Microbiology- Chapter 12, Chapter 14- Microbiology, ss
49) A secondary acquired immunodeficiency is ________. A) AIDS B) adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency C) DiGeorge syndrome D) agammaglobulinemia E) SCID
AIDS
13) Plasma ________. A) is the liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended B) is mostly water C) contains albumin and globulins D) contains fibrinogen E) All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct
2) Nonspecific chemical defenses include ________. A) lysozyme B) lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat C) skin's acidic pH and fatty acids D) stomach hydrochloric acid E) All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
29) Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause ________. A) recipient antibody activating the complement cascade to attack the RBCs B) fever and anemia C) systemic shock and kidney failure D) massive hemolysis of the donor RBCs E) All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
36) Contact dermatitis involves ________. A) a sensitizing and provocative dose B) an allergen entering the skin C) T lymphocytes secreting inflammatory cytokines D) itchy papules and blisters E) All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
51) Degranulation of mast cells leads to ________. A) airway obstruction B) headache C) dilated blood vessels D) All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
9) A properly functioning immune system is responsible for ________. A) surveillance of the body B) recognition of foreign material C) destruction of foreign material D) All of the choices are correct. E) Only recognition of foreign material and destruction of foreign material are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
51) Which of the following is a chemical used by phagocytes to destroy ingested foreign substances? A) Hydrogen peroxide B) Nitric oxide C) Lactic acid D) Superoxide anion E) All of these are used.
All of these are used.
28) ________ function in humoral immunity, while ________ function in cell-mediated immunity. A) B cells; T cells B) T cells; B cells C) monocytes; basophils D) basophils; T cells E) B cells; neutrophils
B cells; T cells
12) Which event occurs with the sensitizing dose of allergen? A) Degranulation B) Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C) Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D) Histamine acts on smooth muscle E) Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
10) What will be the immediate action of an allergen when it enters that body for a second time? A) Degranulation B) Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C) Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D) Histamine acts on smooth muscle E) Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
16) Which type(s) of hypersensitivity is IgG involved with? A) Anaphylaxis B) Antibody mediated C) Immune complex mediated D) Both anaphylaxis and antibody mediated E) Both antibody mediated and immune complex mediated
Both antibody mediated and immune complex mediated
39) What involves determination of donor HLA antigens compared to those of the recipient's tissue? A) Skin graft B) Blood transfusion C) Organ transplantation D) Both skin graft and organ transplantation E) All of the choices are correct.
Both skin graft and organ transplantation
34) Which of the following is not a major organ that can be a target of immune complex deposition? A) Blood vessels and skin B) Heart and lungs C) Brain D) Joints E) Kidneys
Brain
44) Which of the following is not a chief function of inflammation? A) Start tissue repair B) Destroy microbes C) Mobilize and attract immune components to injury site D) Block further invasion E) Cause a fever
Cause a fever
78) Which statement below characterizes the complement system? A) Complement comprises a team of blood proteins that are activated in a cascade, ultimately leading to pathogen cytolysis, inflammation and enhanced phagocytosis. B) Complement pyrogens stimulate the hypothalamus to raise the body temperature, increasing metabolism and preventing the growth of temperature-sensitive pathogens. C) Complement proteins bind to cell surfaces and induce changes in genetic expression, eliminating not only pathogens, but cancer cells also. D) Complement proteins, produced by a host cell in response to viral attack, are secreted and enter neighboring cells, stimulating the production of antiviral proteins in anticipation of an invasion.
Complement comprises a team of blood proteins that are activated in a cascade, ultimately leading to pathogen cytolysis, inflammation and enhanced phagocytosis.
13) Which of the following is not a possible symptom of type I hypersensitivity? A) Rhinitis B) Rashes C) Sneezing D) Diarrhea E) Contact dermatitis
Contact dermatitis
6) Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen? A) Ingestant B) Inhalant C) Injectant D) Contactant E) None of the choices are correct.
