micro final study questions

these are called: A. Latent viruses. B. Lytic viruses. C. Phages. D. Slow viruses. E. Unconventional viruses. 64.Which one of the following statements about HIV is not true? A. The T

cell response triggers viral multiplication. B. HIV can be transmitted by cell-to-cell contact. C. Bone marrow can be a reservoir for future infection. D. Viral infection of TH cells results in signs elsewhere in the patient. E. HIV infection directly causes death. 65.Drugs, such as AZT and ddC, currently used to treat AIDS act by: A. Stimulating TH cells B. Stopping DNA synthesis C. Promoting antibody formation D. Neutralizing the virus E. None of the above 66.Reverse transcriptase transcribes: A. DNA into protein. B. RNA into RNA. C. RNA into protein. D. RNA into DNA. 67.Which of the following is not considered personal protective equipment? A. Short-sleeved top B. Protective eyewear C. Mask D. Long-sleeved jacket E. Gloves 68.Wearing gloves does not replace hand washing. A. True B. False 69.Hands must be washed before donning gloves, but not after removing gloves. A. True B. False. 70.Gloves must be worn when there is the potential for contacting: A. Mucous membranes B. Saliva C. Blood D. All of the above 71.This type of glove is worn during oral surgical procedures. A. Patient examination gloves B. Sterile surgeon's gloves C. Utility gloves that are puncture- and chemical-resistant D. None of the above 72.A mask should be changed: A. Only if it is wet B. Once a day C. Every 30 minutes D. After each patient 73.Which of the following statements about protective eyewear is false? A. Protective eyewear must contain side shields. B. Protective eyewear is indicated not only to prevent physical injury, but also to prevent infection. C. Personal eyeglasses can substitute for protective eyewear. D. Contaminated reusable protective eyewear should be washed thoroughly with soap and water, rinsed well, and when visibly soiled, disinfected between patients, according to the manufacturer's directions. 74.A face shield and mask may be worn when additional protection is desired from spray and spatter generated during dental procedures. A. True B. False 75.Which of the following statements about protective clothing is false? A. Gloves and other personal protective equipment should be used when handling contaminated laundry. B. It is permissible to allow employees to launder protective clothing at home as long as there is just a small amount of contamination. C. Protective clothing must prevent contamination of skin and underlying clothing. D. Protective clothing should be changed when it becomes visibly soiled and as soon as feasible if penetrated by blood or other potentially infectious fluids. 76.Latent allergens in the ambient air can cause respiratory and or anaphylactic symptoms in people with latex hypersensitivity. A. True B. False 77.Each of the following statements regarding hand hygiene is true except: A. Overall adherence among healthcare personnel is approximately 40%. B. Cleaning your hands before and after patient contact is one of the most important measures for preventing the spread of microorganisms in healthcare settings. C. Hand hygiene is not necessary if gloves are worn. D. Studies have shown an increased recovery of Gram-negative bacteria from personnel wearing artificial nails. 78.Each of the following statements regarding alcohol-based hand rubs is true except: A. Alcohol-based hand rubs reduce bacterial counts on the hands of HCP more effectively than plain soaps. B. Alcohol-based hand rubs can be made more accessible than sinks or other hand-washing facilities. C. Alcohol-based hand rubs require less time to use than traditional hand washing. D. Alcohol-based hand rubs have been demonstrated to cause less skin irritation and dryness than hand washing using soap and water. E. Alcohol-based hand rubs are only effective if they are applied for >60 seconds. 79.Each of the following statements regarding surgical hand hygiene is true except: A. When performing a surgical hand scrub, an antimicrobial soap must be used. B. When performing a surgical hand scrub, hands and forearms should be scrubbed for 6-12 minutes. C. If an alcohol-based hand rub is used, the hands must first be washed with soap and water. D. A surgical hand scrub is indicated before biopsy procedures, periodontal and implant surgery, and surgical extractions of teeth. 80.The three most common methods used to sterilize dental instruments are: A. Steam, dry heat, and flash sterilization B. Steam, unsaturated chemical vapor, and liquid chemical germicides C. Steam, dry heat, and unsaturated chemical vapor D. Dry heat, unsaturated chemical vapor, and liquid chemical germicides 81.According to the CDC, heat-tolerant critical and semi-critical patient-care items should be sterilized by: A. Liquid chemical germicides B. Heat C. Heat, but only if contaminated with blood D. intermediate-level disinfectants 82.Which statement is true regarding sterilization? A. Sterilization is less lethal than disinfection. B. Sterilization is not as safe as disinfection. C. Sterilization using liquid chemical germicides is the most commonly used method for dental instruments. D. Sterilization is a procedure that uses a physical or chemical procedure to destroy all microorganisms, including substantial numbers of resistant bacterial spores, which are the most difficult microorganisms to kill. 83.These types of sterilizers minimize corrosion and rust on carbon-steel instruments: A. steam and dry heat B. dry heat and unsaturated chemical vapor C. steam and unsaturated chemical vapor 84.Which of the following is false regarding wet instrument packages? A. It is critical to allow packages to dry and cool inside the sterilizer chamber to maintain sterility. B. Packages should not be touched until they are cool and dry because hot packs act as wicks, absorbing moisture and hence bacteria from hands. C. If packages are not completely dry following the sterilization cycle, they should be removed and placed near a fan to complete the drying process. D. Paper packaging materials may become torn if wet packages are handled. 85.The class of chemical that is classified as an anionic detergent is: A. sodium hypochlorite B. iodophor C. liquid soap D. quaternary ammonium solution E. complex phenol 86.Properties of iodophors as disinfectants include: A. stain skin easily B. slow release of iodine for disinfection C. destroy only Gram-positive bacteria D. prepared as alcohol-based solutions for clinical use 87.Tuberculocidal activity has been demonstrated with active solutions of each of the following, except: A. anionic detergents B. 1:100 aqueous dilution of sodium hypochlorite C. complex phenol disinfectants D. alcohol-quaternary ammonium disinfectants E. iodophor disinfectants 88.For a chemical to be classified as a "high-level disinfectant," it must be able to: A. Be nontoxic on epithelial tissues B. Destroy microbial spores with prolonged exposure C. Have a residual antimicrobial effect on treated surfaces D. Inactivate hepatitis viruses within 10 minutes E. Kill M. tuberculosis within 5 minutes of exposure time 89.An occupational-exposure incident is defined as a percutaneous injury or contact of mucous membrane or nonintact skin with: A. blood, saliva, tissue, or other body fluids that are potentially infectious. B. blood, tissue, or other body fluids that are potentially infectious, but not saliva. C. blood only. D. none of the above. 