accepting herself as having value and worth, following a nutritionally balanced diet, and identifying problems and potential alternative coping strategies are examples of long-term outcomes.

16. Which of the following antidepressant drugs is a preferred drug for clients at high risk of suicide? A) Tranylcypromine (Parnate) B) Sertraline (Zoloft) C) Imipramine (Tofranil) D) Phenelzine (Nardil)

Ans: B Feedback: SSRIs, venlafaxine, nefazodone, and bupropion are often better choices for those who are potentially suicidal or highly impulsive because they carry no risk of lethal overdose, in contrast to the cyclic compounds and the MAOIs. Parnate and Nardil are MAOIs. Tofranil is a cyclic compound.

21. The nurse and patient are visiting about upcoming sporting events of which they both share an interest. This form of interaction has the potential to threaten the nurse-patient relationship by A) influencing whether the patient likes the nurse or not. B) avoiding serious work that can help the patient change. C) letting the patient know that the nurse is genuine with diverse interests. D) overstepping ethical boundaries that the nurse should maintain.

Ans: B Feedback: Small talk or socializing is acceptable in nursing, but for the nurse-client relationship to accomplish the goals that have been decided on, social interaction must be limited. If the relationship becomes more social than therapeutic, serious work that moves the client forward will not be done.

8. Which psychiatric disorder makes a person most susceptible to anger attacks that do not result in physical aggression? A) Delusions B) Depression C) Dementia D) Delirium

Ans: B Feedback: Some clients with depression have anger attacks that are sudden intense spells of anger that typically occur in situation where the depressed person feels emotionally trapped. Anger attacks involve verbal expressions of anger or rage but no physical aggression. Persons with delusions, dementia, and delirium are most likely to become physically aggressive.

6. The nurse has established a therapeutic relationship with a patient. The patient is beginning to share feelings openly with the nurse. The relationship has entered which phase according to Peplau's theory? A) Orientation B) Identification C) Exploitation D) Resolution

Ans: B Feedback: The orientation phase is directed by the nurse and involves engaging the client in treatment, providing explanations and information, and answering questions. The identification phase begins when the client works interdependently with the nurse, expresses feelings, and begins to feel stronger. In the exploitation phase, the client makes full use of the services offered. In the resolution phase, the client no longer needs professional services and gives up dependent behavior and the relationship ends.

20. Which of the following are advantages of a crisis resolution team or home treatment team? Select all that apply. A) It is a residential treatment setting. B) It is more likely to help a client to perceive his or her situation more accurately. C) It is designed to assist clients in dealing with mental health crises without hospitalization. D) The client may feel better about asking for help. E) The client must meet multiple criteria to receive this type of care.

Ans: B, C, D Feedback: Crisis resolution or respite care is a type of care for clients who have a perception of being in crisis and needing a more structured environment. A client having access to respite services is more likely to perceive his or her situation more accurately, feel better about asking for help, and avoid hospitalization.

4. Which of the following behaviors by the nurse demonstrate positive regard? Select all that apply. A) Communicating judgments about the client's behavior B) Calling the client by name C) Spending time with the client D) Responding openly E) Considering the client's ideas and preference when planning care

Ans: B, C, D, E Feedback: Calling the client by name, spending time with the client, and listening and responding openly are measures by which the nurse conveys respect and positive regard to the client. The nurse also conveys positive regard by considering the client's ideas and preferences when planning care. The nurse maintains attention on the client and avoids communicating negative opinions or value judgments about the client's behavior.

2. The nurse reviews current literature and identifies that which of the following are included in current studies of biologic theories regarding the etiology of schizophrenia? Select all that apply. A) That there is a particular pathologic structure associated with the disease. B) That genetics is the cause of schizophrenia. C) Persons with schizophrenia have decreased brain volume and abnormal brain function in the frontal and temporal areas of persons with schizophrenia. D) The brain activity of persons with schizophrenia differs from people who do not have schizophrenia. E) That the etiology of schizophrenia may be related to the body's response to exposure of a virus.

Ans: B, C, D, E Feedback: In the first half of the 20th century, studies focused on trying to find a particular pathologic structure associated with the disease, largely through autopsy. Such a site was not discovered. The biologic theories of schizophrenia focus on genetic factors, neuroanatomic and neurochemical factors (structure and function of the brain), and immunovirology (the body's response to exposure to a virus).

16. Which of the following is a major developmental task of middle adulthood? A) Developing intimacy B) Learning to manage conflict C) Reexamining life goals D) Resolving the past

Ans: C Feedback: An important task for middle-aged adults is to examine life goals, ideally with some satisfaction. Developing intimacy occurs in young adulthood. Learning to manage conflict occurs in preschool. Resolving the past and accepting responsibility for oneself and life occur in maturity.

28. A client asks how his prescribed alprazolam (Xanax) helps his anxiety disorder. The nurse explains that antianxiety medications such as alprazolam affect the function of which neurotransmitter that is believed to be dysfunctional in anxiety disorders? A) Serotonin B) Norepinephrine C) GABA D) Dopamine

Ans: C Feedback: Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) is the amino acid neurotransmitter believed to be dysfunctional in anxiety disorders. GABA reduces anxiety, and norepinephrine increases it; researchers believe that a problem with the regulation of these neurotransmitters occurs in anxiety disorders. Serotonin is usually implicated in psychosis and mood disorders. Dopamine is indicated in psychosis.

14. The student nurse correctly identifies that according to Selye (1956, 1974), which stage of reaction to stress stimulates the body to send messages from the hypothalamus to the glands and organs to prepare for potential defense needs? A) Resistance B) Exhaustion C) Alarm reaction D) Autonomic

Ans: C Feedback: In the alarm reaction stage, stress stimulates the body to send messages from the hypothalamus to the glands and organs to prepare for potential defense needs. In the resistance stage, the digestive system reduces function to shunt blood to areas needed for defense. The exhaustion stage occurs when the person has responded negatively to anxiety and stress. There is no autonomic stage.

29. A nurse documents that a patient has successfully acquired a job performing janitorial services at a local manufacturing company. The goal of which of the following levels of prevention has been achieved? A) Primary prevention B) Secondary prevention C) Tertiary prevention D) Community prevention

Ans: C Feedback: Nurses work to provide mental health prevention services to reduce risks to the mental health of persons, families, and communities. Examples include primary prevention, such as stress management education; secondary prevention, such as early identification of potential mental health problems; and tertiary prevention, such as monitoring and coordinating rehabilitation services for the mentally ill.

9. The nurse is assessing suicide potential in a patient who has expressed hopelessness. In what order does the nurse question the patient about suicidal thoughts? A. "How would you carry out this plan?" B. "Do you have a plan to kill yourself?" C. "Are you thinking of killing yourself?" D. "How do you plan to kill yourself?"

Ans: C, B, D, A Feedback: Suicide assessment should be performed through direct questioning. First, the nurse would need to know if the patient has ideations: "Are you thinking about killing yourself?"; then if the patient has a plan, "Do you have a plan to kill yourself?" If the patient has a plan, then the nurse would ask about method: "How do you plan to kill yourself?" If the patient has ideations, a plan, a method, then does the patient have access to that method the nurse asks, "How would you carry out this plan? Do you have access to the means to carry out the plan?"

9. The nurse is working with a woman who lost her partner nearly 3 weeks prior. The woman has recently become less emotional and expressed that few things in her life have meaning right now. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate at this time? A) "I am concerned. You are starting to show signs of ineffective grieving." B) "You must feel some anger. It is alright to let that out." C) "Let's look at the things in your life that you still enjoy." D) "You are just starting to accept that this loss is real."

Ans: D Feedback: As the bereaved person begins to understand the loss's permanence, he or she recognizes that patterns of thinking, feeling, and acting attached to life with the deceased must change. As the person relinquishes all hope of recovering the lost one, he or she inevitably experiences moments of depression, apathy, or despair. The acute sharp pain initially experienced with the loss becomes less intense and less frequent.

31. Which of the following is most important to maintain therapeutic boundaries when working with aggressive clients? A) Encourage clients to express how the nurse can avoid causing emotional irritation. B) Discuss difficult patient care situations with a supervisor. C) Reflect on your actions that may have instigated the client's anger, D) Do not personalize a client's anger

Ans: D Feedback: Do not take the client's anger or aggressive behavior personally or as a measure of your effectiveness as a nurse. The client's aggressive behavior, however, does not necessarily reflect the nurse's skills and abilities. Clients should not dictate nurses' behaviors. The nurse is not responsible for angering the client. Individuals are responsible for their own emotional control. If the nurse cannot maintain boundaries, assistance should be sought form a supervisor.

32. A patient is being admitted to an inpatient unit for treatment of anorexia nervosa. Of the following assessment data, which should the nurse place as highest priority in the plan of care? A) Weight 24% below normal for height B) Distorted body image C) Feelings of inadequacy D) Frequent vomiting after meals

Ans: D Feedback: Maslow's hierarchy of needs hypothesizes that the basic needs at the bottom of the pyramid dominate the person's behavior until those needs were met, at which time the next level of needs would become dominant. Vomiting threatens fluid and electrolyte balance and poses a more acute threat to survival than low weight. Once basic physical needs are met, the higher level needs such as body image and self-esteem can be addressed.

22. A client with schizophrenia is admitted to the inpatient unit. He does not speak when spoken to but has been observed talking to himself on occasion. What would be the priority objective at this time? A) The client will begin talking with other clients B) The client will express his feelings freely C) The client will increase his socialization with others D) The client will increase his reality orientation

Ans: D Feedback: The client needs to be oriented to reality before he can participate in other therapeutic activities. The other choices would not be priority goals for this patient right now.

12. A significant change in the treatment of people with mental illness occurred in the 1950s when A) community support services were established. B) legislation dramatically changed civil commitment procedures. C) the Patient's Bill of Rights was enacted. D) psychotropic drugs became available for use.

Ans: D Feedback: The development of psychotropic drugs, or drugs used to treat mental illness, began in the 1950s. Answer choices A, B, and C did not occur in the 1950s.

1. The most commonly supported neuroanatomic theory of schizophrenia suggests which etiology? A) Excessive amounts of dopamine and serotonin in the brain B) Ineffective ability of the brain to use dopamine and serotonin C) Insufficient amounts of dopamine in the brain D) Decreased brain tissue in the frontal and temporal regions of the brain

Ans: D Feedback: Decreased brain tissue in the frontal and temporal regions of the brain is the most commonly supported neuroanatomic theory that suggests the etiology of schizophrenia. The other theories are neurochemical.

32. Which element would be present in an assertive community treatment (ACT) program? A) 24-hour-a-day services B) Infrequent contact with clients C) Many clients to each staff member D) Limited length of service

Ans: A Feedback: ACT includes a 24-hour-a-day service, many staff members for each client, in-home or community services, intense and frequent contact, and unlimited length of service.

28. A client from which of the following cultural groups is likely to prefer closeness in personal space? A) Arab Americans B) Chinese C) Cubans D) African Americans

Ans: A Feedback: Arab Americans prefer closeness in personal space. Chinese keep respectful distance. Cubans have greatly varying preferences for personal space. African Americans respect privacy and use a respectful approach.

17. A nurse is questioning whether it is ethical to seclude a client because of loud and intrusive behavior on the unit. What is the ethical principle that will best guide the decision on appropriate use of seclusion? A) Autonomy B) Beneficence C) Justice D) Veracity

Ans: A Feedback: Autonomy refers to the person's right to self-determination and independence. Beneficence refers to one's duty to benefit or to promote good for others. Justice refers to fairness, that is, treating all people fairly and equally without regard for social or economic status, race, sex, marital status, religion, ethnicity, or cultural beliefs. Veracity is the duty to be honest or truthful.

31. A client who has an eating disorder is becoming dependent on the nurse for direction in food choices. Which approach by the nurse would demonstrate the nurse's self-awareness? A) Approach the client with an adult-like objectivity. B) Give the support and direction that the client is seeking. C) Give approval for positive changes seen in the client. D) Take care of the needs that the client is neglecting.

Ans: A Feedback: Avoid sounding parental when teaching about nutrition or why laxative use is harmful. Presenting information factually without chiding the client will obtain more positive results. Be empathetic and nonjudgmental, although this is not easy. Remember the client's perspective and fears about weight and eating. Do not label clients as "good" when they avoid purging or eat an entire meal. Otherwise, clients will believe they are "bad" on days when they purge or fail to eat enough food.

4. The nurse asks the patient what he would like to talk about. This is an example of A) broad opening. B) encouraging expression. C) focusing. D) offering self.

Ans: A Feedback: Broad openings allow the client to take the initiative in introducing the topic. Encouraging expression involves asking the client to appraise the quality of his or her experiences. The nurse uses focusing when concentrating on a single point. Offering self occurs when making oneself available.

21. A client diagnosed with a mild anxiety disorder has been referred to treatment in a community mental health center. Treatment most likely provided at the center includes A) medical management of symptoms. B) daily psychotherapy. C) constant staff supervision. D) psychological stabilization.

Ans: A Feedback: Community mental health centers focus on rehabilitation, vocational needs, education, and socialization, as well as on management of symptoms and medication. Daily therapies, constant supervision, and stabilization require a more acute care inpatient setting.

20. When preparing a client with bulimia for discharge, the nurse suggests that the client and family continue with family therapy on an outpatient basis. Which of the following is the rationale for this suggestion? A) Family members often need to learn role independence and autonomy. B) Family members need to learn to monitor for signs of client relapse. C) Family relationships need to be strengthened due to a lifetime of disengagement. D) Family members often feel jealous of the attention the client has been receiving in treatment.

Ans: A Feedback: Dysfunctional relationships with significant others often are a primary issue for clients with eating disorders. In addition, support groups in the community or via the internet can offer support, education, and resources to clients and their families or significant others.

8. The nurse asks the client what that experience was like. Which communication skill is the nurse using? A) Encouraging expression B) Encouraging description of perceptions C) Exploring D) Requesting an explanation

Ans: A Feedback: Encouraging expression is a therapeutic technique and involves asking the client to appraise the quality of his or her experiences. Encouraging description of perceptions is a therapeutic technique and involves asking the client to verbalize what he or she perceives. Exploring is a therapeutic technique that involves delving further into a subject or an idea. Requesting an explanation is a nontherapeutic verbal communication technique that involves asking the client to provide reasons for thoughts, feelings, behaviors, events.

23. Which of the following medications rarely causes extrapyramidal side effects (EPS)? A) Ziprasidone (Geodon) B) Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) C) Haloperidol (Haldol) D) Fluphenazine (Prolixin)

Ans: A Feedback: First-generation antipsychotic drugs cause a greater incidence of EPS than do atypical antipsychotic drugs, with ziprasidone (Geodon) rarely causing EPS. Thorazine, Haldol, and Prolixin are all first-generation antipsychotic drugs.

4. Genetics have been shown to play which of the following roles in a person's mental and emotional health? A) Several mental disorders appear to run in families. B) Specific genes have been linked to certain mental disorders. C) Biologic factors can be modified to change the influence on emotional health. D) Psychiatric treatment is effective regardless of an individual's biologic influences.

Ans: A Feedback: Heredity and biologic factors are not under voluntary control. We cannot change these factors. Research has identified genetic links to several disorders. Although specific genetic links have not been identified for several mental disorders (e.g., bipolar disorder, major depression, and alcoholism), research has shown that these disorders tend to appear more frequently in families. Genetic makeup tremendously influences a person's response to illness and perhaps even to treatment.

17. A woman has just presented at the emergency department after being raped. The initial nursing action would be to A) provide emotional support. B) refer her to a rape crisis hotline. C) encourage her to file charges immediately. D) perform a nursing history and physical as quickly as possible.

Ans: A Feedback: In the emergency setting, the nurse is an essential part of the team in providing emotional support to the victim. The nurse should allow the woman to proceed at her own pace and not rush her through any interview or examination procedures. Giving back to the victim as much control as possible is important. Ways to do so include allowing her to make decisions, when possible, about whom to call, what to do next, what she would like done, and so on.

11. Which of the following best explains the etiology of anxiety disorders from an interpersonal perspective? A) Anxiety is learned in childhood through interactions with caregivers. B) Anxiety is learned throughout life as a response to life experiences. C) Anxiety stems from an unconscious attempt to control awareness. D) Anxiety results from conforming to the norms of a cultural group.

Ans: A Feedback: Interpersonal theory proposes that caregivers can communicate anxiety to infants or children through inadequate nurturing, agitation when holding or handling the child, and distorted messages. In adults, anxiety arises from the person's need to conform to the norms and values of his or her cultural group. Psychoanalytic theories describe reducing anxiety through the use of defense mechanisms. Defense mechanisms are cognitive distortions that a person uses unconsciously to maintain a sense of being in control of a situation, to lessen discomfort, and to deal with stress.

17. A nurse is assigned to care for a client whose sexual orientation differs from the nurse's sexual orientation. When should the nurse seek clinical supervision? A) When the nurse tries to assist the client to change values B) To discuss the nurse's feelings about the client with a supervisor C) When the nurse begins to empathize with the client D) When the nurse identifies anxieties regarding the client's values and sexuality

Ans: A Feedback: It is not the nurse's role to change the values of the client. The nurse should empathize with the client and be able to discuss feelings about the client with the nurse's supervisor, including anxieties regarding the client's values and sexuality.

15. A patient reported to the nurse that on his way to the clinic, a policeman in a patrol car turned on his lights and pulled him over. When asked what he did next, the patient stated, "I pulled over, of course." Which of the following was the nurse trying to assess? A) The client's judgment B) The client's insight C) The client's concentration D) The client's self-concept

Ans: A Feedback: Judgment refers to the ability to interpret one's environment and situation correctly and to adapt one's behavior and decisions accordingly. Insight is the ability to understand the true nature of one's situation and accept some personal responsibility. Self-concept is the way one views oneself in terms of personal worth and dignity. The nurse assesses the client's ability to concentrate by asking the client to perform certain cognitive tasks. To assess a client's self-concept, the nurse can ask the client to describe himself or herself and what characteristics he or she likes and what he or she would change.

7. A nurse is meeting with a crisis support group. In efforts to help patients identify with one another, the nurse explains which of the following about the crisis experience? A) "Even happy events can cause a crisis if the stress is overwhelming." B) "Only people who have unfortunate life events will experience a crisis." C) "A person has no control over how a crisis will affect him or her." D) "People can prevent all crises if they develop good coping skills early."

Ans: A Feedback: Not all events that result in crisis are "negative" in nature. Events like marriage, retirement, and childbirth are often desirable for the individual but may still present overwhelming challenges. All individuals can experience a crisis when they confront some life circumstance or stressor that they cannot effectively manage through use of their customary coping skills. A number of factors can influence how a person experiences a crisis.

15. Which one of the following statements about the nurse and ethnocentrism is true? A) Nurses as people may inwardly view their own culture as superior to others. B) Ethnocentrism is a desirable trait in a nurse. C) Nurses must deny their ethnocentrism. D) A nurse must not think of his or her own attitudes and beliefs.

Ans: A Feedback: Nurses as people may inwardly view their own culture as superior to others. Ethnocentrism is not uncommon especially when the person has no experience with any culture other than his or her own. It is neither a desirable trait nor an undesirable trait. Nurses must examine their ethnocentrism, and think of their own attitudes and beliefs.

8. Friends of a teenage male recently killed in a car accident are discussing their sense of loss. Which of the following comments best indicates that the friends are trying to make sense of the loss cognitively? A) "Why did he have to die so young?" B) "He shouldn't have been driving so recklessly." C) "If we had only stayed longer, he would not have been on that road." D) "It took the ambulance too long to get there."

Ans: A Feedback: One of the cognitive responses to grief involves the grieving person making sense of the loss. He or she undergoes self-examination and questions accepted ways of thinking. The loss challenges old assumptions about life. Anger, sadness, and anxiety are the predominant emotional responses to loss. The grieving person may direct anger and resentment toward the dead person and his or her health practices, family members, or health-care providers or institutions.

11. The nurse is teaching a client with paranoid personality disorder to validate ideas with another person before taking action on him. Which is the best rationale for this intervention? A) It will assist the client to start basing decisions and actions on reality. B) It will help the client understand the origins of his or her paranoid thinking. C) It will help the client learn to trust other people. D) It will teach the client to differentiate when his or her suspicions are true.