Contactant
11) Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators? A) Degranulation B) Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C) Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D) Histamine acts on smooth muscle E) Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
Degranulation
49) Which of the following is not an event of phagocytosis? A) Diapedesis B) Chemotaxis C) Phagolysosome formation D) Destruction E) Ingestion
Diapedesis
23) Which type of white blood cells are particularly attracted to sites of parasitic worm infections? A) Monocytes B) Eosinophils C) Basophils D) Neutrophils E) Lymphocytes
Eosinophils
34) The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as ________. A) lymph nodes B) thymus C) spleen D) GALT E) tonsils
GALT
37) What could result when grafted tissue such as bone marrow contains passenger lymphocytes? A) Host rejection of graft B) Graft versus host disease C) Formation of autoantibodies D) Hypogammaglobulinemia E) None of the choices are correct.
Graft versus host disease
2) Which is mismatched? A) Food allergy - type I hypersensitivity B) Poison ivy dermatitis - type IV hypersensitivity C) Serum sickness - type III hypersensitivity D) Transfusion reaction - type II hypersensitivity E) Hay fever - type IV hypersensitivity
Hay fever - type IV hypersensitivity
46) What can be a consequence of a genetic deficiency in B-cell survival and maturity? A) Host rejection of graft B) Graft versus host disease C) Formation of autoantibodies D) Hypogammaglobulinemia E) None of the choices are correct.
Hypogammaglobulinemia
27) All of the following are involved in type 2 hypersensitivity except ________. A) IgM B) IgG C) IgE D) complement E) foreign cells
IgE
50) In the theory for allergic desensitization, which immunoglobulin blocks the allergen from binding with IgE? A) IgE B) IgG C) IgA D) IgD E) IgM
IgG
14) Which of the following is incorrect about circulating blood cells? A) After birth, produced in red bone marrow sites B) Develop from undifferentiated stem cells C) Include Kupffer cells D) Include leukocytes that are either granulocytes or agranulocytes E) Include erythrocytes that, when mature, lose their nuclei
Include Kupffer cells
7) Fungal spores and animal dander are considered to be which type of allergen? A) Ingestant B) Inhalant C) Injectant D) Contactant E) None of the choices are correct.
Inhalant
56) What is the first step in the major events of the inflammation process? A) Formation of pus and edema B) Scar formation and/or resolution C) Vascular reactions D) Injury and mast cells releasing chemical mediators E) Activation of the complement system
Injury and mast cells releasing chemical mediators
58) Which protein can be produced by a virus-infected cell, in order to communicate with other cells the need to produce antiviral proteins? A) Complement B) Albumin C) Interferon D) Histamine
Interferon
79) Which statement below characterizes the action of interferon? A) Interferon, produced by a host cell in response to viral attack, is secreted and enters neighboring cells, stimulating the production of antiviral proteins in anticipation of an invasion. B) Interferon stimulates the hypothalamus to raise the body temperature, increasing metabolism and preventing the growth of temperature-sensitive pathogens. C) Interferon comprises a team of blood proteins that are activated in a cascade, ultimately leading to pathogen cytolysis, inflammation and enhanced phagocytosis. D) Interferon binds to cell surfaces and induces changes in genetic expression, eliminating not only pathogens, but cancer cells also.
Interferon, produced by a host cell in response to viral attack, is secreted and enters neighboring cells, stimulating the production of antiviral proteins in anticipation of an invasion.
