MGT 422 FINAL

Lakukan tugas rumah & ujian kamu dengan baik sekarang menggunakan Quizwiz!

The _____________________ tactic occurs when negotiators overwhelm the other party with so much information that they have trouble determining which information is real or important.

snow job

Tactics are subordinate to strategy; they are structured, directed and driven by ____________ considerations.

strategic

Whether or not one or both parties in a distributive bargaining situation achieve their objectives will depend upon the ____________ and ____________ they employ.

strategies; tactics

Identify and define the four types of interests.

substantive: closely related to tangible issues process: related to the way we settle the dispute relationship: one or more parties value their relationship and do not want to take actions that will harm the relationship in principles: what is fair/acceptable/ethical or what has been done in the fast and what should be done in the future

Successful negotiation involves the management of ____________ (e.g., the price or the terms of agreement) and also the resolution of _________.

tangibles; intangibles

The concept of "personalistic ethics" states that the rightness of an action is based on the customs and norms of a particular society or community.

FALSE

The first iteration through the planning process should be firm, and the negotiator should be inflexible and not modify and adjust previous steps as new information becomes available.

FALSE

The fundamental questions of ethical conduct arise only when we negotiate in distributive bargaining situations.

FALSE

The pattern of give-and-take in negotiation is a characteristic exclusive to formal negotiations.

FALSE

The rightness of an action is determined by considering obligations to apply universal standards and principles is the definition of end-result ethics.

FALSE

When the goals of two or more people are interconnected so that only one can achieve the goal—such as running a race in which there will be only one winner—this is a competitive situation, also known as a non-zero-sum or distributive situation.

FALSE

Why is it advantageous to make an extreme opening offer?

Gives more room for movement in negotiation and therefore more time to learn the other party's priorities. May create the impression that there is a long way to go before a reasonable settlement will be achieved and more concessions than originally intended may have to be made to bridge the difference between the two opening positions.

____________ issues are often difficult to discuss and rank-order.

Intangible

What are the disadvantages of making a more extreme opening offer?

It may be summarily rejected by the other party, communicates an attitude of toughness that may be harmful to long-term relationships.

Although there is no guarantee that trust will lead to collaboration, there is plenty of evidence to suggest that mistrust inhibits collaboration.

An effective means of countering the intimidation tactic is to ignore it.

Anything outside the bargaining range will be summarily rejected by one of the negotiators.

Both parties to a negotiation should establish their starting, target and resistance point before beginning negotiation.

Distributive bargaining strategies and tactics are useful when a negotiator wants to maximize the value obtained in a single deal.

Focusing on interests allows parties to move beyond opening positions and demands to determine what the parties really want—what needs truly must be satisfied.

For positive problem solving to occur, both parties must be committed to stating the problem in neutral terms.

If a major concession has been made on a significant point, it is expected that the return offer will be on the same item or one of similar weight and comparable magnitude.

If both parties understand the motivating factors for the other, they may recognize possible compatibilities in interests that permit them to invent positions which both will endorse as an acceptable settlement.

In generating alternative solutions to the problem, groups should also adopt procedures for defining the problem, defining the interests, and generating options, however, to prevent the group process from degenerating into a win-lose competition or a debating event.

In logrolling, if the parties do in fact have different preferences on different issues, each party gets their most preferred outcome on their high priority issue and should be happy with the overall agreement.

Intangibles can lead the negotiator to fight harder to attain a particular solution option if that option satisfies both tangibles and intangibles.

It is important to signal to the other party with both actions and words that the concessions are almost over.

Most situations are mixed-motive negotiations, containing some elements that require distributive bargaining processes, and others that require integrative negotiation.

One way negotiators may convey the message that "this is the last offer" is by making a personalized concession.

Parties feel better about a settlement when negotiations involve a progression of concessions.

Parties should enter the integrative negotiation process with few preconceptions about the solution.

Selective presentation can be used to lead the other party to form the desired impression of your resistance point or to open up new possibilities for agreement that are more favorable to the presenter than those that currently exist

Successful bridging requires a fundamental reformulation of the problem such that the parties are no longer squabbling over their positions; instead, they are disclosing sufficient information to discover their interests and needs and then inventing options that will satisfy both parties' needs.

The failure to reach integrative agreements is often linked to the failure to exchange sufficient information that will allow the parties to identify integrative options.

The more you can do to convince the other party that his or her costs of delay or aborting negotiations will be costly, the more likely he or she will be to establish a modest resistance point.

To respond to hardball tactics, a negotiator must identify the tactic quickly and understand what it is and how it works.

When a specific solution must meet the criteria of both quality and acceptability, those evaluating the solution options may have to be prepared to make trade-offs between the two to insure that both criteria are met.

23. Negotiation situations have fundamentally the same characteristics.

TRUE

34. Context issues (e.g., history of the relationship) can affect negotiation.

TRUE

A creative negotiation that meets the objectives of all sides may not require compromise.

TRUE

A single planning process can be followed for both a distributive and an integrative process.

TRUE

Accommodation is as much a win-lose strategy as competition, although it has a decidedly different image that involves an imbalance of outcomes, but in the opposite direction ("I lose, you win" as opposed to "I win, you lose").

TRUE

Alternatives are very important in both distributive and integrative processes because they define whether the current outcome is better than any other possibility.

TRUE

Differences in time preferences have the potential to create value in a negotiation.

TRUE

Drawing up a firm list of issues before the initial negotiation meeting is a valuable process because it forces negotiators to think through their positions and decide on objectives.

TRUE

Explanations allow the negotiator to convince others that conduct that would ordinarily be wrong in a given situation is acceptable and are looked upon as self-serving for one's own conduct.

TRUE

Gathering information about the other party is a critical step in preparing for negotiation.

TRUE

If intangibles are a key part of the bargaining mix, negotiators must know the point at which they are willing to abandon the pursuit of an intangible in favor of substantial gains on tangibles.

TRUE

If what we want exceeds what the other party is capable of or willing to give, we must either change our goals or end the negotiation.

TRUE

In a distributive negotiation, the other party may be less likely to disclose information about their limits and alternatives.

TRUE

In any industry in which repeat business is done with the same parties, there is always a balance between pushing the limit on any particular negotiation and making sure the other party—and your relationship with him—survives intact.

TRUE

In contrast, non-zero-sum or integrative or mutual gains situations are ones where many people can achieve their goals and objectives.

TRUE

Individuals are more willing to use deceptive tactics when the other party is perceived to be uninformed or unknowledgeable about the situation under negotiation; particularly when the stakes are high.

TRUE

Interests may be process-based and relationship-based.

TRUE

It is important to set priorities and possibly assign points for both tangible and intangible issues.

TRUE

Large bargaining mixes allow many possible components and arrangements for settlement.

TRUE

Most of the ethics issues in negotiation are concerned with standards of truth telling and how individuals decide when they should tell the truth.

TRUE

Negotiation is a strategy for productively managing conflict.

TRUE

One's own temptation to misrepresent creates a self-fulfilling logic in which one believes one needs to misrepresent because the other is likely to do it as well.

TRUE

Questions and debate regarding the ethical standards for truth telling are central and fundamental in the negotiating process.

TRUE

Real consequences—rewards and punishments that arise from using a tactic or not using it—should not only motivate a negotiator's present behavior, but also affect the negotiator's predisposition to use similar strategies in similar circumstances in the future.

TRUE

Remember that every possible interdependency has an alternative; negotiators can always say "no" and walk away.

TRUE

Single-issue negotiations and the absence of a long-term relationship with the other party are the strongest drivers of claiming value strategies.

TRUE

Studies show that subjects were more willing to lie by omission than by commission.

TRUE

The dual concerns model has two dimensions: the vertical dimension is often referred to as the cooperativeness dimension, and the horizontal dimension as the assertiveness dimension.

TRUE

The effective negotiator needs to understand how people will adjust and readjust, and how the negotiations might twist and turn, based on one's own moves and the others' responses.

TRUE

Single-issue negotiations can often be made integrative by working to decrease the number of issues.

FALSE

Define commitment.

"Taking of a bargaining position with some explicit or implicit pledge regarding the future course of action."

Define synergy?

"The whole is greater than the sum of its parts."

In general, the "respond in kind" approach is best treated as a ________________________ strategy.

"last resort"

What actions can a negotiator take to respond to the other party's use of deceptive tactics or "dirty tricks?"

(1) Ask probing questions; (2) force the other party to lie or back off; (3) "call the tactic"; (4) test the other party, (5) respond in kind; and, (6) ignore the tactic.

What are the four important tactical tasks for a negotiator in a distributive bargaining situation?

(1) Assess the other party's outcome values and the costs of terminating negotiations; (2) manage the other party's impression of one's own outcome values; (3) modify the other party's perception of his or her own outcome values; (4) manipulate the actual costs of delaying or aborting negotiations.

According to Hitt, what are the four standards for evaluating strategies and tactics in business and negotiation?

(1) Choose a course of action on the basis of results I expect to achieve; (2) Choose a course of action on the basis of my duty to uphold appropriate rules and principles; (3) Choose a course of action on the basis of the norms, values, and strategy of my organization or community; and, (4) Choose a course of action on the basis of my personal convictions.

Describe the double-edged effect of overconfidence.

(1) Overconfidence can solidify the degree to which negotiators support positions or options that are incorrect or inappropriate; and (2) overconfidence can lead negotiators to discount the worth or validity of the judgments of others, in effect shutting down other parties as sources of information, interests and options necessary for a successful integrative negotiation.

What are the three ways to manipulate the costs of delay in negotiation?

(1) Plan disruptive action; (2) ally with outsiders; (3) manipulate the scheduling of negotiations.

Research by Greenhalgh suggests there are seven key steps to an ideal negotiation process. What are those seven steps?

(1) Preparation, (2) relationship building, (3) information gathering, (4) information using, (5) bidding, (6) closing the deal, and (7) implementing the agreement.

What tactics can be used to communicate firm flexibility to an opponent?

(1) Use competitive tactics to establish and defend basic interests, rather than using them to demand a particular position or solution to the dispute; (2) send signals of flexibility and concern about your willingness to address the other party's interests; (3) indicate a willingness to change your proposals if a way can be found to bridge the two parties' interests; (4) demonstrate a problem-solving capacity; (5) maintain open communication channels; (6) reaffirm what is most important to you through the use of deterrent statements; (7) reexamine any aspects of your interests that are clearly unacceptable to the other party and determine if they are still essential to your fundamental position; (8) separate and isolate contentious tactics from problem-solving behavior to better manage the contentious behavior.

Negotiators who are considering the use of deceptive tactics should ask themselves what three questions in order to evaluate the desirability of the tactic?

(1) Will this tactic really enhance my power and achieve my objective? (2) How will the use of these tactics affect the quality of my relationship with the other party in the future? (3) How will the use of these tactics affect my reputation as a negotiator?

What are the two things to keep in mind about the effect of frames on risk in negotiation (according to Neale and Bazerman)?

(1) negotiators are not usually indifferent to risk, but (2) they should not necessarily trust their intuitions regarding it. In other words, negotiators may overreact to a perceived loss when they might react more positively to the same situation if it is framed as a perceived gain. Hence, as a negotiator you must "avoid the pitfalls of being framed while, simultaneously, understanding positively and negatively framing your opponent".

What guidelines should be used in evaluating options and reaching a consensus?

1) Narrow the range of solution options; (2) evaluate solutions on the basis of quality and acceptability; (3) agree to the criteria in advance of evaluating options; (4) be willing to justify personal preferences; (5) be alert to the influence of intangibles in selecting options; (6) use subgroups to evaluate complex options; (7) take time to cool off; (8) explore different ways to logroll; (9) keep decisions tentative and conditional until all aspects of the final proposal are complete; (10) minimize formality and record keeping until final agreements are closed.

What rules should be observed to facilitate successful brainstorming?

1. avoid judging or evaluating solutions 2. separate the people from the problem 3. be exhaustive in the brainstorming process. 4. ask outsiders

23. According to Kolb and Coolidge, during a negotiation men tend to A. demarcate negotiating from other behaviors that occur in the relationship. B. perceive negotiation as part of the larger context within which it takes place. C. seek empowerment when there is interaction among all parties in the relationship. D. to engage the other in a joint exploration of ideas. E. None of the above.

30. Self-monitoring A. refers to the extent to which people are responsive to the social cues that come from the social environment. B. refers to the extent to which people perceive that they have control over events which occur. C. is considered to be a judgment about one's ability to behave effectively in a given situation. D. is the negotiator's capacity to understand the other party's point of view during a negotiation. E. None of the above describes self monitoring.

31. In which of the following examples is the communication model listed in the correct order? A) sender encodes the message, message is transmitted, receiver decodes the message, receiver provides feedback to the sender B) message is transmitted, sender encodes the message, receiver decodes the message, receiver provides feedback to the sender C) sender encodes the message, receiver decodes the message, message is transmitted, receiver provides feedback to the sender D) sender encodes the message, message is transmitted, receiver provides feedback to the sender, receiver decodes the message E) None of the above list the communication process in the correct order.

33. According to researchers on perspective-taking ability, negotiators who understand the other party's perspective will be more likely to A. form arguments that are convincing to the other party. B. maintain a distributive stance throughout the entire negotiation. C. develop high levels of trust with the other party. D. use Machiavellianism as a tool to achieve more power in the negotiation. E. Negotiators who understand the other party's perspective well will be more likely to accomplish all of the above.

33. Which of the following lists three of the major types of coalitions? A. potential coalitions, operating coalitions, and recurring coalitions B. external coalitions, operating coalitions, and recurring coalitions C. latent coalitions, established coalitions, and potential coalitions D. established coalitions, operating coalitions, and temporary coalitions E. None of the above lists three major types of coalitions.

35. What is the "paradox" of being a coalition founder? A. Early in the coalition-building process, the founder may have to give away a lot in order to apparently gain a little. B. The founder's position shifts from strength to weakness as the coalition grows. C. The founder is usually not a part of the leadership of the coalition. D. The founder's early share in the coalition is large, and grows as more members are added. E. None of the above describes the paradox of being a coalition founder.

36. Rackham's study found that during face-to-face-bargaining, superior negotiators A. made fewer immediate counterproposals. B. frequently used defend-attack cycles. C. avoided behavioral labeling. D. asked few questions. E. None of the above.

38. What are the three key stages and phases that characterize multilateral negotiations? A. the prenegotiation stage, managing the actual negotiations, and managing the agreement stage. B. the coalition building stage, the relationship development stage, the networking stage. C. the coalition building stage, the networking stage, and the actual negotiation stage. D. the prenegotiation stage, the networking stage, and the managing the agreement stage. E. None of the above lists the three key stages and phases that characterize multilateral negotiations.

41. Strategic power in coalitions A. emerges from the availability of alternative coalition partners. B. derives from what parties consider a fair or just distribution of the outcomes and results of a coalition. C. is dependent on which party's arguments ultimately shape the allocation rule used by the group. D. is shaped by the compatibility of preferences between two or more parties. E. Strategic power in coalitions is described by all of the above.

42. Intransigence can be defined as A. an unwillingness to move to any fall-back position through concession or compromise. B. the use of concession or compromise to deceive an opponent. C. a propensity to use distributive bargaining in all negotiation situations. D. the escalation of power in international negotiations. E. Intransigence can be defined as all of the above.

44. Bedfellows are parties with whom a negotiator has A. high agreement and low trust. B. low agreement and high trust. C. low agreement and low trust. D. high agreement and high trust. E. Bedfellows have none of the above characteristics.

45. Tangible factors A) include the price and terms of agreement. B) are psychological motivations that influence the negotiations. C) include the need to look good in negotiations. D) cannot be measured in quantifiable terms. E) None of the above statements describe tangible factors.

47. Interdependent parties' relationships are characterized by A) interlocking goals. B) solitary decision making. C) established procedures. D) rigid structures.

49. BATNA stands for A) best alternative to a negotiated agreement. B) best assignment to a negotiated agreement. C) best alternative to a negative agreement. D) best alternative to a negative assignment. E) BATNA stands for none of the above.