Ans: A Feedback: One of the most effective interventions with paranoid or suspicious clients is helping clients to learn to validate ideas before taking action; however, this requires the ability to trust and to listen to one person. The rationale for this intervention is that clients can avoid problems if they can refrain from taking action until they have validated their ideas with another person. This helps prevent clients from acting on paranoid ideas or beliefs. It also assists them to start basing decisions and actions on reality.

19. When interacting with a client in the day room, the nurse determines that a violent outburst is imminent. Which of the following should the nurse do first? A) Call for assistance. B) Give the client choices. C) Remove the other clients. D) Talk to the client calmly.

Ans: A Feedback: Safety is the priority; the nurse needs assistance to remove other clients and to deal with the violent outburst. The other interventions may be implemented after calling for assistance.

6. A client is admitted for major depression. What should the nurse expect to find during assessment? A) Anhedonia, feelings of worthlessness, and difficulty focusing B) Depressed mood, guilt, and pressured speech C) Changes in sleep pattern, tired, and grandiose mood D) Difficulty focusing, feelings of helplessness, and flight of ideas

Ans: A Feedback: Symptoms of major depressive disorder include depressed mood; anhedonism (decreased attention to and enjoyment from previously pleasurable activities); unintentional weight change of 5% or more in a month; change in sleep pattern; agitation or psychomotor retardation; tiredness; worthlessness or guilt inappropriate to the situation (possibly delusional); difficulty thinking, focusing, or making decisions; or hopelessness, helplessness, and/or suicidal ideation. Grandiose mood, pressured speech, and flight of ideas are associated with mania.

30. A nurse is assisting a patient who is working on the technique of systematic desensitization. When the patient feels anxious, the nurse can best use the principles of this technique by stating, A) "Use the deep breathing techniques we practiced yesterday." B) "What is the worst that will happen if you confront this fear?" C) "Tell me how you are feeling right now." D) "I can see you are anxious. Let's stop for a minute."

Ans: A Feedback: Systematic desensitization can be used to help clients overcome irrational fears and anxiety associated with phobias. The client learns and practices relaxation techniques to decrease and manage anxiety. He or she is then exposed to the least anxiety provoking situation and uses the relaxation techniques to manage the resulting anxiety. Confronting irrational thoughts is part of rational emotive therapy. Encouraging expression of feelings is associated with gestalt therapy.

7. The legislation enacted in 1963 was largely responsible for which of the following shifts in care for the mentally ill? A) The widespread use of community-based services B) The advancement in pharmacotherapies C) Increased access to hospitalization D) Improved rights for clients in long-term institutional care

Ans: A Feedback: The Community Mental Health Centers Construction Act of 1963 accomplished the release of individuals from long-term stays in state institutions, the decrease in admissions to hospitals, and the development of community-based services as an alternative to hospital care.

11. Which of the following interventions by the nurse will increase the client's sense of security? A) Allowing the client to perform the rituals B) Distracting the client from rituals with other activities C) Encouraging the client to talk about the purpose of the rituals D) Stopping the client from performing the rituals

Ans: A Feedback: The client performs rituals to decrease anxiety and will feel most secure when performing the rituals. The other choices would not promote a sense of security of the client.

27. The client tells the nurse, "That new TV anchor is telling the world about me." This is an example of A) ideas of reference. B) persecutory delusions. C) thought broadcasting. D) thought insertion.

Ans: A Feedback: The client's inaccurate interpretation that general events are personally directed to him or her is an example of ideas of reference. Persecutory delusions involve the client's belief that "others" are planning to harm the client. Thought broadcasting is a delusional belief that others can hear or know what the client is thinking. Thought insertion is a delusional belief that others are putting ideas or thoughts into the client's head.

18. Which type of psychiatric rehabilitation relies on intentional communities and rehabilitation alliances? A) Clubhouse model B) Assertive community treatment C) Group homes D) Respite housing

Ans: A Feedback: The clubhouse model of psychiatric rehabilitation relies on intentional communities and rehabilitation alliances. Assertiveness community treatment (ACT) has a problem-solving orientation, and staff members who are in the community attend to specific life issues of the client. Group homes are a residential form of treatment for mental illness but do not provide complete psychiatric rehabilitation. Respite housing is temporary housing for mentally ill persons and does not provide complete psychiatric rehabilitation.

5. A concerned family member tells the nurse, "I am concerned about my brother. He has been acting very different lately." Knowing the family has a history of bipolar disorder, the nurse inquires further about this. Which behavior during the past week might indicate that the brother has bipolar disorder? A) Taking unnecessary risks B) Sleeping more C) Intense focus D) Showing low self-esteem

Ans: A Feedback: The diagnosis of a manic episode or mania requires at least 1 week of unusual and incessantly heightened, grandiose, or agitated mood in addition to three or more of the following symptoms: exaggerated self-esteem; sleeplessness; pressured speech; flight of ideas; reduced ability to filter extraneous stimuli; distractibility; increased activities with increased energy; and multiple, grandiose, high-risk activities involving poor judgment and severe consequences, such as spending sprees, sex with strangers, and impulsive investments.

1. The nurse is assessing a patient suffering a head injury as a result of an altercation with two other individuals. The patient has difficulty accurately reporting the events of the altercation and appears very emotional during the assessment. The nurse suspects which part of the brain received the greatest amount of injury? A) Cerebrum B) Cerebellum C) Medulla D) Amygdala

Ans: A Feedback: The frontal lobes of the cerebrum control the organization of thought, body movement, memories, emotions, and moral behavior. The cerebellum is located below the cerebrum and is the center for coordination of movements and postural adjustments. The medulla, located at the top of the spinal cord, contains vital centers for respiration and cardiovascular functions. The hippocampus and amygdala are involved in emotional arousal and memory.

28. Which of the following would be most supportive for family and friends of a client with an eating disorder? A) Emotional support, love, and attention B) Focus on food intake, calories, and weight C) Unlimited access to unhealthy foods that the client enjoys D) Positive reinforcement for weight gain

Ans: A Feedback: The nurse explains to family and friends that they can be most helpful by providing emotional support, love, and attention. They can express concern about the client's health, but it is rarely helpful to focus on food intake, calories, and weight. Eating disorders can be viewed on a continuum with clients with anorexia eating too little or starving themselves, clients with bulimia eating chaotically, and clients with obesity eating too much.

30. One of the first steps that a nurse should take to deal effectively with aggressive clients is which of the following? A) Reflect on abilities to handle own feelings of anger B) Learn professional skills of anger management C) Become proficient using reflective communication techniques D) Understand how to activate crisis response teams

Ans: A Feedback: The nurse must be aware of how he or she deals with anger before helping clients do so. The nurse who is afraid of angry feelings may avoid a client's anger, which allows the client's behavior to escalate. If the nurse's response is angry, the situation can escalate into a power struggle, and the nurse loses the opportunity to "talk down" the client's anger. Identifying how you handle angry feelings is an initial task. Once the nurse understands his or her own experiences with anger, the clients can be helped through learning the use of assertive communication and conflict resolution. Increasing your skills in dealing with your angry feelings will help you to work more effectively with clients. Activating a crisis response is a late option in dealing with anger.

26. The nurse is assessing an elderly female in the emergency department. There are many bruises present on her body in varying stages of healing. After documenting the bruising in the assessment, what should the nurse do next? A) Ask the client when and how the bruises occurred B) Call the nursing supervisor immediately C) Follow the facility's policy and procedures for reporting abuse D) Notify the physician that abuse is suspected

Ans: A Feedback: The nurse should not assume the bruises were caused by abuse; the client's explanation is an important step in the assessment of potential abuse. A nurse must assess for abuse prior to getting the supervisor and physician involved. Reporting abuse would be initiated after a thorough assessment.

2. The nurse is working with a patient who has quit several jobs and no longer sends financial support to his two children living with their mother. This behavior is in conflict with the nurse's values concerning responsible parenting. When discussing family roles with the patient, the nurse shows positive regard through which statement? A) "How is not working right now affecting you?" B) "How do you expect your kids to be provided for?" C) "You need to somehow find a way to support your children." D) "Can the children's mother can get by for a while until you get better?"

Ans: A Feedback: The nurse who appreciates the client as a unique worthwhile human being can respect the client regardless of his or her behavior, background, or lifestyle. The nurse maintains attention on the client and avoids communicating negative opinions or value judgments about the client's behavior. In using positive regard, the nurse avoids value judgments and shifting of the focus away from the patient.

24. During the orientation phase of the nurse-patient relationship, the nurse directs the patient to do which of the following? A) Identify problems to examine B) Express needs and feelings C) Develop interpersonal skills D) Identify self-care strategies

Ans: A Feedback: The orientation phase begins when the nurse and client meet and ends when the client begins to identify problems to examine. Expression of feelings and improving interpersonal skills are tasks of the working phase. Self-care strategies are developed and assessed nearing termination.

28. A patient with bipolar disorder taking lithium returns from a walk outside and reports feeling shaky and dizzy. The nurse suspects the patient is experiencing a toxic reaction to the lithium and immediately notifies the A) psychiatrist. B) psychologist. C) nurse manager. D) recreation therapist.

Ans: A Feedback: The primary function of the psychiatrist is diagnosis of mental disorders and prescription of medical treatments. Psychologists participate in the design of therapy programs for groups of individuals. The nurse is an essential team member in evaluating the effectiveness of medical treatment particularly medications. The recreation therapist helps the client to achieve a balance of work and play.

12. A client who is manic states, "What time is it? I have to see the doctor. Is breakfast here yet? I've got to see the doctor first. Can I get my cereal out of the kitchen?" Which would be the most appropriate response by the nurse? A) "Please slow down. I'm not sure what you need first." B) "You will have to be quiet and have breakfast after the doctor comes." C) "Are you hungry?" D) "Your thoughts seem to be racing this morning."

Ans: A Feedback: The speech of manic clients may be pressured: rapid, circumstantial, rhyming, noisy, or intrusive with flights of ideas. The nurse must keep channels of communication open with clients, regardless of speech patterns. The nurse can say, "Please speak more slowly. I'm having trouble following you." This puts the responsibility for the communication difficulty on the nurse rather than on the client.

14. The client with mania attempts to hit the nurse. Which is the best response by the nurse? A) "Do not swing at me again. If you cannot control yourself, we will help you." B) "If you do that one more time, you will be put in seclusion immediately." C) "Stop that. I didn't do anything to provoke an attack." D) "Why do you continue that kind of behavior? You know I won't let you do it."

Ans: A Feedback: This response firmly states behavioral expectations and lets the client know his behavior will be safely controlled if he is unable to do so. The other choices are not appropriate responses to this situation.

18. The client with schizophrenia tells the nurse that rats have started to eat his brain. The best response by the nurse would be, A) "Have you discussed this with your physician?" B) "How could that be possible?" C) "You cannot have rats in your brain." D) "You look OK to me."

Ans: A Feedback: This sounds like a new symptom, so talking with the physician is important; the client may need to have his medication reevaluated. "How could that be possible," puts the client on the defensive. "You cannot have rats in your brain," refers to the response as being unbelievable. "You look OK to me," is inappropriate and not therapeutic.

27. Which is a possible explanation for the increased risk of suicide in persons who have had a relative who committed suicide? A) The relative's suicide offers a sense of "permission" or acceptance of suicide as a method of escaping a difficult situation. B) Many people with depression who have suicidal ideation lack the energy to implement suicide plans, but antidepressant treatment can actually give clients with depression the energy to act on suicidal ideation. C) Suicide is more likely to occur in April when natural energy from increased sunlight may give the client the energy to act on suicidal ideation. D) The relative's suicide caused the family members to realize that suicide is emotionally harmful to the ones left behind and vow not to consider suicide.

Ans: A Feedback: Those with a relative who committed suicide are at increased risk for suicide: the closer the relationship, the greater the risk. One possible explanation is that the relative's suicide offers a sense of "permission" or acceptance of suicide as a method of escaping a difficult situation. Treatment with antidepressants and spring increase in sunlight and energy may give a person with suicidal ideation the energy to act on it. If a relative commits suicide, the family members may recognize that suicide is emotionally harmful to the ones left behind and vow not to consider suicide—this does not increase the risk of suicide.

24. The nurse is identifying outcomes for a client with a somatic symptom illness. Which is an appropriate outcome to include in the plan of care? A) The client will verbally express his or her emotions. B) The client will be free from stress. C) The client will demonstrate alternative ways to avoid stressful situations. D) The client will verbalize acceptance of physical symptoms.

Ans: A Feedback: Treatment outcomes for clients with a somatic symptom illness may include the following: the client will identify the relationship between stress and physical symptoms; the client will verbally express emotional feelings; the client will follow an established daily routine; the client will demonstrate alternative ways to deal with stress, anxiety, and other feelings; the client will demonstrate healthier behaviors regarding rest, activity, and nutritional intake. It is unrealistic for the client to be free from stress or avoid stressful situations.

28. Patient says to the nurse, "I wonder what's playing at the movie tonight." The most therapeutic response would be, A) "Are you telling me you would like to go to the movies?" B) "Why don't you look in the newspaper." C) "There's nothing worth watching." D) "Do you like to go to the movies?"

Ans: A Feedback: Verbalizing the implied—voicing what the client has hinted at or suggested. Putting into words what the client has implied or said indirectly tends to make the discussion less obscure. The nurse should be as direct as possible without being unfeelingly blunt or obtuse. The client may have difficulty communicating directly. The nurse should take care to express only what is fairly obvious; otherwise, the nurse may be jumping to conclusions or interpreting the client's communication.

7. A person suffering from schizophrenia has little emotional expression when interacting with others. The nurse would document the client's affect as which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Flat B) Blunt C) Bright D) Inappropriate E) Pleasant

Ans: A, B Feedback: Clients with schizophrenia are often described as having blunted affect (few observable facial expressions) or flat affect (no facial expression). The client may exhibit an inappropriate expression or emotions incongruent with the context of the situation. It is not likely that the affect of a person with schizophrenia would be pleasant.

26. Which of the following dilemmas involve the ethical principle of fidelity? Select all that apply. A) When the nurse is unable to agree with the policies or common practices of an agency B) When the nurse is faced with a decision to violate a policy that is harmful to the client C) When the nurse is certain that clients of different racial and ethnic backgrounds are being treated the same as other clients D) When the nurse understands that a combative client must be secluded against their will to prevent harm to others E) When the client refuses to take medication and the nurse respects the client's right to refuse medication

Ans: A, B Feedback: When the nurse is unable to agree with the policies or common practices of an agency, the nurse is facing a dilemma about fidelity, which refers to the obligation to honor commitments and contracts. When the nurse is faced with a decision to violate a policy that is harmful to the client, the nurse is facing a dilemma about fidelity—that is, should the nurse be faithful to the employing agency or the individual client being cared for. When the nurse is certain that clients of different racial and ethnic backgrounds are being treated the same as other clients, the nurse is acting in accord with the ethical principle of justice. When the nurse understands that a combative client must be secluded against his or her will to prevent harm to others, the nurse is following the ethical principle of utilitarianism. When a client refuses to take medications and the nurse respects the client's right to refuse medication, the nurse is enacting the ethical principle of autonomy.

4. The nurse correctly identifies that which of OCDs self-soothing behaviors may involve self-destruction of the body of a person who has OCD? Select all that apply. A) Dermatillomania B) Trichotillomania C) Onychophagia D) Kleptomania E) Oniomania

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: Dermatillomania, or skin-picking, is a self-soothing behavior; that is, the behavior is an attempt of people to soothe or comfort themselves, not that picking itself is necessarily a positive sensation. Trichotillomania, or chronic, repetitive hair pulling, is a self-soothing behavior that can cause distress and functional impairment. Onychophagia, or nail biting, is a self-soothing behavior. Kleptomania, or compulsive stealing, and oniomania, or compulsive buying, are reward-seeking behaviors.

26. Which of the following interventions are most effective in managing the environment to reduce or eliminate aggressive behavior? Select all that apply. A) Planning group activities such as playing games B) Scheduling one-to-one interactions with the client C) Providing structure and consistency in the unit D) Avoiding discussions among clients on the unit E) Discouraging clients from negotiating solutions

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: Group and planned activities such as playing card games, watching and discussing movies, or participating in informal discussions give the clients the opportunity to talk about events or issues when they are calm. Scheduling one-to-one interactions with clients indicates the nurse's genuine interest in the client and a willingness to listen to the client's concerns, thoughts, and feelings. Knowing what to expect enhances the client's feelings of security. Avoiding discussions does not give clients the opportunity to talk about events or issues when they are calm. If clients have a conflict or dispute with one another, the nurse can offer the opportunity for problem solving or conflict resolution. Expressing angry feelings appropriately, using assertive communication statements, and negotiating a solution are important skills clients can practice. These skills will be useful for the client when he or she returns to the community.

22. Which are important in the limit-setting technique to deal with manipulative behavior? Select all that apply. A) Stating the behavioral limit B) Identifying the consequences if the limit is exceeded C) Identifying the expected or desired behavior D) Providing choices E) Allowing flexibility

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: Limit setting is an effective technique that involves three steps: 1. Stating the behavioral limit (describing the unacceptable behavior) 2. Identifying the consequences if the limit is exceeded 3. Identifying the expected or desired behavior Providing choices and allowing flexibility would be counterproductive as the expectations must be consistent.

17. Which of the following are important for the nurse to remember when teaching relaxation and behavioral techniques to a client with OCD? Select all that apply. A) It is important to teach the client to use relaxation techniques when the client's anxiety is low. B) The nurse may teach the client about relaxation techniques when the client is experiencing anxiety. C) The client must be willing to engage in exposure and response prevention. D) The client must be forced to use relaxation techniques. E) It is unnecessary to assess the baseline of ritualistic behaviors in the client with OCD.

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: The intervention should take place when the client's anxiety is low, so he or she can learn more effectively. The nurse may teach the client about relaxation techniques when the client is experiencing anxiety. The client must be willing to engage in exposure and response prevention. The client cannot be forced to use relaxation techniques. It is necessary to assess the baseline of frequency and duration of anxiety and ritualistic behaviors in the client with OCD.

1. When assessing a patient's mental health status, which of the following describe the purpose of the psychosocial assessment? Select all that apply. A) To assess the client's current emotional state B) To assess the client's mental capacity C) To assess the client's behavioral function D) To assess the client's plan of care E) To assess the client's physical health status

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: The purpose of the psychosocial assessment is to construct a picture of the client's current emotional state, mental capacity, and behavioral function. This assessment serves as the basis for developing a plan of care to meet the client's needs. The client's physical health status would need to be completed as another assessment or an extended assessment.

15. What is required for a transitional care model to be most effective in promoting the client's health and well-being and prevent relapse and rehospitalization? Select all that apply. A) Collaboration B) Administrative support C) Adequate funding D) Family support E) Completely different providers F) Isolation from peers who successfully live in the community

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: Two essential components of transitional care model are peer support and bridging staff. Peer support is provided by a consumer now living successfully in the community. Bridging staff refers to an overlap between hospital and community care—hospital staff do not terminate their therapeutic relationship with the client until a therapeutic relationship has been established with the community care provider. This model requires collaboration, administrative support, and adequate funding to effectively promote the patient's health and well-being and prevent relapse and rehospitalization.

4. Which of the following are common characteristics of violent families regardless of the type of abuse that exists? Select all that apply. A) Abuse of power and control B) Alcohol and other drug abuse C) Intergenerational transmission D) Social isolation E) Victim instigates

Ans: A, B, C, D Feedback: Research studies have identified some common characteristics of violent families regardless of the type of abuse that exists. They include social isolation, abuse of power and control, alcohol and other drug abuse, intergenerational transmission. The victim does not instigate abuse.

10. Which are the factors that are currently considered to be possible reasons for the increased incidence of somatization in women? Select all that apply. A) Boys in the United States are taught to be stoic and to "take it like a man," causing them to offer fewer physical complaints as adults. B) Women seek medical treatment more often than men, and it is more socially acceptable for them to do so. C) Childhood sexual abuse, which is related to somatization, happens more frequently to girls. D) Women more often receive treatment for psychiatric disorders with strong somatic components such as depression. E) Unexplained female pains result from migration of the uterus throughout the woman's body.