12) Which of the following fluid compartments is not a partner in immune function? A) Bloodstream B) Extracellular fluid C) Lymphatic system D) Intracellular fluid
Intracellular fluid
33) Which of the following is not true of type III hypersensitivity? A) Antigen-antibody complexes are deposited in the basement membrane of epithelial tissues B) Involves production of IgG and IgE antibodies C) Involves an immune complex reaction D) The Arthus reaction is a local response E) Serum sickness is a systemic response
Involves production of IgG and IgE antibodies
73) Which of the following is not a mechanism employed by the human microbiota to contribute to the first line of defense? A) It can phagocytose pathogens B) It can lower the pH making the environment too acidic for pathogens to survive C) It can out-compete pathogens for limited nutrients D) It can train the immune cells to recognize antigenic markers E) It can block potential binding sites on epithelial cells restricting adhesion, which is a necessary step for infection
It can phagocytose pathogens
75) Which of the following is not a component of the second line of defense? A) Keratin B) Complement C) Inflammation D) Phagocytosis E) Fever
Keratin
32) What structures are found along lymphatic vessels and are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin, and neck? A) Lymph nodes B) Thymus C) Spleen D) GALT E) Tonsils
Lymph nodes
48) Which of the following is not a type of phagocyte? A) Neutrophil B) Macrophage C) Kupffer cell D) Monocyte E) Lymphocyte
Lymphocyte
17) Which white blood cells comprise 20% to 30% of the circulating WBCs and are the cells that function in the body's third line of defense?A) Basophils B) Eosinophils C) Neutrophils D) Monocytes E) Lymphocytes
Lymphocytes
28) Human blood types involve all the following except ________. A) MHC genes B) ABO antigen markers C) inheritance of two of three possible alleles D) genetically determined glycoprotein markers E) genes that code for an enzyme that adds a terminal carbohydrate to RBC receptors
MHC genes
26) Which of the following is in the correct order from greatest to least phagocytic activity? A) Neutrophils, eosinophils, macrophages B) Neutrophils, macrophages, eosinophils C) Eosinophils, macrophages, neutrophils D) Macrophages, neutrophils, eosinophils E) Macrophages, eosinophils, neutrophils
Macrophages, neutrophils, eosinophils
19) Which white blood cells comprise 3% to 7% of circulating WBCs, are phagocytic, and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages? A) Basophils B) Eosinophils C) Neutrophils D) Monocytes E) Lymphocytes
Monocytes
53) Which of the following is incorrect about complement? A) Is composed of at least 20 blood proteins B) Only appears in the blood during a response to a pathogen C) Acts in a cascade reaction D) Involves a classical pathway E) Involves an alternate pathway
Only appears in the blood during a response to a pathogen
50) What type of molecules act to draw phagocytes to foreign substances? A) MALTs B) RES C) PAMPs D) BALTs E) Lysosomes
PAMPs
57) During what process are hypochlorite and hydrogen peroxide produced to destroy bacteria and inhibit viral replication? A) Inflammation B) Phagocytosis C) Interferon production D) Complement production E) Bradykinin
Phagocytosis
39) Which of the following is mismatched? A) Interferon alpha and beta—inhibits viral replication B) Interleukin-2—stimulates T-cell mitosis and B-cell antibody production C) Serotonin—causes smooth muscle contraction D) Prostaglandins—activate eosinophils and B cells E) Tumor necrosis factor—increases chemotaxis and phagocytosis
Prostaglandins—activate eosinophils and B cells
38) Which of the following is incorrect about inflammation? A) It can last hours to years. B) Pyrogens cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability. C) Serotonin causes smooth muscle contraction. D) Fever could be beneficial to inhibiting the pathogen. E) Basophils and mast cells release histamine.
Pyrogens cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability.
5) This body region is protected by fatty acids, acidic pH, lactic acid, and a tough cell barrier with its own normal biota. A) Skin B) Respiratory tract C) Digestive tract D) Urinary tract E) Eyes
Skin
31) Which of the following lymphoid organs or tissues has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the blood? A) Lymph nodes B) Thymus C) Spleen D) GALT E) Tonsils
Spleen
7) Each of the following are physical barriers to pathogens except ________. A) unbroken skin B) mucus C) hairs D) tears E) T cells
T cells
71) Cytokines mediate a variety of processes in the immune system, for example, ________ encourages inflammatory responses and ________ suppresses the actions of immune cells. A) TNF-β; IL-10 B) IL-10; TNF-β C) erythropoietin; TNF-β D) seratonin; histamine E) IL-10; IL-7
TNF-β; IL-10
72) The human microbiome is considered an important component of the first line ofdefense. Which statement adequately reflects its role as a defensive barrier? A) The human microbiota competes with pathogens for space and nutrients limiting their ability to cause infection, and trains the immune system to recognize antigens. B) The organisms that comprise the microbiota are able to phagocytose potential pathogens, thereby eliminating them from the human host. C) The human microbiome has evolved with the species so it is able to actively destroy pathogens by raising the body temperature when an infection by a pathogen occurs. D) Cells in the human microbiome secrete cytokines that play a role in stimulating the immune response when a pathogen has entered the system.