49. Power distance describes A. the extent to which the less powerful members of organizations and institutions accept and expect that power is distributed unequally. B. the extent to which the society is organized around individuals or the group. C. the extent to which cultures hold values that were traditionally perceived as masculine or feminine. D. the extent to which a culture programs its members to feel either uncomfortable or comfortable in unstructured situations. E. None of the above describes power distance.

52. Schneider suggests what options for handling offensive behavior? A. ignoring it, confronting it, deflecting it, engaging it B. ignoring it, manipulating it, responding in kind, engaging it C. manipulating it, confronting it, responding in kind, engaging it D. confronting it, deflecting it, responding in kind, engaging it E. Schneider suggests none of the above options for handling offensive behavior.

52. The target point is the A) point at which a negotiator would like to conclude negotiations. B) negotiator's bottom line. C) first offer a negotiator quotes to his opponent. D) initial price set by the seller. E) None of the above describes the target point.

53. Only one of the approaches to ethical reasoning has as its central tenet that actions are more right if they promote more happiness, more wrong as they produce unhappiness. Which approach applies? A) End-result ethics. B) Duty ethics. C) Social context ethics. D) Personalistic ethics. E) Reasoning ethics.

53. Starting points A) are usually contained in the opening statements each negotiator makes. B) are usually learned or inferred as negotiations get under way. C) are not known to the other party. D) are given up as concessions are made. E) None of the above describes starting points.

54. The dominant purpose of mediation and process consultation is to A. enhance the parties' dispute resolution skills. B. encourage the parties to "agree to disagree." C. encourage the parties to surrender control over the outcome of their dispute to the third party's best judgment. D. achieve a satisfactory dispute resolution at any cost. E. None of the above states the dominant purpose of mediation and process consultation.

54. The objective of both parties in distributive bargaining is to obtain as much of which of the following as possible? A) bargaining range B) resistance point C) target point D) bargaining mix E) None of the above.

55. Which of the following strategies should negotiators with a low familiarity with the other culture choose? A. employ agents or advisers B. adapt to the other party's approach C. coordinate adjustment D. embrace the other party's approach E. Negotiators with a low familiarity with the other culture should not choose any of the above strategies.

56. Constructive bargaining relationships are typically marked by conditions of A. high trust. B. high distrust. C. high vigilance. D. high monitoring behaviors. E. Constructive bargaining relationships are typically not marked by any of the above conditions.

56. Substantive interests A) are the interests that relate to the focal issues under negotiation. B) are related to the way we settle the dispute. C) mean that one or both parties value their relationship with each other and do not want to take actions that will damage the relationship. D) regard what is fair, what is right, what is acceptable, what is ethical, or what has been done in the past and should be done in the future. E) All of the above relate to substantive interests.

57. What is the implication of the dilemma of trust? A) We believe everything the other says and can be manipulated by their dishonesty. B) We do not believe anything the other says and therefore are immune to their dishonesty. C) We tell the other party our exact requirements and limits in negotiation, and therefore we will never do better than this minimum level. D) We never reveal our requirements and limits in negotiation, and therefore are able to far exceed that minimum level. E) None of the above describes the implication of the dilemma of trust.

58. A large majority of agreements in distributive bargaining are reached when the deadline is A) near. B) flexible. C) past. D) undefined. E) None of the above.

58. Direct analogies are those in which A. the problem is placed or examined in a totally different field of information. B. the problem is restated in terms of a party's fantasized or wished-for state. C. a party puts himself or herself in the problem situation, attempting to identify with it or empathize with those in the situation. D. a different, often graphic image is conjured up to focus attention and provide a starting point for more open discussion. E. None of the above describes direct analogies.

58. Negotiators pursuing the yielding strategy A) show little interest or concern in whether they attain their own outcomes, but are quite interested in whether the other party attains his or her outcomes. B) pursue their own outcome strongly and shows little concern for whether the other party obtains his or her desired outcome. C) shows little interest or concern in whether they attain their own outcomes, and does not show much concern about whether the other party obtains his or her outcomes. D) show high concern for attaining their own outcomes and high concern for whether the other attains his or her outcomes. E) Negotiators pursuing the yielding strategy demonstrate none of the above behaviors.

58. Successful logrolling requires A) that the parties establish more than one issue in conflict and then agree to trade off among these issues so one party achieves a highly preferred outcome on the first issue and the other person achieves a highly preferred outcome on the second issue. B) no additional information about the other party than his/her interests, and assumes that simply enlarging the resources will solve the problem. C) that one party is allowed to obtain his/her objectives and he/she then "pays off" the other party for accommodating his/her interests. D) a fundamental reformulation of the problem such that the parties are disclosing sufficient information to discover their interests and needs and then inventing options that will satisfy both parties' needs. E) Successful logrolling requires all of the above.

58. The chilling effect states that A. if negotiators anticipate that their own failure to agree will lead to a binding arbitration, they lose their incentive to work seriously for a negotiated settlement. B. when arbitration is anticipated as a result of the failure of parties to agree, negotiators may lose interest in the process of negotiating. C. as the frequency of arbitration increases, disenchantment with the adequacy and fairness of the process develops, and the parties may resort to other means to resolve their disputes. D. perceived patterns of partiality toward one side may jeopardize the arbitrator's acceptability in future disputes. E. The chilling effect states all of the above.

59. The "embrace the other party's approach" strategy involves A. adopting completely the approach of the other party. B. both parties making mutual adjustments to find a common process for negotiation. C. creating a new approach that may include aspects of either home culture or practices from a third culture. D. persuading the other party to use your approach. E. The "embrace the other party's approach" strategy involves all of the above.

60. When working to create a new approach that may include aspects of either home culture or adopt practices from a third culture, negotiators are using what approach? A. effect symphony B. improvise an approach C. embrace the other party's approach D. employ agents or advisors E. Negotiators are using all of the above approaches.

61. Research has shown that negotiators use what two forms of deception in misrepresenting the common value issue? A) misrepresentation by omission and misrepresentation by commission B) misrepresentation by permission and misrepresentation by omission C) misrepresentation by admission and misrepresentation by permission D) misrepresentation by admission and misrepresentation by commission E) None of the above forms of deception are used in misrepresenting the common value issue.

61. What questions can be asked to facilitate nonspecific compensation? A) What are the other party's goals and values? B) How can both parties get what they are demanding? C) What issues are of higher and lower priority to me? D) What risks and costs does my proposal create for the other? E) None of the above can be used to facilitate nonspecific compensation.

64. When using the justification that "the tactic was unavoidable," the negotiator is saying that A) the negotiator was not in full control of his or her actions and hence should not be held responsible. B) what the negotiator did was really trivial and not very significant. C) the tactic helped to avoid greater harm. D) the quality of the tactic should be judged by its consequences. E) The justification that "the tactic was unavoidable" implies all of the above.

67. Parties who are in disputes that are marked by __________ tend to respond well to forceful, proactive mediation behaviors. A. high intensity and high levels of interparty hostility B. low intensity and high levels of interparty hostility C. high intensity and low levels of interparty hostility D. low intensity and low levels of interparty hostility E. Parties in disputes marked by all of the above respond well to proactive mediation behaviors.

69. Which of the following is not necessary for integrative negotiation to succeed? A) Each party should be as interested in the objectives and problems of the other as each is in his/her own—each must assume responsibility for the other's needs and outcomes as well as for his/her own. B) The parties must be committed to a goal that benefits both of them rather than to pursuing only their own ends. C) The parties must be willing to adopt interpersonal styles that are more congenial than combative, more open and trusting than evasive and defensive, more flexible (but firm) than stubborn (but yielding). D) Needs have to be made explicit, similarities have to be identified, and differences have to be recognized and accepted. E) All of the above are essential for integrative negotiation to succeed.

70. According to Zubek, Pruitt, Pierce, McGillicuddy and Syna, mediator behaviors positively related to successful mediation include: A. demonstrating empathy. B. providing reassurance. C. displaying expertise. D. keeping order. E. Effective mediation behaviors include all of the above.

70. Which of the following statements about situational influences on unethical conduct is true? A) The negotiator's past relationship will affect current behavior if the parties have been previously competitive or cooperative. B) Negotiators were more likely to make more deceptive arguments, negotiate for a longer period of time, and make fewer concessions to the counterpart they previously experienced as cooperative compared to one who had been exploitative. C) Negotiators with less power are more likely to abuse what power they have by using less ethical tactics. D) An individual who confuses private ethics with business morality makes an effective negotiator. E) None of the above statements about situational influences on unethical conduct is True.

71. Negotiators who make threats A) are perceived as more powerful than negotiators who do not use threats. B) receive higher outcomes than negotiators who do not use threats. C) are perceived as more cooperative in distributive negotiations. D) should use detailed, complex statements of demands, conditions and consequences.

72. In inquisitorial intervention A. a manager exerts high control over both the process and the decision. B. a manager exerts high control over the decision, but not the process. C. a manager exerts low control over the decision, but high control over the process. D. a manager does not exert control over the decision, and only a small amount of control over the process. E. None of the above describes inquisitorial intervention.

75. Which of the following 5-step processes has been used successfully in a collective bargaining situation? A) commitment, explanation, validation, prioritization, negotiation B) commitment, exploration, verification, prioritization, negotiation C) collaboration, explanation, validation, prioritization, negotiation D) collaboration, exploration, verification, prioritization, negotiation E) None of the above processes have been used in collective bargaining.

75. Which of the following is heavily involved in helping to establish or enhance communication and dispute resolution skills that the parties can then apply to the immediate dispute and future communication? A. Process consultants B. Arbitrators C. ADR systems D. Mediators E. All of the above

Accommodative strategies emphasize: A) Subordinating one's own goals in favor of those of others. B) Secrecy and defensiveness C) Abandonment of bad images and consideration of ideas based on merit D) A key attitude of "I win; you lose" E) All of the above

Does any of the following represent the point at which we realistically expect to achieve a settlement? A. specific target point B. resistance point C. alternative D. asking price E. none of the above

The general structure of a phase model of negotiations involves: A) Three phases: initiation; problem-solving; resolution B) Four phases: pre-initiation; initiation; problem-solving; resolution C) Two phases: problem-solving and resolution D) None of the above

The less concrete and measurable goals are: A. the harder it is to communicate to the other party what we want B. the easier it is to understand what your opponent wants C. the easier it is to determine whether a particular outcome satisfies our goals D. the harder it is to restate what the initial goal was E. all of the above

What are the most critical precursors for achieving negotiation objectives? A. effective strategizing and planning B. goal setting and target planning C. defining frames and setting goals D. framing and strategizing E. none of the above

Define distributive bargaining.

A competition over who is going to get the most of a limited resource (often money).

What are concessions?

A concession has been made when one party agrees to make a change in his or her position. Concessions restrict the range of options within which a solution or agreement will be reached.

Define goal.

A goal is a specific, focused realistic target that one can specifically plan to achieve.

What are the three properties of commitment statements?

A high degree of finality, a high degree of specificity, and a clear statement of consequences

What is a drawback of accommodation strategies?

Accommodation strategies may generate a pattern of constantly giving in to keep the other happy or to avoid a fight.

____________ strategies may generate a pattern of constantly giving in to keep the other happy or to avoid a fight.

Accommodative

What are the advantages and disadvantages of limiting a negotiator's authority?

Advantages: Negotiators kept on a "short leash" cannot be won over by a persuasive presentation to commit their constituency to something that is not wanted. They cannot give out sensitive information carelessly. Disadvantages: When a negotiator always has to "check things out" with those he represents, the other party may refuse to continue until someone who has the power to answer questions and make decisions is brought to the table. The limited authority may frustrate the other and create an unproductive tension in the negotiating relationship.

____________ are important because they give the negotiator power to walk away from any negotiation when the emerging deal is not very good.

Alternatives

____________ are other agreements negotiators could achieve and still meet their needs.

Alternatives

Why is analogical learning an especially powerful way to learn about integrative negotiation?

Analogical learning involves the direct comparison of different negotiation examples to identify and understand the underlying principles and structure of the negotiation.

22. It is important negotiators consider the shadow negotiation carefully before meeting with the other party so they A. understand where the boundaries of the current negotiations are and should be. B. are clear in their own minds about the scope of the negotiations. C. understand how they would ideally like to work with the other party. D. determine what ground the negotiation is going to cover and how the negotiators are going to work together. E. understand that all of the above are important to the shadow negotiations.

22. Which theoretical finding about the role of women in negotiations is not true? A. Women may place a greater emphasis on interaction goals (the interpersonal aspects of the negotiations). B. Women's conceptualization of power may make them less comfortable than men with integrative versus distributive negotiation. C. Women were more likely to perceive conflict episodes in relationship terms. D. Women in negotiations are often treated worse than men during negotiations. E. Women using the same negotiation tactic that men used were less successful than men.

23. Strategic levers available to help people navigate the shadow negotiation include power moves, appreciative moves and one other of the following. A. collaborative moves B. process moves C. pressure moves D. social moves E. perspective moves

25. A tactic that is ignored is essentially a tactic A. pressed. B. defeated. C. converted. D. exchanged. E. reserved.

25. Using dialogue to convince the other party that their position is correct and to support various tactics and ploys that are used to win points during the discussion is a characteristic of A. female negotiators. B. male negotiators. C. both male and female negotiators. D. neither male nor female negotiators. E. Either male or female negotiators, but not during the same negotiation.

26. As identified by Thomas' research, the accommodating style is A. high on assertiveness and low on cooperativeness. B. low on assertiveness and high on cooperativeness. C. high on assertiveness and high on cooperativeness. D. low on assertiveness and low on cooperativeness. E. None of the above describes the accommodating style.

26. Responding when the other side has more power, negotiators can utilize all but one of the following alternatives. A. Correct the power imbalance. B. Introduce ultimatums. C. Cultivate their best alternative to a negotiated agreement (BATNA). D. Formulate a "trip wire alert system." E. Protect themselves.

29. The extent to which people perceive that they have control over events that occur is called A. self monitoring. B. locus of control. C. Machiavellianism. D. the negotiator's degree of assertiveness. E. None of the above describes the extent to which people perceive that they have control over events that occur.

32. A coalition is determined by the commitment of its members to A. meet on a regular basis. B. collectively focus their action on an intended target. C. the formal hierarchy of the coalition. D. maintain regular and accurate communication. E. A coalition is determined by the commitment of its members to all of the above.

34. In multiparty negotiations, research shows that parties who approached multiple issues simultaneously: A. achieved lower quality agreements. B. increased the likelihood of achieving agreement. C. exchanged less information. D. have less insight into the preferences and priorities of the other parties at the table. E. Research shows that parties who approached multiple issues simultaneously achieved all of the above.

36. Coalitions build by A. organizing members through formal meetings. B. adding one member at a time. C. mobilizing departments or divisions. D. unification in a single, defining event. E. Coalitions are built by all of the above.

36. Define exonerating circumstances. A) Negotiators suggest that they had no choice in taking the positions they did. B) Negotiators explain their positions from a broader perspective, suggesting that while their current position may appear negative it derives from positive motives. C) Outcomes can be explained by changing the context. D) Negotiators who use multiple explanations are more likely to have better outcomes. E) None of the above can define exonerating circumstances.

37. The "joining threshold" is A. the total number of people who can join a specific coalition. B. the level where a minimum number of people have joined a coalition and others begin to join because they recognize that their current friends and associates are already members. C. the minimum number of people required for a coalition to be successful. D. the level at which a new member must "pay" in order to join the coalition. E. None of the above defines the joining threshold.

41. Which of the following are types of manageable questions? A) close-out questions that force the other party into seeing things your way B) leading questions that point toward an answer C) impulse questions that occur "on the spur of the moment," without planning D) loaded questions that put the other party on the spot regardless of his/her answer E) None of the above are types of manageable questions.

41. Which of the following results can occur when a negotiation becomes derailed? A. The parties share interests and opinions. B. Perceptions become distorted and judgments are biased. C. Integrative negotiation is effectively used by both parties. D. The parties maintain open lines of communication. E. All of the above situations occur when negotiations become derailed.

42. To most people the words "bargaining" and "negotiation" are A) mutually exclusive. B) interchangeable. C) not related. D) interdependent. E) None of the above.