Ans: A, B, C, D Feedback: Somatization is associated most often with women, as evidenced by the old term hysteria (Greek for "wandering uterus"). Ancient theorists believed that unexplained female pains resulted from migration of the uterus throughout the woman's body. Psychosocial theorists posit that increased incidence of somatization in women may be related to various factors: • Boys in the United States are taught to be stoic and to "take it like a man," causing them to offer fewer physical complaints as adults. • Women seek medical treatment more often than men, and it is more socially acceptable for them to do so. • Childhood sexual abuse, which is related to somatization, happens more frequently to girls. • Women more often receive treatment for psychiatric disorders with strong somatic components such as depression.

34. Which may contribute to a staff person being less effective in dealing with a person who is at increased risk for suicide? Select all that apply. A) Negative societal view of suicide B) Feeling inadequate and anxious about suicide and/or his or her own mortality C) Having personally considered suicide but decided against it and not having dealt with the associated anxiety D) Being unaware of his or her own feelings and beliefs about suicide E) Implementing nursing interventions to decrease the risk of suicide

Ans: A, B, C, D Feedback: Some health-care professionals consider suicidal people to be failures, immoral, or unworthy of care. These negative attitudes may result from several factors. They may reflect society's negative view of suicide. Health-care professionals may feel inadequate and anxious dealing with suicidal clients, or they may be uncomfortable about their own mortality. Many people have had thoughts about "ending it all," even if for a fleeting moment when life is not going well. The scariness of remembering such flirtations with suicide causes anxiety. If this anxiety is not resolved, the staff person can demonstrate avoidance, demeaning behavior, and superiority to suicidal clients. Therefore, to be effective, the nurse must be aware of his or her own feelings and beliefs about suicide.

27. Which of the following questions would best help the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of antipsychotic medications for a client who has schizophrenia? Select all that apply. A) Have the symptoms you were experiencing disappeared? B) If the symptoms have not disappeared, are you able to carry out your daily life despite the persistence of some psychotic symptoms? C) Are you committed to taking the medication as prescribed? D) Are you satisfied with your quality of life? E) Do you have access to community agencies that will help you to live successfully in this community?

Ans: A, B, C, D Feedback: The client's perception of the success of treatment plays a part in evaluation. In a global sense, evaluation of the treatment of schizophrenia is based on the following: • Have the client's psychotic symptoms disappeared? If not, can the client carry out his or her daily life despite the persistence of some psychotic symptoms? • Does the client understand the prescribed medication regimen? Is he or she committed to adherence to the regimen? • Does the client believe that he or she has a satisfactory quality of life? The question, "Do you have access to community agencies that will help you to live successfully in this community?" is an appropriate question to ask to evaluate the plan of care but does not directly relate to antipsychotic medications.

21. Which of the following are the types of roles that are usually included when assessing roles and relationships? Select all that apply. A) Family B) Hobbies C) Occupation D) Activities E) Race F) Ethnicity

Ans: A, B, C, D Feedback: The number and type of roles may vary, but they usually include family, occupation, and hobbies or activities.

35. Which reasons make it necessary for the nurse to examine his or her beliefs and attitudes about substance abuse? Select all that apply. A) The nurse may be overly harsh and critical of the client. B) The nurse may unknowingly act out old family roles and engage in enabling behavior. C) The nurse or close friends and family of the nurse may abuse substances. D) The nurse may have different attitudes about various substances of abuse. E) The nurse is not likely to have had any experience with substance abuse.

Ans: A, B, C, D Feedback: The nurse must examine his or her beliefs and attitudes about substance abuse. A history of substance abuse in the nurse's family can strongly influence his or her interaction with clients. The nurse may be overly harsh and critical. Conversely, the nurse may unknowingly act out old family roles and engage in enabling behavior. Examining one's own substance use or use by close friends and family may be difficult and unpleasant but is necessary if the nurse is to have therapeutic relationships with clients. The nurse also might have different attitudes about various substances of abuse. Health-care professionals also have higher rates of alcoholism than the general population. With the pervasive nature of substance abuse nationally, odds are great that nurses and other health professionals have been affected by substance abuse in their lives.

2. Which of the following are possible with psychosomatic illness? Select all that apply. A) Real symptoms can begin. B) Real symptoms can continue. C) Real symptoms can worsen. D) Unrelated symptoms can occur. E) Clients can control these symptoms.

Ans: A, B, C, D Feedback: The term psychosomatic is used to convey the connection between the mind (psyche) and the body (soma) in states of health and illness. Essentially, the mind can cause the body to create physical symptoms or to worsen physical illnesses. Real symptoms can begin, continue, or be worsened as a result of emotional factors. Examples include diabetes, hypertension, and colitis, all of which are medical illnesses influenced by stress and emotions. In addition, stress can cause physical symptoms unrelated to a diagnosed medical illness. Clients do not willfully control the physical symptoms.

14. Which of the following are common behavioral and emotional responses to abuse? Select all that apply. A) One third of abusive men are likely to have come from violent homes. B) Women who grew up in violent homes are 50% more likely to expect or accept violence in their own relationships. C) Dependency on the abuser is a common trait found in victims of domestic violence. D) The victim caused the abuse. E) It is critical for the nurse to demonstrate acceptance after hearing about the abuse so that the victim may begin to gain self-acceptance.

Ans: A, B, C, E Feedback: One third of abusive men are likely to have come from violent homes. Women who grew up in violent homes are 50% more likely to expect or accept violence in their own relationships. Dependency on the abuser is a common trait found in victims of domestic violence. The victim may believe that he or she caused the abuse, but this is not accurate. It is critical for the nurse to demonstrate acceptance after hearing about the abuse so that the victim may begin to gain self-acceptance.

22. Which of the following are cognitive-behavioral therapy techniques that may be used effectively with anxious clients? Select all that apply. A) Positive reframing B) Decatastrophizing C) Assertiveness training D) Humor E) Unlearning

Ans: A, B, C, E Feedback: Positive reframing means turning negative messages into positive messages. Decatastrophizing involves the therapist's use of questions to more realistically appraise the situation. Assertiveness training helps the person take more control over life situations. Positive reframing, decatastrophizing, and assertiveness training are cognitive-behavioral therapy techniques. Humor is not a cognitive-behavioral therapy technique. Unlearning is the theory underlying behavioral therapy.

8. The nurse understands that which biologic factors may influence the development of an eating disorder? Select all that apply. A) Family history of eating disorders B) Dysfunction of the hypothalamus C) Norepinephrine imbalances D) First-degree relatives with psychotic disorder E) Decreased serotonin levels

Ans: A, B, C, E Feedback: Studies of anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa have shown that these disorders tend to run in families, or it may directly involve a dysfunction of the hypothalamus. A family history of mood or anxiety disorders (e.g., obsessive-compulsive disorder) places a person at risk for an eating disorder. Low norepinephrine levels are seen in clients during periods of restricted food intake. Also, low epinephrine levels are related to the decreased heart rate and blood pressure seen in clients with anorexia. Low levels of serotonin as well as low platelet levels of monoamine oxidase have been found in clients with bulimia and the binge and purge subtype of anorexia nervosa.

25. Which of the following are core skill areas that are needed of any effective team member of an interdisciplinary team? Select all that apply. A) Interpersonal skills B) Teamwork skills C) Communication skills D) The ability to work independently E) Risk assessment and risk management skills

Ans: A, B, C, E Feedback: The core skill areas that are needed to function as an effective team member of an interdisciplinary team include interpersonal skills, such as tolerance, patience, and understanding; humanity, such as warmth, acceptance, empathy, genuineness, and nonjudgmental attitude; knowledge base about mental disorders, symptoms, and behavior; communication skills; personal qualities, such as consistency, assertiveness, and problem-solving abilities; teamwork skills, such as collaborating, sharing, and integrating; risk assessment and risk management skills. Members of an interdisciplinary group must work interdependently, not independently.

6. Anger management is likely to be included in the care of clients with which of the following psychiatric diagnoses? Select all that apply. A) Alzheimer's dementia B) Schizophrenia C) Anorexia nervosa D) Acute alcohol intoxication E) Generalized anxiety disorder

Ans: A, B, D Feedback: Although most clients with psychiatric disorders are not aggressive, clients with a variety of psychiatric diagnoses can exhibit angry, hostile, and aggressive behavior. Clients with paranoid delusions may believe others are out to get them; believing they are protecting themselves, they retaliate with hostility or aggression. Some clients have auditory hallucinations that command them to hurt others. Aggressive behavior also is seen in clients with dementia, delirium, head injuries, intoxication with alcohol or other drugs, and antisocial and borderline personality disorders.

15. Which of the following disorders are extrapyramidal symptoms that may be caused by antipsychotic drugs? Select all that apply. A) Akathisia B) Pseudoparkinsonism C) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome D) Dystonia E) Anticholinergic effects F) Breast tenderness in men and women

Ans: A, B, D Feedback: Extrapyramidal symptoms include dystonia, pseudoparkinsonism, and akathisia. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is also a side effect of antipsychotic drugs but is an idiosyncratic reaction to an antipsychotic drug, not an extrapyramidal symptom. Breast tenderness in men and women is also a potential side effect of antipsychotic drugs that cause elevated prolactin levels, but it is not an extrapyramidal symptom.

10. The nurse is planning the type of approach that will be most effective in developing a therapeutic relationship with the client. The nurse should use a matter-of-fact approach with clients with which types of personality disorders? Select all that apply. A) Paranoid B) Antisocial C) Schizotypal D) Narcissistic E) Avoidant

Ans: A, B, D Feedback: Paranoid, antisocial, and narcissistic personalities need a serious, straightforward approach that includes limit setting and a matter-of-fact approach. Schizotypal personalities need to improve community functioning through social skills training. Avoidant personalities require support and reassurance to promote self-esteem.

25. The nurse has been working with a patient with an eating disorder for one week. During the morning treatment team meeting, the treatment plan is updated. Which of the following would be appropriate interventions at this time in the nurse-patient relationship? Select all that apply. A) Exploring perceptions of reality B) Promoting a positive self-concept C) Explaining the boundaries of the relationship D) Working through resistance E) Assisting in identifying problems

Ans: A, B, D Feedback: Specific tasks of the working phase include maintaining the relationship, gathering more data, exploring perceptions of reality, developing positive coping mechanisms, promoting a positive self-concept, encouraging verbalization of feelings, facilitating behavior change, working through resistance, evaluating progress and redefining goals as appropriate, providing opportunities for the client to practice new behaviors, and promoting independence. Establishing boundaries and identifying problems are completed in the orientation phase.

1. The nurse knows that which of the following are stages in Selye's general adaptation syndrome? Select all that apply. A) Alarm reaction stage B) Resistance stage C) Coping stage D) Exhaustion stage E) Panic stage

Ans: A, B, D Feedback: The stages in Selye's general adaptation syndrome include the alarm reaction stage, the resistance stage, and the exhaustion stage. Selye did not identify either a coping stage or a panic stage.

9. A man is discovered wandering the street, looking confused and stepping out into traffic. When emergency responders approach the man, he cannot recall his name or where he lives. The responders transport the man to the mental health crisis unit for further evaluation. Which of the following are the man most likely suffering from? Select all that apply. A) Depersonalization disorder B) Dissociative identity disorder C) Repressed memories D) Dissociative amnesia E) False memory syndrome

Ans: A, B, D Feedback: With dissociative amnesia, the client cannot remember important personal information. With dissociative personality disorder, the client displays two or more distinct identities or personality states that recurrently take control of his or her behavior. With depersonalization disorder, the client has persistent or recurring feeling of being detached from his or her mental processes or body (depersonalization) or sensation of being in a dream-like state where the environment seems foggy or unreal (derealization). The client is not psychotic or out of touch with reality. Repressed memories are when a person is unable to consciously recall memories of childhood abuse. False memory syndrome can occur during psychotherapy when the client is encouraged to imagine false memories of childhood sexual abuse.

14. Which of the following statements about spirituality are true? Select all that apply. A) Many clients with mental disorders have disturbing religious delusions. B) Religious activities have been shown to be linked with better health and a sense of well-being. C) Spirituality only involves religion. D) Hope and faith are two critical factors in psychiatric and physical rehabilitation. E) Spirituality may include a relationship with the environment.

Ans: A, B, D, E Feedback: Many clients with mental disorders have disturbing religious delusions. Religious activities have been shown to be linked with better health and a sense of well-being. Spirituality involves the essence of a person's being and his or her beliefs about the meaning of life and the purpose for living. It may include belief in God or a higher power, the practice of religion, cultural beliefs and practices, and a relationship with the environment. Hope and faith are two critical factors in psychiatric and physical rehabilitation.

9. Which factors may contribute to the frequency of eating disorders in adolescents? Select all that apply. A) Media portrayal of slimness as an ideal B) Body dissatisfaction in adolescent females C) Stress-free existence of adolescents D) Body image disturbance E) Seeking autonomy F) Seeking to develop a unique identity

Ans: A, B, D, E, F Feedback: Two essential tasks of adolescence are the struggle to develop autonomy and the establishment of a unique identity. In families in which enmeshment exists, adolescents begin to control their eating through severe dieting and thus gain control over their weight. Adolescent girls who express body dissatisfaction are most likely to experience adverse outcomes. The need to develop a unique identity, or a sense of who one is as a person, is another essential task of adolescence. It coincides with the onset of puberty, which initiates many emotional and physiologic changes. Self-doubt and confusion can result if the adolescent does not measure up to the person she or he wants to be. Advertisements, magazines, and movies that feature thin models reinforce the cultural belief that slimness is attractive. Body image disturbance occurs when there is an extreme discrepancy between one's body image and the perceptions of others and extreme dissatisfaction with one's body image.

1. The nursing student correctly identifies which of the following statements are true of the etiology of OCD? Select all that apply. A) The cognitive model for OCD etiology focuses on childhood and environmental experiences of growing up. B) The etiology of OCD is not definitively explained at this time. C) OCD is caused by immune dysfunction. D) The primary etiology of OCD is genetics. E) Cognitive models may partially explain why people develop OCD.

Ans: A, B, E Feedback: Different studies of the etiology of OCD show promise, but have yet to definitively explain how or why people develop OCD. Cognitive models of OCD have been long accepted as a partial explanation for OCD. The cognitive model focuses on childhood and environmental experiences of growing up. Heritable, genetic factors are a significant influence on thinking, and environmental influences are not solely responsible. Immune dysfunction may play a role in the etiology of OCD.

34. Which of the following are reasons that the nurse must understand why and how anxiety behaviors work? Select all that apply. A) To provide better care for the client B) To help understand the role anxiety plays in performing nursing responsibilities C) To help the nurse to mask his or her own feelings of anxiety D) So the nurse can identify that his or her own needs are more important than the clients E) To help nurses to function at a high level

Ans: A, B, E Feedback: Nurses must understand why and how anxiety behaviors work, not just for client care but to help understand the role anxiety plays in performing nursing responsibilities. Nurses are expected to function at a high level and to avoid allowing their own feelings and needs to hinder the care of their clients, but as emotional beings, nurses are just as vulnerable to stress and anxiety as others, and they have needs of their own.

11. The major problems with large state institutions are: Select all that apply. A) attendants were accused of abusing the residents. B) stigma associated with residence in an insane asylum. C) clients were geographically isolated from family and community. D) increasing financial costs to individual residents.

Ans: A, C Feedback: Clients were often far removed from the local community, family, and friends because state institutions were usually in rural or remote settings. Choices B and D were not major problems associated with large state instructions.

7. Discharge planning from inpatient care for people with severe mental illness must address which of the following to be effective? Select all that apply. A) Finding housing for the client B) Finding a job for the client C) Finding transportation for the client D) Improving family support E) Identifying ideal recreational activities

Ans: A, C Feedback: Clinicians help clients recognize symptoms, identify coping skills, and choose discharge supports in the inpatient setting. People are able to remain in the community for longer periods of time when discharge planning addresses environmental supports, housing, transportation, and access to community support services. Finding a job for the client may be helpful if appropriate but may not be appropriate for the individual at the time of discharge from inpatient care. Improving family support and identifying ideal recreational activities are desirable but not essential for successful reintegration with the community.

3. Which of the following statements is true of empathy? Select all that apply. A) It is the ability to place oneself into the experience of another for a moment in time. B) It involves interjecting the nurse's personal experiences and interpretations of the situation. C) It is developed by gathering information from the client. D) It results in negative therapeutic outcomes. E) The client must learn to develop empathy for the nurse.

Ans: A, C Feedback: Empathy is the ability to place oneself into the experience of another for a moment in time. Nurses develop empathy by gathering as much information about an issue as possible directly from the client to avoid interjecting their personal experiences and interpretations of the situation. It does not result in negative therapeutic outcomes. The nurse must develop empathy with the client.

19. Which nursing interventions are most important in a plan of care for a client with histrionic personality disorder? Select all that apply. A) Teach social skills. B) Assist the client to eliminate passive behavior. C) Provide factual feedback about behavior. D) Try to meet the client's needs for attention. E) Acceptance of the behavior.

Ans: A, C Feedback: Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of excessive emotionality and attention seeking. Appropriate nursing interventions include teaching social skills and providing factual feedback about behavior. Acceptance of the behavior will cause the behavior to be intensified. Trying to meet the client's needs for attention is an inappropriate intervention since these clients are already seeking attention.

17. Which techniques would be most effective for a client who has situational phobias? Select all that apply. A) Flooding B) Reminding the person to calm down C) Systematic desensitization D) Assertiveness training E) Decatastrophizing

Ans: A, C Feedback: Systematic desensitization is when the therapist progressively exposes the client to a threatening object in a safe setting until the client's anxiety decreases. Flooding is a form of rapid desensitization in which the behavior therapist confronts the client with the phobic object until it no longer produces anxiety. Systematic desensitization and flooding are behavioral therapies used in the treatment of phobias. Assertiveness training would help the person to take more control over life situations. Decatastrophizing helps the client to realistically appraise the situation. These are both used for general anxiety. When a person is exposed to a phobic object, the person is not likely in control. Reminding a person to calm down is not at all an effective way to manage anxiety.

28. Which techniques are important for nurses caring for clients with personality disorders to use in order to effectively provide care? Select all that apply. A) Discuss feelings of anger or frustration with colleagues to help them recognize and cope with their own feelings. B) Considering the client to be a personal friend. C) Employ ongoing communication with team members to remain firm and consistent about expectations for clients. D) Solving the problems of the client. E) Understanding that behavior changes in clients with personality disorders can occur quickly.

Ans: A, C Feedback: Talking to colleagues about feelings of frustration will help you to deal with your emotional responses, so you can be more effective with clients. Clear, frequent communication with other health-care providers can help to diminish the client's manipulation. Set realistic goals and remember that behavior changes in clients with personality disorders take a long time. Progress can be very slow.

21. The nurse should use clear concrete messages when working with patients displaying which of the following conditions? Select all that apply. A) Anxiety B) Anorexia C) Dementia D) Schizophrenia E) Hypochondriasis

Ans: A, C, D Feedback: Clients who lose cognitive processing, such as those who are anxious, cognitively impaired, or suffering from some mental disorders, often function at a concrete level of comprehension and have difficulty answering abstract questions. The nurse must be sure that statements and questions are clear and concrete.

2. Of the following personality disorders, which are most likely related to lack of caring about others? Select all that apply. A) Schizotypal personality disorder B) Borderline personality disorder C) Antisocial personality disorder D) Narcissistic personality disorder E) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

Ans: A, C, D Feedback: Schizotypal personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of social and interpersonal deficits marked by acute discomfort with and reduced capacity for close relationships as well as by cognitive or perceptual distortions and behavioral eccentricities. Borderline personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of unstable interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affect as well as marked impulsivity. Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others—and with the central characteristics of deceit and manipulation. Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, need for admiration, and lack of empathy. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of preoccupation with perfectionism, mental and interpersonal control, and orderliness at the expense of flexibility, openness, and efficiency.