The human microbiota competes with pathogens for space and nutrients limiting their ability to cause infection, and trains the immune system to recognize antigens.
45) Which of the following is not a theory to explain the origin of autoimmune diseases? A) Sequestered antigen theory B) Clonal selection theory C) Theory of immune deficiency D) Viral infection theory E) All of the choices are possible theories.
Theory of immune deficiency
33) Which gland shrinks in size during adulthood and has hormones that function in maturation of T lymphocytes?A) Lymph nodes B) Thymus C) Spleen D) GALT E) Tonsils
Thymus
43) Which of the following is mismatched dealing with inflammation? A) Rubor—redness B) Calor—warmth C) Tumor—cancer D) Dolar—pain E) None of these are mismatched.
Tumor—cancer
64) A twelve year old girl received a pair of earrings from her friend for her birthday. The second time she wore them, her earlobes became red, itchy and inflamed, with blisters appearing within 48 hours. What type of hypersensitivity is causing the discomfort? A) Type I hypersensitivity B) Type II hypersensitivity C) Type III hypersensitivity D) Type IV hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
48) Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are due to ________. A) autoantibodies B) delayed hypersensitivity C) congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland D) failure of B-cell development and maturity E) a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells
a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells
54) The membrane attack stage of the complement cascade involves ________. A) initiation of the cascade B) production of inflammatory cytokines C) a ring-shaped protein that digests holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes D) cleaving of C3 to yield C3a and C3b E) C1q binding to surface receptors on a membrane
a ring-shaped protein that digests holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelope
43) Myasthenia gravis disease arises from the production of autoantibodies against ________. A) myelin sheath cells of the nervous system B) acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle C) acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle D) sodium pump proteins in the cell membrane E) cells in thyroid follicles
acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle
32) Once a mother has been sensitized to the Rh factor ________. A) all other Rh+ fetuses are at risk B) she can be given RhoGAM in future pregnancies to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn C) she can never again have a low risk pregnancy D) only future Rh˗ fetuses are at risk E) None of the choices are correct.
all other Rh+ fetuses are at risk
21) A seasonal reaction to inhaled allergens is ________. A) atopic dermatitis B) eczema C) allergic rhinitis D) asthma E) anaphylaxis
allergic rhinitis
11) The term ________ is given to any foreign substance that stimulates a specific immune system response. A) antibody B) allergen C) antigen D) foreign body E) None of the choices are correct.
antigen
19) A chronic, local allergy such as hay fever is considered ________. A) delayed B) T-cell mediated C) atopic D) antibody mediated E) systemic anaphylactic
atopic
40) Autoimmunity is typically due to ________. A) a transfusion reaction B) IgE and mast cells C) autoantibodies and T cells D) graft rejection E) a deficiency in T-cell development
autoantibodies and T cells
38) Tissue transplanted from one body site on a patient to a different body site on that patient is called a(n) ________. A) isograft B) autograft C) allograft D) xenograft E) hypograft
autograft
62) A well-functioning immune system should strike a balance between being over- and underreactive. An overreactive immune system results in hypersensitivities such as allergy and ________, while an underreactive immune system is due to ________. A) autoimmunity; immunodeficiency B) immunodeficiency; anaphylaxis C) hyposensitivity; atopy D) inflammation; asthma E) hyposensitivity; autoimmunity
autoimmunity; immunodeficiency
16) The least numerous of all white blood cells that release histamine during inflammation and allergic reactions are ________. A) basophils B) eosinophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) lymphocytes
basophils
25) An antihistamine will ________. A) inhibit the activity of lymphocytes B) bind to histamine receptors on target organs C) block synthesis of leukotrienes D) relieve inflammatory symptoms E) reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles
bind to histamine receptors on target organs
36) The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following except ________. A) redness B) warmth C) swelling D) pain E) chills
chills
46) A person will typically experience the sensation of ________ when fever is starting to occur in the body. A) heat B) pain C) chills D) sweat E) All of the choices are correct.