43. Allies can be defined as A. people with whom a negotiator has conflicting goals and objectives, but who can be trusted to be principled and candid in their opposition. B. parties who are in agreement with their goals and vision, and whom the negotiator trusts. C. parties with whom a negotiator has high agreement on the vision or objectives, but low to moderate levels of trust. D. negotiators who are low in agreement and low in trust. E. None of the above statements defines allies.

43. Halo effects occur when A) attributes are assigned to an individual solely on the basis of his or her membership in a particular social or demographic group. B) people generalize about a variety of attributes based on the knowledge of one attribute of an individual. C) the perceiver singles out certain information that supports or reinforces a prior belief, and filters out information that does not confirm that belief. D) people ascribe to others the characteristics or feelings that they possess themselves. E) All of the above describe halo effects.

45. A moderator who sends out a questionnaire to all parties asking for input is one strategy used to avoid destructive conflict and emotion. That strategy is known as A. nominal group technique. B. the Delphi technique. C. brainstorming. D. the consensus technique. E. the compromise technique.

45. Research supports which conclusion about role reversal? A) Role reversal is effective in producing cognitive changes but not attitude changes. B) When parties' positions are fundamentally compatible with one another, role reversal is likely to produce better results. C) When parties' positions are fundamentally incompatible; role reversal may dull the perceptions of incompatibility. D) Role reversal leads to easier resolutions of conflict, particularly when accurate communication reveals a fundamental incompatibility in the positions of the two sides. E) All of the above conclusions are supported by research.

46. Which of the following is not an intangible factor in a negotiation? A) the need to look good B) final agreed price on a contract C) the desire to book more business D) fear of setting a precedent

46. Which of the following is not one of Janosik's four ways that culture is used in international negotiation? A. culture as learned behavior B. culture as economic indicator C. culture as shared values D. culture as dialectic E. Each of the above is one of Janosik's four ways that culture is used in international negotiation.

47. The "culture-as-shared-value" approach A. concentrates on documenting the systematic negotiation behavior of people in different cultures. B. concentrates on understanding the central values and norms of a culture and then building a model for how these norms and values influence negotiations within that culture. C. recognizes that all cultures contain dimensions or tensions among their different values. D. recognizes that no human behavior is determined by a single cause. E. All of the above are elements of the "culture as shared" value approach.

48. A zero-sum situation is also known by another name of a situation. Which of the following is that? A) integrative B) distributive C) win-lose D) negotiative E) None of the above.

48. Which is one of the six conflict-reduction strategies that can be applied in contentious situations used to resolve impasses? A. reinforcing tension in order to escalate hostility to the "breaking point" B. enhancing the desirability of the options and alternatives that each party presents C. limiting communications to the minimum necessary for continued negotiations D. allowing an unlimited number of issues to become part of the negotiations E. All of the above are conflict reduction strategies that can be used to resolve disputes in difficult negotiations.

51. The concept of "duty ethics" states that A) the rightness of an action is determined by evaluating the pros and cons of its consequences. B) the rightness of an action is determined by existing laws and contemporary social standards that define what is right and wrong and where the line is. C) the rightness of an action is based on the customs and norms of a particular society or community. D) the rightness of an action is based on one's conscience and moral standards. E) None of the above defines "duty ethics."

34. ___________________ are emergent interest groups that have not yet formed into an operating coalition. A. Informal coalitions B. Formal coalitions C. Latent coalitions D. Dormant coalitions E. All of the above are emergent interest groups that have not yet formed into an operating coalition.

51. Which of the following is not an element of integrative negotiations? A) a focus on commonalties B) an attempt to address positions C) a required exchange of information and ideas D) the use of objective criteria for standards of performance E) All of the above are elements of integrative negotiations.

53. According to Graham, which of the following statements would be characteristic of a Japanese negotiator? A. Higher profits are associated with making opponents feel uncomfortable. B. Higher profits are achieved by making opponents feel comfortable. C. The use of powerful and deceptive strategies is more likely to receive higher outcomes. D. Representational strategies are negatively related to profits. E. None of the above is characteristics of a Japanese negotiator.

53. In the imaging process, parties in conflict are asked to engage in the following activities in what order? A. describe how they see themselves, state how they think the other party would describe them, describe how the other party appears to them, state how they think the other party sees themselves B. describe how they see themselves, describe how the other party appears to them, state how they think the other party would describe them, state how they think the other party sees themselves C. describe how the other party appears to them, state how they think the other party sees themselves, describe how they see themselves, state how they think the other party would describe them D. state how they think the other party would describe them, state how they think the other party sees themselves, describe how they see themselves, describe how the other party appears to them E. In the imaging process, parties can engage in the above activities in any order they choose.

53. Intervention by a third party may signal that A. the parties have built a successful relationship. B. the parties have failed to build a relationship or manage their interdependence positively. C. the parties have grown into negotiation partners. D. the parties have successfully resolved a dispute. E. Intervention by a third party signals all of the above.

53. Which of the following statements about conflict is true? A) Conflict is the result of tangible factors. B) Conflict can occur when two parties are working toward the same goal and generally want the same outcome. C) Conflict only occurs when both parties want a very different settlement. D) Conflict has a minimal effect on interdependent relationships.

54. A doctor facing the moral dilemma between a mandate to save lives and the mandate to relieve undue suffering for those whose lives cannot be saved is an example of: A) end-result ethics. B) duty ethics. C) social contract ethics. D) personalistic ethics. E) utilitarian ethics.

54. In which major step of the integrative negotiation process of identifying and defining the problem would you likely find that if the problem is complex and multifaceted the parties may not even be able to agree on a statement of the problem? A) define the problem in a way that is mutually acceptable to both sides. B) state the problem with an eye toward practicality and comprehensiveness. C) state the problem as a goal and identify the obstacles to attaining this goal. D) depersonalizing the problem. E) separate the problem definition from the search for solutions.

55. The resistance point is established by the expected from a particular outcome, which is in turn the product of the and of an outcome. A) cost, value, worth B) value, worth, cost C) value, cost and timeliness D) cost, importance, value E) None of the above.

55. Which of the following contribute to conflict's destructive image? A) increased communication B) misperception and bias C) clarifying issues D) minimized differences; magnified similarities

56. An interest is instrumental if A) the parties value it because it helps them derive other outcomes in the future. B) the parties value the interest in and of itself. C) it relates to "tangible issues" or the focal issues under negotiation. D) the relationship is valued for both its existence and for the pleasure that sustaining the relationship creates. E) All of the above relate to instrumental interests.

57. Formal intervention methods are A. third party roles and behaviors that are incidental to other primary roles. B. intentionally designed and generally follow a set of rules or standards. C. third party actions that follow a rigid, structured procedure and set of rules. D. third party actions implemented as part of an organizational hierarchy. E. None of the above defines formal intervention methods.

57. The collaborative ideal of high trust/low distrust refers to A. each party's expectations of a competitive motivational orientation from the other. B. patterns of predictable behavior from each other and will cooperate. C. minimal commitment to problem-solving behavior. D. a negotiation which is best suited to distributive bargaining. E. The collaborative ideal of high trust/low distrust refers to all of the above.

59. Negative emotions may lead parties to A) more integrative processes B) escalate the conflict C) promote persistence D) define the situation as integrative E) more integrative outcomes

61. Mediators A. have the same power as arbitrators. B. have no formal power over outcomes. C. have the authority to resolve the dispute on their own. D. have the power to impose a solution. E. Mediators have all of the above characteristics.

62. Incidences in cheating in the Boston Marathon included all but one motive. Which one was not identified as a motive for cheating in the race? A) Some cheaters were angry or disturbed. B) Some cheaters were seeking family approval. C) Some cheaters were middle-aged males. D) Some cheaters were after recognition. E) Some cheaters were simply "caught up in the moment."

63. Good distributive bargainers will A) begin negotiations with the other party with an opening offer close to their own resistance point. B) ensure that there is enough room in the bargaining range to make some concessions. C) accept an offer that is presented as a fait accompli. D) immediately identify the other party's target point.

63. Moore states that in the premediation stages, the mediator is attempting to A. define issues and set an agenda. B. establish relationships with the disputing parties. C. generate options for settlement. D. uncover hidden interests of the disputing parties. E. In the premediation stages, the mediator is attempting to accomplish all of the above.

65. The compensation form of mediation strategy involves A. a high concern for parties' aspirations and a high perception of common ground. B. a high concern for parties' aspirations and a low perception of common ground. C. a low concern for parties' aspirations and a high perception of common ground. D. a low concern for parties' aspirations and a low perception of common ground. E. The compensation form of mediation strategy involves none of the above.

65. When confronted with complex problems, or a large number of alternative options, which of the following steps is necessary? A) broaden the range of solution options B) evaluate solutions on the basis of quality, standards, and acceptability C) decide on criteria while evaluating options D) maintain a focus on the influence of tangibles in selecting options E) All of the above steps should be used when confronted with complex problems.

66. Which of the following personality traits can most strongly predict the predisposition to behave unethically? A) cooperativeness B) Machiavellianism C) locus of control D) moral development E) None of the above can predict the predisposition to behave unethically.

67. A common goal is one in which A) all parties share the result equally B) the parties work toward a common end but benefit differently C) all parties work together to achieve some output that will be shared D) individuals with different personal goals agree to combine them in a collective effort. E) All of the above are characteristics of a common goal.

67. When successive concessions get smaller, the most obvious message is that A) the negotiator is reaching the fatigue point. B) the resistance point is being reached. C) the concession maker's position is weakening. D) the negotiator has passed the resistance point. E) None of the above.

69. Which was not one of the findings of a recent study? A) If told to "do your best," partied reported less honestly than if they had a specific goal to meet B) Participants who had to meet specific goals were more likely to overstate their productivity than those without C) Participants who had to meet specific goals were more likely to overstate their success when their actual performance was closer to the goal D) Participants who had to meet specific goals were more likely to overstate in those situations where they thought they "deserved" the reward based on overall productivity.

70. A commitment statement should have a A) low degree of finality. B) high degree of specificity. C) an indefinite statement of consequences. D) a high degree of emotionality. E) None of the above should be included in a commitment statement.

71. Which of the following factors does not contribute to the development of trust between negotiators? A) We are more likely to trust someone we perceive as similar to us or as holding a positive attitude toward us. B) We often mistrust people who are dependent upon us because we are in a position to help or hurt them. C) We are more likely to trust people who initiate cooperative, trusting behavior. D) We are more likely to trust negotiators who make concessions. E) All of the above contribute to the development of trust between negotiators.

72. Which of the following statements about group and organizational norms is false? A) Job related pressures within particular work groups, departments, or divisions may be such that marginally ethical behavior is not only tolerated, but even condoned. B) The more loyalty and commitment people feel toward an organization, the less that loyalty may be abused. C) Organizations may exert direct pressures on an individual to breach ethics or even break the law in the service of achieving some corporate or organizational goal. D) The pressures of escalating commitment may predispose parties to commit more unethical actions. E) All of the above statements about group and organizational norms are True.

74. Preventive ADR systems A. are mechanisms for the parties to resolve their own disputes without the help of any third party. B. are systems that companies establish to prevent disputes. C. provide a third party neutral who assists the parties in negotiating a resolution. D. use the technical expertise of a third party to determine the facts in a specific situation and how the facts should be interpreted in the case. E. None of the above describes preventive ADR systems.

74. When using the "altered information" tactic to detect deception, one should A) try to get the other to admit a small or partial lie about some information and use this to push for admission of a larger lie. B) exaggerate what you believe is the deception and state it, hoping that the other will jump in to "correct" the statement. C) point out behaviors you detect in the other which might be an indication they are lying. D) indicate one's true concern for the other's welfare. E) None of the above actions would be used as part of the altered information tactic.

75. The negotiator's basic strategy is to A) get information about the opposition and its positions. B) reach the final settlement as close to the other's resistance point as possible. C) convince members of the other party to change their minds about their ability to achieve their own goals. D) promote his or her own objectives as desirable, necessary, and inevitable.

A strong interest in achieving only the relationship outcomes suggests one, if any, of the following strategies. Which one? A) competitive B) accommodation C) collaborative D) avoidance E) none of the above

The individualism/collectivism dimension describes A. the extent to which the less powerful members of organizations and institutions accept and expect that power is distributed unequally. B. the extent to which the society is organized around individuals or the group. C. the extent to which cultures hold values that were traditionally perceived as masculine or feminine. D. the extent to which a culture programs its members to feel either uncomfortable or comfortable in unstructured situations. E. None of the above describes the individualism/collectivism dimension.

What is the dominant force for success in negotiation? A) a distributive vs. integrative strategy B) the planning that takes place prior to the dialogue C) the discussions that precede planning sessions D) the tactics selected in support of strategic goals E) all of the above

What is the primary determinant for success in negotiation? A. a distributive vs. integrative strategy B. the planning that takes place prior to the dialogue C. the discussions that precede planning sessions D. the tactics selected in support of strategic goals E. all of the above

Which is not a difference between strategy and tactics? A. Scale B. Goals C. Perspective D. Immediacy E. Adaptation

Define ethics.

Broadly applied social standards for what is right or wrong in a particular situation, or the process for setting those standards.

21. Negotiators always run the risk of encountering other parties who, for any number of reasons, are difficult negotiators. That difficulty may be intentional or due to A. inexperience. B. philosophical differences. C. inadequate skill. D. lack of sophistication. E. a psychological imbalance.

21. Research on gender characteristics in negotiation A. has shown a strength in the use of sex as the independent variable. B. has yielded consistent findings to document significant differences between male and female negotiators. C. has found there are differences in how males and females negotiate, but these differences are difficult to detect. D. has a generalized influence on the dependent variables in a negotiation. E. All of the above are results of research on gender characteristics in negotiation.

35. One-on-one negotiations in full view of all group members would have all but one of the following consequences on negotiators. Which one would not be a consequence? A. Negotiators who have some way to control the number of parties at the table (or even in the room) may begin to act strategically. B. Since the exchanges are under surveillance negotiators will be sensitive to being observed and may feel the need to be tough. C. Negotiators can simply choose to ignore the complexity of the three or more parties and proceed strategically as a two-party negotiation. D. Negotiators can explicitly engage in coalition building as a way to marshal support. E. Negotiators will have to find satisfactory ways to explain modification of their positions.

Which represents the best deal we can possibly hope to achieve? A) specific target point B) resistance point C) alternative D) asking price E) none of the above

24. According to Kolb and Coolidge, during a negotiation women tend to A. use dialogue to convince the other party that their position is correct. B. demarcate negotiating from other behaviors that occur in the relationship. C. seek empowerment when there is interaction among all parties in the relationship. D. use power to achieve their own goals. E. All of the above.

27. An ultimatum is an attempt to induce compliance or force concessions from a presumably recalcitrant A. group. B. arbitrator. C. opponent. D. team member. E. cooperator.

27. Identify the one result from among the following empirical findings on gender differences that is not true. A. Men and women conceive of negotiations in different ways. B. Men and women communicate differently in negotiation. C. Men and women are treated similarly in negotiation. D. Men and women can use the same tactics to different effects. E. Men and women stereotypes affect negotiator performance.

28. Women tend to fare worse on salary negotiations because: A. they tend to ask for higher salaries during interviews. B. they tend to accept what is offered them. C. they tend to not ask for more. D. they tend to anticipate a hypothetical salary. E. they tend to become overly involved with salary negotiations.

32. Encoding can be defined as A) the facts, ideas, feelings, reactions, or thoughts that exist within individuals and act as a set of filters for interpreting the decoded messages. B) the process by which messages are put into symbolic form. C) the process of translating messages from their symbolic form into a form that makes sense. D) the process by which the receiver reacts to the sender's message. E) Decoding can be defined as all of the above.

34. "Interpretation" can be defined as A) the process by which the receiver reacts to the sender's message. B) the process of screening, selecting, and interpreting stimuli so that they have meaning to the individual. C) the facts, ideas, feelings, reactions, or thoughts that exist within individuals and act as a set of filters for interpreting the decoded messages. D) small amounts of perceptual information that are used to draw large conclusions about individuals. E) None of the above define "interpretation."