90.Which of the following statements is false? A. Most occupational exposures do not result in infection. B. Following a specific exposure, the risk of infection will not vary with the amount of blood involved in the exposure. C. All occupational-exposure incidents should be treated as medical emergencies and tended to immediately. D. Wounds or skin sites that have been in contact with blood or body fluids should be washed with soap and water, and mucous membranes should be flushed with water. 91.Which of the following is true regarding post-exposure prophylaxis following a needlestick exposure to HIV-infected blood? A. The risk of developing HIV is 30% following a needlestick injury. B. Post exposure prophylaxis is not indicated. C. Initiate post exposure prophylaxis within hours of the exposure. 92.The rate of fungal infection has dramatically increased in recent years due to all of the following EXCEPT: A. Increased immunocompromised population B. Increased and unwarranted use of antibiotics C. Increased invasive surgeries D. Increased exposure to fungi 93.The spores of Histoplasma capsulatum are inhaled, and the primary site of infection is the lung. How does the pathogen cause oral manifestations? A. The hyphae grow through the tissue in the sinuses until it reaches the oral mucosa, where it causes sores B. The patient transfers the yeast cells through sneezing or coughing C. The patient transfers the spores through sneezing or coughing D. Yeast cells enter the blood stream and lymphatics and reach the oral cavity, thus these oral infections can indicate the spread to a range of other tissues E. Poor dental hygiene enables the fungus to spread 94.All of the following are lacking a cell wall except A. Protoplasts. B. Fungi. C. L-forms. D. Mycoplasma spp E. Animal cells. 95. The reason why Azole antifungals and Amphoterricin B are specific for fungal rather than mammalian cells is: A. The fungal cell wall is the target of these drugs B. Fungi produce ergosterol rather than cholesterol C. Human cells can degrade these drugs before they kill the cell D. The different ribosome structure in fungi make them susceptible to these drugs E. These drugs are quickly and specifically delivered to fungal cells therefore avoiding contact with human cells 96.The most common causes of oral fungal infections is: A. Candida albicans, Histoplasma capsulatum, and Aspergillus species B. Candida albicans and a few other Candida species C. The dermatophytes D. Systemic dimorphic fungal pathogens such as Blastomyces E. Eating moldy bread and cheese 97.Risk factors for oral Candida infections include: A. Antibiotic treatment, diabetes, wearing dentures and HIV infection B. Xerostomia C. High blood pressure D. A, B and C E. A and B 98.Which statement is true? A. All pathogenic fungi are primary pathogens B. Most fungal species are able to cause disease in the immunocompromized patient C. Perhaps 200 species of fungi are able to cause disease in humans, most of these are opportunistic pathogens D. Fungi cause disease only in the immunocompromized E. All pathogenic fungi are highly contagious and quickly spread from one patient to another 99.The fungal cell: A. Is similar to a bacterial cell and most antibiotics are effective at treating fungal infections B. Is identical to the host mammalian cells making treatment difficult C. Is very similar to mammalian cells in many respects but has some important differences such as a cell wall D. Is very similar to bacterial cells in many respects but has some important differences such as a cell wall E. Is very similar to mammalian cells in many respects but lacks a nucleus and has a cell wall 100.Virulence factors of Candida albicans include: A. Secreted enzymes including proteases and lipases which degrade host tissue B. A capacity to switch between yeast and hyphal growth forms which seems to aid tissue penetration C. Spores which are easily aerosolized and inhaled to infect a new person D. Multiple adhesins which bind to host tissue E. A, B and D 101.Which of the following statements BEST describes dental caries: A. Chemical dissolution of enamel in the absence of fluoride protection B. Localized demineralization of tooth enamel by acids of bacterial origin produced from the fermentation of dietary sugars C. Demineralization of structurally defective enamel D. Genetically-determined disease E. Invariably develops in the absence of oral hygiene 102.The rate of fungal infection has dramatically increased in recent years due to all of the following EXCEPT: A. Increased immunocompromised population B. Increased and unwarranted use of antibiotics C. Increased invasive surgeries D. Increased exposure to fungi 103.Which of the following statements about glucosyltransferase (GTF) expressed by S. mutans is/are true ? A. It is a virulence factor that contributes to induction of dental caries. B. It is an enzyme that uses sucrose as its substrate. C. It synthesizes extracellular glucans from sucrose. D. All of the above. 104. Which of the following experimental strategies could-at least theoretically- prevent the development of dental caries? A. Immunization against mutans streptococci. B. Replacement therapy. C. Antimicrobial agents (xylitol and chlorexidine) D. All of the above 105.When it comes to diet and dental caries, important issues to be considered are: A. Frequency of meals B. Amount and concentration of sucrose in meals C. Consistency of food (adhesive and sticky foods) D. Fermentable carbohydrates and sugar substitutes E. All of the above 106.Porphyromonas gingivalis has been implicated in periodontal disease pathogenesis mainly because: A. It is a gram-negative bacterium. B. It can grow in the oral cavity. C. It can induce inflammation in the periodontal tissue and cause alveolar bone loss. D. There is no evidence linking P. gingivalis to periodontal disease. 107.Which of the statements below best describes the role of periodontal pathogens in atherosclerosis. A. There is no epidemiological or experimental evidence linking periodontal pathogens to atherosclerosis B. It is not periodontal bacteria but cariogenic bacteria that have been linked to the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis. C. Current epidemiological or experimental evidence suggests a possible contributory role by certain periodontal pathogens such as P. gingivalis in atherosclerosis. D. Infection with P. gingivalis invariably causes atherosclerosis 108.Which of the following statements is (are) true about pulpitis (inflammation of the dental pulp)? A. It can be acute or chronic B. It is always septic (associated with bacterial infection) never aseptic. C. It is irreversible D. All of the above 109.Which of the following characteristics is NOT true about periapical granulomas? A. Discomfort on chewing B. Sensitivity on percussion C. Positive pulp test D. May result in increased tooth motility E. Well-defined radiolucency at apex 110.Good oral hygiene may contribute to oral health because: A. It may prevent unchecked overgrowth of potentially harmful bacteria. B. It can remove food residues (eg, sticky sugars) that could be used by pathogenic bacteria. C. It may contribute to the prevention of oral malodor attributable to certain Gram (-) bacteria. D. All of the above 111.Streptococcus mutans is: A. Aciduric B. Acidogenic C. Both acidogenic and aciduric D. Neither acidogenic or aciduric 112.The pioneer species in the development of dental plaque are primarily: A. Gram-negative bacteria B. Gram-positive bacteria C. Acid-Fast bacteria D. A combination of all of the above 113.What systemic diseases are linked to periodontal disease? A. cardiovascular disease B. premature babies C. diabetes D. all of the above 114.Fluoride concentrated in plaque and saliva interrupts the caries process by ______________ demineralization and _____________the remineralization of enamel. A. inhibiting, enhancing B. enhancing, inhibiting C. inhibiting, inhibiting D. enhancing, enhancing 115. Saliva can influence the oral microflora by: A. Adsorbing to the tooth surface to form a conditioning film (the acquired pellicle) to which micro-organisms can attach. B. Acting as primary sources of nutrients for the resident microflora C. Aggregating micro-organisms thus facilitating clearance D. Inhibiting the growth of micro-organisms (lysozyme, defensins, lactoferrin) E. All of the above 116.What bacteria are associated with periodontal disease A. Streptococcus mutans B. Lactobacillus casei C. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans D. Escherichia coli 117.Different species produce acids at different rates and vary in their ability to survive under such conditions. This characteristic change plaque pH after exposure to a carbohydrate produces a curve that is termed the: A. Stephanopolous curve B. Stephan curve C. Sucrose Limiting curve D. Stevens curve 118.The bacteria cannot metabolize xylitol, causing a disruption in their protein synthesis. The result is a decrease in the number of _____________, and as a result, the pH level returns to homeostasis. A. P. gingivalis B. F. nucleatum C. S. mutans D. A. actinomycetemcomitans E. S. mitis 119.The most cariogenic sugar is: A. Maltose B. Fructose C. Xylitol D. Sucrose E. Galactose 120.Sucrose is an important factor in Streptococcus mutans-induced dental caries because: A. It is the primary constituent of the salivary pellicle B. Mutans streptococci cannot produce acid by using sugars other than sucrose C. It is required for the synthesis of extracellular glucans which are adhesive substances that promote S. mutans colonization D. None of the above E. All of the above 121.Which of the following could be associated with xerostomia or dry mouth: A. Rampant caries B. Chemotherapy C. Sjögren's syndrome D. Stress E. All the above 122.Which of the following is true about the epidemiology of dental caries: A. It is still a major health problem, especially in developing countries B. It is one of the most infectious diseases C. It is a leading cause of absenteeism from school or work D. Dental caries can cause both physical and mental suffering E. All of the above 123.Which of the following statements about caries is not TRUE? A. Dental caries is a multi-factorial disease B. Key factors involved in the development include host susceptibility, saliva, certain groups of C. plaque bacteria, diet and oral hygiene D. Having a "dry mouth" does not increase susceptibility to caries. E. Frequent carbohydrate intake, especially sucrose will likely result in continued plaque acidification and development of carious lesions. F. Effective control of dental caries requires comprehensive strategies 124.Which of the following is not a cariogenic bacterium: A. Streptococcus gordonii B. Lactobacilli C. Enterococcus faecalis D. Bifidobacterium E. Actinomyces spp. 125.Which of the following is part of the modern philosophy in caries control: A. Early detection B. Accurate diagnosis C. Minimal cavity preparation D. Active prevention E. All of the above 126.A number of current antifungal therapies target infectious fungi by: A. Inhibiting ergosterol biosynthesis B. Disrupting the pepitidoglycan cell wall C. Inhibiting the transition into the pathogenic morphological forms D. All of the above E. Both A and B 127.Which of the following statements is NOT true: A. Mycotoxins tend to be very different from bacterial toxins. B. Not all infectious fungi produce mycotoxins C. Aflatoxin can cause liver cancer D. Mycotoxins are usually proteins E. Exposure to mycotoxins is often through direct contact, inhalation or ingestion 128.Which of the following statements is NOT true about Histoplasma capsulatum: A. Histoplasma grows through host tissue as invasive hyphae B. Histoplasma grows as small yeast cells in the soil, which can be easily inhaled C. Histoplasmosis usually starts as an oral lesion, and in immunocompromised patients the fungus can disseminate through the blood to the lungs D. A, B and C are all untrue E. B and C are untrue 129.A major problem with Polyene antifungals is: A. Many Candida species such as Candida albicans can rapidly acquire resistance B. They have relatively high levels of patient toxicity C. They are only effective against Candida and Aspergillus infections D. Both A and B E. None of the above are correct 130.Which of the following is NOT true: A. A Baker's triad is indicative of a Mucormycosis infection B. Diabetes is a major risk factor for Mucormycosis C. Mucormycosis usually follows a course of treatment with a broad spectrum antibiotic D. Mucormycosis is caused by rapidly growing fungi including Mucor and Rhizopus E. Mucormycosis infections have very high rates of patient death 131.Which best describes the nature of disseminated candidiasis: A. A communicable infection B. A polymicrobial infection caused by several species of Candida C. An endogenous infection D. An exogenous infection E. Both B and C 132.There has been a major increase in the number of both mucosal and disseminated fungal infections in recent times because: A. Fungi are more abundant now than in previous decades B. The development and use of a multitude of immunosuppressive therapies C. Fungi have rapidly evolved new 'virulence factors' D. A, B and C are all true E. None of the above are true 133.Echinocandin antifungals target: A. The fungal vacuole B. The fungal cell wall C. Ergosterol biosynthesis D. Directly bind ergosterol in the fungal plasma membrane E. None of the above 134.Which of the following fungi cannot cause disseminated (systemic) infections in immunocompromised patients: A. Candida albicans B. Trychophyton species C. Aspergillus fumigates D. Blastomyces dermatidis E. Cryptococcus neoformans 135.Which species of fungus produce keratinase? A. Candida albicans B. Histoplasma capsulatum C. Many species of dermatophyte D. Cryptococcus neoformans E. None of the above 136.Which of the following infections is NOT initiated by inhalation of an infectious fungal particle? A. Cryptococcosis B. Histoplasmosis C. Aspergillosis D. Candidiasis E. North American Blastomycosis 137.What are conidia? A. A branched hyphal network B. Asexual fungal spores C. Sexual fungal spores D. Small yeast cells E. None of the above 138.Classic risk factors for oropharyngeal candidiasis include: A. Dental carries B. High blood pressure C. Neutropenia D. HIV infection E. All of the above 139.Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for oropharyngeal candidiasis? A. Corticosteroid usage B. Neutropenia C. Xerostomia D. Diabetes E. Dentures ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 140.With respect to periodontal disease, the 'orange' complex bacteria include: Escherichia coli A. Prevotella intermedia B. Aggregatibacter actinomycetamcomitans C. Treponema pallidum D. Streptococcus gordonii 141.With respect to periodontal disease, which of the following are NOT considered 'red' complex bacteria: A. Tannerella forsythia B. Treponema denticola C. Porphyromonas gingivalis D. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans E. All of the above are considered 'red' complex bacteria 142.Cervicofacial actinomycosis is: A. Characterized by draining sinuses with yellow sulphur granules B. Characterized by the presence of gram positive branching rod shaped bacteria C. A polymicrobial infection D. Both a and c are true E. Both a and b are true 143.Ludwig's Angina most often occurs: A. Following extraction of a tooth from the mandibular dentition B. Following extraction of a tooth from the maxillary dentition C. Only in HIV positive individuals D. Mostly in the immunosuppressed and elderly E. As a sequelae of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis 144.How does the types of bacteria change as chronic periodontal disease progresses? A. The proportion of Gram negative aerobic bacteria increases B. The proportion of Gram positive facultative anaerobes increases C. The proportion of strictly anaerobic Gram negatives increases D. The proportion of strictly anaerobic Gram positive bacteria increases E. Acid fast bacilli take over 145.The fusospirochaetal complex consists of: A. Fusobacterium and a spirochaete such as Treponema denticola B. Fusobacterium and a spirochaete such as Porphyromonas gingivalis C. A spirochaete with Treponema denticola D. Fusobacterium and a spirochaete such as Actinomyces israelii E. None of the above 146.Aggressive periodontal disease is associated with an abundance of: A. The fusospirochaetal complex B. The black pigmented anaerobes C. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans D. Streptococcus mutans E. Treponema denticola 147.Oral spirochaetes are: A. Motile bacteria which move using flagella B. Motile bacteria which move using an axial filament C. Non-motile gram positive cocci D. Non-motile gram positive bacilli E. Non-motile gram negative bacteria 148.Gingival crevicular fluid: A. Is produced in the salivary glands B. Is basically the same composition as saliva C. Is only released when the gingival tissue is damaged D. Stops flowing during periodontal disease E. Is derived from blood serum which seeps out of local blood vessels 149.Many periodontal pathogens such as Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans and Prevotella intermedia tend to be found only in the gingival crevice because: A. They need to derive growth factors such as hemin from their host via the gingival crevice B. They derive energy by breaking down lactic acid produced by Strep. mutans C. They require a temperature of 37˚C for growth D. They must adhere directly to the epithelial cells at the junctional epithelium E. They can escape competition for species present on the tooth surface 150.Typical characteristics of the most virulent periodontal pathogens include: A. The ability to produce lactic acid B. Secretion of proteolytic enzymes, cytotoxins and leukotoxins, as well as the capacity to adhere to other oral bacteria C. Adhesins which enable direct binding to epithelial cells in the gingival sulcus D. Adhesins which enable binding to the dental pellicle on enamel E. All of the above 151.Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis occurs: A. Because the host immune defenses are severely weakened and unable to prevent bacterial invasion of the gingival tissues B. Because of an inherited immune dysfunction which prevents chemotaxis of immune cells towards Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans C. Only in HIV infected patients D. Even when oral hygiene is good E. Principally in adults 152. Aggressive periodontal disease in pre-pubertal patients: A. Occurs only when dental hygiene is completely lacking B. Occurs because the host immune defenses are severely weakened and unable to prevent bacterial invasion of the gingival tissues C. Is much more frequent in Caucasian's than other populations D. Because of an inherited immune dysfunction which prevents chemotaxis of immune cells towards Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans E. Because of an anatomical abnormality which makes it difficult to remove all subgingival plaque 153.Fusobacterium nucleatum: A. Has an important role as a 'bridging' microbe, which allows several periodontal pathogens to adhere to supragingival plaque B. Forms black pigmented colonies on blood agar C. Has an important role as a 'bridging' microbe, which allows several periodontal pathogens to adhere to subgingival plaque D. Is part of the 'red complex' of periodontal pathogens E. Is only found in acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis 154. Many of the most virulent periodontal pathogens are: A. Able to rapidly metabolize sugars such as sucrose to form organic acids B. Commensal bacteria found in the oral cavity C. Infectious microbes acquired by contact with other individuals with periodontal disease D. Highly proteolytic bacteria E. Both B and D are true 155.During the development of periodontal disease: A. The number of PMN's dramatically declines in the gingival crevicular fluid B. The number of PMN's dramatically increases in the gingival crevicular fluid C. The number of PMN's doesn't change much D. PMN's secrete antibodies against pathogenic microbes in the gingival pocket E. Antibody secretion by PMN's into the gingival crevicular fluid is stimulated 156.Phagocytic cells such as PMN's: A. Protect against periodontal disease B. Can contribute to tissue destruction upon bacterial mediated lysis C. Are less important than antibodies in controlling gingival plaque D. A, B and C are all true E. Only A and B are true 157.Periodontal disease is usually considered an: A. Exogenous mono-microbial infection B. Endogenous mono-microbial infection C. Exogenous poly-microbial infection D. Endogenous poly-microbial infection E. A communicable disease 158.Endodontal infections are usually an: A. Exogenous monomicrobial infection caused by a primary pathogen B. Opportunistic endogenous monomicrobial infection C. Opportunistic exogenous polymicrobial infection D. Opportunistic endogenous polymicrobial infection E. Endogenous polymicrobial infection caused by a primary pathogen 159.What does GCF NOT contain: A. Lactoferrin B. Serum proteins including lysozyme C. PMN's and lymphocytes D. Complement E. IgD 160.As a periodontal disease progresses, the periodontal pocket: A. Becomes more anaerobic B. Becomes more acidic C. Becomes more alkali D. Both A and B are true E. Both A and C are true 161.Aggressive periodontal disease: A. Most often occurs in malnourished children B. Most often occurs following a severe viral infection such as the measles C. Is more frequent in boys than girls D. Both A and B are true E. None of the above is true 162.Noma: A. Most often occurs in malnourished children B. Most often occurs following a severe viral infection such as the measles C. Is more frequent in girls than boys D. Both A and B are true E. None of the above is true 163.Nearly all periodontal pathogens only colonize the gingival crevice because: A. They need an anaerobic environment B. They can kill of competing 'healthy' bacteria by producing lactic acid which accumulates to high levels in the gingival pocket C. They can avoid the host defense factors such as lysozyme found in saliva D. The GCF fluid contains high levels of sugars which they can use as a nutrient source E. The warmer temperature helps them grow faster 164.Halitosis is often caused by bacteria growing in anaerobic sites such as the gingival crevice and papilla of the tongue, which convert: A. Phospholipids to volatile sulphur compounds B. Sugars to volatile sulphur compounds C. The amino acids cysteine and methionine to volatile sulphur compounds D. The bases adenine and guanine to volatile sulphur compounds E. The bases thymine and cytosine to volatile sulphur compounds 165.Many of the most virulent periodontal pathogens are: A. Primary colonizers of the gingival sulcus B. Primary pathogens C. Usually only found in immunosuppressed patients D. Secondary colonizers of the gingival sulcus E. Directly acquired by contact with other individuals with periodontal disease 166.Which of the following bacteria are associated with noma or cancrum oris? A. Actinomyces sp. B. Fusobacterium nucleatum C. Prevotella intermedia D. Porphyromonas gingivalis E. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans 167.What systemic diseases are linked to periodontal disease? A. Cardiovascular disease B. Premature babies C. Diabetes D. Osteoporosis E. All of the above 168.The source of bacteria which infect tooth pulp can include: A. The bloodstream if there is a transient bacteremia B. The germination of dormant endospores, which were present during tooth formation C. Bacteria invasion of the dentinal tubules following enamel loss due to carries D. Both A and C E. Both A and C 169.Cervicofacial actinomycosis most often occurs: A. When there is very poor oral hygiene B. Following trauma to the lower jaw C. In malnourished children D. Following a serious viral infection such as measles or a chronic bacterial infection such as TB E. Both C and D are true --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- MATCH which of the following anaerobic bacteria of the oral cavity have been primarily associated with: A. Porphyromonas gingivalis B. Fusobacterium nucleatum C. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans D. Prevotella intermedia E. Actinomyces spp 170. The major bridge organism in the development of dental plaque B 171. Consistently associated with chronic and severe adult periodontitis A 172. Vincent's angina B 173. Acute necrotizing gingivitis B 174. Localized juvenile periodontitis C 175. Macroscopic colonies that appear yellow or orange due to the presence of sulfur granules E 176. Formally thought to be fungi, but are true bacteria, with long branching filaments analogous to fungal hyphae. E 177. Cancrum oris B ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- MATCH: (NB: There is only one answer) A. Fab B. Fc C. IgG D. IgM E. IgA F. IgD G. IgE H. B-cells I. T-cells J. B Factor K. A Factor L. Classical complement pathway M. Alternate complement pathway N. Lectin complement pathway E 178. Antibody primarily involved in mucosal immunity E G 179. Antibody primarily involved in allergy G D 180. This antibody primarily exists as a pentamer D I 181. Cell involved in cell-mediated immunity I D 182. First antibody produced in response to an antigen D D 183. Immunoglobulin domain that binds complement D 184. Primary mucosal immunoglobulin E E 185. Exists as a dimer E J 186. Associated only with the alternate complement pathway J 187.Part of antibody molecule that binds to an antigen epitope A ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- MATCH which structures are associated with which type of organisms: A. Only Gram positive bacteria B. Only Gram-negative bacteria C. Both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria D. Both Eukaryotes and Prokaryotes E. Acid Fast bacteria F. Mycoplasma spp A 188. Teichoic Acids A 189. 70s ribosomes C B 190. Lipopolysaccharide B B 191. Porins B E 192. Mycolic Acid E C 193. Peptidoglycan C F 194. Sterols F --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Which of the following statements regarding T and B cells are TRUE/FALSE? You MUST answer A or B A. TRUE B. FALSE 195. B cells develop from stem cells in the bone marrow then migrate to the thymus from whence they seed the lymph nodes, spleen, blood and lymph. FALSE 196. Apoptosis of lymphocytes is a mechanism to prevent the development of leukemia FALSE 197. The concept of clonal selection is applicable to both T and B lymphocytes. TRUE 198. After initial contact with an immunogen, after several days there is a slow rise in antibody titer, first IgG antibodies then followed by IgM antibodies. FALSE 199. An example of a T-independent immunogen is a bacterial capsule. TRUE ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ Which of the following statement are TRUE/FALSE. You MUST answer A or B: A. TRUE B. FALSE 200. Primary colonizers of the salivary pellicle are predominant Gram-negative cocci. FALSE 201. As plaque develops the bacterial population furthest from the tooth surface tend to be predominantly anaerobic bacilli. TRUE 202. Both S. mutans and P. gingivalis are acquired when the first tooth erupts.-->FALSE 203. Gingival cervicular fluid increases dramatically during inflammatory periodontal disease TRUE 204. The normal flora of the oral cavity is established soon after birth and remains relatively constant until the onset of puberty. TRUE 205. Contents of saliva are very important in the establishment and development of plaque. TRUE 206. There are probably less than 500 different genera and species of bacteria residing in your mouth. FALSE 207. A breast fed baby would have a different oral flora than a bottle fed baby. TRUE 208. According to the ecological plaque hypothesis, once started, caries can be reversed. TRUE 209. The formation of plaque is essentially a multiplicity of receptor- ligand interactions. TRUE ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- An oral candidiasis infection in your patient can be easily treated, does not indicate underlying conditions, and there is no reason for you to alert the patient/ patient's doctor of this infection: A. Denture stomatitis B. Erythematous C. Pseudomembranous D. Hyperplastic E. Rhomboid glossitis F. Angular chelitis Choose the most appropriate answer from the above list 210. The most common manifestation C? 211. Lesions are adherent D 212. Lesions are easily scraped off C? 213. Chronic disease that can potentially lead to cancer D 214. Presents a signature "kissing lesion" E ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Are the following statements True or False? YOU MUST ANSWER A or B A. TRUE B. FALSE T 215. Studies have shown that vinyl gloves have higher failure rates than latex or nitrile gloves when tested under simulated and actual clinical conditions. TRUE T 216. Vulcanized rubber, contains allergenic rubber-processing chemicals and thus may contribute to allergic dermatitis. TRUE T 217. Ninety percent of the bacterial shower released by ultrasonic scalers has been associated with viridans streptococci, which can remain viable for as long as 24 hours. TRUE F 218. When a person shares air space with a patient who has infectious TB, standard surgical masks are extremely effective in preventing the inhalation of droplet nuclei containing tubercle bacilli. FALSE F 219. When wearing a face shield, it is not necessary to also wear a mask. FALSE 220. Disinfection procedures will adequately kill bacterial spores. FALSE T 221. Many dental healthcare personnel use dry-heat sterilizers because sharp cutting edges are preserved on surgical instruments. TRUE F 222. Dry-heat sterilization is regularly used to decontaminate rubber- and plastic-based materials and impression trays. FALSE ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Are the following statements about fungi True or False? YOU MUST ANSWER A or B A. TRUE B. FALSE T 223. The cell wall is unique to fungi and this characteristic makes it a good drug target. F 224. Opportunistic pathogens normally cause disease in the healthy host. F 225. Fungi do not need to adapt in order to evade host defenses and cause disease T 226. Candida albicans is a commensal organism. F 227. The immune status of the host is the only predisposing factor for oral candidiasis. F 228. Fungal infections can be treated with penicillin