20. The nurse plans to assess a patient's self-concept in the admission assessment knowing that self-concept influences which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Body image B) Cognitive processing C) Frequently experienced emotions D) Coping strategies E) Responsiveness to medications

Ans: A, C, D Feedback: Self-concept is the way one views oneself in terms of personal worth and dignity. The client's description of self in terms of physical characteristics gives the nurse information about the client's body image. Also included in an assessment of self-concept are the emotions that the client frequently experiences and whether or not the client is comfortable with those emotions. The nurse also must assess the client's coping strategies. Cognitive processing and response to medications are biologically based.

28. Which time periods during antidepressant therapy are persons most likely to commit suicide? Select all that apply. A) After starting antidepressant therapy but not having reached the therapeutic level B) After having reached the therapeutic level of antidepressants and maintained it for several years C) If the client has made a choice to discontinue antidepressant therapy without medical supervision and is becoming gradually more depressed D) If the client does not adhere to the medication regimen and takes antidepressant medications irregularly E) Prior to initiating antidepressant therapy but before the depression results in lack of energy

Ans: A, C, D, E Feedback: After starting antidepressant therapy but not having reached the therapeutic level, the client is still troubled with depression and may have the energy to execute any suicide ideation. If the client has made the choice to discontinue antidepressant therapy without medical supervision and is becoming gradually more depressed does not adhere to the medication regimen and takes antidepressant medications irregularly, or prior to initiating antidepressant therapy but before the depression results in lack of energy, the client may be motivated to commit suicide because of the depression that is not effectively treated by a therapeutic level of antidepressant medications and yet still have enough energy to execute any suicide ideation. After having reached the therapeutic level of antidepressant medications and having maintained it for several years, the client is not likely at an increased risk for suicide.

28. The term "standards of care" refers to expectations of nursing performance. Standards of care are developed from which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Code of Ethics for Nurses with Interpretive Statements B) Licensure examinations C) State Nurse Practice Acts D) Agency job descriptions E) Professional nursing organizations

Ans: A, C, D, E Feedback: Standards of care are developed from professional standards, state nurse practice acts, federal agency regulations, agency policies and procedures, job descriptions, and civil and criminal laws.

3. Which of the following are components of the assessment of thought process and content? Select all that apply. A) What the client is thinking B) Abstract thinking abilities C) How the client is thinking D) Clarity of ideas E) Self-harm or suicide urges

Ans: A, C, D, E Feedback: The components of the assessment of thought process and content include content (what the client is thinking), process (how the client is thinking), clarity of ideas, self-harm, or suicide urges. Abstract thinking abilities are an element of the abnormal sensory experiences or misperception assessment.

19. Which of the following persons are most likely experiencing complicated grieving? Select all that apply. A) The spouse of a person who died 7 years ago and visits the grave several times a day. B) The grandchild of a soldier killed in war who visits the grave once a year on Memorial Day. C) A driver whose spouse and children all died as a result of his driving drunk. D) An adult who insisted for many years that he or she hated his or her deceased parent. E) The parent of a child who died after the having left the child in a car on a hot day.

Ans: A, C, D, E Feedback: The spouse of a person who died 7 years ago and visits the grave several times a day is likely experiencing complicated grieving as this is a prolonged period of time with expression of grief that is exaggerated. A driver whose spouse and children all died as a result of his driving drunk likely experiences feelings of guilt as well as loss. An adult who insisted for many years that he or she hated his or her deceased parent is likely experiencing complicated grief as he or she has experienced an ambivalent attachment. The parent of a child who died after having left the child in a car on a hot day is likely experiencing guilt as well as loss.

1. Psychosomatic illness refers to physical symptoms that are either created or worsened by psychic influences. Which conditions are thought to be attributed to the connection between mind and body? Select all that apply. A) Diabetes B) Arthritis C) Hypertension D) Headache E) Colitis

Ans: A, C, D, E Feedback: The term psychosomatic is used to convey the connection between the mind (psyche) and the body (soma) in states of health and illness. Essentially, the mind can cause the body to create physical symptoms or to worsen physical illnesses. Real symptoms can begin, continue, or be worsened as a result of emotional factors. Examples include diabetes, hypertension, and colitis, all of which are medical illnesses influenced by stress and emotions. In addition, stress can cause physical symptoms unrelated to a diagnosed medical illness such as "tension headaches."

9. Which of the following statements about the use of defense mechanisms in persons with anxiety disorders are accurate? Select all that apply. A) Defense mechanisms are a human's attempt to reduce anxiety. B) Persons are usually aware when they are using defense mechanisms. C) Defense mechanisms can be harmful when overused. D) Defense mechanisms are cognitive distortions. E) The use of defense mechanisms should be avoided. F) Defense mechanisms can control the awareness of anxiety.

Ans: A, C, D, F Feedback: Freud described defense mechanisms as the human's attempt to control awareness of and to reduce anxiety. Defense mechanisms are cognitive distortions that a person uses unconsciously to maintain a sense of being in control of a situation, to lessen discomfort, and to deal with stress. Because defense mechanisms arise from the unconscious, the person is unaware of using them. Some people overuse defense mechanisms, which stops them from learning a variety of appropriate methods to resolve anxiety-producing situations. The dependence on one or two defense mechanisms also can inhibit emotional growth, lead to poor problem-solving skills, and create difficulty with relationships.

16. A patient has just begun daily participation in a community-based partial hospitalization program. The patient can expect the staff to assist with which of the following treatment goals? Select all that apply. A) Stabilizing psychiatric symptoms B) Finding a better job C) Improving activities of daily living D) Learning to structure time E) Improved family support F) Developing social skills

Ans: A, C, D, F Feedback: Partial hospitalization programs are designed to help clients make a gradual transition from being inpatients to living independently and to prevent repeat admissions. In day treatment programs, clients return to home at night; evening programs are just the reverse. Partial hospitalization programs provide assistance with stabilizing psychiatric symptoms, monitoring drug effectiveness, stabilizing living environment, improving activities of daily living, learning to structure time, developing social skills, obtaining meaningful work, paid employment, or a volunteer position, and providing follow-up of any health concerns. Finding a better job and improving family support are not goals of partial hospitalization programs.

2. Which of the following statements about anger, hostility and aggression are accurate? Select all that apply. A) Anger is an emotional response to a real or perceived provocation. B) Hostility stimulates the sympathetic nervous system. C) Physical aggression involves harming other persons or property. D) Anger, hostility, and physical aggression are normal human emotions. E) Hostility is also referred to as verbal aggression. F) Physical aggression often progresses to hostility.

Ans: A, C, E Feedback: Anger is an emotional response to a real or perceived provocation. Anger energizes the body physically for self-defense, when needed, by activating the "fight-or-flight" response mechanism of the sympathetic nervous system. Hostility is different than anger. Physical aggression is behavior in which a person attacks or injures another person or that involves destruction of property. Hostility is also referred to as verbal aggression. Anger is a normal human emotion. Hostility is an emotion that is expressed through negative behavior. Physical aggression is behavior. Hostility may lead to physical aggression.

25. When performing discharge planning for a client who has schizophrenia, the nurse anticipates barriers to adhering to the medication regimen. The nurse assesses which of the following as improving the likelihood that the client will follow the prescribed medication regimen? Select all that apply. A) Short-term memory intact B) History of missing appointments C) Receives monthly disability checks D) Walking is primary mode of transportation E) States location of pharmacy nearest his residence

Ans: A, C, E Feedback: Sometimes clients intend to take their medications as prescribed but have difficulty remembering when and if they did so. They may find it difficult to adhere to a routine schedule for medications. Clients may have practical barriers to medication compliance, such as inadequate funds to obtain expensive medications, lack of transportation or knowledge about how to obtain refills for prescriptions, or inability to plan ahead to get new prescriptions before current supplies run out.

13. The nurse is caring for a hospice client whose death is imminent. In preparing the family for the death of their loved one, then nurse prepares to assist the family in which of the following, regardless of the family's cultural preferences? Select all that apply. A) Dealing with the shock of losing a loved one B) Burial plans after death had occurred C) Efforts to stay connected to the client after death D) Use of support from family and friends E) Anger at the loss of a loved one

Ans: A, C, E Feedback: Universal reactions include the initial response of shock and social disorientation, attempts to continue a relationship with the deceased, anger with those perceived as responsible for the death, and a time for mourning. Not all cultures bury their deceased. Some cultures mourn privately, not turning to the support of others.

30. Which of the following are critical components in assessment of a person's grief? Select all that apply. A) Adequate perception regarding the loss B) Adequate time to experience the loss C) Adequate support while grieving for the loss D) Adequate opportunities to say goodbye to the person E) Adequate coping behaviors during the process

Ans: A, C, E Feedback: While observing for client responses in the dimensions of grieving, the nurse explores three critical components in assessment: • Adequate perception regarding the loss • Adequate support while grieving for the loss • Adequate coping behaviors during the process The time to experience the loss varies significantly from person to person, and the reality is that there may not be adequate opportunities to say goodbye to the person.

25. When a client is experiencing a panic attack while in the recreation room, what interventions are the nurse's first priorities? Select all that apply. A) Provide a safe environment. B) Request a prescription for an antianxiety agent. C) Offer the client therapy to calm down D) Ensure the client's privacy. E) Engage the client in recreational activities.

Ans: A, D Feedback: During a panic attack, the nurse's first concern is to provide a safe environment and to ensure the client's privacy. If the environment is overstimulating, the client should move to a less stimulating place. Decreasing external stimuli will help lower the client's anxiety level. The client's safety is priority. Anxious behavior can be escalated by external stimuli. In a large area, the client can feel lost and panicked, but a smaller room can enhance a sense of security. An antianxiety agent may be helpful, but it is not the priority. It would likely be stimulating to engage the client in recreational activities.

30. The nurse is educating a client and family about managing panic attacks after discharge from treatment. The nurse includes which of the following in the discharge teaching? Select all that apply. A) Continued development of positive coping skills B) Weaning off of medications as necessary C) Lessening the amount of daily responsibilities D) Continued practice of relaxation techniques E) Development of a regular exercise program

Ans: A, D, E Feedback: Client/family education for panic disorder includes reviewing breathing control and relaxation techniques, discussing positive coping strategies, encouraging regular exercise, emphasizing the importance of maintaining prescribed medication regimen and regular follow-up, describing time management techniques such as creating "to do" lists with realistic estimated deadlines for each activity, crossing off completed items for a sense of accomplishment, saying "no," and stressing the importance of maintaining contact with community and participating in supportive organizations. Medication should be adhered to as prescribed. Daily responsibilities cannot be avoided, rather should be successfully accomplished.

32. Which of the following are important issues for nurses to be aware of when working with angry, hostile, or aggressive clients? Select all that apply. A) Nurses must be aware of their own feelings about anger and their use of assertive communication and conflict resolution. B) Nurses must not allow themselves to become angry under any circumstances. C) Nurses must know that a client's anger or aggressive behavior is preventable by a skilled nurse. D) Nurses must discuss situations or the care of potentially aggressive clients with experienced nurses. E) Nurses must be calm, nonjudgmental, and nonpunitive when using techniques to control a client's aggressive behavior.

Ans: A, D, E Feedback: Nurses must identify how they handle angry feelings and assess their use of assertive communication and conflict resolution. Increasing their skills in dealing with their angry feelings will help the nurses to work more effectively with the client. Nurses must not take the client's anger or aggressive behavior personally or as a measure of their effectiveness as a nurse. Nurses must discuss situations or the care of potentially aggressive clients with experienced nurses. Nurses must be calm, nonjudgmental, and nonpunitive when using techniques to control a client's aggressive behavior.

2. Which of the following statements about mental illness are true? Select all that apply. A) Mental illness can cause significant distress, impaired functioning, or both. B) Mental illness is only due to social/cultural factors. C) Social/cultural factors that relate to mental illness include excessive dependency on or withdrawal from relationships. D) Individuals suffering from mental illness are usually able to cope effectively with daily life. E) Individuals suffering from mental illness may experience dissatisfaction with relationships and self.

Ans: A,C, E Feedback: Mental illness can cause significant distress, impaired functioning, or both. Mental illness may be related to individual, interpersonal, or social/cultural factors. Excessive dependency on or withdrawal from relationships are interpersonal factors that relate to mental illness. Individuals suffering from mental illness can feel overwhelmed with daily life. Individuals suffering from mental illness may experience dissatisfaction with relationships and self.

25. The nurse has completed the psychosocial assessment. Which of the following is the best approach toward analysis of the data to identify nursing diagnoses and develop an appropriate plan of care? A) Focus on each piece of information obtained from the patient. B) Look for patterns reflected in the overall assessment. C) Consider only the abnormal findings in the assessment. D) Present all data obtained in the treatment team meeting.

Ans: B Feedback: After completing the psychosocial assessment, the nurse analyzes all the data that he or she has collected. Data analysis involves thinking about the overall assessment rather than focusing on isolated bits of information. The nurse looks for patterns or themes in the data that lead to conclusions about the client's strengths and needs and to a particular nursing diagnosis. No one statement or behavior is adequate to reach such a conclusion.

3. The nursing student answers the test item correctly when identifying which one of the following statements is true? A) Anxiety and fear are the same. B) Anxiety is unavoidable. C) Anxiety is always harmful. D) Fear is feeling threatened by an unknown entity.

Ans: B Feedback: Anxiety is distinguished from fear, which is feeling afraid or threatened by a clearly identifiable external stimulus that represents danger to the person. Anxiety is unavoidable in life and can serve many positive functions such as motivating the person to take action to solve a problem or to resolve a crisis.

4. When working with the family of a client with anorexia nervosa, which of the following issues must be addressed? A) Codependence B) Control issues C) Self-discipline D) Sexual identity

Ans: B Feedback: Clients with anorexia often believe the only control they have is over their eating and weight; all other aspects of their life are controlled by their family. Codependence, self-discipline, and sexual identity are not pertinent issues to address with the family.

28. A nurse is working with a patient with an eating disorder who refuses to eat a muffin. The nurse asks the patient "Is there any way that you could see the muffin as just flour and water, basic nutrients your body needs?" In this statement, the nurse is using which type of therapy? A) Rational emotive therapy B) Cognitive therapy C) Gestalt therapy D) Reality therapy

Ans: B Feedback: Cognitive therapy focuses on immediate thought processing, or how a person perceives or interprets his or her experience and determines how he or she behaves. Rational emotive therapy considers not only thoughts but feelings associated with thoughts. Gestalt therapy focuses on the person's thoughts and feelings in the here and now. Reality therapy challenges people to examine how behavior interferes with life goals.

12. Which may help a person to overcome an eating disorder that causes weight gain? A) Being ashamed of his or her body image B) Believing that gaining weight is a side effect of unhealthy lifestyle behaviors and losing weight is a side effect of healthy lifestyle behaviors C) Being reminded that every morsel of food he or she consumes will make him or her fat D) Knowing that his or her current weight is abnormal

Ans: B Feedback: Cognitive-behavioral therapy has been found to be the most effective treatment for bulimia. Strategies designed to change the client's thinking (cognition) and actions (behavior) about food focus on interrupting the cycle of dieting, binging, and purging and altering dysfunctional thoughts and beliefs about food, weight, body image, and overall self-concept. All of the other statements are factors that may reinforce the continuing cycle of an eating disorder.

8. Which one of the following is a result of federal legislation? A) Making it easier to commit people for mental health treatment against their will. B) Making it more difficult to commit people for mental health treatment against their will. C) State mental institutions being the primary source of care for mentally ill persons. D) Improved care for mentally ill persons.

Ans: B Feedback: Commitment laws changed in the early 1970s, making it more difficult to commit people for mental health treatment against their will. Deinstitutionalization accomplished the release of individuals from long-term stays in state institutions. Deinstitutionalization also had negative effects in that some mentally ill persons are subjected to the revolving door effect, which may limit care for mentally ill persons.

12. An actor has prepared extensively for his first stage production. On the morning of the opening of the play, the actor awakens with laryngitis. From which disorder is the actor most likely suffering? A) Acute upper respiratory infection B) Conversion disorder C) Hysteria D) Somatization disorder

Ans: B Feedback: Conversion disorder, sometimes called conversion reaction, involves unexplained, usually sudden deficits in sensory or motor function (e.g., blindness, paralysis). These deficits suggest a neurologic disorder but are associated with psychological factors. There is usually significant functional impairment. The term hysteria refers to multiple physical complaints with no organic basis; the complaints are usually described dramatically. Somatization disorder is characterized by multiple physical symptoms and includes a combination of pain and gastrointestinal, sexual, and pseudoneurologic symptoms.

9. A client who is depressed begins to cry and states, "I'm just really sick of feeling this way. Nothing ever seems to go right in my life." Which would be the most appropriate response by the nurse? A) "Don't cry. Try to look at the positive side of things." B) "You are feeling really sad right now. It's a hard time." C) "Hang in there. Your medication will start helping in a few days." D) "Nothing ever goes right?"

Ans: B Feedback: Do not cut off interactions with cheerful remarks or platitudes. Do not belittle the client's feelings. Accept the client's verbalizations of feelings as real, and give support for expressions of emotions, especially those that may be difficult for the client (like anger). Allow (and encourage) the client to cry. It is important that the nurse does not attempt to "fix" the client's difficulties

8. A client who suffers from frequent panic attacks describes the attack as feeling disconnected from himself. The nurse notes in the client's chart that the client reports experiencing A) hallucinations. B) depersonalization. C) derealization. D) denial.

Ans: B Feedback: During a panic attack, the client may describe feelings of being disconnected from himself or herself (depersonalization) or sensing that things are not real (derealization). Denial is not admitting reality. Hallucinations involve sensing something that is not there.

26. Which of the following is a standard of professional performance? A) Assessment B) Education C) Planning D) Implementation

Ans: B Feedback: Education is a standard of professional performance. Other standards of professional performance include the quality of practice, professional practice evaluation, collegiality, collaboration, ethics, research, resource utilization, and leadership. Assessment, planning, and implementation are components of the nursing process, not standards of professional performance.

29. The nurse has been teaching the client's family about the client's eating disorder, anorexia nervosa. Which statement would indicate that teaching was effective? A) "We will eat our evening meals together with no exceptions." B) "We will negotiate resolutions to family conflicts." C) "We will spend less time discussing troublesome family members." D) "We will give her frequent encouragement for eating well and maintaining her weight."

Ans: B Feedback: Families of clients with eating disorders typically put too much emphasis on food and are less skilled at discussing family conflicts and allowing the client to begin gaining independence. "We will eat our evening meals together with no exception," allows little or no compromise; the client needs to be able to make decisions for him or herself. "We will spend less time discussing troublesome family members," indicates that the client is a problem to the family. "We will give her frequent encouragement for eating well and maintaining her weight" indicates that family members can express concern about the client's health, but it is rarely helpful to focus on food intake, calories, and weight.

19. The family members of a patient with bipolar disorder express frustration with the unpredictable behaviors of their loved one. Which group should the nurse suggest as most helpful to this family? A) Family therapy group B) Family education group C) Psychotherapy group D) Self-help support group

Ans: B Feedback: Family education discusses the clinical treatment of mental illnesses and teaches the knowledge and skills that family members need to cope more effectively. The goals of family therapy groups include understanding how family dynamics contribute to the client's psychopathology, mobilizing the family's inherent strengths and functional resources, restructuring maladaptive family behavioral styles, and strengthening family problem-solving behaviors. The goal of a psychotherapy group is for members to learn about their behavior and to make positive changes in their behavior by interacting and communicating with others. In a self-help group, members share a common experience, but the group is not a formal or structured therapy group.

19. An adult client is put in restraints after all other attempts to reduce aggression have failed. Which of the following is required now that restraints have been instituted? A) Review of the appropriateness of restraints every 8 hours B) A face-to-face evaluation by a licensed independent practitioner within 1 hour of restraint. C) A documented nursing assessment every 4 hours D) Constant one-on-one supervision during the first hour and then video monitoring

Ans: B Feedback: For adult clients, use of restraint and seclusion requires a face-to-face evaluation by a licensed independent practitioner within 1 hour of restraint or seclusion and every 8 hours thereafter, a physician's order every 4 hours, documented assessment by the nurse every 1 to 2 hours, and close supervision of the client. Staff must monitor a client in restraints continuously on a 1:1 basis for the duration of the restraint period. A client in seclusion is monitored 1:1 for the first hour and then may be monitored by audio and video equipment.