chills
55) The ________ system of blood proteins acts to lyse foreign cells and viruses. A) humoral immunity B) cell-mediated C) complement D) lymphoid E) None of the choices are correct.
complement
47) The DiGeorge syndrome is the result of ________. A) autoantibodies B) delayed hypersensitivity C) congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland D) failure of B-cell development and maturity E) a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells
congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland
20) All of the following pertain to platelets except they ________. A) contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide B) function primarily in hemostasis C) originate from giant multinucleate cells called megakaryocytes D) function in blood clotting and inflammation E) are not whole cells but are pieces of cells
contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide
6) Keratin is an important aspect of nonspecific defense because it ________. A) is toxic to pathogens B) creates a physical barrier against pathogens C) destroys pathogens D) physically restricts pathogens to a specific region E) None of the choices are correct.
creates a physical barrier against pathogens
30) Leukocytes that are derived from monocytes and have long, thin processes to trap pathogens are ________. A) dendritic cells B) eosinophils C) macrophages D) platelets E) mast cells
dendritic cells
24) Allergic patients receiving small, controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing ________. A) desensitization B) sensitization C) tissue matching D) degranulation E) None of the choices are correct
desensitization
42) The leakage of excess fluid into tissues is called ________. A) chemotaxis B) edema C) diapedesis D) vasoactivity E) pus
edema
15) The blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation, contain peroxidase and lysozyme, and particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are ________.A) basophils B) eosinophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) lymphocytes
eosinophils
31) The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when ________. A) maternal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- fetus B) fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother C) maternal Rh˗ cells enter an Rh+ fetus D) fetal Rh˗ cells enter an Rh+ mother E) fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh+ mother
fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother
27) Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are called ________ because they have prominent cytoplasmic inclusions that, in a stained blood smear, appear with identifying, characteristic colors. A) leukocytes B) granulocytes C) agranulocytes D) monocytes E) None of the choices are correct.
granulocytes
25) The granules of basophils contain ________. A) antibodies B) antigens C) digestive enzymes D) histamine E) lysozyme
histamine
3) Any heightened or inappropriate immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a(n) ________. A) autoimmune disease B) immunodeficiency C) hypersensitivity D) transfusion reaction E) desensitization
hypersensitivity
17) Allergic reactions to penicillins are considered a(n) ________ hypersensitivity. A) T-cell mediated B) antibody mediated C) immune complex mediated D) immediate E) both T-cell mediated and antibody mediated
immediate
4) The study of diseases associated with excesses and deficiencies of the immune system is ________. A) humoralpathology B) hemopathology C) epidemiology D) immunopathology E) histopathology
immunopathology
14) Histamine causes all of the following except ________. A) increased sensitivity to pain B) constriction of smooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine C) relaxes vascular smooth muscle D) wheal and flare reaction in skin E) pruritus and headache
increased sensitivity to pain
52) All of the following pertain to interferon except it ________. A) is a protein B) is produced by certain white blood cells and tissue cells C) includes alpha, beta, and gamma types D) inhibits viruses, tumors, and cancer gene expression E) increases capillary permeability and vasodilation
increases capillary permeability and vasodilation
47) Each of the following are benefits of fever except it ________. A) reduces the ability of temperature-sensitive organisms to multiply B) increases the availability of iron C) increases phagocytosis D) increases metabolism E) stimulates hematopoiesis
increases the availability of iron
66) Desensitization of an individual with allergies by injecting small amounts of the allergen under the skin is effective because it ________. A) induces the formation of IgG antibodies that bind the the allergen before it is able to bind to the IgE associated with mast cells B) prevents IgE antibodies from being formed, thus eliminating the degranulation of mast cells C) changes the nature of the allergy from a type I to a type III, which is easier to treat D) induces the formation of IgA antibodies, which are secreted into the tissues, reducing the amount of degranulation by mast cells in the blood
induces the formation of IgG antibodies that bind the the allergen before it is able to bind to the IgE associated with mast cells
26) Corticosteroids will ________. A) inhibit the activity of lymphocytes B) bind to histamine receptors on target organs C) block synthesis of leukotrienes D) relieve inflammatory symptoms E) reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles
inhibit the activity of lymphocytes
30) A female who is Rh- ________. A) inherited two dominant genes B) is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status C) is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn D) can never have an Rh+ baby E) All of the choices are correct.