34. What results were found in studies conducted on perspective-taking ability? A. Negotiators with higher perspective-taking ability negotiated contracts of lower value that did negotiators with lower perspective-taking ability. B. Perspective-taking ability may influence the negotiation process by decreasing the concession rate of the other negotiator. C. Perspective takers are better able to uncover the underlying interests shared by two parties, and to come to more creative solutions. D. The mean perspective-taking ability score of the negotiation pairs was negatively correlated with their joint outcomes. E. None of the above results about perspective-taking ability were found to be accurate.

36. There are five ways in which the complexity increases as three or more parties simultaneously engage in negotiation. One of those listed below is not a correct statement. Which one? A. There are simply more parties involved in the negotiation. B. More parties bring more issues and positions to the table, and thus more perspectives must be presented and discussed. C. When negotiations become socially more complex, the social norms emerge that affect member participation, which reduces the stronger pressures to conform and suppress disagreement. D. As the negotiations become procedurally more complex, the parties may have to negotiate a new process that allows them to coordinate their actions more effectively. E. As the negotiations become more strategically complex, the parties must monitor the moves and actions of several other parties in determining what each will do next.

38. Gibbons, Bradac, and Busch suggest that threats can be made more credible and more compelling by using A) positively polarized descriptions of the other party. B) low immediacy. C) high intensity. D) low verbal diversity. E) None of the above can make threats more credible and compelling.

39. Those advocating a need allocation standard argue that A. those who contributed more should receive more, in proportion to the magnitude of their contribution. B. everyone should receive the same outcome. C. parties should receive more in proportion to some demonstrated need for a larger share. D. decision rules in coalitions should be made on an individual, case-by-case basis. E. Those advocating a need standard argue for all of the above.

39. Which of the following is not one of the four biases that threaten e-mail negotiations? A) Temporal synchrony bias is the tendency for e-mail negotiators to behave as if they are in a synchronous situation when they are not (parties are not working on the same time frame). B) Sinister attribution bias occurs when one mistakenly assumes that another's behavior is caused by personality flaws, while overlooking the role of situational factors (dissimilarity between parties and shortage of rapport may exist among e-mail lead individuals to project sinister and deceitful motives onto the other party). C) Impasse in e-mail negotiations bias is the tendency for the negotiators to disclose personal information through e-mail about themselves and the issues with the other party (no mutual self-disclosure on the part of the out-group party). D) Burned bridge bias is the tendency for individuals to employ risky behavior during e-mail negotiations that they would not use during a face-to-face encounter (negotiators may be more willing to challenge the other party). E) Squeaky wheel bias is the tendency for e-mail negotiators to use a negative emotional style to achieve their goals (resort to intimidation, rude behavior, poor etiquette to achieve outcomes).

42. According to Salacuse, which of the following is not a factor in the environmental context of negotiations? A. political and legal pluralism B. foreign governments and bureaucracies C. relative bargaining power D. international economic factors E. All of the above are factors in the environmental context of negotiations.

42. Block argues that authentic tactics require parties to A. say "yes" when they mean "no." B. share only the information that is relevant to the issue at hand. C. use language that describes reality. D. reposition their endorsement or support for the sake of acceptance. E. Authentic tactics require parties to do all of the above.

42. Which of the following lists the stages of the perceptual process in the correct order? A) stimulus, translation, attention, recognition, behavior B) stimulus, behavior, translation, attention, recognition C) stimulus, attention, recognition, translation, behavior D) behavior, stimulus, recognition, attention, translation E) None of the above lists the stages of the perceptual process in the correct order.

42. Which of the following questions should not be asked as part of the requirements for building a relationship in the connect model? A. Can we agree to have a constructive conversation? B. Can our conversation be productive enough to make a difference? C. Can we restructure the agreement to include the original issue? D. Can we all commit to making improvements? E. Can we understand and appreciate each other's perspective?

60. Brett, Barsness and Goldberg found that mediation, when compared to arbitration, A. was more costly. B. was more time-consuming. C. produced greater disputant satisfaction. D. was more complicated to implement. E. Brett, Barsness and Goldberg found that mediation was all of the above.

43. In passive listening A) the receivers restate or paraphrase the sender's message in their own language. B) the receivers interject responses to keep communicators sending messages. C) the receiver provides no feedback to the sender about the accuracy or completeness of reception. D) senders may misinterpret acknowledgments as the receiver's agreement with their position, rather than that they are simply receiving the message. E) None of the above occurs in passive listening.

44. During the information management phase, coordinators A. "patrol" the environment and bring in relevant external information that may be useful to the group. B. represent a formal link to some important constituency and help to acquire resources the group needs to continue to operate. C. provide a more formal link between the group members and the constituencies they represent. D. are specifically designated to keep some information inside the group and assure that there are no leaks or premature disclosures of key information or discussions. E. Coordinators accomplish all of the above.

44. Successful reflective responding can be characterized by A) a greater emphasis on speaking than listening. B) responding to abstract rather than personal points. C) following the other rather than leading him or her into areas that the listener thinks should be explored. D) suggesting or questioning what the speaker should be thinking or feeling. E) All of the above are characteristics of reflective responding.

44. Which is not a characteristic of a negotiation or bargaining situation? A) conflict between parties B) two or more parties involved C) an established set of rules D) a voluntary process E) None of the above is a characteristic of a negotiation.

44. Which of the following makes a negotiation more intractable? A. The parties themselves are well organized B. The conflict frequently de-escalates C. The parties themselves are unorganized, loosely connected, and lacking structure D. The social system from which the parties come is clearly structured E. There is general consensus on underlying values, but a disagreement on how resources are to be allocated

45. Frames are important in negotiation because A) they allow parties to develop separate definitions of the issues B) they can be avoided C) disputes are often nebulous and open to different interpretations D) do not allow negotiators to articulate an aspect of a complex social situation E) all of the above

45. Which of the following factors most influences relative bargaining power? A. the extent to which negotiators frame the negotiation differently B. tangible and intangible factors C. management control D. personal motivations of external stakeholders E. None of the above factors influence relative bargaining power.

46. In which type of frame would parties be more likely to engage primarily in distributive (win-lose or lose-lose) negotiations than in other types? A) Identity B) Loss-gain C) Outcome D) Process E) Substantive

46. Smyth suggests that the most intractable situations occur A. when a change in the power balance is at stake, and for which there are firmly agreed-upon social institutions for dealing with the power change. B. when the power relationship does not change, and for which there are firmly agreed-upon social institutions for dealing with the power change. C. the perceived need to negotiate simultaneously about change in power and the applicable, appropriate institutions for maintaining that power shift. D. when the power relationship does not change, and for which there are no agreed-upon social institutions for dealing with the power change. E. Smyth suggests that the most intractable situations occur in all of the above circumstances.

50. In the GRIT strategy for synchronized de-escalation, A. the party who desires to withdraw from the negotiation initiates the action. B. unilateral actions are required of both sides. C. a negotiator makes a concession and states that it is part of a deliberate strategy to reduce tension. D. each party makes a concession only when he or she knows that the opposing party will reciprocate in kind. E. All of the above are elements of the GRIT strategy.

51. Role reversal A. is applicable and useful only in integrative bargaining situations. B. is only useful in sharpening the differences between actual positions. C. helps negotiators place themselves in the other party's shoes. D. gives the negotiator inside information about the opposing negotiator's strategy. E. None of the above is true of role reversal.

51. Third-party intervention should be avoided A. when passions are high. B. when the parties are at an impasse on the issues. C. when progress is occurring or is likely to occur. D. when the parties are unable to move the process beyond a particular sticking point. E. Third party intervention should be avoided in all of the above situations.

60. The opening stance is A) another name for the first round of concessions. B) the first price that a buyer quotes to a seller. C) the attitude to adopt during the negotiation. D) a package of concessions.

52. Ethical criteria for judging appropriate conduct define A) what is wise based on trying to understand the efficacy of the tactic and the consequences it might have on the relationship with the other. B) what a negotiator can actually make happen in a given situation. C) what is appropriate as determined by some standard of moral conduct. D) what the law defines as acceptable practice. E) All of the above are defined by ethical criteria for judging appropriate conduct.

52. Satisfaction with a negotiation is determined by A) the process through which an agreement is reached and the dollar value of concessions made by each party. B) the actual outcome obtained by the negotiation as compared to the initial bargaining positions of the negotiators. C) the process through which an agreement is reached and by the actual outcome obtained by the negotiation. D) the total dollar value of concessions made by each party. E) Satisfaction with a negotiation is determined by none of the above.

53. The availability of information bias operates with which of the following statements? A) when negotiators sometimes maintain commitment to a course of action even when that commitment constitutes irrational behavior on their part. B) when thorough preparation, along with the use of a devil's advocate or reality check, can help prevent errors. C) when information that is presented in vivid, colorful, or attention-getting ways becomes easy to recall, and thus also becomes central and critical in evaluating events and options. D) when the tendency of negotiators to believe that their ability to be correct or accurate is greater than is actually true E) when the tendency will often lead to a self-fulfilling prophecy, as follows: People who expect to be treated in a distributive manner will (1) be more likely to perceive the other party's behavior as distributive, and (2) treat the other party in a more distributive manner

54. In intragroup conflict, A) sources of conflict can include ideas, thoughts, emotions, values, predispositions, or drives that are in conflict with each other. B) conflict occurs between individual people. C) conflict affects the ability of the group to resolve differences and continue to achieve its goals effectively. D) conflict is quite intricate because of the large number of people involved and possible interactions between them. E) None of the above describes intragroup conflict.

55. Which of the following processes is central to achieving almost all integrative agreements? A) moderating the free flow of information to ensure that each party's position is accurately stated B) exchanging information about each party's position on key issues C) emphasizing the commonalties between the parties D) searching for solutions that maximize the substantive outcome for both parties E) All of the above processes are central to achieving integrative agreements.

56. Arbitration typically involves A. high levels of negotiator control over outcomes and high levels of negotiator control over procedure. B. low levels of negotiator control over outcomes and low levels of negotiator control over procedure. C. low levels of negotiator control over outcomes and high levels of negotiator control over procedure. D. high levels of negotiator control over outcomes and low levels of negotiator control over procedure. E. Arbitration typically involves none of the above.

56. Which of the following arguments refutes Carr's claim that business strategy is analogous to poker strategy? A) Because good poker playing often involves concealing information and bluffing or deception, these rules ought to apply to business transactions. B) If an executive refuses to bluff periodically he or she is probably ignoring opportunities permitted under the "rules" of business C) Most games do not legitimize deception, and therefore business should not be analogous to a game that does legitimize deception D) Bluffing, exaggeration and concealment are legitimate ways for corporations to maximize their self interest E) None of the above arguments refute Carr's claim

56. Which of the following lists only joint strategies for cross-cultural negotiations? A. employ agents or advisors, bring in a mediator, adapt to the other party's approach, improvise an approach B. employ agents or advisors, adapt to the other party's approach, embrace the other party's approach, effect symphony C. bring in a mediator, coordinate adjustment, improvise an approach, effect symphony D. coordinate adjustment, improvise an approach, adapt to the other party's approach, embrace the other party's approach E. None of the above list only joint strategies for cross cultural negotiations.

57. "Adapting to the other party's approach" is best used by parties with A. no familiarity. B. low familiarity. C. moderate familiarity. D. high familiarity. E. Adapting to the other party's approach is equally effective for all parties.

57. An individual who pursues his or her own outcomes strongly and shows little concern for whether the other party obtains his or her desired outcomes is using another of the following strategies. Which one? A) yielding B) compromising C) contending D) problem solving E) None of the above.

57. The more you can convince the other that you value a particular outcome outside the other's bargaining range, the more pressure you put on the other party to set by one of the following resistance points. A) high B) low C) modest D) extreme E) None of the above.

57. Which of the following statements about interests is true? A) There is only one type of interest in a dispute. B) Parties are always in agreement about the type of interests at stake. C) Interests are often based in more deeply rooted human needs or values. D) Interests do not change during the course of an integrative negotiation. E) All of the above statements about interests are true.

58. "Coordinating adjustment" involves A. adopting completely the approach of the other party. B. making conscious changes to your approach so that it is more appealing to the other party. C. both parties making mutual adjustments to find a common process for negotiation. D. crafting an approach that is specifically tailored to the negotiation situation. E. "Coordinating adjustment" involves all of the above.

60. Which of the following statements about how emotion plays a part in negotiation is accurate? A) Negotiations only create negative emotions. B) Positive feelings do not promote persistence. C) Negative feelings may create positive outcomes. D) Positive emotion may result from impasse. E) Negative emotions do not undermine a negotiator's ability to analyze a situation accurately.

62. In Esser and Marriott's research study, which type of mediation was found to be the most effective? A. issue identification B. positive framing of the issues C. content mediation D. mediated arbitration E. Esser and Marriott found all of the above to be equally effective.

63. In brainstorming A) individuals work in a large group to select a single optimal solution. B) all solutions are judged and critiqued as they are recorded, and a weighted-average percentage is assigned to each solution. C) parties are urged to be spontaneous and even impractical. D) the success of the approach depends on the item-by-item evaluation and critique of the solutions as presented. E) None of the above is a part of the brainstorming process.

63. McCornack and Levine found that victims had stronger emotional reactions to deception when A) they had a distant relationship with the subject. B) the information at stake was unimportant. C) lying was seen as an unacceptable type of behavior for that relationship. D) the victim had used deceptive tactics as well. E) Research found that victims did not have strong emotional reactions in any of the above cases.

64. Parties feel better about a settlement when negotiations involve a(n) A) immediate settlement. B) single round of concessions. C) progression of concessions. D) fait accompli.

68. A joint goal is one in which A) all parties share the result equally. B) the parties work toward a common end but benefit differently. C) individuals with different personal goals agree to combine them in a collective effort. D) all parties work together to achieve some output that will be shared. E) All of the above are characteristics of a common goal.

69. Relating to "the issues" in aspects of mediation, effectiveness entails A. saving face when making concessions. B. resolving internal disagreements. C. uncovering the underlying interests and concerns. D. dealing with constituents. E. Mediation effectiveness relating to the issues entails all of the above.

72. When people do not trust each other they are more than likely to engage in which of the following behaviors? A) promoting collaboration B) communicating accurately C) positional bargaining D) committing to a joint solution E) none of the above

73. Hardball tactics are designed to A) be used primarily against powerful negotiators. B) clarify the user's adherence to a distributive bargaining approach. C) pressure targeted parties to do things they would not otherwise do. D) eliminate risk for the person using the tactic.

73. In providing impetus, the manager A. invents a solution that he or she thinks will meet both parties' needs, and usually enforces that solution on both parties. B. passively listens to what each side chooses to tell him or her, and then makes a decision (tells the parties how to solve the conflict) based exclusively on the presentations. C. tries to make a quick diagnosis of what the conflict is about and then tells the parties that if they don't find a solution, he or she will impose one on them. D. combines arbitration and mediation to arrive at a solution acceptable to all parties. E. None of the above describes providing impetus.

75. Which of the following tactics is the least preferable method of responding to another party's distributive tactics or "dirty tricks"? A) ignoring the tactic B) "calling" the tactic C) responding in kind D) discussing what you see and offer to help them change to more honest behaviors E) None of the above tactics should be used to respond to another party's dirty tricks.

59. Disruptive action tactics can cause A) embarrassment. B) increased costs. C) anger. D) escalation of conflict. E) Disruptive action tactics can cause all of the above.

A strong interest in achieving only substantive outcomes tends to support which of the following strategies? A. collaborative B. accommodating C. competitive D. avoidance E. none of the above

Avoidance could best be used when: A) negotiation is necessary to meet your needs B) the time and effort to negotiate are negligible C) the available alternatives are very strong D) the only available negotiator is a senior manager. E) all of the above

Getting to know the other party and understanding similarities and differences represents what key step in the negotiation process: A) preparation B) information gathering C) relationship building D) information using E) None of the above

If the other party has a strong and viable alternative, he/she will A. be dependent on achieving a satisfactory agreement. B. appear aggressive and hostile in negotiations. C. set and push for high objectives. D. have unlimited negotiating authority. E. all of the above.