23.Which of the following is not a chemical component of a bacterial cell wall? A. Cellulose B. Peptidoglycan C. Teichoic acids D. Peptide chains E. N acetylmuramic acid

cellulose

5. Which one of the following is an irregular, Gram positive rod and has metachromatic granules? A. Bordetella pertussis B. Corynebacterium diptheriae C. Myobacterium tuberculosis D. Streptococcus pyogenes E. Clostridium difficile

corynebacterium diptheriae

4. Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A. Corynebacterium = gram positive rod B. Mycobacterium = acid fast rod C. Bordetella = gram negative pleomorphic rod D. Mycoplasma = gram positive pleomorphic rod E. Haemophilus = gram negative coccus bacillus

d. mycoplasma= gram positive pleomorphic rod

2. Vaccines based on capsular antigens are used to prevent disease caused by the following organisms, EXCEPT: A. Neisseria meningitidis B. Streptococcus pneumonia C. Haemophilus influenzae, type b D. Streptococcus agalactiae (GBS) E. Streptococcus pyogenes (GAS)

e. streptococcus pyogens (GAS)

56.DNA made from an RNA template will go into the nucleus of a host cell infected by: Poliovirus. A. Herpesvirus. B. T

even phage. C. Retrovirus. D. Both Poliovirus and Retrovirus E. Both Herpesvirus and Retrovirus- C? but then has Poliovirus at the top

8. A positive Mantoux test simply indicates: A. Active tuberculosis B. Exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Active leprosy D. Exposure to Mycobacterium leprae E. All of the above

exposure to mycobacterium tuberculosis

39.Common hepatitis virus infections include hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C. Which is the least life threatening and most mild of these diseases? A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C

hep A

41.This type of hepatitis may be traced to contaminated food or water, especially inadequately cooked shellfish. A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis A, B and C E. Both Hepatitis A and B F. Both Hepatitis A and C G. Both Hepatitis B and C

hep A

50.As a dental hygienist, you would be at risk for contracting a number of infectious diseases. Which of the following carries the least risk: A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. HIV E. In my profession, I am at a great risk for contracting all of the above diseases.

hep A

16. One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in: A. Body odor. B. Fewer diseases. C. Increased susceptibility to disease. D. Normal microbiota returning immediately. E. No bacterial growth because washing removes their food source.