29. During the working phase of a therapeutic relationship, which of the following actions by the nurse would best help the client to explore problems? A) Comparing past and present coping strategies B) Encouraging the client to clarify feelings and behavior C) Identifying possible solutions for the client's problems D) Referring the client to a self-help group

Ans: B Feedback: Helping the client to clarify feelings and behavior is a first step in problem identification and exploration. The nurse must remember that it is the client who examines and explores problem situations and relationships. The nurse must be nonjudgmental and refrain from giving advice. The other choices would not help the client to explore problems.

4. The student nurse correctly identifies that which one of the following statements applies to the parasympathetic nervous system? A) It is activated during the alarm reaction stage. B) It is activated during the resistance stage. C) It is activated during the exhaustion stage. D) It is commonly referred to as the fight, flight, or freeze response.

Ans: B Feedback: In the alarm reaction stage, stress stimulates the body to send messages to the hypothalamus to the glands, which stimulates the sympathetic nervous system. Sympathetic nerve fibers "charge up" the vital signs at any hint of danger to prepare the body's defenses—fight, flight, or freeze. The adrenal glands release adrenaline (epinephrine), which causes the body to take in more oxygen, dilate the pupils, and increase arterial pressure and heart rate while constricting the peripheral vessels and shunting blood from the gastrointestinal and reproductive systems and increasing glycogenolysis to release free glucose for the heart, muscles, and central nervous system. When the danger has passed, parasympathetic nerve fibers reverse this process and return the body to normal operating conditions until the next sign of threat reactivates the sympathetic nervous system. During the resistance stage of the generalized anxiety syndrome, if the threat has ended, the parasympathetic nervous system is stimulated and the body responses relax. If the threat persists, the body will eventually enter the exhaustion stage when the body stores are depleted as a result of the continual arousal of the physiologic responses and little reserve capacity.

1. The nurse is assessing the factors contributing to the well-being of a newly admitted client. Which of the following would the nurse identify as having a positive impact on the individual's mental health? A) Not needing others for companionship B) The ability to effectively manage stress C) A family history of mental illness D) Striving for total self-reliance

Ans: B Feedback: Individual factors influencing mental health include biologic makeup, autonomy, independence, self-esteem, capacity for growth, vitality, ability to find meaning in life, emotional resilience or hardiness, sense of belonging, reality orientation, and coping or stress management abilities. Interpersonal factors such as intimacy and a balance of separateness and connectedness are both needed for good mental health, and therefore a healthy person would need others for companionship. A family history of mental illness could relate to the biologic makeup of an individual, which may have a negative impact on an individual's mental health, as well as a negative impact on an individual's interpersonal and social-cultural factors of health. Total self-reliance is not possible, and a positive social/cultural factor is access to adequate resources.

27. During a regular home health visit to an elderly client, the nurse observes that the client has feelings of hopelessness and despair. The client says, "I'm old, and my life has no purpose anymore. But promise me you won't tell anyone." How should the nurse respond? A) "Don't worry, I won't tell anyone else." B) "I'm sorry, but I can't keep that kind of secret." C) "Let's talk about something to cheer you up." D) "What can we do to help you feel better?"

Ans: B Feedback: Keeping secrets with a client is not permissible, especially when the client's safety is concerned. The other choices would be inappropriate responses in this situation.

26. A patient is sitting alone, slouched, with eyes closed. The nurse approaches. Which statement is most likely to encourage the patient to talk? A) "If you are sleepy, would you like me to help you back to your room?" B) "You look like you are deep in thought." C) "Is something wrong?" D) "Why are you sitting with your eyes closed?"

Ans: B Feedback: Making observations—verbalizing what the nurse perceives. Sometimes clients cannot verbalize or make themselves understood. Or the client may not be ready to talk.

1. Which of the following factors is primarily responsible for the changes in inpatient hospital treatment between the 1980s and the present? A) Progress in treatment options for mentally ill persons B) The growth of managed care C) Less stigma associated with mental illness D) The current use of milieu therapy

Ans: B Feedback: Managed care exerts cost-control measures such as recertification of admissions, utilization review, and case management—all of which have altered inpatient treatment significantly. There has been some progress in treatment options for mentally ill persons, but that is not the primary factor that has changed mental health inpatient hospital care. There is lesser stigma associated with mental illness, but that is not the primary factor that has changed mental health inpatient hospital care. In the 1980s, a typical psychiatric unit emphasized milieu therapy, which required long lengths of stay because clients with more stable conditions helped to provide structure and support for newly admitted clients with more acute conditions.

21. The client identifies anger management as a problem. What is the next step in planning therapeutic interactions? A) Give the client a variety of choices on how to express anger. B) Give the client permission to be angry. C) Point out the senselessness of anger. D) Tell the client not to be angry all the time.

Ans: B Feedback: Many people view anger as a negative and abnormal feeling in addition to feeling guilty about being angry; the nurse can help the client see anger as a normal, acceptable emotion. Giving choices on how to express anger would not be the next step in the planning stage. Pointing out the senselessness of anger and telling the client not to be angry all the time are not appropriate responses in this situation.

7. A student is preparing to give a class presentation. A few minutes before the presentation is to begin, the student seems nervous and distracted. The student is looking at and listening to the peer speaker and occasionally looking at note cards. When the peer speaker asks a question of the group, the student is able to answer correctly. The professor understands that the student is likely experiencing which level of stress? A) Mild B) Moderate C) Severe D) Panic

Ans: B Feedback: Moderate anxiety is the disturbing feeling that something is definitely wrong; the person becomes nervous or agitated. In moderate anxiety, the person can still process information, solve problems, and learn new things with assistance from others. He or she has difficulty concentrating independently but can be redirected to the topic. Mild anxiety is a sensation that something is different and warrants special attention. Sensory stimulation increases and helps the person focus attention to learn, solve problems, think, act, feel, and protect himself or herself. As the person progresses to severe anxiety and panic, more primitive survival skills take over, defensive responses ensue, and cognitive skills decrease significantly. A person with severe anxiety has trouble thinking and reasoning.

14. Which of the following statements about verbal and nonverbal communication skills is accurate? A) One third of meaning is transmitted nonverbally and two thirds is communicated verbally. B) Nonverbal communication is as important, if not more than, verbal communication. C) Verbal communication is most important because it is what the patient says. D) Verbal communication involves the unconscious mind.

Ans: B Feedback: Nonverbal communication is as important as, if not more so than, verbal communication. It is estimated that one third of meaning is transmitted by words and two thirds is communicated nonverbally. Verbal communication is often what the patient says but is not the most important. Nonverbal communication involves the unconscious mind acting out emotions related to the verbal content, the situation, the environment, and the relationship between the speaker and the listener.

30. A psychiatric nurse is planning an educational program addressing primary prevention strategies in the community. The nurse explores current research regarding which health-care need? A) Influencing schizophrenic patients to adhere to medication regimens B) Assisting high school students to effectively manage stress C) Coaching patients with depression to obtain employment D) Teaching parents the early signs of attention deficit disorder in children

Ans: B Feedback: Nurses work to provide mental health prevention services to reduce risks to the mental health of persons, families, and communities. Examples include primary prevention, such as stress management education; secondary prevention, such as early identification of potential mental health problems; and tertiary prevention, such as monitoring and coordinating rehabilitation services for the mentally ill.

16. Which nursing intervention would be most likely to help the client with anorexia to establish healthy eating patterns? A) Leave the client alone to relax during meals. B) Offer liquid protein supplements if the client is unable to complete meal. C) Observe the client for 30 minutes after all meals. D) Weigh the client weekly in the same clothing at the same time of day.

Ans: B Feedback: Nursing interventions designed to establish nutritional eating patterns include sitting with the client during meals and snacks, giving a liquid protein supplement to replace any food not eaten to ensure consumption of the total number of prescribed calories, adhering to treatment program guidelines regarding restrictions, observing the client following meals and snacks for 1 to 2 hours, weighing client daily in uniform clothing, and being alert for attempts to hide or discard food or inflate weight.

22. Which of the following is a term used to describe the occurrence of the eye rolling back in a locked position, which occurs with acute dystonia? A) Opisthotonus B) Oculogyric crisis C) Torticollis D) Pseudoparkinsonism

Ans: B Feedback: Oculogyric crisis is the occurrence of the eye rolling back in a locked position, which occurs with acute dystonia. Opisthotonus is tightness in the entire body with the head back and an arched neck. Torticollis is twisted head and neck. Oculogyric crisis, opisthotonus, and torticollis are manifestations of acute dystonia. Pseudoparkinsonism is drug-induced parkinsonism and is often referred to by the generic label of extrapyramidal side effects.

18. A nurse notices a patient sitting quietly alone, eyes downcast, and looking sad. The nurse says to the patient, "You look like something is bothering you." Which pattern of knowing did the nurse use to respond to the patient? A) Empirical knowing B) Personal knowing C) Ethical knowing D) Aesthetic knowing

Ans: B Feedback: Personal knowing is obtained from life experience. An example would be a client's face shows the panic. Empirical knowing is obtained from the science of nursing. An example would be a client with panic disorder begins to have an attack. Panic attack will raise pulse rate. Ethical knowing is obtained from the moral knowledge of nursing. An example is although the nurse's shift has ended, she remains with the client. Aesthetic knowing is obtained from the art of nursing. Although the client shows outward signals now, the nurse has sensed previously the client's jumpiness and subtle differences in the client's demeanor and behavior.

9. How should the nurse respond to a family member who asks how Alzheimer's disease is diagnosed? A) It is impossible to know for certain that a person has Alzheimer's disease until the person dies and his or her brain can be examined via autopsy. B) Positron emission tomography (PET) scans can identify the amyloid plaques and tangles of Alzheimer's disease in living clients. C) Alzheimer's disease can be diagnosed by using chemical markers that demonstrate decreased cerebral blood flow. D) It will be necessary for the patient to undergo positron emission tomography (PET) scans regularly for a long period of time to know if the patient has Alzheimer's disease.

Ans: B Feedback: Positron emission tomography (PET) scans can identify the amyloid plaques and tangles of Alzheimer's disease in living clients. These conditions previously could be diagnosed only through autopsy. Some persons with schizophrenia also demonstrate decreased cerebral blood flow. A limitation of PET scans is that the use of radioactive substances limits the number of times a person can undergo these tests.

27. Which of the following is a standard of practice? A) Quality of care B) Outcome identification C) Collegiality D) Performance appraisal

Ans: B Feedback: Standards of practice include assessment, diagnosis, outcomes identification, planning, implementation, coordination of care, health teaching and health promotion, and milieu therapy. The standards of professional performance include quality of practice, education, professional practice evaluation, collegiality, collaboration, ethics, research, resource utilization, and leadership.

9. The goal of the 1963 Community Mental Health Centers Act was to A) ensure patients' rights for the mentally ill. B) deinstitutionalize state hospitals. C) provide funds to build hospitals with psychiatric units. D) treat people with mental illness in a humane fashion.

Ans: B Feedback: The 1963 Community Mental Health Centers Act intimated the movement toward treating those with mental illness in a less restrictive environment. This legislation resulted in the shift of clients with mental illness from large state institutions to care based in the community. Answer choices A, C, and D were not purposes of the 1963 Community Mental Health Centers Act.

16. Which of the following factors would be the most influential in determining a client's response to a particular stressor? A) The client's experience with stress B) The client's perception of the stressor C) Duration of the stressor D) Severity of the stressor

Ans: B Feedback: The client will respond to the stressor based on his or her appraisal (perception) of the stressor. Resilience is related to positive outlook. The client's experience with stress, the duration of the stressor, and the severity of the stressor would not be the most influential in determining a client's response to a stressor.

11. Which one of the following types of antipsychotic medications is most likely to produce extrapyramidal effects? A) Atypical antipsychotic drugs B) First-generation antipsychotic drugs C) Third-generation antipsychotic drugs D) Dopamine system stabilizers

Ans: B Feedback: The conventional, or first-generation, antipsychotic drugs are potent antagonists of D2, D3, and D4. This makes them effective in treating target symptoms but also produces many extrapyramidal side effects because of the blocking of the D2 receptors. Newer, atypical or second-generation antipsychotic drugs are relatively weak blockers of D2, which may account for the lower incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. The third generation of antipsychotics, called dopamine system stabilizers, is being developed. These drugs are thought to stabilize dopamine output that results in control of symptoms without some of the side effects of other antipsychotic medications.

11. The nurse says to the client, "You become very anxious when we start talking about your drinking." Which of the following techniques is the nurse using? A) Confronting behavior B) Making an observation C) Translating into feelings D) Verbalizing the implied

Ans: B Feedback: The nurse is stating what he or she sees; the client can validate it or reject it. The nurse is not confronting the behavior in this situation. The nurse is not translating the message into feelings (seeking to verbalize client's feelings that he or she expresses only indirectly), nor is the nurse verbalizing the implied (voicing what the client has hinted at or suggested).

17. Which cognitive mode, according to Harry Stack Sullivan, begins in early childhood as the child begins to connect experiences in sequence? A) Prototaxic mode B) Parataxic mode C) Bitaxic mode D) Syntaxic mode

Ans: B Feedback: The parataxic mode begins in early childhood as the child begins to connect experiences in sequence. The child may not make logical sense of the experiences, although he or she may not understand what he or she is doing. The prototaxic mode involves brief, unconnected experiences that have no relationship to one another. In the syntaxic mode, the person begins to perceive himself or herself and the world within the context of the environment and can analyze experiences in a variety of settings. There is not a bitaxic mode.

1. The nurse uses a variety of therapeutic communication skills when working with patients. Which of the following is a therapeutic goal that can be accomplished through the use of therapeutic communication skills? A) Inform the patient of priority problems B) Assess the patient's perception of a problem C) Assist the patient to control emotions D) Provide the patient with a plan of action

Ans: B Feedback: Therapeutic communication can help nurses to accomplish many goals including identifying the most important concern to the client at that moment, assessing the client's perception of the problem, facilitating the client's expression of emotions, and guiding the client toward identifying a plan of action.

30. During the admission interview, the nurse asks the client what led to his hospitalization. The client responds, "They lied about me. They said I murdered my mother. You're the killers. You all killed my mother. She died before I was born." The best initial response by the nurse would be, A) "I just saw your mother. She's fine." B) "You're having very frightening thoughts." C) "We'll put you in a private room until you're in better control." D) "If your mother died before you were born, you wouldn't be here."

Ans: B Feedback: When the nurse states, "You're having very frightening thoughts," the nurse is verbalizing the implied or voicing what the client has hinted or suggested. The other responses would not be the best initial response in this situation.

10. It is recorded in the client's chart that the family is resilient. The nurse concludes which of the following characteristics about the family life of this client? Select all that apply. A) Family members are independent of one another. B) Family members spend time together. C) Family members engage in recreational activities together. D) Family members share the same personal goals. E) Family members allow individual members to develop unique daily routines.

Ans: B, C Feedback: Factors that are present in resilient families include positive outlook, spirituality, family member accord, flexibility, family communication, and support networks. Resilient families also spend time together, share recreational activities, and participate in family rituals and routines together. Personal goal setting reflects self-efficacy.

9. Which of the following are examples of adventitious crises? Select all that apply. A) Death of a loved one B) Natural disasters C) Violent crimes D) War E) Leaving home for the first time

Ans: B, C, D Feedback: Adventitious crises include natural disasters like floods, earthquakes, or hurricanes; war, terrorist attacks; riots; and violent crimes such as rape or murder. Maturational or developmental crises are predictable events in the normal course of life, such as leaving home for the first time, getting married, having a baby, and beginning a career. Situational crises are unanticipated or sudden events that threaten the individual's integrity, such as the death of a loved one, loss of a job, and physical or emotional illness in the individual or family member.

24. A client is being discharged on lithium. The nurse encourages the client to follow which health maintenance recommendations? Select all that apply. A) Weigh self weekly at the same time of day. B) Drink a 2-L bottle of decaffeinated fluid daily. C) Do not alter dietary salt intake. D) See the doctor if you get the flu. E) Restrict involvement in intense exercise.

Ans: B, C, D Feedback: Clients should drink adequate water (approximately 2 L/day) and continue with the usual amount of dietary table salt. Having too much salt in the diet because of unusually salty foods or the ingestion of salt-containing antacids can reduce receptor availability for lithium and increase lithium excretion, so the lithium level will be too low. If there is too much water, lithium is diluted, and the lithium level will be too low to be therapeutic. Drinking too little water or losing fluid through excessive sweating, vomiting, or diarrhea increases the lithium level, which may result in toxicity. Monitoring daily weights and the balance between intake and output and checking for dependent edema can be helpful in monitoring fluid balance. The physician should be contacted if the client has diarrhea, fever, flu, or any condition that leads to dehydration.

4. Which of the following might the nurse recognize as longer-term responses to trauma and stress? Select all that apply. A) Acute stress disorder B) Posttraumatic stress disorder C) Adjustment disorder D) Reactive attachment disorder E) Dissociative disorder

Ans: B, C, D, E Feedback: Acute stress disorder usually occurs from 2 days to 4 weeks after a trauma. Posttraumatic stress disorder usually begins 3 months after the trauma. All of the rest of these are longer-term responses to trauma and stress.

17. Which of the following losses are likely to result in disenfranchised grief? Select all that apply. A) A young adult whose spouse has just died suddenly B) A family whose long-time pet snake has just died C) A nurse who has just witnessed the death of a patient D) A couple who has just experienced pregnancy loss E) The gay lover of a man who just died from AIDS F) The mother and sister of a soldier who was killed in war

Ans: B, C, D, E Feedback: Circumstances that can result in disenfranchised grief include a relationship that has no legitimacy, the loss itself is not recognized, the griever is not recognized, or the loss involves social stigma. A young adult whose spouse has just died suddenly is not likely to experience disenfranchised grief because of their legal relationship. A family whose long-time pet snake had died is likely to experience disenfranchised grief because the death of a pet is not seen as socially significant. A nurse who had just witnessed the death of a patient is at risk for disenfranchised grief because the needs of nurses and hospital chaplains are not recognized. A couple who had just experienced a pregnancy loss are at increased risk for disenfranchised grief because the loss of an unborn child is not recognized. The gay lover of a man who just died from AIDS is at risk for disenfranchised grief as the relationship had no legitimacy and the loss involves social stigma. The mother and sister of a soldier who was killed in war would not likely experience disenfranchised grief because they have a kin relationship with the decedent.

27. Which challenges are posed when working with clients with personality disorders? Select all that apply. A) Clients with personality disorders are obviously unable to function more effectively. B) It can take a long time to change their behaviors, attitudes, or coping skills. C) The nurse can easily but mistakenly believe the client simply lacks motivation or the willingness to make changes. D) Clients with personality disorders challenge the ability of therapeutic staff to work as a team. E) Team members may have differing opinions about individual clients.

Ans: B, C, D, E Feedback: It can take clients with a personality disorder a long time to change their behaviors, attitudes, or coping skills; and nurses working with them easily can become frustrated or angry. The nurse can easily but mistakenly believe the client simply lacks motivation or the willingness to make changes because clients with personality disorders look as though they are capable of functioning more effectively. Clients with personality disorders challenge the ability of therapeutic staff to work as a team. Team members may have differing opinions about individual clients.

31. Which of the following statements correctly depict the problem of feeling sympathy toward the client? Select all that apply. A) This can cause the nurse to feel sad and be unable to help the client. B) When the nurse's behavior is rooted in sympathy, the client finds it easier to manipulate the nurse's feelings. C) The client is discouraged from exploring his or her problems, thoughts, and feelings. D) The client is discouraged from growth. E) The client feels dependent on the nurse.

Ans: B, C, D, E Feedback: The nurse who feels sorry for the client often tries to compensate by trying to please him or her. When the nurse's behavior is rooted in sympathy, the client finds it easier to manipulate the nurse's feelings. This discourages the client from exploring his or her problems, thoughts, and feelings; discourages client growth; and often leads to client dependency.