In an accommodative negotiation, the relationships have: A. a short-term focus B. a long-term focus C. may be either short term or long term D. secrecy and defensiveness E. none of the above

Risk-avoiding cultures will A. be willing to move early on a deal. B. generally take more chances. C. seek further information. D. be less likely to take a wait-and-see stance. E. Risk avoiding cultures will generally take all of the above actions.

Which of the following is not a reason that negotiations fail? A. Allowing insufficient time for planning B. Failing to set clear objectives C. Understanding the strengths and weaknesses of their and the other party's positions D. Depending on being quick and clever during negotiations E. Designing a road map that will guide to an agreement

Which is not a key step to an ideal negotiation process? A) Preparation B) Relationship Building C) Information Gathering D) Bidding E) All of the above are key steps

Which is not a key step to an ideal negotiation process? A. Preparation B. Relationship Building C. Information Gathering D. Bidding E. All of the above are key steps

What are the advantages of adopting a flexible position?

Can learn about the other party's outcome values and perceived possibilities. Establishes a cooperative rather than combative relationship hoping to get a better agreement. Keeps negotiations going.

Define presettlement settlements.

Commitments that parties engage in before the negotiations begin. They are distinguished by three major characteristics: the settlement results in a firm, legally binding written agreement between the parties, it occurs in advance of the parties undertaking a full-scale negotiation, it resolves only a subset of the issues on which the parties disagree.

What are the four types of initial strategies for negotiators?

Competition, collaboration, accommodation and avoidance

The Dual Concerns Model is a two-dimensional framework that postulates that people in conflict have two independent types of concern. What are those two types of concerns?

Concern about their own outcomes (shown on the horizontal dimension of the figure) and concern about the other's outcomes (shown on the vertical dimension of the figure).

Discuss the importance of reciprocating (or not reciprocating) concessions.

Concession making indicates an acknowledgment of the other party and a movement toward the other's position. It implies a recognition of that position and its legitimacy. If the other party does not reciprocate, the concession maker may appear to be weaker by having given up something and received nothing in return. If the giver has made a major concession on a significant point, it is expected that the return offer will be on the same item or one of similar weight and somewhat comparable magnitude. To make an additional concession when none has been received (or when what was given was inadequate) can imply weakness and can squander valuable maneuvering room

Explain how conflict is a potential consequence of interdependent relationships.

Conflict can result from the strongly divergent needs of the two parties, or from misperceptions and misunderstandings. Conflict can occur when the two parties are working toward the same goal and generally want the same outcome, or when both parties want very different outcomes. Regardless of the cause of the conflict, negotiation can play an important role in resolving it effectively. In this section, we will define conflict, discuss the different levels of conflict that can occur, review the functions and dysfunctions of conflict, and discuss strategies for managing conflict effectively.

28. In Ury's strategy for managing difficult negotiations, he sees five challenges: 1) don't react, 2) disarm them, 3) change the game, 4) make it easy for them to say yes, and 5) A. strike back. B. reject the offer. C. give in. D. make it hard to say no. E. break off negotiations.

What are the five major strategies for conflict management (as identified in the Dual Concerns framework)?

Contending, Yielding, Inaction, Problem Solving, and Compromising.

25. Thomas proposed that what two personality dimensions can represent the levels of concern underlying the five conflict management styles? A. the degree of assertiveness and the degree of competitiveness B. the degree of aggressiveness and the degree of competitiveness C. the degree of aggressiveness and the degree of cooperativeness D. the degree of assertiveness and the degree of cooperativeness E. None of the above state Thomas' two personality dimensions.

28. Self-efficacy A. is a perception of the extent to which external circumstances control the negotiation. B. refers to the extent to which people perceive that they have control over events which occur. C. is the negotiator's capacity to understand the other party's point of view during a negotiation. D. is considered to be a judgment about one's ability to behave effectively in a given situation. E. None of the above describes self-efficacy.

29. The strategy of disarmament includes: A. providing some distance from the conflict and from one's own emotions. B. negotiating directly and openly the rules of the negotiation process. C. helping the other party think about the consequences of not reaching an agreement. D. expressing one's own views clearly and considerately. E. asking open-ended questions.

30. Some people are invariably difficult and their behavior follows predictable and one of the other following patterns. Which one? A. aggressive B. confusing C. contentious D. identifiable E. counter indicating

31. Which of the following is not a property of a coalition? A. A coalition is an interacting group of individuals. B. A coalition is independent of the formal structure of the organization. C. A coalition consists of mutually perceived membership. D. A coalition is focused on a goal or goals internal to the coalition. E. All of the above are properties of coalitions.

32. Research by Fry suggests that A. low Machs do better than high Machs in distributive negotiation. B. high Mach's change their negotiation style as a function of the Machiavellianism of the other negotiator. C. low Mach negotiators do not change their negotiation style as a function of the other party's Machiavellianism. D. when negotiating with a high Mach other party, low Mach negotiators make fewer offers and are less effective negotiators than when negotiating with low Machs. E. Fry's research suggests all of the above.

33. What is the result of procedural complexity in multiparty negotiations? A. The fewer the number of parties, the more complex the decision making process becomes. B. The increased number of negotiators will streamline the decision making process. C. Negotiators can ignore the problem of multiple related issues. D. Negotiators will probably have to devote discussion time to how they will manage the process to arrive at the type of solution or agreement they want. E. All of the above are the result of procedural complexity in multiparty negotiations.

33. Which of the following would be likely to distort messages and their meaning, preventing them from being understood completely? A) shared or common goals between the sender and receiver B) the elimination of distraction and confusion in the communication environment C) the avoidance of symbolic communication D) the congruence or incongruence between multiple transmission channels E) All of the above would be likely to distort messages and their meaning.

37. Considering the many attributes of an effective group, under which one of the following would you find a need to fully explain or define key words or language that may be part of the agreement? A. Test assumptions and inferences. B. Focus on interests, not positions. C. Disagree openly with any member of the group. D. Agree on the meaning of important words. E. Keep the discussion focused.

37. Which of the following is not one of the five linguistic dimensions of making threats? A) the use of polarized language B) the conveyance of verbal immediacy C) the degree of lexical diversity D) the extent of low-power language style E) All of the above are elements of the five linguistic dimensions of making threats.

39. Many complex international negotiations devote a great deal of time to the question of just who will be recognized and who can speak for others. The issue about participants can be decided by asking which of the following questions? A. Whose presence is likely to keep other parties from achieving their objectives? B. Whose presence is likely to help other parties achieve their objectives? C. Who could spoil the deal if they were excluded? D. All of the above questions can help decide who to recognize. E. None of the above questions will help determine inclusion/exclusion.

40. The prenegotiation phase of multilateral negotiations A. is when the parties are employing decision rules and criteria. B. manages the group process and outcome. C. is when the chair is appointed. D. is characterized by a great deal of informal contact among the parties. E. All of the above characterize the prenegotiation phase of multilateral negotiations.

40. What are the most dominant contributors to breakdowns and failures in negotiation? A) failures and distortions in perception, meaning, and feedback B) failures and distortions in perception, feedback, and behaviors C) failures and distortions in perception, communication, and framing D) failures and distortions in perception, cognition, and communication. E) None of the above contribute to breakdowns and failures in negotiation.

41. In the Connect Model and the Requirements for Building a Relationship, what does the "t" stand for? A. Toss it! B. Try it! C. Time it! D. Track it! E. Trash it!

41. We use the term "culture" to refer to the A. religious beliefs of a group of people. B. ethnicity of a group of people. C. geographic nationality of a group of people. D. shared values and beliefs of a group of people. E. Culture refers to none of the above.

43. A situation in which solutions exist so that both parties are trying to find a mutually acceptable solution to a complex conflict is known as which of the following? A) mutual gains B) win-lose C) zero-sum D) win-win E) None of the above.

52. In group-oriented cultures A. the individual comes before the group's needs. B. decisions are primarily made by senior executives. C. decision making is an efficient, streamlined process. D. negotiators may be faced with a series of discussions over the same issues and materials with many different people. E. All of the above occur in group-oriented cultures.

43. When a group wants to achieve a consensus or unanimous decision, the responsibility of the chair is to be constantly attentive to the group process. Identify which of the pointers below for how to chair a multiparty negotiation effectively is not correct. A. Explicitly describe the role you will take as chair. Assure individual members that they will have an opportunity to make opening statements or other ways of placing their individual concerns and issues on the table. B. Introduce the agenda or build one based on the group's issues, concerns, and priorities. Be an active gatekeeper. C. Make logistical arrangements that will help the negotiation process. Listen for interests and commonalities. D. Introduce unnecessary ground rules or let the parties suggest them to distract. Introduce internal information that will help illuminate the issues and interests. E. Create or review decision standards and rules. Summarize frequently, particularly when conversation becomes stalled, confused, or tense.

43. Which of the following is an immediate context factor in cross-cultural negotiations? A. external stakeholders B. instability C. international economic factors D. relationship between negotiators E. All of the above are immediate context factors in cross-cultural negotiations.

44. Projection occurs when A) attributes are assigned to an individual solely on the basis of his or her membership in a particular social or demographic group. B) people generalize about a variety of attributes based on the knowledge of one attribute of an individual. C) the perceiver singles out certain information that supports or reinforces a prior belief, and filters out information that does not confirm that belief. D) people ascribe to others the characteristics or feelings that they possess themselves. E) All of the above describe projection.

45. Adversaries can be described as A. parties who will not take a stand one way or the other on the issue. B. people with whom negotiator has conflicting goals and objectives, but who can be trusted to be principled and candid in their opposition. C. parties who a negotiator believes are in agreement with their goals and vision, and whom they trust. D. negotiators who are low in agreement and low in trust. E. None of the above statements describes adversaries.

45. Babcock, Wang and Loewenstein found that A. negotiators compare themselves to others whose positions are similar in scope and position to their own. B. negotiation breakdown or impasses are negatively correlated with perceived differences between the disputants chosen comparison groups. C. the smaller the perceived differences between comparison groups, the greater the likelihood of a breakdown. D. negotiators choose comparison groups to reflect a supportive, self-serving bias for their positions. E. Babcock, Wang and Loewenstein found support for all of the above hypothesis.

47. An insight drawn from research of the frames negotiators use in disputes would suggest that parties discussing salary may be likely to use outcome frames and may be related to which of the following. A) Negotiators can use more than one frame. B) Mismatches in frames between parties are sources of conflict. C) Particular types of frames may led to particular types of agreements. D) Specific frames may be likely to be used with certain types of issues. E) Parties are likely to assume a particular frame because of various factors.

48. Those attempting to negotiate in China recognize the value the Chinese place in saving "face." Which of the following cultural elements should also be examined in approaching discussions with the Chinese? A) Social linkage B) Harmony C) Roles D) Reciprocal obligations E) All of the above should be considered

49. Which of the following techniques is the least effective in resolving impasses and defusing volatile emotion? A. separating the parties B. tension management C. active listening D. synchronized de-escalation E. all of the above techniques aid in resolving impasses

50. What are the two dilemmas of negotiation? A) the dilemma of cost and the dilemma of profit margin B) the dilemma of honesty and the dilemma of profit margin C) the dilemma of trust and the dilemma of cost D) the dilemma of honesty and the dilemma of trust E) None of the above.

50. What consequences do negotiators from high uncertainty-avoidance cultures bring to negotiations? A. Negotiators will strongly depend on cultivating and sustaining a long-term relationship. B. Negotiators may be more likely to "swap" negotiators, using whatever short-term criteria seem appropriate. C. Negotiators may need to seek approval from their supervisors more frequently. D. Negotiators may not be comfortable with ambiguous situations and may be more likely to seek stable rules and procedures when they negotiate. E. All of the above are consequences of high uncertainty avoidance cultures.

51. Distributive bargaining strategies A) are the most efficient negotiating strategies to use. B) are used in all interdependent relationships. C) are useful in maintaining long term relationships. D) can cause negotiators to ignore what the parties have in common. E) None of the above describes distributive bargaining strategies.

51. The irrational escalation of commitment bias refers to A) the standard against which subsequent adjustments are measured during negotiation. B) the perspective or point of view that people use when they gather information and solve problems. C) how easily information can be recalled and used to inform or evaluate a process of a decision. D) a negotiator's commitment to a course of action, even when that commitment constitutes irrational behavior on his/her part. E) None of the above refer to irrational escalation of commitment.

52. Which of the following is not a benefit of third-party intervention? A. creating breathing space or a cooling off period B. refocusing on the substantive issues C. salvaging the sunk cost of stalled negotiations D. decreased levels of negotiator satisfaction with and commitment to the conflict resolution process and its outcomes E. All of the above are benefits of third-party intervention.

54. According to Weiss, when choosing a strategy, negotiators should A. choose one strategy and stick with it throughout the entire negotiation. B. be aware of their own culture, but minimize the other culture's norms. C. not try to predict or influence the other party's approach. D. understand the specific factors in the current relationship. E. Weiss states that negotiators should do all of the above when preparing for negotiations.

54. Which of the following is not one of Fisher's major approaches to fractionating conflict? A. reduce the number of parties on each side B. restrict the precedents involved, both procedural and substantive C. state issues in concrete terms rather than as principles D. role reversal and imaging processes E. All of the above encompass Fisher's approaches to fractionating conflict.

55. Proponents of personalistic ethics argue that A) the best way to achieve the greatest good is to closely follow a set of rules and principles. B) the worth of a particular action is judged on the basis of the consequences it produces. C) societies, organizations and cultures determine what is ethically appropriate and acceptable within that group. D) everyone ought to decide for themselves what is right based on their conscience. E) Rule utilitarians argue all of the above

55. The Endowment Effect A) is making attributions to the person or the situation B) is drawing conclusions from small sample sizes C) is negotiators believing that their ability to be correct or accurate is greater than actually true D) is the tendency to overvalue something you own or believe you possess

55. Which of the following approaches can be used to de-escalate conflict by establishing commonalties or focusing on common objectives? A. responding in kind B. confronting offensive behavior C. imaging D. establishing superordinate goals E. None of the above can be used to de-escalate conflict by establishing commonalties or focusing on common objectives.

56. In the Dual Concerns Model, the level of concern for the individual's own outcomes and the level of concern for the other's outcomes are referred to as the A) cooperativeness dimension and the competitiveness dimension. B) the assertiveness dimension and the competitiveness dimension. C) the competitiveness dimension and the aggressiveness dimension. D) the cooperativeness dimension and the assertiveness dimension. E) None of the above.

56. The more you can convince the other party that your costs of delay or aborting negotiations are , the more modest will be the other's resistance point. A) high B) modest C) extreme D) low E) None of the above.

58. The distinction between mood and emotion is based on which of the following characteristics? A) specificity B) intensity C) duration D) all of the above E) none of the above

59. The decision-acceptance effect states that A. if negotiators anticipate that their own failure to agree will lead to a binding arbitrator's intervention, it may cool their incentive to work seriously for a negotiated settlement. B. when arbitration is anticipated as a result of the failure of parties to agree, negotiators may lose interest in the process of negotiating. C. as the frequency of arbitration increases, disenchantment with the adequacy and fairness of the process develops, and the parties may resort to other means to resolve their disputes. D. arbitrated disputes may engender less commitment to the settlement than alternative forms of dispute resolution. E. The decision-acceptance effect states all of the above.

59. What approach can parties use to generate alternative solutions by redefining the problem or problem set? A) brainstorming B) logrolling C) surveys D) nonspecific compensation E) None of the above approaches can be used to redefine the problem.

60. In nonspecific compensation A) resources are added in such a way that both sides can achieve their objectives. B) one party achieves his/her objectives and the other's costs are minimized if he/she agrees to go along. C) the parties are able to invent new options that meet each sides' needs. D) one person is allowed to obtain his/her objectives and "pay off" the other person for accommodating his interests. E) All of the above are related to nonspecific compensation.

73. When formal channels of communication break down, negotiators are permitted to finding alternatives and can use which of the following? A) conversations over coffee breaks B) separate meetings between chief negotiators outside of the formal sessions C) off-the-record contacts between key subordinates D) all of the above E) none of the above

Misrepresentation by omission is defined as actually lying about the common-value issue.