increase susceptibility to disease

30.Immunity that is not due to antibodies. A. Innate immunity B. Naturally acquired active immunity C. Naturally acquired passive immunity D. Artificially acquired active immunity E. Artificially acquired passive immunity

innate immunity

18.Which of the following is a vector? A. Water B. Droplets from a sneeze C. Pus D. Insects E. A hypodermic needle

insects

28.Aspirin will depress the development of fever by: A. Interfering in the synthesis of Tumour Necrosis Factor B. Interfering with Interleukin 1 synthesis C. Interfering with prostaglandin synthesis D. Preventing uptake of LPS by macrophages E. All of the above

interfering with prostaglandin synthesis

13.Which of the following is least effective in preventing nosocomial infections? A. Aseptic technique B. Culturing fomites in a hospital C. Keeping insects out of hospitals D. Sterilizing bandages E. Disinfecting respirators

keeping insects out of hospitals

6. Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are found in the: A. Mouth. B. Large intestine. C. Stomach. D. Small intestine. E. Jejenum

large intestine

37.The risk of HIV transmission after percutaneous exposure in the dental setting to HIV infected blood is ?. A. High B. Moderate C. Low D. Negligible

low

14. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the plasma membrane? A. Maintains cell shape B. Composed of a phospholipid bilayer C. Contains proteins D. The site of cell wall formation E. Selectively permeable

maintains cell shape

32.Newborns' immunity due to the transfer of antibodies across the placenta. A. Innate immunity B. Naturally acquired active immunity C. Naturally acquired passive immunity D. Artificially acquired active immunity E. Artificially acquired passive immunity

naturally acquired passive immunity

12. Which of the following is not true about a glycocalyx? A. It may be composed of polysaccharide. B. It may be composed of polypeptide. C. It may be responsible for virulence. D. It is used to adhere to surfaces. E. None of the above.

none of the above

60.The following is true about Hepatitis D virus EXCEPT: A. Is a defective virus. B. It has a tropism for liver cells. C. It can lead to chronic liver disease. D. It requires a helper virus. E. None of the above.

none of the above

40.The hepatitis A virus has which primary portal of entry? A. Respiratory B. Oral fecal C. Skin D. Genital E. Blood

oral fecal

57.The most common route of accidental AIDS transmission to health care workers is: A. Mouth to mouth. B. Fecal

oral. C. Needlestick. D. Aerosol. E. Environmental surface contact. - needlestick

24.Which of the following does not achieve sterilization? A. Dry heat B. Pasteurization C. Autoclave D. Formaldehyde E. Ethylene oxide

pasteurization

35.The classical manifestation of latent tuberculosis infection is: A. Abscess B. Tubercle C. positive PPD skin test only D. miliary tuberculosis

positive PPD skin test only

58. Latent viruses are present in cells as: A. Capsids. B. Enzymes. C. Prophages. D. Proviruses. E. Glycoprotein spikes.

proviruses

42.Which of the following characteristics applies to hepatitis A virus (HAV)? A. Antibodies against HAV have been shown to confer long term protective immunity. B. Viral infection has a greater risk for development of a carrier state than hepatitis B virus infection. C. Cross

reactive immunity against HAV develops from receipt of the hepatitis B vaccine. D. HAV is a major occupational bloodborne infection risk for dental professionals. - antibodies against HAV have been shown to confer long term protective immunity

48.Which of the following occurs as a result of antigenic shift in influenza A virus? A. Recombination of RNA segments between human and bird viral strains B. Single point mutations in hemagglutinin C. Single point mutations in neuraminidase D. Morphologic shift from influenza A to influenza B virus

recombination of RNA segments between human and bird viral strains

53.An envelope is acquired during which of the following steps? A. Adsorption B. Attachment C. Penetration D. Release E. Uncoating

release

7. Reaction of antigen with IgE antibodies attached to mast cells causes: A. Lysis of the cells. B. Release of chemical mediators. C. Complement fixation. D. Agglutination.

release of chemical mediators

49.A patient is believed to be infected with Hepatitis B virus. The serology report indicates high levels of HBc IgG, HBsAg, and HBeAg. From these results you would conclude: A. The patient has an acute hepatitis B infection B. The patient has a resolved (past) hepatitis B infection, but is now infected with hepatitis E C. The patient has a chronic, non

replicating hepatitis B infection D. The patient has a chronic, replicating hepatitis B infection E. The patient has a resolved (past) hepatitis B infection - the patient has a chronic. replicating hepatitis B infection

47.The primary site of influenza virus infection is: A. Respiratory ciliated epithelial cells B. Alveoli C. Phagocytic monocytes D. CD4 lymphocytes E. CD8 lymphocytes

respiratory ciliated epithelial cells

59.The following steps occur during multiplication of Retroviruses. What is the fourth step? A. Synthesis of double stranded DNA B. Release C. Attachment D. Penetration E. Uncoating.

synthesis of double stranded DNA

20.The best treatment for Tetanus in an unimmunized person: A. Tetanus toxoid alone B. Tetanus immune globulin alone C. Tetanus toxoid + Tetanus immune globulin at different sites D. Apply a tourniquet at site of infection E. Tetanus toxoid + Tetanus immune globulin at the same site

tetanus toxoid + tetanus immune globulin at different sites

38.The most significant accomplishment regarding the medical management of HIV/AIDS is: A. The discovery of a cure B. The ability to control HIV replication through the use of highly active antiretroviral therapy C. The discovery of opportunistic infections D. The use of enzyme linked immunoassays to control HIV replication.

the ability to control HIV replication through the use of highly active antiretroviral therapy

21.Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity? A. PMNs B. Erythrocytes C. Lymphocytes D. Basophils E. Eosinophils

PMNs

51.An HIV patient receiving HAART suddenly takes a turn for the worse. The most likely explanation is: A. The patient has not been compliant with his/her medication regimen B. The virus may have mutated C. The patient has been re infected from his/her new partner with a new strain which is resistant to the current HAART regimen D. The patient's CD4+ T cell count has fallen below 200 cells/mm3 E. All of the above

all of the above

22.What test is used to determine if an individual diagnosed with a nephritic disorder had been previously exposed to a group A streptococcal infection? A. Dick Test B. ASO Titer C. Schick Test D. Mantoux test E. Dipto Test