39. The nurse is educating a patient and family about strategies to minimize the side effects of antipsychotic drugs. Which of the following should be included in the plan? Select all that apply. A) Drink plenty of fruit juice. B) Developing an exercise program is important. C) Increase foods high in fiber. D) Laxatives can be used as needed. E) Use sunscreen when outdoors. F) For missed doses, take double the dose at the next scheduled time.

Ans: B, C, E Feedback: Drinking sugar-free fluids and eating sugar-free hard candy ease dry mouth. The client should avoid calorie-laden beverages and candy because they promote dental caries, contribute to weight gain, and do little to relieve dry mouth. Methods to prevent or relieve constipation include exercising and increasing water and bulk-forming foods in the diet. Stool softeners are permissible, but the client should avoid laxatives. The use of sunscreen is recommended because photosensitivity can cause the client to sunburn easily. If the client forgets a dose of antipsychotic medication, he or she can take the missed dose if it is only 3 or 4 hours late. If the dose is more than 4 hours overdue or the next dose is due, the client can omit the forgotten dose.

30. The parents of a young adult male who has schizophrenia ask how they can recognize when their son is beginning to relapse. The nurse teaches the family to look for which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Excessive sleeping B) Fatigue C) Irritability D) Increased inhibition E) Negativity

Ans: B, C, E Feedback: Teaching the client and family members to prevent or manage relapse is an essential part of a comprehensive plan of care. This includes providing facts about schizophrenia, identifying the early signs of relapse, and teaching health practices to promote physical and psychological well-being. Early signs of relapse include impaired cause-and-effect reasoning, impaired information processing, poor nutrition, lack of sleep, lack of exercise, fatigue, poor social skills, social isolation, loneliness, interpersonal difficulties, lack of control, irritability, mood swings, ineffective medication management, low self-concept, looking and acting different, hopeless feelings, loss of motivation, anxiety and worry, disinhibition, increased negativity, neglecting appearance, and forgetfulness.

22. The nurse is mindful of maintaining relationships with patients that are therapeutic. Certain characteristics of the relationships the nurse will foster include: Select all that apply. A) offering sound advice to the patient. B) establishing boundaries for both the nurse and patient. C) maintaining a patient-focus at all times. D) sharing personal feelings openly with the patient. E) avoiding concern with whether the patient likes the nurse.

Ans: B, C, E Feedback: The therapeutic relationship focuses on the needs, experiences, feelings, and ideas of the client only. In the therapeutic relationship, the parameters are clear: the focus is the client's needs, not the nurse's. The nurse should not be concerned about whether or not the client likes him or her or is grateful. A social relationship is focuses on sharing ideas, feelings, and experiences and meets the basic need for people to interact. In social relationships, advice is often given. This should be avoided in therapeutic relationships.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with bulimia nervosa. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to find? Select all that apply. A) Cold intolerance B) Normal weight for height C) Dental erosion D) Hypotension E) Metabolic alkalosis

Ans: B, C, E Feedback: The weight of clients with bulimia usually is in the normal range, although some clients are overweight or underweight. Recurrent vomiting destroys tooth enamel, and incidence of dental caries and ragged or chipped teeth increases in these clients. Metabolic alkalosis often results from vomiting. Cold intolerance and hypotension are symptoms associated with emaciation seen in anorexia nervosa.

8. Which of the following theories could be classified as humanistic theories? Select all that apply. A) Cognitive therapy B) Maslow's hierarchy of needs C) Gestalt therapy D) Rogers' client-centered therapy E) Rational emotive therapy F) Piaget's cognitive stages of development

Ans: B, D Feedback: Humanism represents a significant shift away from the psychoanalytic view of the individual as a neurotic, impulse-driven person with repressed psychic problems and away from the focus on and examination of the client's past experiences. Humanistic theories include Maslow's hierarchy of needs and Rogers' client-centered therapy. Cognitive therapy is an existential therapy that focuses on immediate thought processing—how a person perceives or interprets his or her experience and determines how he or she feels and behaves. Gestalt therapy is an existential therapy that emphasizes the person's feelings and thoughts in the here and now. Rational emotive therapy is an existential theory that looks at irrational beliefs and automatic thoughts that make people unhappy. Piaget's cognitive stages of development is a developmental theory.

12. Which of the following outcomes would take priority for a client who has survived trauma or abuse? Select all that apply. A) The client will demonstrate healthy, effective ways of dealing with the stress. B) The client will be physically safe. C) The client will establish a social support system in the community. D) The client will distinguish between ideas of self-harm and taking action on those ideas. E) The client will express emotions nondestructively.

Ans: B, D Feedback: It is the highest priority that the client be physically safe. Because persons who have survived trauma or abuse may have thoughts of self-harm, it is also critical that the client will distinguish between ideas of self-harm and taking action on those ideas. The other objectives are not as high a priority as safety and ideas of self-harm.

4. Which variables represent the highest risk for developing major depressive disorder? Select all that apply. A) Male gender B) Mood disorder in first-degree relatives C) Substance abuse D) Divorced E) Older adult

Ans: B, D Feedback: Major depression is twice as common in women and has a 1.5 to 3 times greater incidence in first-degree relatives than in the general population. Incidence of depression decreases with age in women and increases with age in men. Single and divorced people have the highest incidence. Depression in prepubertal boys and girls occurs at an equal rate.

3. Which statements about the etiology of bipolar disorder do most psychoanalytical theories subscribe to? Select all that apply. A) Norepinephrine levels may be increased in mania. B) Manic episodes are a "defense" against underlying depression. C) Acetylcholine seems to be implicated in mania. D) The id takes over the ego and acts as an undisciplined hedonistic being (child).

Ans: B, D Feedback: Most psychoanalytic theories of mania view manic episodes as a "defense" against underlying depression, with the id taking over the ego and acting as an undisciplined hedonistic being (child). Norepinephrine levels may be increased in mania, and acetylcholine seems to be implicated in mania, but these are neurochemical theories.

17. A patient has just been referred to a psychosocial rehabilitation program. The nurse explains that the benefits of being involved in such a program include: Select all that apply. A) continuous monitoring of symptoms. B) increased independence. C) increased involvement in treatment decisions. D) recovery from mental illness. E) increased community integration. F) greater opportunities for personal growth.

Ans: B, D, E Feedback: Goals of psychosocial rehabilitation programs include recovery from mental illness, personal growth, quality of life, community reintegration, empowerment, increased independence, decreased hospital admissions, improved social functioning, improved vocational functioning, continuous treatment, increased involvement in treatment decisions, improved physical health, and a recovered sense of self. Monitoring of symptoms and medication education are major foci of partial hospitalization programs

26. Which are appropriate long-term treatment outcomes for clients who have somatic symptom illness? Select all that apply. A) The client will assume responsibility for self-care activities. B) The client will identify the relationship between stress and physical symptoms. C) The client will learn to vary his or her schedule. D) The client will verbally express emotional feelings. E) The client will demonstrate alternative ways to deal with stress, anxiety, and other feelings.

Ans: B, D, E Feedback: Somatic symptom illnesses are chronic or recurrent, so changes are likely to occur slowly. If treatment is effective, the client should make fewer visits to the physician as a result of physical complaints, use less medication and more positive coping techniques, and increased functional abilities. Improved family and social relationships are also a positive outcome that may follow improvements in the client's coping abilities. Treatment outcomes for clients with a somatic symptom illness may include the following: • The client will identify the relationship between stress and physical symptoms. • The client will verbally express emotional feelings. • The client will follow an established daily routine. • The client will develop alternative ways to deal with stress, anxiety, and other feelings. • The client will demonstrate healthier behaviors regarding rest, activity, and nutritional intake.

2. Which of the following are features of the thinking of a person who has OCD according to the cognitive model? Select all that apply. A) The person with OCD employs a minimalist approach to all aspects of his or her life. B) The person with OCD believes one's thoughts are overly important and has a need to control those thoughts as they overestimate the threat posed by their thoughts. C) The person with OCD is always aware that his or her behavior is related to OCD. D) The person with OCD is concerned with perfectionism and has an intolerance of uncertainty. E) The person with OCD has an inflated personal responsibility

Ans: B, D, E Feedback: The cognitive model describes the person's thinking as (1) believing one's thoughts are overly important; that is, "If I think it, it will happen," and therefore having a need to control those thoughts; (2) perfectionism and the intolerance of uncertainty; and (3) inflated personal responsibility (from a strict moral or religious upbringing) and overestimation of the threat posed by one's thoughts. The person with OCD would not employ a minimalist approach to all aspects of his or her life—he or she is likely to perform some tasks at extreme levels. The persons with OCD may not always be aware that their behavior is related to OCD.

5. Which of the following would the nurse know are the major elements of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? Select all that apply. A) Trying to avoid any places or people or situations that may trigger memories of the trauma B) Reexperiencing the trauma through dreams or recurrent and intrusive thoughts C) Becoming increasingly more isolated D) Emotional numbing such as feeling detached from others E) Being on guard, irritable, or experiencing hyperarousal

Ans: B, D, E Feedback: The three major elements of PTSD are reexperiencing the trauma through dreams or recurrent and intrusive thoughts, showing emotional numbing such as feeling detached from others, and being on guard, irritable, or experiencing hyperarousal. The client may also experience a numbing of general responsiveness and may try to avoid any places or people or situations that may trigger memories of the trauma, but these are not the major elements of PTSD.

38. Which of the following side effects of lithium are frequent causes of noncompliance? Select all that apply. A) Metallic taste in the mouth B) Weight gain C) Acne D) Thirst E) Lethargy

Ans: B, E Feedback: Lethargy and weight gain are difficult to manage or minimize and frequently lead to noncompliance.

4. The nurse is assessing for negative symptoms of schizophrenia in a newly admitted client. The nurse would note which behavior as indicative of a negative symptom? A) Difficulty staying on subject when responding to assessment questions B) Belief of owning a transportation device allowing for travel to the center of the Earth C) Hesitant to answer the nurse's questions during the assessment interview D) Mimicking the postural changes made by the nurse during the assessment interview

Ans: C Feedback: A negative symptom of schizophrenia is alogia, or the tendency to speak very little or to convey little substance of meaning (poverty of content). Associative looseness (fragmented or poorly related thoughts and ideas), delusions (fixed false beliefs that have no basis in reality), and echopraxia (imitation of the movements and gestures of another person whom the client is observing) are all positive symptoms.

22. Which of the following is defined as an advanced-level function in the practice area of psychiatric mental health nursing? A) Case management B) Counseling C) Evaluation D) Health teaching

Ans: C Feedback: Advanced-level functions are psychotherapy, prescriptive authority, consultation and liaison, evaluation, and program development and management. Case management, counseling, and health teaching are basic-level functions in the practice area of psychiatric mental health nursing.

19. One of the unforeseen effects of the movement toward community mental health services is A) fewer clients suffering from persistent mental illnesses. B) an increased number of hospital beds available for clients seeking treatment. C) an increased number of admissions to available hospital services. D) Longer hospital stays for people needing mental health services.

Ans: C Feedback: Although people with severe and persistent mental illness have shorter hospital stays, they are admitted to hospitals more frequently. Although deinstitutionalization reduced the number of public hospital beds by 80%, the number of admissions to those beds correspondingly increased by 90%. The number of individuals with mental illness did not change.

29. A client underwent a procedure before the nurse verified the client's signature on the consent form. The client actually did not sign the form before the procedure. If the client is dissatisfied with the outcome of the procedure and files a suit against the health-care team, which kind of case can the client file? A) Negligence B) Malpractice C) Battery D) False Imprisonment

Ans: C Feedback: Battery involves harmful or unwarranted contact with a client. False imprisonment is defined as the unjustifiable detention of a client such as the inappropriate use of restraint or seclusion. Negligence is an unintentional tort that involves causing harm by failing to do what a reasonable and prudent person would do in similar circumstances. Clients or families can file malpractice lawsuits in any case of injury, loss, or death.

13. Which of the following treatment modalities is most effective for OCD? A) Behavioral techniques B) Medication C) Behavioral techniques and medication D) Ignoring it

Ans: C Feedback: Behavioral techniques and medication are the most effective treatment modalities for OCD. This would be more effective than either behavioral techniques or medication alone. It is not appropriate to ignore OCD as it will only get worse until the client is unable to engage in activities of daily living.

18. Which is a positive aspect of treating clients with mental illness in a community-based care? A) "You will not be allowed to go out with your friends while in the program." B) "You will have to have supervision when you want to go anywhere else in the community." C) "You will be able to live in your own home while you still see a therapist regularly." D) "You will have someone in your home at all times to ask questions if you have any concerns."

Ans: C Feedback: Clients can remain in their communities, maintain contact with family and friends, and enjoy personal freedom that is not possible in an institution. Full-time home care is not included in community-based programs.

17. When establishing a relationship with a client who has borderline personality disorder, which is most important for the nurse to do? A) Aggressively confront the client about boundary violations. B) Limit interactions to 10 minutes at a time. C) Respect the client's boundaries at all times. D) Tell the client the relationship will last as long as the client wishes.

Ans: C Feedback: Clients with borderline personality disorder have issues with boundaries; by respecting the client's boundaries, the nurse can assist the client to develop better boundary control.

24. A nurse is teaching a client with borderline personality disorder to reshape thinking patters. Which is an example of a cognitive restructuring technique that would be helpful for this client? A) When negative thoughts begin, tell yourself "stop." B) Learn to look at situations realistically rather than assuming the worst. C) Recognize negative thoughts and replace them with positive ones. D) Express needs using "I" statements.

Ans: C Feedback: Cognitive restructuring is a technique useful in changing patterns of thinking by helping clients to recognize negative thoughts and feelings and to replace them with positive patterns of thinking. Thought stopping is a technique to alter the process of negative or self-critical thought patterns. When the thoughts begin, the client may actually say "Stop!" in a loud voice to stop the negative thoughts. Decatastrophizing is a technique that involves learning to assess situations realistically rather than always assuming a catastrophe will happen. Assertive communication involves using "I" statements.

35. Which approach to therapy is most effective when planning for a client with negative thinking? A) Behavior modification B) Client-centered therapy C) Cognitive therapy D) Reality therapy

Ans: C Feedback: Cognitive therapy focuses on changing the client's thinking first, in the belief that then feelings and behavior can change as well. Behavior modification is a method of attempting to strengthen a desired behavior or response by reinforcement, either positive or negative. Client-centered therapy focuses on the role of the client, rather than the therapist, as the key to the healing process. Reality therapy focuses on the person's behavior and how that behavior keeps him or her from achieving life goals.

1. The nurse understands that crises are self-limiting. This implies that upon evaluation of crisis intervention, the nurse should assess for which outcome? A) The patient will identify possible causes for the crisis. B) The patient will discover a new sense of self-sufficiency in coping. C) The patient will resume the precrisis level of functioning. D) The patient will express anger regarding the crisis event.

Ans: C Feedback: Crises usually exist for 4 to 6 weeks. At the end of that time, the crisis is resolved in one of three ways. In the first two, the person either returns to his or her precrisis level of functioning or begins to function at a higher level; both are positive outcomes for the individual. The third resolution is that the person's functioning stabilizes at a level lower than precrisis functioning, which is a negative outcome for the individual. Assisting the person to use existing supports or helping the individual find new sources of support can decrease the feelings of being alone or overwhelmed. The patient may develop guilt if he or she examines possible causes for the crisis. Expression of anger at 4 to 6 weeks indicates a less than favorable outcome of crisis intervention.

33. A nurse and patient have just completed reviewing the patient's take-home medications. The nurse is exemplifying which role during this intervention? A) Advocate B) Caregiver C) Teacher D) Parent Surrogate

Ans: C Feedback: During the working phase of the nurse-client relationship, the nurse may teach the client new methods of coping and solving problems. He or she may instruct about the medication regimen and available community resources. The caregiver role is used when the nurse helps the client meet psychosocial or physical needs. When functioning as an advocate, the nurse is acting on the client's behalf when he or she cannot do so. Nurses may need to assume a parental role when the patient needs nurturing or limit setting.

14. A client begins to take stock of his life and look into the future. The nurse assesses that this client is in which of Erikson's developmental stages? A) Identity versus role confusion B) Industry versus inferiority C) Integrity versus despair D) Generativity versus stagnation

Ans: C Feedback: Erikson's stage of integrity versus despair is when an adult begins to reflect on his or her life. Identity versus role confusion occurs in adolescence when the person is forming a sense of self and belonging. Integrity versus despair occurs in maturity; accepting responsibility for oneself and life is the corresponding task. Generativity versus stagnation occurs in middle adulthood, which includes the tasks of being creative and productive and establishing the next generation.

9. Which of the following is a psychosocial explanation for the development of personality disorders? A) Highly self-directed people reflect uncooperativeness and intolerance. B) Cooperative people become increasingly helpless over time. C) Failure to complete a developmental task jeopardizes future personality development. D) Self-transcendence contributes to self-consciousness and materialism.

Ans: C Feedback: Failure to complete a developmental task jeopardizes the person's ability to achieve future developmental tasks. Self-directed people are realistic and effective and can adapt their behavior to achieve goals. Highly cooperative people are described as empathic, tolerant, compassionate, supportive, and principled. People low in self-directedness are helpless and unreliable. Self-transcendence describes the extent to which a person considers himself or herself to be an integral part of the universe.

24. A nurse is working with a couple seeking counseling for marital discord. The history indicates the husband was treated for substance abuse 4 years ago and attends AA meetings occasionally. Which statement made by the recovering husband should alert the nurse for the need for further education? A) "I still need to go to AA meetings even though I have been sober for years." B) "After all these years, I just don't have the will power to stop if I started using again." C) "She gets upset when I hang out with my old buddies on the weekends." D) "I wish I could be able to handle just one beer with dinner."

Ans: C Feedback: Family members and friends should be aware that clients who begin to revert to old behaviors, return to substance-using acquaintances, or believe they can "handle myself now" are at high risk for relapse, and loved ones need to take action. The nurse must dispel myths and misconceptions such as, "It's a matter of will power," "I can't be an alcoholic if I only drink beer or if I only drink on weekends," "I can learn to use drugs socially," or "I'm okay now; I could handle using once in a while."

13. Before the period of the enlightenment, treatment of the mentally ill included A) creating large institutions to provide custodial care. B) focusing on religious education to improve their souls. C) placing the mentally ill on display for the public's amusement. D) providing a safe refuge or haven offering protection.

Ans: C Feedback: In 1775, visitors at St. Mary's of Bethlehem were charged a fee for viewing and ridiculing the mentally ill, who were seen as animals, less than human. Custodial care was not often provided as persons who were considered harmless were allowed to wander in the countryside or live in rural communities, and more dangerous lunatics were imprisoned, chained, and starved. In early Christian times, primitive beliefs and superstitions were strong. The mentally ill were viewed as evil or possessed. Priests performed exorcisms to rid evil spirits, and in the colonies, witch hunts were conducted with offenders burned at the stake. It was not until the period of enlightenment when persons who were mentally ill were offered asylum as a safe refuge or haven offering protection at institutions.

5. At which point in the stages of aggressive incidents is intervention least likely to be effective in preventing physically aggressive behavior? A) Triggering B) Escalation C) Crisis D) Postcrisis

Ans: C Feedback: Interventions during the triggering and escalation phases are key to prevent physically aggressive behavior. During the crisis phase, behavior escalation may lead to physical aggression. During the postcrisis phase, the physically aggressive behavior has stopped and the client returns to the level of functioning before the aggressive incident.

26. The nurse approaches a client who looks very sad and is sitting alone crying. The best response by the nurse in this situation is, A) "I'm sorry you are sad. Is there anything I can do to help you feel better?" B) "Please don't cry. It will get better." C) "You look very sad. What is happening?" D) "What is bothering you?"

Ans: C Feedback: It is essential to accept the person's feelings without trying to dissuade him or her from feeling angry or upset. The nurse needs to encourage the person to express any and all feelings without trying to calm or placate him or her.