FALSE

60. Per a study of ethically ambiguous tactics which of the following is true? A) There is a significant negative relationship between an attitude toward the use of each specific tactic and the intention to use it B) There is no significant positive relationship between an attitude toward the use of a specific tactic and actually using that tactic, for four of the five tactics studies C) Hiding the bottom line was the tactic least frequently used, exaggerating an opening offer was the most commonly used, followed by stalling for time and misrepresenting information. D) Hiding the bottom line improved negotiator performance in the role-play. Negotiators also believed that making empty promises, misrepresenting information, and exaggerating their opening offer improved their performance. E) All of the above

60. Whereas distributive bargaining is often characterized by mistrust and suspicion, integrative negotiation is characterized by which of the following? A) obligation and perseverance B) avoidance and compromise C) influence and persuasiveness D) trust and openness E) cognition and emotion

61. The bargaining range is defined by A) the opening stance and the initial concession. B) the initial round of concessions. C) the bargaining mix and the opening stance. D) the opening offer and the counteroffer. E) The bargaining range is defined by all of the above.

62. "What are the other's real underlying interests and needs?" is a question that can facilitate the _____________ process. A) expanding the pie B) logrolling C) nonspecific compensation D) bridging E) The question should not be used with any of the above processes.

65. Studies have shown that with the exception of "traditional competitive bargaining," men were: A) significantly less likely to use unethical tactics than women. B) somewhat less likely to use unethical tactics than women. C) somewhat more likely to use unethical tactics than women. D) significantly more likely to use unethical tactics than women. E) Studies have shown that there is no gender bias in the use of unethical tactics.

65. What statement about concessions is false? A) Concessions are central to negotiations. B) Concessions is another word for adjustments in position. C) Concession making exposes the concession maker to some risk. D) Reciprocating concessions is a haphazard process.

66. The inaction mediation strategy involves A. mediator application of rewards and inducements to entice the parties into making concessions and agreements. B. trying to force the parties to reduce their levels of aspiration in the absence of perceived potential for an integrative resolution. C. assisting the parties to engage in integrative exchange, as they would in win-win negotiation in the mediator's absence. D. standing back from the dispute, leaving the parties to work things out on their own. E. The inaction mediation strategy involves all of the above.

66. Which guideline should be used in evaluating options and reaching a consensus? A) keep the range of solution options as wide as possible B) evaluate the solutions on the basis of speed and expediency C) keep detailed records throughout the discussion and evaluation process D) be alert to the influence of intangibles in selecting options E) None of the above should be used in the evaluation process.

68. Research results have generally indicated that higher levels of moral development are associated with A) less ethical decisions. B) more cheating behavior. C) less helping behavior. D) more resistance to authority figures who are attempting to dictate unethical conduct. E) Higher levels of moral development are associated with all of the above.

69. A commitment A) should not be interpreted as a threat. B) postpones the threat of future action. C) is designed to increase both parties' choices to a portfolio of options. D) removes ambiguity about the actor's intended course of action.

71. Which of the following is not a major part of the process consultant's agenda? A. changing the climate for conflict management B. promoting constructive dialogue around differences of opinion C. creating the capacity for other people to act as their own third parties D. determining the final resolution of the conflict E. All of the above are major parts of the process consultant's agenda.

72. To prevent the other party from establishing a committed position, a negotiator could A) give them the opportunity to evaluate the matter fully. B) acknowledge the other's commitment. C) reiterate the commitment. D) make a joke about the commitment. E) None of the above should be used to prevent the other party from establishing a committed position.

73. When using the "intimidation" tactic to detect deception, one should A) emphasize the futility and impending danger associated with continued deceit. B) lie to the other to make them believe you have uncovered their deception. C) play down the significance of any deceptive act. D) make a "no-nonsense" accusation of the other. E) None of the above actions would be used as part of the intimidation tactic.

Promises and offers can be made more attractive in what way? A. minimizing the attractive qualities of the offer B. showing how the offer meets your own needs C. increasing the disadvantages of accepting the offer D. setting deadlines on offers E. Promises and offers can be made more attractive in none of the above ways.

Reactive strategies: A. encourage negotiators to be more flexible and creative B. can efficiently clear up confusion about issues C. will lessen a negotiator's defensive posture D. can make negotiators feel threatened and defensive E. none of the above

Which is not true of limits? A) Are the point where you should stop the negotiation B) Are also called resistance point C) Establishing them is a critical part of planning D) They should be ignored in a bidding war E) All of the above

Which one of the following is as much a win-lose strategy as competition, although it has a decidedly different image? A. collaboration B. avoidance C. engagement D. accommodation E. reciprocation

A negotiator's goals: A) are intrinsically in conflict with his opponent's goals B) have no boundaries or limits C) are explicitly stated wishes D) must be reasonably attainable E) all of the above

D) must be reasonably attainable

What specific steps are entailed in effective planning?

Defining the issues; assembling issues and defining the bargaining mix; defining interests; defining limits and alternatives; defining one's own objectives (targets) and opening bids (where to start); assessing constituents and the social context in which the negotiation will occur; analyzing the other party; planning the issue presentation and defense; defining protocol - where and when the negotiation will occur, who will be there, agenda, etc.

____________ can be used to squeeze negotiations into the last remaining minutes of a meeting in order to extract concessions from one party.

Delay tactics

List ways to prevent the other party from establishing a committed position.

Deny them the opportunity to take the time to establish commitments, ignore or downplay the threat by not acknowledging the other's commitment or by making a joke about it, pretend that the other party's statement was not heard or was not understood.

____________ strategies tend to create "we-they" or "superiority-inferiority" patterns, which often lead to distortions in judgment regarding the other side's contributions and efforts, and to distortions in perceptions of the other side's values, needs and positions.

Distributive

___________________ is a conflict situation wherein parties seek their own advantage through tactics including concealing information, attempting to mislead or using manipulative actions.

Distributive bargaining

24. As a party managing a negotiation mismatch, you can respond using which of the following ways? A. Ignore them. B. Respond in kind. C. Call them on it. D. Offer to change to more productive methods. E. Do all of the above.

26. Which of the following statements about the important factors that affect how women and men approach negotiations is untrue? A. Women are more aware of the complete relationship among the parties who are negotiating and are more likely to perceive negotiation as part of the larger context within which it takes place than to focus only on the content of the issues being discussed. B. Women tend not to draw strict boundaries between negotiating and other aspects of their relationships with other people but instead see negotiation as a behavior that occurs within relationships without large divisions marking when it begins and ends. C. Men can be characterized as using power to achieve their own goals, or to force the other party to capitulate to their point of view. D. Men use dialogue in two ways: (a) to convince the other party that their position is the correct one and (b) to support various tactics and ploys that are used to win points during the discussion. E. Negative stereotypes about female bargainers do not shape expectations and behaviors by both men and women at the negotiating table.

27. Prosocials A. have a preference for outcomes that benefit both self and others with whom they are interdependent. B. are more oriented toward problem solving. C. achieve more integrative outcomes than pro-self negotiators. D. are more oriented toward reciprocal cooperation. E. All of the above

29. Which of the following are likely to "level the playing field" for women who seem to be at a disadvantage in negotiations? A. Motivational interventions. B. Situational interventions. C. Cognitive interventions. D. None of the above interventions can help rectify the disparity. E. All of the above contribute to reducing the constraints.

30. There is a growing body of evidence that suggests that women are at a disadvantage in negotiations as compared to male negotiators. The nature of this disadvantage may occur in A. being treated differently before and during negotiations than men. B. receiving worse opening offers from the other party. C. receiving worse outcomes in similar negotiations than males. D. being penalized when they use the same negotiation tactic that males use successfully. E. All of the above.

31. In experiments by Christie and Geis, high Machs A. attempted significantly more manipulative behaviors than low Machs. B. initially tried harder to persuade the confederate not to cheat. C. were constantly sought after by others to be in coalitions. D. tended to become more exploitative over time. E. All of the above describe the behavior of high Machs.

31. Multiparty negotiations differ from two-party deliberations in which of the following ways? A. Multiparty negotiations have more negotiators at the table. B. More issues and more information are introduced than when two parties negotiate. C. The environment changes from a one-on-one dialogue to small group discussion. D. The process for multiparty negotiators is more complex than two-party ones. E. All of the above statements about multiparty negotiations are true.

32. One of the most fundamental consequences of increasing the number of parties in a negotiation is that A. the negotiation situation tends to become less lucid. B. the negotiation situation tends to become more complex. C. the negotiation situation tends to become more demanding. D. there will be more values, interests, and perceptions to be integrated or accommodated. E. All of the above are fundamental consequences of increasing the number of parties in a negotiation.

35. Rackham's study found that during pre-negotiation planning, superior negotiators A. considered a sole outcome option for the issue being discussed, and held firm to this ultimatum throughout the negotiation. B. spent very little time looking for areas of common ground. C. focused on the short-term consequences of different issues. D. prepared their goals around fixed points. E. None of the above.

35. The presence of feedback can A) distort communication in negotiation. B) lead negotiators to change the way that they negotiate or evaluate negotiation outcomes. C) influence the offers that negotiators make. D) motivate the sender to change his or her behavior, either in a positive or negative direction. E) The presence of feedback can cause all of the above to occur.

38. The "strength-is-weakness" dynamic in coalitions states that A. coalition founders will go to those who are the weakest for support. B. the weakest members may need to be in the coalition the most. C. the weakest members will demand the least payoff from joining the coalition. D. the weakest members may hold power in the coalition. E. The "strength-is-weakness" dynamic in coalitions states all of the above.

40. Which of the following statements about strength in coalitions is false? A. Those parties who have relatively fewer resources in a coalition may be stronger. B. The more resources one holds or controls, the more likely that he or she will be a critical coalition member. C. Coalition players with strength often become the center of communication networks. D. The more power one holds or controls, the more likely that he or she will be a central figure in pulling the coalition together and dictating its strategy. E. All of the above statements about strength in coalitions are true.

41. Perception is A) the process by which individuals connect to their environment. B) strongly influenced by the receiver's current state of mind, role and understanding or comprehension of earlier communications. C) a factor that can affect how meanings are ascribed. D) a complex physical and psychological process. E) All of the above describe perception.

41. Which perspective can be used to understand different aspects of negotiation? A) economics B) psychology C) anthropology D) law E) All of the above perspectives can be used to understand different aspects of negotiation.

42. Questions can be used to A) manage difficult or stalled negotiations. B) pry or lever a negotiation out of a breakdown or an apparent dead end. C) assist or force the other party to face up to the effects or consequences of their behaviors. D) collect and diagnose information. E) Questions can be used for all of the above.

44. Political and legal pluralism can make cross cultural negotiations more complex because A. there may be implications for the taxes that the organization pays. B. there may be implications for the labor codes or standards that the organization must meet. C. there may be different codes of contract law and standards of enforcement. D. political considerations may enhance or detract from the conduct of business negotiations in various countries at different times. E. Political and legal pluralism can make cross cultural negotiations more complex because of all of the above.

47. Which is not a way parties avoid conflict per Mayer? A. Aggressive avoidance B. Passive aggressive avoidance C. Avoidance through premature problem solving D. Avoidance through surrogates E. All are ways parties avoid conflict

49. Frames are shaped by conversations that the parties have with each other about the issues in the bargaining mix. Which of the following factors can affect how the conversation is shaped? A) Negotiators tend to argue for stock issues, or concerns that are raised every time the parties negotiate. B) Each party attempts to make the best possible case for his or her preferred position or perspective. C) Frames may define major shifts and transitions in a complex overall negotiation. D) Multiple agenda items operate to shape issue development. E) All of the above contribute to the shaping of the conversation.

50. One of the most important aspects of framing as issue development is the process of reframing, or the manner in which the thrust, tone, and focus of a conversation change as the parties engage in it. Reframing is or occurs: A) the way parties challenge each other, as they present their own case or refute the other's. B) a dynamic process that may occur many times in a conversation. C) when using metaphors, analogies, or specific cases to illustrate a point. D) and may be used intentionally by one side or the other. E) all of the above apply to reframing as parties often propose new ways to approach a problem.

51. How much to believe of what the other party tells you A) depends on the reputation of the other party. B) is affected by the circumstances of the negotiation. C) is related to how he or she treated you in the past. D) is the dilemma of trust. E) All of the above.

52. Which of the following is not a cognitive bias? A) the irrational escalation of commitment B) the belief that the issues under negotiation are all "fixed pie" C) the process of anchoring and adjustment in decision making D) the winner's curse E) All of the above are cognitive biases.

53. Which of the following is a major step in the integrative negotiation process? A) identifying and defining the problem B) understanding the problem and bringing interests and needs to the surface C) generating alternative solutions to the problem D) choosing a specific solution E) All of the above are major steps in the integrative negotiation process.

54. Which of the following cognitive biases can lead negotiators to discount the worth or validity of the judgment of others? A) Irrational escalation of commitment B) Mythical fixed-pie beliefs C) Anchoring and adjustment D) Availability of information E) Overconfidence

55. Under what conditions might negotiators seek third-party involvement? A. Intense emotions appear to preventing a settlement. B. Misperceptions or stereotypes hinder productive exchanges. C. There is disagreement as to the number or type of issues under dispute. D. There is an absence of a clear, agreed-to negotiation procedure or protocol. E. Negotiators might seek third-party involvement under all of the above conditions.

56. Reactive devaluation A) leads negotiators to minimize the magnitude of a concession made by a disliked other. B) leads to reduced willingness to respond with a concession of equal size. C) may be minimized by maintaining a more objective view of the process. D) can lead to motivation to seek even more once a concession has been made. E) All of the above are elements of reactive devaluation.

57. The best way to manage perceptual and cognitive biases is: A) to be aware that they exist. B) to participate in group discussions. C) to tell people about the bias. D) complete a questionnaire. E) All of the above help manage biases but may not be enough in and of themselves.

58. Which is a Category of Marginally Ethical Negotiating Tactics? A) Traditional Competitive Bargaining B) Emotional Manipulation C) Misrepresentation to Opponent's Networks D) Bluffing E) All of the above

59. Parties pursuing one of the following strategies show little interest or concern in whether they attain their own outcomes, and do not show much concern about whether the other party obtains his or her outcomes. Which of the ones listed below? A) contending B) compromising C) problem solving D) yielding E) None of the above.

59. What strategy does Fisher suggest to make options more desirable to the opponent? A. give them a "yesable" proposal B. ask for a different decision C. sweeten the offer D. use legitimacy or objective criteria to evaluate solutions E. Fisher suggests all of the above strategies to make options more desirable.

59. Which tactic is seen as inappropriate and unethical in negotiation? A) misrepresentation B) bluffing C) misrepresentation to opponent's network D) inappropriate information collection E) All of the above are seen as inappropriate and unethical tactics.

62. What action can be taken after the first round of offers? A) hold firm B) insist on the original position C) make some concessions D) make no concessions E) All of the above.

64. Research studies show that the problem-solving style of mediation A. is a more structured, active approach to resolving conflict. B. leads to more frequent and desirable outcomes. C. produces more positive attitudes toward mediation. D. decreases disputant hostility and the damaging effect of difficult conflicts based on intangible issues. E. Research shows that all of the above are results of the problem-solving style of mediation.

64. When identifying options in an integrative negotiation, solutions are usually attained through: A) hard work B) information exchange C) focusing on interests rather than positions D) firm flexibility E) Solutions are attained by using all of the above.

66. Concession making A) indicates an acknowledgment of the other party. B) shows a movement toward the other's position. C) implies a recognition of the legitimacy of the other party's position. D) recognizes the other party's position. E) All of the above are characteristics of concession making.

67. Research studies have shown that individuals who are strongly Machiavellian are A) more willing and able con artists. B) more likely to lie when they need to. C) better able to tell bigger lies with out feeling anxious about it. D) more persuasive and effective in their lies. E) Individuals who are strongly Machiavellian have all of the above traits.

68. Skilled negotiators may A) suggest different forms of a potential settlement that are worth about the same to them. B) recognize that not all issues are worth the same amount to both parties. C) frequently save a final small concession for near the end of the negotiation to "sweeten" the deal. D) make the last concession substantial to indicate that "this is the last offer". E) Skilled negotiators may take all of the above actions.

68. When may mediation be less than effective? A. when the conflict is intense. B. when they have major differences in their expectations for a settlement. C. when many issues are at stake. D. when the parties disagree on major priorities. E. Mediation tactics may be insufficient in all of the above situations.