ASO titer

1. Which is the best way to sterilize liquid heat labile substances? A. Dry heat B. Autoclave C. Membrane filtration D. Pasteurization E. Ethylene oxide gas

c. membrane filtration

43.The presence of _ in a patient's serum is considered to represent recovery and immunologic protection from hepatitis B. A. Anti HBc B. Anti HBs C. HBeAg D. Anti HAV E. None of the above

Anti HBs

31.Which of the following is not true about the classical pathway of complement activation? A. C3 is not involved in the classical pathway. B. C1 is the first protein activated in the classical pathway. C. C3b is intimately involved in opsonization. D. The C1 protein complex is initiated by antigen

antibody complexes. E. Cleaved fragments of some of the proteins act to increase inflammation. - C3 is not involved in the classical pathway

26.Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms: A. Are changes felt by the patient. B. Are changes observed by the physician. C. Are specific for a particular disease. D. Always occur as part of a syndrome. E. None of the above.

are changes felt by the patient

27.The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called: A. Ecology. B. Public health. C. Communicable disease. D. Morbidity and mortality. E.Epidemiology.

Epidemiology

9. A nosocomial infection is: A. Always present but inapparent at the time of hospitalization. B. Acquired during the course of hospitalization. C. Always caused by medical personnel. D. Only a result of surgery. E. Always caused by pathogenic bacteria.

b. acquired during the course of hospitalization

54.Which one of the following viruses is more likely to gain entry into the body through an accidental needle stick? A. Influenza. B. Poliovirus. C. Enterovirus. D. HIV E. Poliovirus and HIV F. Influenzae and an Enterovirus

HIV

62.The following is true about Herpes Simplex EXCEPT: A. Can be acquired through direct contact with lesions. B. Can be reactivated by stress. C. Recurrent infection is usually at the site of the primary infection. D. Acyclovir treatment can completely cure the virus. E. All of the above.

acyclovir treatment can completely cure the virus

29.The component of LPS that is responsible for the induction of fever is: A. O antigen B. H antigen C. Lipid A D. KDO

Lipid A

10. Legionella is transmitted by: A. Airborne transmission of water droplets B. Food borne transmission. C. Person to person contact. D. Fomites. E. Vectors.

airborne transmission of water droplets

11. Microbes can interfere with phagocytic function by: A. Elaboration of a capsule B. Production of C5a peptidase C. Production of leukocidins D. Preventing phagolysosomal fusion E. All of the above

all of the above

19.Which statement best describes diphtheria or Corynebacterium diphtheria? A. The organism is maintained in the population by asymptomatic carriage in the oropharynx or on the skin of immune individuals. B. Transmitted by respiratory droplets or skin contact. C. Humans are the only known reservoirs. D. Diphtheria is primarily a pediatric disease but there has been a shift to older age populations. E. All of the above.

all of the above

25.Which of the following affects the elimination of bacteria from an object? A. Number of bacteria present B. Temperature C. pH D. Presence of organic matter E. All of the above

all of the above

36. Which of the following statements best describes the humoral immune response? A. Involves the production of antibodies B. Components found in extracellular fluids C. Involves B lymphocytes D. Defends primarily against bacteria, bacterial products and viruses E. All of the above

all of the above

45.Which of the following have been involved in the transmission of hepatitis C? A. Accidental needlesticks B. Blood transfusions C. Drug addicts sharing contaminated syringes D. All of the above

all of the above

17.Which of the following is a fomite? A. Water B. Droplets from a sneeze C. Pus D. Insects E. A hypodermic needle

a hypodermic needle

33.Which of the following statements about Mycobacterium is false? A. Mycobacteria are intracellular organisms. B. The most common mode of transmission of M. tuberculosis is inhalation of infectious aerosols. C. Humans are the only natural reservoir for M. tuberculosis. D. The bacteria are spore formers. E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can remain dormant in hosts for years and reactivate.

the bacteria are spore formers

44.The presence of anti HBc in a person's serum would indicate: A. The person is immune from reinfection with HBV. B. The person is a carrier of HBV. C. The person has been infected with HBV. D. The person has been vaccinated against HBV. E. The person is about to become jaundiced.

the person has been vaccinated against HBV

52.Which of the following provides the most significant support for the idea that viruses are nonliving ? A. They are not composed of cells. B. They cannot reproduce themselves outside of a host. C. They cause diseases similar to those caused by chemicals. D. They are filterable. E. They are chemically simple.

they cannot reproduce themselves outside of a host

34.Caseous, non calcified lesions containing inflammatory cells and found as a result of Mycobacteria infection, are called: A. Pseudomembranes B. Tubercules C. Abscesses D. Terminal necrotic lesions E. Bubos

tuberules

15. Which of the following is a limitation of the autoclave? A. Length of time B. Ability to inactivate viruses C. Ability to kill endospores D. Use with heat labile materials E. Use with glassware

use with heat labile material

46.Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate for hepatitis D virus infection? A. Common following ingestion of contaminated shellfish B. Most common form of viral hepatitis from blood transfusion C. Occurs as coinfection with HCV D. Vaccine preventable disease E. Not involved in development of a carrier state

vaccine preventable disease

61.Treatment of viral infections is difficult because: A. Viruses are very small. B. Viruses are active only inside a host cell. C. Viruses are not immunogenic. D. There are no drugs to treat viruses. E. All of the above.

viruses are active only inside a host cell

55.Which of the following statements is not true? A. Viruses are smaller than the host. B. Viruses contain nucleic acid. C. Viruses may contain viral enzymes. D. Viruses target a host nonspecifically.

viruses target a host nonspecifically

3. The P in the DTP vaccine can prevent: A. Lockjaw B. Pneumonia C. Atypical pneumonia D. Psoriasis E. Whooping cough

whooping cough