22. Which of the following interventions would be appropriate for a client with anorexia nervosa? A) Allowing the client to eat whenever she feels hungry B) Insisting that the client sit in the dining room until all food is eaten C) Having the client in view of staff for 90 minutes after each meal D) Permitting the client to eat any food she chooses, as long as she is eating

Ans: C Feedback: Many clients with anorexia also have purging behavior; even those who have not purged previously may begin to do so when they are unable to restrict their eating. Answer choices A, B, and D do not promote healthy eating behaviors.

33. A patient with bipolar disorder takes lithium 300 mg three times daily. The nurse evaluates that the dose is appropriate when the patient reports A) feeling sleepy and less energetic. B) weight gain of 7 pounds in the last 6 months. C) minimal mood swings. D) increased feelings of self-worth.

Ans: C Feedback: Mood-stabilizing drugs are used to treat bipolar disorder by stabilizing the client's mood, preventing or minimizing the highs and lows that characterize bipolar illness, and treating acute episodes of mania. Weight gain is a common side effect, and fatigue and lethargy may indicate mild toxicity. Inflated self-worth is a target symptom of bipolar disorder, which should diminish with effective treatment.

24. A nurse suspects that a patient is abusing alcohol while taking prescribed medications. The nurse plans to educate the patient on the dangers of mixing medicine with alcohol. Which of the following would be the most effective way for the nurse to approach this subject with the patient? A) Firmly inform the patient of the dangers of mixing medications with alcohol. B) Recommend a higher level of care, so the patient can be more closely supervised. C) Emphasize the importance of truthful information using a nonjudgmental approach D) Recognize the patient's right to self-determination and avoid addressing the subject.

Ans: C Feedback: Noncompliance with prescribed medications is an important area. If the client has stopped taking medication or is taking medication other than as prescribed, the nurse must help the client feel comfortable enough to reveal this information. The nurse also explores the client's use of alcohol and over-the-counter or illicit drugs. Such questions require nonjudgmental phrasing; the nurse must reassure the client that truthful information is crucial in determining the client's plan of care.

37. A patient is seen for frequent exacerbation of schizophrenia due to nonadherence to medication regimen. The nurse should assess for which of the following common contributors to nonadherence? A) The patient is symptom-free and therefore does not need to adhere to the medication regimen. B) The patient cannot clearly see the instructions written on the prescription bottle. C) The patient dislikes the weight gain associated with antipsychotic therapy. D) The patient sells the antipsychotics to addicts in the neighborhood.

Ans: C Feedback: Patients with schizophrenia are less likely to exercise or eat low-fat nutritionally balanced diets; this pattern decreases the likelihood that they can minimize potential weight gain or lose excess weight. Antipsychotics should be taken regularly and not omitted when free of symptoms. Antipsychotics do not adversely affect vision, nor do they have addictive potential.

40. The nurse has completed health teaching about dietary restrictions for a client taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor. The nurse will know that teaching has been effective by which of the following client statements? A) "I'm glad I can eat pizza since it's my favorite food." B) "I must follow this diet or I will have severe vomiting." C) "It will be difficult for me to avoid pepperoni." D) "None of the foods that are restricted are part of a regular daily diet."

Ans: C Feedback: Pepperoni is one of the foods containing tyramine, so it must be avoided. Particular concern to this client is the potential life-threatening hypertensive crisis if the client ingests food that contains tyramine. Answer choices A, B, and D are inappropriate statements toward effective teaching for the client receiving a monoamine oxidase inhibitor.

14. The primary goal of a psychiatric rehabilitation program is to promote A) return to prior level of functioning. B) medication compliance. C) complete recovery from mental illness. D) stabilization and management of symptoms.

Ans: C Feedback: Psychiatric rehabilitation goes beyond management of symptoms and medication management to include personal growth, reintegration into the community, empowerment, increased independence, and improved quality of life. It is not a goal of psychiatric rehabilitation to return to the prior level of functioning that may have been dysfunctional. It may not be realistic for the client to completely recover from mental illness, but rehabilitation can improve the quality of life for the client.

9. Psychosocial theorists propose that somatic symptom illnesses are an indirect expression of stress and anxiety through physical symptoms. Which is the primary defense mechanism used in somatoform disorders? A) Somatization B) Identification C) Internalization D) Repression

Ans: C Feedback: Psychosocial theorists believe that people with somatic symptom illnesses keep stress, anxiety, or frustration inside rather than expressing them outwardly. This is called internalization. Clients express these internalized feelings and stress through physical symptoms (somatization). Both internalization and somatization are unconscious defense mechanisms. Identification is trying to ease distress by emulating others whom one admires. Repression is the unconscious exclusion of distressing situations from one's memory.

15. During report, the nurse learns that a client with mania has not slept since admission 2 days ago. On entering the day room, the nurse finds this client dancing to loud music. Which would be the most appropriate statement by the nurse? A) "Do you think you could sit still for a few minutes so we can talk?" B) "How are you ever going to get any rest if you keep that music on?" C) "Let's go to the conference room and talk for a while." D) "Turn the radio down so we can hear ourselves talk."

Ans: C Feedback: Redirecting the client to a quieter, smaller room will decrease external stimuli and promote calmness, so the client will eventually rest and sleep.

7. Which term describes the extent to which a person considers himself to be an integral part of the universe? A) Cooperativeness B) Self-directedness C) Self-transcendence D) Character

Ans: C Feedback: Self-transcendence describes the extent to which a person considered himself or herself to be an integral part of the universe. Cooperativeness refers to the extent to which a person sees himself or herself as an integral part of human society. Self-directedness is the extent to which a person is responsible, reliable, resourceful, goal oriented, and self-confident. Character consists of concepts about the self and the external world.

31. A client with bipolar disorder has been taking lithium, and today his serum blood level is 2.0 mEq/L. What effects would the nurse expect to see? A) Constipation and postural hypotension B) Fever, muscle rigidity, and disorientation C) Nausea, diarrhea, and confusion D) None; the serum level is in therapeutic range

Ans: C Feedback: Serum lithium levels of less than 0.5 mEq/L are rarely therapeutic, and levels of more than 1.5 mEq/L are usually considered toxic. The client would show signs of toxicity with a lithium level of 2.0 mEq/L. Toxic effects of lithium are severe diarrhea, vomiting, drowsiness, muscle weakness, and lack of coordination.

10. Several medications are prescribed for a client who has anorexia. Which medication may be prescribed to help treat the client's distorted body image? A) Amitriptyline (Elavil) B) Cyproheptadine (Periactin) C) Olanzapine (Zyprexa) D) Fluoxetine (Prozac)

Ans: C Feedback: Several classes of drugs have been studied, but few have shown clinical success. Amitriptyline (Elavil) and the antihistamine cyproheptadine (Periactin) in high doses (up to 28 mg/day) can promote weight gain in clients with anorexia nervosa. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) has been used with success because of its antipsychotic effect (on bizarre body image distortions) and associated weight gain. Fluoxetine (Prozac) has some effectiveness in preventing relapse in clients whose weight has been partially or completely restored. However, close monitoring is needed because weight loss can be a side effect.

16. A nurse is providing education about trauma and its effects to a community group in a community that has just been hit by a devastating tornado. One of the participants asked about what kind of support a survivor of the tornado will need. Which would be the best response of the nurse? A) If a person is willing to share his or her feelings about what has happened, he or she is not dealing with their feelings effectively. B) It is counterproductive for people to share what has happened to them and their feelings about it as there is nothing more to be done. C) If a person is reluctant to share his or her feelings, he or she may be denying his or her importance and may be at increased risk for future problems such as PTSD. D) It is best to wait until a survivor's life has returned to normal before dealing with the trauma.

Ans: C Feedback: Some people more easily express their feelings and talk about stressful, upsetting, or overwhelming events. They may do so with family, friends, or professionals. Others are more reluctant to open up and disclose their personal feelings. They are more likely to ignore the feelings, deny their importance, or insist "I'm fine, I'm over it." By doing that, they increase the risk for future problems such as PTSD. One of the most effective ways of avoiding pathologic responses to trauma is effectively dealing with the trauma soon after it occurs.

25. Which of the following was the first nonstimulant medication specifically designed and tested for ADHD? A) Methylphenidate (Ritalin) B) Amphetamine (Adderall) C) Atomoxetine (Strattera) D) Pemoline (Cylert)

Ans: C Feedback: Strattera was the first nonstimulant medication specifically designed and tested for ADHD. The primary stimulant drugs used to treat ADHD are methylphenidate (Ritalin), amphetamine (Adderall), and pemoline (Cylert).

18. A client who is taking paroxetine (Paxil) reports to the nurse that he has been nauseated since beginning the medication. Which of the following actions is indicated initially? A) Instruct the client to stop the medication for a few days to see if the nausea goes away. B) Reassure the client that this is an expected side effect that will improve with time. C) Suggest that the client take the medication with food. D) Tell the client to contact the physician for a change in medication.

Ans: C Feedback: Taking selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors with food usually eliminates nausea. There is a delayed therapeutic response to antidepressants. The client should not stop taking the drug. It would be appropriate to reassure the client that this is an expected side effect that will improve with time, but that would not be done initially. A change in medication may be indicated if the nausea is intolerable or persistent, but that would not be done initially.

13. A patient is known to express tangential thinking. The nurse would assess for which of the following when interacting with the patient? A) Stopping abruptly in the middle of expressing himself B) Jumping from one idea to another C) Wandering off the topic and never answering the question D) Excessive and fast talking about an array of ideas

Ans: C Feedback: Tangential thinking is wandering off the topic and never providing the information requested. Thought blocking is stopping abruptly in the middle of a sentence or train of thoughts, sometimes unable to continue the idea. Loose associations are disorganized thinking that jumps from one idea to another with little or no evident relation between the thoughts. Flight of ideas is excessive amount and rate of speech composed of fragmented or unrelated ideas.

30. One week after beginning therapy with thiothixene (Navane), the client demonstrates muscle rigidity, a temperature of 103°F, an elevated serum creatinine phosphokinase level, stupor, and incontinence. The nurse should notify the physician because these symptoms are indicative of A) acute dystonic reaction. B) extrapyramidal side effects. C) neuroleptic malignant syndrome. D) tardive dyskinesia.

Ans: C Feedback: The client demonstrates all the classic signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Dystonia involves acute muscular rigidity and cramping, a stiff or thick tongue with difficulty swallowing, and, in severe cases, laryngospasm and respiratory difficulties. Extrapyramidal side effects are reversible movement disorders induced by antipsychotic or neuroleptic medication. Tardive dyskinesia is a late-onset, irreversible neurologic side effect of antipsychotic medications characterized by abnormal, involuntary movements, such as blinking, chewing, and grimacing.

31. Throughout the assessment, the client displays disorganized thinking, jumping from one idea to another with no clear relationship between the thoughts. The nurse would assess the client as having which of the following? A) Tangential thinking B) Ideas of reference C) Loose associations D) Word salad

Ans: C Feedback: The client displayed ideas that were loosely associated to one another. Tangential thinking is manifested by wandering off the topic and never providing the information requested. Ideas of reference are the client's inaccurate interpretation that general events are personally directed to him or her. Word salad is a flow of unconnected words that convey no meaning to the listener.

15. A client states, "I am dead. I have come back from the dead." An appropriate response by the nurse is, A) "What is it like to feel dead?" B) "No you did not die. People don't come back from the dead." C) "Show me what you did in art therapy this morning." D) "I'll get your medicine and you'll feel better."

Ans: C Feedback: The client experiencing delusions utterly believes them and cannot be convinced they are false or untrue. It is the nurse's responsibility to present and maintain reality by making simple statements. The nurse must avoid openly confronting the delusion or arguing with the client about it. The nurse also must avoid reinforcing the delusional belief by "playing along" with what the client says.

11. The nurse is assessing a client who is talking about her son's recent death but who shows no emotion of any kind. The nurse recognizes this behavior as which of the following defense mechanisms? A) Dissociation B) Displacement C) Intellectualization D) Suppression

Ans: C Feedback: The client is aware of the facts of the situation but does not show the emotions associated with the situation. Dissociation involves dealing with emotional conflict by a temporary alteration in consciousness or identity. Displacement is the ventilation of intense feelings toward a person less threatening than the one who aroused those feelings. Suppression is replacing the desired gratification with one that is more readily available.

9. A patient is being transferred from a group home to an evolving consumer household. The goal of this transition is for the patient to eventually A) meet with a therapist on a weekly basis. B) resolve crises within a shorter time period. C) fulfill daily responsibilities without supervision. D) use the increased emotional support of paid staff.

Ans: C Feedback: The evolving consumer household is a group-living situation in which the residents make the transition from a traditional group home to a residence where they fulfill their own responsibilities and function without onsite supervision from paid staff.

7. Which is a standard for establishing a code of conduct for living? A) Acceptance B) Empathy C) Values D) Positive regard

Ans: C Feedback: Values are abstract standards that give a person a sense of right and wrong and establish a code of conduct for living. Acceptance occurs when the nurse does not become upset or respond negatively to a client's outbursts, anger, or acting out. Empathy is the ability of the nurse to perceive the meaning and feelings of the client and to communicate that understanding to the client. Positive regard is an unconditional, nonjudgmental attitude.

25. A client with recurrent headaches has been told by the physician that the cause is likely psychosomatic. The client reports this conversation to the nurse and says, "That just can't be true! My head hurts so bad sometimes that it makes me sick to my stomach." Which is the nurse's best response? A) To give the client some privacy and time to calm down B) To say nothing and sit quietly with the client C) "The pain in your head is very real." D) "Well, that's not what your doctor thinks."

Ans: C Feedback: When the nurse says, "The pain in your head is very real," the nurse is validating the client's pain as real. The client is asking for some type of validation. In the situation presented, the client's headaches are very real to him or her. The client needs to talk out the feelings regarding what the physician has told him or her. It would be inappropriate for the nurse to say nothing. To give the client some privacy and time to calm down is not indicated. "Well, that's not what your doctor thinks," would put the client on the defensive.

9. Which of the following are nontherapeutic techniques? Select all that apply. A) Silence B) Voicing doubt C) Agreeing D) Challenging E) Giving approval F) Accepting

Ans: C, D, E Feedback: Silence is a therapeutic technique that involves the absence of verbal communication, which provides time for the client to put thoughts or feelings into words, to regain composure, or to continue talking. Voicing doubt is a therapeutic technique that involves expressing uncertainty about the reality of the client's perceptions. Agreeing is a nontherapeutic technique that involves indicating accord with the client. Agreeing indicates the client is "right" rather than "wrong," and there is no opportunity for the client to change his or her mind without being "wrong." Challenging is a nonverbal communication technique that involves demanding proof from the client, and this may cause the client to defend delusions or misperceptions more strongly than before. Giving approval is a nontherapeutic communication technique that involves sanctioning the client's behavior or ideas. Accepting is a therapeutic technique that involves indicating reception.

27. A woman has just been served divorce papers from her husband. She has no financial resources and little social support. She states, "He's not really leaving. He'll be back." The most appropriate response by the nurse would be which of the following? A) "Has he done this before?" B) "I'll call social services and get you signed up for financial assistance." C) "You have to face reality. Here are the papers." D) "How is this affecting you right now?"

Ans: D Feedback: Adaptive denial, in which the client gradually adjusts to the reality of the loss, can help the client let go of previous (before the loss) perceptions while creating new ways of thinking about himself or herself, others, and the world. While taking in the loss in its entirety all at once seems overwhelming, gradually dealing with the loss in smaller increments seems much more manageable. Help the client shift from an unconscious mechanism of denial to conscious coping with reality by using reflective communication skills.

21. A client is seen in the clinic with clinical manifestations of an inability to sit still and a rigid posture. These side effects would be correctly identified as which of the following? A) Tardive dyskinesia B) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome C) Dystonia D) Akathisia

Ans: D Feedback: Akathisia is reported by the client as an intense need to move about. The client appears restless or anxious and agitated, often with a rigid posture or gain and a lack of spontaneous gestures. The symptoms of tardive dyskinesia (TD) include involuntary movements of the tongue, facial and neck muscles, upper and lower extremities, and truncal musculature. Tongue thrusting and protruding, lip smacking, blinking, grimacing, and other excessive unnecessary facial movements are characteristic. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a potentially fatal reaction manifested by rigidity, high fever, and autonomic instability. Acute dystonia includes acute muscular rigidity and cramping, a stiff or thick tongue with difficulty swallowing, and, in severe cases, laryngospasm and respiratory difficulties.

6. Which would be a reason for a student nurse to use the DSM? A) Identifying the medical diagnosis B) Treat clients C) Evaluate treatments D) Understand the reason for the admission and the nature of psychiatric illnesses.

Ans: D Feedback: Although student nurses do not use the DSM to diagnose clients, they will find it a helpful resource to understand the reason for the admission and to begin building knowledge about the nature of psychiatric illnesses. Identifying the medical diagnosis, treating, and evaluating treatments are not a part of the nursing process.

19. Which is the orientation of assertive community treatment (ACT)? A) Setting limits on mundane life issues B) Making a wide range of referrals C) Providing services in offices D) Problem-solving orientation

Ans: D Feedback: An ACT program has a problem-solving orientation: Staff members attend to specific life issues, no matter how mundane. ACT programs provide most services directly rather than relying on referrals to other programs or agencies, and they implement the services in the clients' homes or communities, not in offices.

7. Which is the primary gain for a client with conversion disorder? A) Emotional detachment B) Emotional support from family C) Identification of anxious feelings D) Relief from emotional conflict

Ans: D Feedback: An emotional conflict precedes the development of conversion disorder; the conversion disorder relieves that specific emotional conflict. Emotional detachment and emotional support from the family or identification of anxious feelings are not examples of primary gain in clients diagnosed with conversion disorder. Secondary gains are the internal or personal benefits received from others because one is sick, such as attention from family members.

28. Which drug classification is the primary medication treatment for schizophrenia? A) Anticoagulants B) Antidepressants C) Antimanics D) Antipsychotics

Ans: D Feedback: Antipsychotic drugs are the primary medical treatment for clients diagnosed with schizophrenia and are also used in psychotic episodes of acute mania, psychotic depression, and drug-induced psychosis.

6. The client with schizophrenia makes the following statement, "I just don't know how to count. The sky turned to fire. I have a ball in my head." The nurse documents this entire statement as an example of A) flight of ideas. B) ideas of reference. C) delusional thinking. D) associative looseness.

Ans: D Feedback: Associative looseness is demonstrated through fragmented or poorly related thoughts and ideas. The series of disconnected thoughts best exemplifies this concept. Some of the statements contain delusions, or fixed false beliefs that have no basis in reality. Flight of ideas refers to rapidly flowing thoughts that are more connected than the client's statement. Ideas of reference are false impressions that external events have special meaning for the person.

27. A patient states, "I hate spending time with my family. They're always on my back about something! I won't do anything they ask me to do." Which response by the nurse reflects a behavioral perspective? A) "Let's play like I'm your parent, and we'll practice some better ways to communicate that won't result in an argument." B) "Some medicines really help with anger. Are you interested in talking to your physician about starting you on something?" C) "That's probably your way of getting back at them for being strict with you when you were younger." D) "If you agree to start doing what your parents request, then they have agreed to respect your privacy more."

Ans: D Feedback: Behaviorism is a school of psychology that focuses on observable behaviors and what one can do externally to bring about behavior changes. It does not attempt to explain how the mind works. Behavior can be changed through a system of rewards and punishments. Practicing communication is a psychotherapy technique to improve interpersonal relationships. Use of medications is not grounded in behavioral perspective. Analyzing the reasons for the behavior is not grounded in behavioral perspective.

27. Which of the following would not be included as a symptom of drug-induced parkinsonism? A) Stooped posture B) Cogwheel rigidity C) Drooling D) Tachycardia

Ans: D Feedback: Bradycardia (not tachycardia), a stooped posture, cogwheel rigidity, and drooling are all symptoms of pseudoparkinsonism. Other symptoms of pseudoparkinsonism include mask-like facies, decreased arm swing, a shuffling, festinating gait, tremor, and coarse pill-rolling movements of the thumb and fingers while at rest.