70. Which of the following is a major characteristic of a pre-settlement settlement? A) The settlement results in a firm, legally binding written agreement between the parties. B) It occurs in advance of the parties undertaking a full-scale negotiation. C) The parties intend that the agreement will be replaced by a more clearly delineated long-term agreement which is to be negotiated. D) It resolves only a subset of the issues on which the parties disagree, and may simply establish a framework within which the more comprehensive agreement can be defined and delineated. E) All of the above are characteristics of a pre-settlement settlement.

71. The negotiators' past relationship will affect current behavior if the parties A) have been previously competitive. B) have been previously cooperative. C) feel indebted to one another. D) hold grudges toward one another. E) The negotiators' past relationship will affect current behavior under all of the above conditions.

74. Aggressive behavior tactics include A) the relentless push for further concessions. B) asking for the best offer early in negotiations. C) asking the other party to explain and justify their proposals item by item. D) forcing the other side to make many concessions to reach an agreement. E) Aggressive behavior tactics include all of the above.

74. Integrative negotiation fails because A) negotiators fail to perceive the integrative potential of the negotiating problem. B) of distributive assumptions about the negotiation problem. C) of the mixed-motive nature of the issues. D) of the negotiator's previous relationship with one another. E) All of the above are reasons why integrative negotiations fail.

A negotiator should ask which of the following questions when presenting issues to the other party to assemble information? A. What facts support my point of view? B. Whom may I consult or take with to help me elaborate or clarify the facts? C. What is the other party's point of view likely to be? D. How can I develop and present the facts so they are most convincing? E. All of the above questions should be asked.

Characteristics of collaborative strategies include: A. long-term focus B. trust and openness C. efforts to find mutually satisfying solutions D. pursuit of goals held jointly with others E. all of the above

Effective planning requires hard work on the following points: A. Defining the issues B. Defining the bargaining limit C. Defining interests D. Defining limits and alternatives E. All of the above

Interests can be: A. substantive, directly related to the focal issues under negotiation B. process-based, related to the manner in which we settle this dispute C. relationship-based, tied to the current or desired future relationship between the parties D. based in the intangibles of the negotiation E. all of the above

Under which of the following questions of protocol would you find a bargaining relationship discussion about procedural issues that should occur before the major substantive ones have been raised? A. What agenda should we follow? B. Where should we negotiate? C. What is the time period of the negotiation? D. What might be done if negotiation fails? E. How will we keep track of what is agreed to?

Which of the following are dynamics of highly polarized, unproductive conflict? A. The atmosphere is charged with anger, frustration, and resentment. B. Channels of communication are closed or constrained. C. The original issues at stake have become blurred and ill-defined. D. The parties tend to perceive great differences in their respective positions. E. All of the above characterize a highly polarized, unproductive conflict.

What are the most critical precursors for achieving negotiation objectives?

Effective strategy and planning

Why may bargainers want to consider "giving away something for nothing?"

Even if an issue is unimportant or inconsequential to you, it may be valuable or attractive to another. Awareness of the actual or likely value of such concessions to the parties can considerably enrich the value that you offer to the other at little or no cost to yourself.

What approaches to logrolling can be particularly helpful in the "evaluation and selection of alternatives" phase of integrative negotiation?

Explore differences in risk preference, explore differences in expectations, explore differences in time preferences.

Negotiation is a process reserved only for the skilled diplomat, top salesperson, or ardent advocate for an organized lobby.

FALSE

Negotiators do not have to be versatile in their comfort and use of both major strategic approaches to be successful.

FALSE

"Expanding the pie" as a method of generating alternative solutions is a complex process, as it requires much more detailed information about the other party than do other methods.

A negative bargaining range occurs when the buyer's resistance point is above the seller's.

An integrative negotiation problem should be defined as a solution process rather than as a specific goal to be attained.

Distributive bargaining strategies are the only strategies that are effective in interdependent situations.

For successful integrative negotiation to occur, each party should be as interested in the objectives and problems of the other side as each is in his own.

Hardball tactics are infallible if used properly.

Hardball tactics work most effectively against powerful, well-prepared negotiators.

In "calculated incompetence," the negotiator is intentionally given false or misleading information to reveal to the other party.

In brainstorming, participants are urged to be spontaneous, even impractical, and to censor anyone's ideas (including their own).

In integrative negotiation, decisions must be finalized in each step of the negotiation process.

In integrative negotiation, the goals of the parties are mutually exclusive.

In integrative negotiations, negotiators are encouraged to state the problem in terms of their preferred solution and to make concessions from these most desired alternatives.

Integrative agreements have been shown to be facilitated when parties exchanged information about their positions on particular issues, but not necessarily about their priorities on those issues.

Intrinsic relationship interests exist when the parties derive positive benefits from the relationship and do not wish to endanger future benefits by souring it.

Multiple communication channels should not be used as they inevitably pass along inaccurate and confusing information.

Negotiations with a positive settlement range are obvious from the beginning.

Negotiators who are firmer about insisting that their own point of view become incorporated into the group solution achieve less integrative agreements than those who are less firm.

Studies indicate that negotiators who make low or modest opening offers get higher settlements than do those who make extreme opening offers.

The best response to the chicken tactic is to challenge the other party by responding with one's own chicken tactic, thereby calling the other's bluff.

The first step for a negotiator completing a distributive bargaining negotiation is to obtain information about the other party's outcome values and resistance points.

The resistance point is the point at which a negotiator would like to conclude negotiations.

Whether the integrative negotiation is simple or complex, the evaluation and selection steps must always be kept separate, or a contamination of the negotiation effort may occur after an informal decision has already been made.

A zero-sum situation is a situation in which individuals are so linked together that there is a positive correlation between their goal attainments.

FALSE

Conflict doesn't usually occur when the two parties are working toward the same goal and generally want the same outcome.

FALSE

Distributive strategies may generate a pattern of repeatedly giving in to keep the other happy or to avoid a fight.

FALSE

In new bargaining relationships, discussions about procedural issues should occur after the major substantive issues are raised.

FALSE

In the Negotiation Planning Guide it is not necessary to define the alternatives (BATNAs).

FALSE

Interests are what a negotiator wants.

FALSE

Intragroup conflict occurs between groups.

FALSE

It is not possible to evaluate packages as opening bids and others as targets in the same way as evaluating individual issues.

FALSE

It is possible to ignore intangibles, because they affect our judgment about what is fair, or right, or appropriate in the resolution of the tangibles.

FALSE

Many of the most important factors that shape a negotiation result do not occur during the negotiation, but occur after the parties have negotiated.

FALSE

What characteristics of original offer, opening stance and opening concession would signal a position of firmness? Of flexibility?

Firmness: an extreme original offer, a determined opening stance, and a very small opening concession. Flexibility: a more moderate opening offer, a reasonable cooperative opening stance, and a more generous initial concession.

What strategic negotiation purposes can be served by avoidance?

First, if you are able to meet your needs without negotiating at all, it may make sense to use an avoidance strategy. Second, it simply may not be worth the time and effort to negotiate. Third, the decision to negotiate is closely related to the desirability of available alternatives—what outcomes the negotiator can hope to achieve if negotiations fall through or don't work out. Finally, avoidance may be appropriate when the negotiator is responsible for developing others into becoming better negotiators.

The more attractive the other party's alternatives, the more likely he or she will be to maintain a ____________ resistance point.

HIGH

What are the risks involved when using hardball tactics?

Harm to reputation, Losing the deal, Negative publicity, Dealing with the other party's revenge.

How does Carr argue that strategy in business is analogous to strategy in a game of poker?

He advocates that business ought to play its game as poker players do. Because good poker playing often involves concealing information and bluffing or deception, these rules ought to apply to business transactions. If an executive refuses to bluff periodically - if he or she feels obligated to tell the truth, the whole truth, and nothing but the truth all the time - he or she is probably ignoring opportunities permitted under the "rules" of business and is probably at a heavy disadvantage in business dealings.

How can a negotiation that begins with a negative bargaining range be resolved?

If one or both parties are persuaded to change their resistance points, or if someone else forces a solution upon them that one or both parties dislike.

Why should criteria be decided in advance of evaluating options?

If the parties first debate their criteria and determine which ones are most important, they will be able to decide on criteria independent of the consideration of any particular candidate or option. Then, when they consider the individual candidates or options, they will pick the best one based on these criteria, not on the individual preferences of one side or the other.

What role do concessions play when a proposal isn't readily accepted?

If the proposal isn't readily accepted by the other, negotiators begin to defend their own initial proposals and critique the others' proposals. Each party's rejoinder usually suggests alterations to the other party's proposal, and perhaps also contains changes to his or her own position. When one party agrees to make a change in his or her position, a concession has been made (Pruitt, 1981). Concessions restrict the range of options within which a solution or agreement will be reached; when a party makes a concession, the bargaining range (the difference between the preferred acceptable settlements) is further constrained.

When were negotiators significantly more likely to see the marginally ethical tactics as appropriate?

If they anticipated that the other would be competitive rather than cooperative.

What are the strategies for responding to hardball tactics?

Ignore them, discuss them, respond in kind, co-opt the other party. Also discussed in the text but not listed specifically: preparation, familiarity with hardball tactics, identification and discussing the tactics, halting the negotiation process, team negotiations.

How does short-term thinking affect our choice of strategy and limit our view?

In developing and framing our goals we may ignore the present or future relationship with the other party in favor of a simplistic concern for achieving only the substantive outcome.

Describe the strategies and tactics a negotiator would employ in a distributive bargaining situation.

In distributive situations negotiators are motivated to win the competition and beat the other party, or gain the largest piece of the fixed resource that they can. In order to achieve these objectives, negotiators usually employ "win-lose" strategies and tactics. This approach to negotiation—called distributive bargaining—accepts the fact that there can only be one winner given the situation, and pursues a course of action to be that winner. The purpose of the negotiation is to claim value—that is, to do whatever is necessary to claim the reward, gain the lion's share, or gain the largest piece possible.

Define "zero-sum" situation.

Individuals are so linked together that there is a negative correlation between their goal attainments.

________________________ is analyzed as it affects the ability of the group to make decisions, work productively, resolve its differences, and continue to achieve its goals effectively.

Intragroup conflict

Conflict also has productive aspects and one of those is that conflict encourages psychological development. Elaborate.

It helps people become more accurate and realistic in their self-appraisals. Through conflict, persons take others' perspectives and become less egocentric. Conflict helps persons to believe that they are powerful and capable of controlling their own lives. They do not simply need to endure hostility and frustration but can act to improve their lives.

What are the advantages and disadvantages of large bargaining mixes?

Large bargaining mixes give us more possible components and arrangements for settlement, thus increasing the likelihood that a particular package will meet both parties' needs and, therefore, increasing the likelihood of a successful settlement. At the same time, larger bargaining mixes can lengthen negotiations because there are more possible combinations of issues to consider and combining and evaluating all these mixes makes things very complex.

List several information sources one can use to indirectly assess the other party's resistance point.

Making direct observations, consulting readily available documents and publications, talking to knowledgeable experts.

Considering the categories of marginally ethical negotiating tactics, what is the difference between misrepresentation and misrepresentation to opponent's networks?

Misrepresentation is distorting information or negotiation events in describing them to others, while misrepresentation to opponent's networks is corrupting your opponent's reputation with his peers.

____________ can be defined as individual and personal beliefs for deciding what is right and wrong.

Morals

What are the three ways that characterize most relationships between parties?

Most relationships between parties may be characterized in one of three ways: independent, dependent, and interdependent.

What are the three reasons negotiations occur?

Negotiations occur for several reasons: (1) to agree on how to share or divide a limited resource, such as land, or property, or time; (2) to create something new that neither party could do on his or her own, or (3) to resolve a problem or dispute between the parties.

Define selective presentation.

Negotiators reveal only the facts necessary to support their case.

____________ ____________occurs in integrative negotiation when one party is allowed to obtain his/her objectives and then "pays off" the other person for accommodating his/her interests.

Nonspecific compensation

Why should negotiators be versatile in their comfort and use of both value claiming and value creating strategic approaches?

Not only must negotiators be able to recognize which strategy is most appropriate, but they must be able to use both approaches with equal versatility. There is no single "best", "preferred" or "right" way to negotiate; the choice of negotiation strategy requires adaptation to the situation, as we will explain more fully in the next section on conflict. Moreover, if most negotiation issues/problems have claiming and creating values components, then negotiators must be able to use both approaches in the same deliberation.

What can happen when one or both parties do not think they got the best agreement possible?

One party or the other may try to get out of the agreement later or try to recoup losses or get even.

What is the best remedy for the winner's curse?

Prevent it from occurring. Thorough investigation and preparation provides negotiators with independent verification of the worth of the settlement.

_________ interests are related to how the negotiations unfold.

Process

How does decreased communication contribute as one of the destructive images of conflict in a negotiation?

Productive communication declines with conflict. Parties communicate less with those who disagree with them, and more with those who agree. The communication that does occur is often an attempt to defeat, demean, or debunk the other's view or to strengthen one's own prior arguments.

Which of the Greenhalgh seven steps of negotiation do Asian negotiators spend a great deal of time on?

Relationship building

Define Relationship building, a key step in an ideal negotiation.

Relationship building is getting to know the other party, understanding how you and the other are similar and different, and building commitment toward achieving a mutually beneficial set of outcomes.

______________________ reduces the likelihood of making verbal slips or presenting any clues that the other side could use to draw conclusions.

Reticence

What is the simplest way to screen a position?

Say and do as little as possible.

Some people continue to believe that they can tell by looking into someone's face if that person is inclined to be dishonest or truthful on a regular basis. What could study participants tell by photographs of aging men and women?

Study participants were able to correctly identify the most honest men in the group as they aged, but their assessment of women was largely inaccurate. The researchers concluded that men's faces accurately reflected their tendency toward honesty, but women's faces were not particularly valid indicators of their truthfulness.

A common goal is one in which all parties share the result equally.

A concession late in negotiations may indicate that there is little room left to move.

A public pronouncement statement means that the wider the audience, the less likely the commitment will be changed.

A resistance point will be influenced by the cost an individual attaches to delay or difficulty in negotiation.

All the advantages of a committed position work against a negotiator when the other party becomes committed, so it is important to try to prevent the other negotiator from becoming committed.

The parties prefer to negotiate and search for agreement rather than to fight openly, have one side dominate and the other capitulate, permanently break off contact, or take their dispute to a higher authority to resolve it.

TRUE

The use of silence by a negotiator creates a "verbal vacuum" that makes the other uncomfortable and helps determine whether the other party is acting deceptively.

TRUE

The value of a person's BATNA is always relative to the possible settlements available in the current negotiation, and the possibilities within a given negotiation are heavily influenced by the nature of the interdependence between the parties.

TRUE

Define strategy and tactics.

Tactics are short-term, adaptive moves designed to enact or pursue broader (or higher level) strategies, which in turn provide stability, continuity, and direction for tactical behaviors.

What are the three types of goals?

Tangibles, intangibles and procedural

_______________________ often requires considering how to package several issues and objectives.

Target setting

Why do parties negotiate by choice?

That is, they negotiate because they think they can get a better deal by negotiating than by simply accepting what the other side will voluntarily give them or let them have. Negotiation is largely a voluntary process. We negotiate because we think we can improve our outcome or result, compared to not negotiating or simply accepting what the other side offers. It is a strategy pursued by choice; seldom are we required to negotiate.

Define bargaining mix.

The combined lists of issues from each side in the negotiation.

Name the four levels of conflict that are commonly identified.

The four levels of conflict are: 1) intrapersonal or intrapsychic conflict, 2) interpersonal conflict, 3) intragroup conflict, and 4) intergroup conflict.

Why is it important for goals to be concrete, specific and measurable?

The less concrete and measurable they are, the harder it is to communicate to the other party what we want, to understand what he/she wants, and to determine whether any particular outcome satisfies our goals.

What is/are the risks associated with frequent use of the self-serving process?

The more frequentlynegotiators engage in this self-serving process, the more their judgments about ethical standards and values will become biased, diminishing their ability to see the truth for what it is.

The mix of convergent and conflicting goals characterizes many ____________ relationships.

interdependent

Define calculated incompetence.

The negotiating agent is not given all of the necessary information, making it impossible for information to be leaked.

What is likely to happen to a negotiator who resolves procedural issues before the major substantive ones are raised?

The negotiator should find it easier to reach agreement later on the substantive issues.

What is the disadvantage of letting the absence of further concessions convey the message of the final offer?

The other party may not recognize at first that the last offer was the final one and might volunteer a further concession to get the other to respond. Finding that no further concession results, the other party may feel betrayed and perceive that the pattern of concession—counter concession was violated.

What information do we need about the other party to prepare effectively?

The other party's current resources, interests, and bargaining mix. The other party's interests and needs. The other party's resistance point and alternative(s). The other party's targets and objectives. The other party's reputation and negotiation style. The other party's constituents, social structure and authority to make an agreement. The other party's likely strategy and tactics.

What negative effect can be caused by using trivial items as distractions or magnifying minor issues?

The other person may become aware of this maneuver and concede on the minor points, thereby gaining the right to demand equally generous concessions on the central points

Define bargaining mix.

The package of issues for negotiation.

How can motivation and commitment to problem solving be enhanced?

The parties can come to believe that they share a common fate, the parties can demonstrate to one another that there is more to be gained by working together (to increase the payoffs or reduce the costs) than by working separately, the parties can engage in commitments to each other before the negotiations begin.

Why is note taking critical?

The person with the best notes becomes the memory of the session, can take some license in the drafting of the agreement and will have something that can be reviewed by experts and specialists.

What are the preconditions necessary for the integrative negotiation process?

The presence of a common goal, faith in one's own problem-solving ability, a belief in the validity of the other's position, the motivation and commitment to work together, trust, clear and accurate communication, and an understanding of how to approach an integrative negotiation process.

A negative bargaining range occurs when:

The seller's resistance point is above the buyer's.

What is the primary goal in the use of the strategy of accommodation?

To build or strengthen the relationship (or the other party) and the negotiator is willing to sacrifice the outcome.

What is the purpose of using marginally ethical ambiguous negotiating tactics?

To increase the negotiator's power in the bargaining environment.

Why is it important to understand the typical steps or flow in a negotiation?

To understand how negotiations are likely to evolve and why planning is so important.

Define the fundamental attribution error.

When people "explain" another's behavior, the tendency is to overestimate the causal role of personal or internal factors and underestimate the causal role of situational or external factors.

Misrepresentation by ____________ is defined as failing to disclose information which would benefit the other.

omission

The use of unethical tactics may provoke what response from the "victim?"

Victims of the use of unethical tactics are likely to seek retaliation and revenge. The victim is unlikely to trust the other party again, may seek revenge from the negotiator in future dealings, and may also generalize this experience to negotiations with others.

What is the implication of the dilemma of honesty?

We tell the other party our exact requirements and limits in negotiation, and it is likely that we will never do better than this minimum level.

What elements of the negotiation protocol might it be useful to prenegotiate?

What agenda to follow, the location of the negotiation, the time period of the negotiation, what might be done if the negotiation fails, how to keep track of what is agreed to, how to recognize a good agreement.

List two situations when distributive bargaining strategies are useful.

When a negotiator wants to maximize the value obtained in a single deal and when the relationship with the other party is not important.

In negotiation, when does the availability bias operate?

When information that is presented in more vivid, colorful, or attention-getting ways becomes easier to recall and thus also becomes more central and critical in evaluating events and options.

Describe a "mutual gains" situation.

When parties' goals are linked so that one person's goal achievement helps others to achieve their goals, it is a mutual-gains situation, also known as a non-zero-sum or integrative situation, where there is a positive correlation between the goal attainments of both parties.

As a result of employing an unethical tactic, the negotiator will experience positive or negative consequences. These consequences are based on:

Whether the tactic is effective, how the other party evaluates the tactic, and how the negotiator evaluates the tactic.

Is the give-and-take process used to reach an agreement the "heart of the negotiation" as most people assume.

While that give-and-take process is extremely important, negotiation is a very complex social process; many of the most important factors that shape a negotiation result do not occur during the negotiation, but occur before the parties start to negotiate, or shape the context around the negotiation.

What are the potential pitfalls of voting on final agreements or packages?

While voting closes the discussion it can also create disenfranchisement of the losing party and make it more likely that "losers" will be less committed than "winners" to the implementation of the negotiated outcome.

How can a negotiator abandon a committed position?

Word the commitment so that the conditions by which it applied have changed. Let the matter die silently. Make a tentative step in a direction previously excluded by the other's commitment. Restate the commitment in more general terms. Minimize any possible damage to his or her self-esteem or with constituent relationships.

Where would you likely to find the concept of "yielding" on the dual concerns model?

Yielding (also called accommodating or obliging) is the strategy in the upper left-hand corner. Actors pursuing the yielding strategy show little interest or concern in whether they attain their own outcomes, but they are quite interested in whether the other party attains his or her outcomes. Yielding involves lowering one's own aspirations to "let the other win" and gain what he or she wants. Yielding may seem like a strange strategy to some, but it has its definite advantages in some situations.

Negotiators operating under ____________ also reached agreements having higher joint value for the two parties.

accountability

Whether you should or should not agree on something in a negotiation depends entirely upon the attractiveness to you of the best available ______.

alternative

Although disruptive action tactics can work, they may also produce ____________ and escalation of ____________.

anger; conflict

When acting as if the decision to close the deal has already been made, the negotiator is using the ___________________ method of closing the agreement.

assume the close

The decision to negotiate is closely related to the desirability of _______________________.

available alternatives

The term ____________ is used to describe the competitive, win-lose situations such as haggling over price that happens at yard sale, flea market, or used car lot.

bargaining

The package of issues for negotiation is the ______________________.

bargaining mix

The spread between the resistance points is called the ________________________.

bargaining range

The ____________________________ is the tendency to neglect to use information that is available but expressed in numerical probabilities.

base rate fallacy

The six categories of marginally ethical negotiating tactics are: 1) competitive bargaining, 2) emotional manipulation, 3) misrepresentation, 4) misrepresentation to opponent's networks, 5) inappropriate information gathering, and 6) ___________.

bluffing

"Calling" the tactic indicates to the other side that you know he is ____________ or ___________.

bluffing; lying

Negotiating parties always negotiate by _________.

choice

Successful ____________ requires a fundamental reformulation of the problem such that the parties are no longer squabbling over their positions; instead, they are disclosing sufficient information to discover their interests and needs and then inventing options that will satisfy both parties' needs.

bridging

If one side is not prepared to make concessions, either the other must ____________ or the negotiations will ____________.

capitulate; deadlock

Without effective planning and target setting, results occur more by ____________ than by negotiator effort.

chance

For integrative negotiation to succeed, the parties must be motivated to ____________ rather than to compete.

collaborate

When one party accepts a change in his or her position, a ____________ has been made.

concession

An offer that may have been accepted had it emerged as a result of _________________ may be rejected when it is presented as a fait accompli.

concession making

Effective goals must be ___________, ___________, and ___________.

concrete; specific; measurable

Having a sense of direction and the ____________ derived from it is a very important factor in affecting negotiating outcomes.

confidence

Most people initially believe that ____________ is always bad or dysfunctional.

conflict

Parties who employ the ____________ strategy maintain their own aspirations and try to persuade the other party to yield.

contending

Those who do not share a belief that they can work together in an integrative negotiation are less willing to invest the time and energy in the potential payoffs of a collaborative relationship and are more likely to assume a ____________ or ____________ approach to conflict.

contending, accommodating

Those wishing to achieve integrative results find that they must manage the ____________ and ____________ of the negotiation in order to gain the willing cooperation and commitment of the other party.

context, process

Most actual negotiations are a combination of claiming and ____________ value processes.

creating

When a negotiator has used a tactic that may produce a reaction the negotiator must prepare to ____________ the tactic's use.

defend

The objective is not to eliminate conflict but to learn how to manage it to control the ____________ elements while enjoying the productive aspects.

destructive

A party changing his or her position after a commitment should be given every opportunity to retreat with ____________.

dignity

Although the conflict may appear initially to be win-lose to the parties, ____________ and ____________ ____________ will usually suggest win-win alternatives.

discussion, mutual exploration

In a ____________ negotiation, the other party may be less likely to disclose information, and/or may misrepresent their limits and alternatives.

distributive

What is a disadvantage to brainstorming over surveys?

does not solicit the ideas of those who are not present at the negotiation

The two-dimensional framework called the ____________________________________ postulates that people in conflict have two independent types of concern.

dual concerns model

What are the four major steps in the integrative negotiation process?

identifying and defining the problem surfacing interests and needs generating alternative solutions to the problem evaluating those alternatives and selecting among them

What is the benefit of bringing different interests to the surface?

enable parties to see that they care about different things and can invent a solution that addresses the interests of both sides

The concept of ____________ ethics states that the rightness of an action is determined by evaluating the pros and cons of its consequences.

end-result

Most hardball tactics are designed to either ____________ the appearance of the bargaining position of the person using the tactic or to ______________ the appearance of the options available to the other party.

enhance; detract from

In an integrative negotiation, negotiators must be ____________ about their primary interests and needs, but ____________about the manner in which these interests and needs are met through solutions.

firm, flexible P

Commitments exchange ____________ for certainty of action.

flexibility

When there are strong negative feelings or when one or more parties are inclined to dominate, negotiators may create ____________, ____________ procedures for communication.

formal, structured

The ____________ of people's goals, and the ____________ of the situation in which they are going to negotiate, strongly shapes negotiation processes and outcomes.

interdependence; structure

Integrative negotiation solutions should be judged on two major criteria: how ____________ they are, and how ____________ they will be to those who have to implement them.

good, acceptable

Two of the dilemmas in mutual adjustment that all negotiators face are the dilemma of ____________ and the dilemma of _________.

honesty;trust

If you are aware that the other party is bluffing or lying, simply ______________ it, especially if the deception concerns a relatively minor aspect of the negotiation.

ignore

Effective ____________ exchange promotes the development of good integrative solutions.

information

When people trust each other, they are more likely to share _____________ and to _____________ accurately their needs, positions, and the facts of the situation.

information, communicate

Multiple-issue negotiations lend themselves more to more ____________ negotiations.

integrative

There is a positive relationship between an attitude toward the use of each specific tactic and the ______________ to use it.

intention

Explanations and justifications are self-serving ____________ for one's own conduct.

rationalizations

How should the problem statement be constructed?

it should state the problem as succinctly as possible while ensuring that the most important dimensions and elements are included

Research has shown that when brainstormers work at the process for a long period of time, the best ideas are most likely to surface during the ____________ part of the activity.

latter

Distributive bargaining is basically a competition over who is going to get the most of a _______________________.

limited resource

Another way to strengthen a commitment is to ____________ with one or more allies.

link

The strategy of ____________ is effective not only in inventing options, but also as a mechanism to combine options into negotiated packages.

logrolling

The ____________ of a negotiator can clearly affect the tendency to use deceptive tactics.

motivation

Independent parties are able to meet their own ____________ without the help and assistance of others.

needs

Successful integrative negotiation requires that the negotiators search for solutions that meet the ____________ and ____________ of both (all) sides.

needs, objectives

As a problem is defined jointly, it should accurately reflect both parties' ____________ and ____________.

needs, priorities

People ____________ all the time.

negotiate

A "field analysis" is one way to assess all the key parties in a ___________.

negotiation

What must an experienced negotiator manage to achieve successful integrative outcomes?

negotiators must work hard to overcome inhibiting factors and search assertively for common ground. those wishing to achieve integrative results find that they must manage both the context and the process of the negotiation in order to gain the cooperation and commitment of all parties.

For positive problem solving to occur, both parties must be committed to stating the problem in ____________ terms.

neutral

There are times when you should _________ negotiate.

not

Problem definition should specify what ____________ must be overcome for the goal to be attained.

obstacles

To communicate the most effective message, a negotiator should try to send a consistent message through both an ______________________ and an ____________________.

opening offer; opening stance

In integrative negotiation, ____________ are measured by the degree to which they meet both negotiators' goals.

outcomes

Define "bridging."

parties are able to invent new options to meet each side's needs. requires fundamental reformulation of the problem such that parties are no longer squabbling over their positions but rather disclosing sufficient information to discover their needs and interests and then inventing options that satisfy both parties.

Effective strategy and ____________ are the most critically important precursors for achieving negotiation objective.

planning

Negotiations often begin with statements of opening _________.

positions

A ____________ bargaining range occurs when the buyer's resistance point is above the seller's.

positive

The purpose of using ethically ambiguous negotiating tactics is to increase the negotiator's ______________ in the bargaining environment.

power

Negotiation is based on information dependence—the exchange of information to learn the true ____________ and ____________ of the other negotiator.

preferences; priorities

The integrative negotiation process cannot work unless negotiators avoid ____________ ____________ until they have fully defined the problem and examined all the possible alternative solutions.

premature solutions

Good ____________ is critical for defending against the lowball/highball (or all) hardball tactics.

preparation

The ____________ step is often the most difficult step in the integrative negotiation process.

problem identification

Negotiation is a ____________ that transforms over time.

process

Define "nonspecific compensation."

process that allows one person to obtain his objectives and "pay off" the other person accommodating his interests. may be unrelated to the substantive negotiation but the party who receives it nevertheless views it as adequate for acceding to the other party's preferences

Even cooperatively motivated negotiators have less trust, exchange less information about preferences and priorities, and achieve agreements of lower joint profit when they can ____________ the other party than when they do not have this capability.

punish

When the other side raises an unexpected issue the negotiator is completely unprepared to discuss, the experienced negotiator may ask for a ____________ to get information and prepare themselves on the new issue.

recess

What two approaches can be used to generate alternative solutions?

redefine, recast, or reframe the problem to create win-win alternatives from what seemed to be win-lose taking the problem as given and creating a long list of alternative options from which to choose a particular option

A ________________________ is the place where you decide that you should absolutely stop the negotiation rather than continue because any settlement beyond this point is not minimally acceptable.

resistance point

Central to planning the strategy and tactics for distributive bargaining is effectively locating the other party's _____________________.

resistance point

The _______________________ is the point beyond which a person will not go and would rather break off negotiations.

resistance point

When parties are interdependent, they have to find a way to ____________ their differences.

resolve

A ____________ goal is one in which both parties work toward a common end but one that benefits each party differently.

shared

How should integrative negotiators separate the problem definition from the search for solutions?

should avoid stating solutions that favor one side or the other until they have fully defined the problem and examined as many alternative solutions as possible

Channeling all communication through a _____________________ reduces inadvertent revelation of information.

team spokesperson

People who are interdependent but do not trust each other will act ____________ or ____________.

tentatively, defensively

In some ways, the ultimate weapon in negotiation is to threaten to __________________.

terminate negotiations

3. Most of the ethical questions in negotiation are about standards of ___________.

truth telling

Asking questions can reveal a great deal of information, some of which the negotiator may intentionally leave ___________.

undisclosed

A negotiator who judges a tactic on the basis of its consequences is making judgments according to the tenets of act _____________.

utilitarianism

Integrative negotiation requires negotiators to accept both their own and the other's attitudes, interests and desires as ____________.

valid

How can personal preferences get in the way of integrative negotiations?

when parties are engaged in conflict, they tend to become evaluative and judgmental. they view their own actions, strategies, and preferences in a negative light. such evaluative judgments can get in the way of clear and dispassionate thinking

MGT 422 FINAL

Set pelajaran terkait

network+

WW2 Final

PL/SQL 1Z0-144 Exam

Unit 6

Psycho - Unit 3

Capstone 2

Macro Set 2

Hey Whipple Squeeze This

LPI Linux Essentials 010 V1.6 - Chapter 14 Quiz

Intro to Culinary Kitchen Safety Quiz

ECON 1030 - Production

President of the Philippines

Converting Decimals, Fractions, and Percents

Medical Terminology ch 1

AZ-900 terms

Castles for Enzymes

U.S. History Chapter 4 test

blaw - ch 19: agency law #1

drugs for Constipation

Microbiology Ch. 6 Viruses