12. The nurse is sitting down with a patient to begin a conversation. Which of the following positions should the nurse take to convey acceptance of the patient? A) Leaning forward with arms on the table sitting directly across for the patient B) Turned slightly to the side of the patients with arms folded across the chest C) Leaning back in the chair next to the patient with legs crossed at the knees D) Sitting upright facing the patient with both feet on the floor

Ans: D Feedback: Closed body positions, such as crossed legs or arms folded across the chest, indicate that the interaction might threaten the listener who is defensive or not accepting. A better, more accepting body position is to sit facing the client with both feet on the floor, knees parallel, hands at the side of the body, and legs uncrossed or crossed only at the ankle.

32. For a client taking clozapine (Clozaril), which of the following symptoms should the nurse report to the physician immediately as it may be indicative of a potentially fatal side effect? A) Inability to stand still for 1 minute B) Mild rash C) Photosensitivity reaction D) Sore throat and malaise

Ans: D Feedback: Clozapine (Clozaril) produces fewer traditional side effects than do most antipsychotic drugs, but it has the potentially fatal side effect of agranulocytosis. This develops suddenly and is characterized by fever, malaise, ulcerative sore throat, and leukopenia. This side effect may not be manifested immediately and can occur up to 24 weeks after the initiation of therapy. Any symptoms of infection must be investigated immediately. Agranulocytosis is characterized by fever, malaise, ulcerative sore throat, and leukopenia. Mild rash and photosensitivity reaction are not serious side effects.

22. Which one of the following statements is most accurate regarding the cohesiveness of a group in group therapy? A) It is commonly present in the first meeting of the group. B) It is necessary for the group to have maximum cohesiveness, the more the better. C) Group cohesiveness is the degree to which members think alike and many things are left unspoken. D) Cohesiveness is a desirable group characteristic that is associated with positive group outcomes.

Ans: D Feedback: Cohesiveness is a desirable group characteristic that is associated with positive group outcomes. It is not common for the group to be cohesive during the first meeting of the group. During the first meeting, or the initial stage, members introduce themselves and the parameters of the group are established. Group members begin to "check out" one another and the leaders as they determine their levels of comfort in the group setting. Cohesiveness is associated with the working stage of a group that may take two or three sessions in a therapy group because members must develop some level of trust before sharing personal feelings or difficult situations. If a group is "overly cohesive," in that uniformity and agreement become the group's implicit goals, there may be a negative effect on the group outcome as members may not offer needed feedback and this may thwart critical thinking and creative problem solving. Group cohesiveness is the degree to which members work together cooperatively to accomplish the purpose.

19. In planning for a client's discharge, the nurse must know that the most serious risk for the client taking a tricyclic antidepressant is which of the following? A) Hypotension B) Narrow-angle glaucoma C) Seizures D) Suicide by overdose

Ans: D Feedback: Cyclic antidepressants (including tricyclic antidepressants) are potentially lethal if taken in an overdose. The cyclic antidepressants block cholinergic receptors, resulting in anticholinergic effects such as dry mouth, constipation, urinary hesitancy or retention, dry nasal passages, and blurred near vision. More severe anticholinergic effects such as agitation, delirium, and ileus may occur, particularly in older adults. Other common side effects include orthostatic hypotension, sedation, weight gain, and tachycardia. Clients may develop tolerance to anticholinergic effects (such as orthostatic hypotension and worsening of narrow-angle glaucoma, but these side effects are common reasons that clients discontinue drug therapy. The risk of seizures is increased by bupropion, which is a different type of antidepressant.

16. A woman has just had a therapeutic abortion to end an unintended pregnancy. Afterward, the woman cries because although she wanted to have children in future years, this pregnancy was not well-timed. Which type of grief is this woman most likely to experience? A) Anticipatory grief B) Absence of grief C) Complicated grief D) Disenfranchised grief

Ans: D Feedback: Disenfranchised grief is grief over a loss that is not or cannot be acknowledged openly, mourned, publicly, or supported socially. Anticipatory grief occurs when a person experiences imminent loss and begin to grapple with the very real possibility of loss or death in the near future. It is not absence of grief as the woman is grieving. It is not currently complicated grief as the loss has just occurred and does not seem out of proportion to the loss.

10. A nursing supervisor reprimands an employee for being chronically late for work. If the employee handles the reprimand using the defense mechanism of displacement, he would most likely do which of the following? A) Argue with the supervisor that he is usually on time B) Make a special effort to be on time tomorrow C) Tell fellow employees that the supervisor is picking on him D) Tell the unit housekeeper that his work is sloppy

Ans: D Feedback: Displacement involves venting feelings toward another, less threatening person. Arguing is denial. Making a special effort is compensation. Telling fellow employees that the supervisor is picking on him is projection.

19. The nurse assesses fine hand tremors in a patient with a history of heavy alcohol use. If the nurse understands that the tremors are a direct result of alcohol use, the nurse is using which pattern of knowing, according to Carper? A) Aesthetic knowing B) Ethical knowing C) Personal knowing D) Empirical knowing

Ans: D Feedback: Empirical knowing is obtained from the science of nursing. An example would be a client with panic disorder begins to have an attack. Panic attack will raise pulse rate. Personal knowing is obtained from life experience. An example would be a client's face shows the panic. Ethical knowing is obtained from the moral knowledge of nursing. An example is although the nurse's shift has ended, she remains with the client. Aesthetic knowing is obtained from the art of nursing. Although the client shows outward signals now, the nurse has sensed previously the client's jumpiness and subtle differences in the client's demeanor and behavior.

23. The nurse observes two clients in the day room arguing. One client runs into the corner and huddles while the other follows and continues with verbal abuse. Which is the best action by the nurse? A) Take an authoritatively step between the two clients. B) Comfort the client huddled in the corner. C) Directly address both clients and ask what is going on. D) Engage the attention of the client who is still yelling and ask what is happening.

Ans: D Feedback: Engaging the attention of the dominant person will diffuse the situation and stop the argument from continuing. The other choices would not be appropriate actions in this situation. The nurse placing herself in between two arguing clients is a safety concern.

25. A patient states, "Right before I got here I was doing alright. My job was going well, my wife and I were happy, and we just moved into a new apartment." The nurse responds, "You said you and your wife were happy. Tell me more about that." This is an example of which therapeutic technique? A) Encouraging comparison B) General lead C) Restating D) Exploring

Ans: D Feedback: Exploring—delving further into a subject or an idea. When clients deal with topics superficially, exploring can help them examine the issue more fully. Any problem or concern can be better understood if explored in depth.

2. A nurse is teaching decision-making skills to a client with dependent personality disorder. According to Erikson, the likely cause of the client developing dependent personality is failure to meet the critical task of which developmental stage? A) Trust B) Autonomy C) Initiative D) Industry

Ans: D Feedback: Failure to complete the critical task results in a negative outcome for that stage of development and impedes completion of future tasks. Tasks of trust versus mistrust include viewing the world as safe and reliable and viewing relationships as nurturing, stable, and dependable. In autonomy versus shame and doubt, children achieve a sense of control and free will. In initiative versus guilt, the child begins to develop a conscience, and learns to manage conflict and anxiety. Industry versus inferiority involves school-age children building confidence in their own abilities and taking pleasure in accomplishments.

27. Which of the following statements about the crisis phase of aggression when the client becomes physically aggressive is true? A) All staff should act to take charge of the situation. B) The client must be restrained or sedated at once. C) Staff should avoid communicating with the client. D) Four to six trained staff members are needed to restrain.

Ans: D Feedback: Four to six trained staff members are needed to restrain, with four staff members each handling a limb and one protecting the client's head and one helps control the client's torso, if needed. When a client becomes physically aggressive, the staff must take charge of the situation for the safety of the client, staff, and other clients. Only staff with training in safe techniques for managing behavioral emergencies should participate. All staff may not have had this training, and if the team is not working in a cooperative and coordinated fashion, it is less safe to restrain the client. The nurse should follow the facility's protocols and standards for restraint and seclusion. Staff should inform the client that his or her behavior is out of control and that the staff is taking control to provide safety and prevent injury.

2. Which is a freudian explanation of the etiology of depression? A) Depression is a reaction to a distressing life experience. B) Depression results from being raised by rejecting or unloving parents. C) Depression results from cognitive distortions. D) Depression is anger turned inward.

Ans: D Feedback: Freud looked at the self-depreciation of people with depression and attributed that self-reproach to anger turned inward related to either a real or perceived loss. Meyer viewed depression as a reaction to a distressing life experience such as an event with psychic causality. Horney believed that children raised by rejecting or unloving parents were prone to feelings of insecurity and loneliness. Beck saw depression as resulting from specific cognitive distortions in susceptible people.

24. A couple came to the emergency department with their 5-month-old son. He was pronounced dead of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). In the next day or two, it will be important for this couple to A) accept that they could do nothing to prevent this death. B) delay the grieving process until they are ready to cope. C) minimize their discussion of the death with others. D) plan funeral arrangements for their son.

Ans: D Feedback: Funerals are often the beginning outward sign of mourning and help begin the grieving process. This couple will need to talk about their son's death repeatedly as they begin to grieve. It will not likely be possible for them to accept that they could do nothing to prevent this death within this time period, but they must begin to hear this. They should not delay the grieving process.

9. A client is actively involved in community service activities. The benefit of involvement in meaningful daily activities will most directly contribute to which of the following attributes? A) Self-efficacy B) Resilience C) Resourcefulness D) Hardiness

Ans: D Feedback: Hardiness is the ability to resist illness when under stress. Hardiness has three components: commitment—active involvement in life activities; control—ability to make appropriate decisions in life activities; and challenge—ability to perceive change as beneficial rather than just stressful. Self-efficacy is a belief that personal abilities and efforts affect the events in our lives. Resilience is defined as having healthy responses to stressful circumstances or risky situations. Resourcefulness involves using problem-solving abilities and believing that one can cope with adverse or novel situations.

12. All of the following are nursing diagnoses identified for a client with schizophrenia. The student nurse correctly anticipates which diagnosis will resolve when the client's negative symptoms improve? A) Impaired verbal communication B) Risk for other-directed violence C) Disturbed thought processes D) Social isolation

Ans: D Feedback: NANDA diagnoses commonly established based on the assessment of psychotic symptoms or positive signs are as follows: - Risk for other-directed violence - Risk for suicide - Disturbed thought processes - Disturbed sensory perception - Disturbed personal identity - Impaired verbal communication NANDA diagnoses based on the assessment of negative signs and functional abilities include the following: - Self-care deficits - Social isolation - Deficient diversional activity - Ineffective health maintenance - Ineffective therapeutic regimen management

4. Which of the following neurochemical influences is a probable cause of substance abuse? A) Imbalances of serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain B) Inhibition of GABA in the brain C) Excessive serotonin activity in the CNS D) Stimulation of dopamine pathways in the brain

Ans: D Feedback: Neurochemical influences on substance use patterns have been studied primarily in animal research (Jaffe & Anthony, 2005). The ingestion of mood-altering substances stimulates dopamine pathways in the limbic system, which produces pleasant feelings or a "high" that is a reinforcing, or positive, experience.

31. A psychiatric nurse is planning activities aimed at secondary prevention of mental illness. Which activity would be most appropriate to develop? A) Self-esteem building with a local after-school program B) Social skills training for chronic schizophrenics C) Parenthood classes at a local community center D) Depression screening in an assisted living facility

Ans: D Feedback: Nurses work to provide mental health prevention services to reduce risks to the mental health of persons, families, and communities. Examples include primary prevention, such as stress management education; secondary prevention, such as early identification of potential mental health problems; and tertiary prevention, such as monitoring and coordinating rehabilitation services for the mentally ill.

25. During the initial interview with a client in crisis, the initial priority is to A) assess the adequacy of the support system. B) assess for substance use. C) determine the precrisis level of functioning. D) evaluate the potential for self-harm.

Ans: D Feedback: Safety is always the priority; clients in crisis may be suicidal. Assessing the adequacy of the support system, assessing for substance use, and determining the precrisis level of functioning would be important assessments but not as high priority as evaluating the potential for self-harm.

25. The nurse is working with a client at the battered women's shelter who is in a violent and abusive relationship. The client is considering a separation and asks the nurse, "What do you think about that?" Which is the best response by the nurse? A) "Batterers never change, so it would be best for you to leave." B) "If you don't leave, he'll think you're going to continue to endure his abuse." C) "If you leave, maybe he'll see that he has to change his behavior." D) "You may be in more physical danger after you leave him."

Ans: D Feedback: Statistics indicate that violence increases when the victim attempts to leave or end the relationship. It is not appropriate for the nurse to offer advice such as this. It is not the victim's fault whether the victim stays or not. "If you leave, maybe he'll see that he has to change his behavior," is not appropriate as it minimizes the situation.

2. The nurse knows that which one of the following statements is true about stress and anxiety? A) All people handle stress in the same way. B) Stress is a person's reaction to anxiety. C) Anxiety occurs when a person has trouble dealing with life situations, problems, and goals. D) Stress is the wear and tear that life causes on the body.

Ans: D Feedback: Stress is the wear and tear that life causes on the body. It occurs when a person has difficulty dealing with life situations, problems, and goals. Each person handles stress differently. Anxiety is a vague feeling of dread or apprehension; it is a response to external or internal stimuli that can have behavioral, emotional, cognitive, and physical symptoms. Anxiety is a response to stress.

5. The nurse consults the DSM for which of the following purposes? A) To devise a plan of care for a newly admitted client B) To predict the client's prognosis of treatment outcomes C) To document the appropriate diagnostic code in the client's medical record D) To serve as a guide for client assessment

Ans: D Feedback: The DSM provides standard nomenclature, presents defining characteristics, and identifies underlying causes of mental disorders. It does not provide care plans or prognostic outcomes of treatment. Diagnosis of mental illness is not within the generalist RN's scope of practice, so documenting the code in the medical record would be inappropriate.

20. A client with depression appears lethargic and apathetic but agrees to participate in a leisure activity group. Which nursing intervention is most likely to help the client successfully participate? A) Allowing the client to direct her participation at her own pace B) Giving the client several choices of projects, so she can choose her favorite C) Staying away from the client during the session to encourage free expression D) Structuring the activity to facilitate completion of one specific task

Ans: D Feedback: The client needs to experience success in the group but is unlikely to do that independently. The other choices would not be appropriate actions for the client who is lethargic and apathetic.

5. The nurse initiating a therapeutic relationship with a client should explain the purpose, which is to A) alleviate stressors in life. B) allow the client to know the nurse's feelings. C) establish relationships. D) facilitate a positive change.

Ans: D Feedback: The client who has unmet or unsatisfactorily met needs seeks to make changes; the nurse facilitates this desire to change. The focus of the therapeutic relationship is on the client's needs, not the nurse's. The orientation phase begins when the nurse and client meet and ends when the client begins to identify problems to examine. During the orientation phase, the nurse establishes roles, the purpose of meeting, and the parameters of subsequent meetings; identifies the client's problems; and clarifies expectations.

20. A client with severe and persistent mental illness has been taking antipsychotic medication for 20 years. The nurse observes that the client's behavior includes repetitive movements of the mouth and tongue, facial grimacing, and rocking back and forth. The nurse recognizes these behaviors as indicative of A) extrapyramidal side effects B) loss of voluntary muscle control C) Posturing D) tardive dyskinesia

Ans: D Feedback: The client's behaviors are classic signs of tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia, a syndrome of permanent involuntary movements, is most commonly caused by the long-term use of conventional antipsychotic drugs. Extrapyramidal side effects are reversible movement disorders induced by antipsychotic or neuroleptic medication. The client's behavior is not a loss of voluntary control or posturing.

12. A patient with schizophrenia is being treated with olanzapine (Zyprexa) 10 mg. daily. The patient asks the nurse how this medicine works. The nurse explains that the mechanism by which the olanzapine controls the patient's psychotic symptoms is believed to be A) increasing the amount of serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain. B) decreasing the amount of an enzyme that breaks down neurotransmitters. C) normalizing the levels of serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine. D) blocking dopamine receptors in the brain.

Ans: D Feedback: The major action of all antipsychotics in the nervous system is to block receptors for the neurotransmitter dopamine. SSRIs and TCSs act by blocking the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine. MAOIs prevent the breakdown of MAO, an enzyme that breaks down neurotransmitters. Lithium normalizes the reuptake of certain neurotransmitters such as serotonin, norepinephrine, acetylcholine, and dopamine.

30. Which of the following occurrences is considered a breach of professional boundaries? A) Patient asking a nurse for her phone number B) Refusing a gift from a patient C) Changing the subject in response to a patient complement D) Having a lengthy social conversation with a patient

Ans: D Feedback: The nurse must maintain professional boundaries to ensure the best therapeutic outcomes. The nurse must act warmly and empathetically but must not try to be friends with the client. Social interactions that continue beyond the first few minutes of a meeting contribute to the conversation staying on the surface. This lack of focus on the problems erodes the professional relationship. The nurse is responsible for maintaining boundaries in the event of patient inappropriateness.

23. Ensuring that the client has informed consent before agreeing to a treatment regimen displays which of the following ethical principles? A) Fidelity B) Nonmaleficence C) Justice D) Autonomy

Ans: D Feedback: The nurse respects the client's autonomy through client's rights, informed consent, and encouraging the client to make choices about his or her health care. The nurse has a duty to take actions that promote the client's health (beneficence) and that do not harm the client (nonmaleficence). The nurse must treat all clients fairly (justice), be truthful and honest (veracity), and honor all duties and commitments to clients and families (fidelity).

17. Which of the following is the priority of the Healthy People 2020 objectives for mental health? A) Improved inpatient care B) Primary prevention of emotional problems C) Stress reduction and management D) Treatment of mental illness

Ans: D Feedback: The objectives are to increase the number of people who are identified, diagnosed, treated, and helped to live healthier lives. The objectives also strive to decrease rates of suicide and homelessness, to increase employment among those with serious mental illness, and to provide more services both for juveniles and for adults who are incarcerated and have mental health problems. Answer choices A, B, and C are not priorities of Healthy People 2020.

26. Patients on an inpatient psychiatric unit can earn off-unit privileges for daily use of socially appropriate behavior. This is an example of employing which concept of behavior modification? A) Systematic desensitization B) Negative reinforcement C) Classical conditioning D) Operant conditioning

Ans: D Feedback: The theory of operant conditioning says people learn their behavior from their history or past experiences, particularly those experiences that were repeatedly reinforced. Behavior that is rewarded with reinforcers tends to recur. Positive reinforcers that follow a behavior increase the likelihood that the behavior will recur. In classical conditioning, behavior can be changed through conditioning with external or environmental conditions or stimuli. Negative reinforcement involves removing a stimulus immediately after a behavior occurs so that the behavior is more likely to occur again. In systematic desensitization, the client learns and practices relaxation techniques to decrease and manage anxiety. He or she is then exposed to the least anxiety provoking situation and uses the relaxation techniques to manage the resulting anxiety.

13. Which of the following is a realistic outcome for the care of a person with a personality disorder? A) Outcomes that focus on satisfaction with daily life B) Outcomes that focus on the client's perception of others C) Outcomes that focus on increased client insight D) Outcomes that focus on change in behavior

Ans: D Feedback: The treatment focus often is behavioral change. Although treatment is unlikely to affect the client's insight or view of the world and others, it is possible to make changes in behavior.

12. Some residential treatment settings are transitional. This means that clients are eventually expected to A) become self-sufficient. B) find employment. C) no longer need medication. D) relocate to another setting.

Ans: D Feedback: Transitional housing is temporary; clients are expected to move to another residential setting. Clients using transitional treatment settings are not expected to become totally self-sufficient, find employment, or not be in need of medication.

27. A client asks the nurse, "Why do I have to go to counseling? Why can't I just take medications?" The best response by the nurse would be, A) "Both therapies are effective. You can eventually choose one or the other." B) "You cannot get the full effect of your medications without cognitive therapy as well." C) "As soon as your medications reach therapeutic level, you can omit the therapy." D) "Medications combined with therapy help you change how well you function."

Ans: D Feedback: Treatment for anxiety disorders usually involves medication and therapy. This combination produces better results than either one alone.