is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn
15) The chemical mediator that causes prolonged bronchospasm, vascular permeability, and mucus secretion of asthmatic patients is ________. A) prostaglandin B) histamine C) leukotriene D) serotonin E) platelet-activating factor
leukotriene
24) Each of the following are granulocytes except ________. A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) lymphocytes D) basophils E) All of the choices are granulocytes.
lymphocytes
3) The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is ________. A) lactic acid B) hydrochloric acid C) lysozyme D) histamine E) bile
lysozyme
29) When monocytes migrate from the blood out to the tissues they are transformed by inflammatory mediators to develop into ________. A) primary phagocytes B) neutrophils C) killer T cells D) cytotoxic T cells E) macrophages
macrophages
37) All the following are events of early inflammation except ________. A) macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis B) chemical mediators and cytokines are released C) brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation D) exudate and pus can accumulate E) capillaries become more permeable resulting in edema
macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis
10) Immune system cells differentiate between self and foreign cells by their ________. A) cell walls B) biota C) markers D) skin E) cell processes
markers
42) Each of the following is an autoimmune disease except ________. A) systemic lupus erythematosus B) Graves' disease C) type I diabetes D) metastatic cancer E) rheumatic fever
metastatic cancer
35) Diapedesis is the ________. A) loss of blood due to hemorrhaging B) production of only red blood cells C) production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets D) plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding E) migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues
migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues
44) In multiple sclerosis, autoantibodies attack ________. A) myelin sheath cells of the nervous system B) acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle C) acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle D) sodium pump proteins in the cell membrane E) cells in thyroid follicles
myelin sheath cells of the nervous system
18) The most numerous WBCs that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are ________. A) basophils B) eosinophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) lymphocytes
neutrophils
1) Components of the first line of defense include all the following except ________. A) the tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin B) nasal hairs C) flushing action of tears and blinking D) flushing action of urine E) phagocytic white blood cells
phagocytic white blood cells
41) Each of the following is involved in the migration of white blood cells except ________. A) chemotaxis B) diapedesis C) motility D) vasodilation E) phagocytosis
phagocytosis
22) Plasma cells ________. A) function in cell-mediated immunity B) are derived from T lymphocytes C) function in blood clotting D) produce and secrete antibodies E) All of the choices are correct.
produce and secrete antibodies
21) Hematopoiesis is the ________. A) loss of blood due to hemorrhaging B) production of only red blood cells C) production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets D) plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding E) migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues
production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets
9) A second encounter with an allergen that causes a response is called the ________. A) sensitizing dose B) provocative dose C) allergic dose D) hypersensitivity dose E) desensitizing dose
provocative dose
45) The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are ________. A) complement B) interferons C) leukotrines D) pyrogens E) lysozymes
pyrogens
18) Allergies run in families because ________. A) immunoglobulins pass from mother to fetus B) immunoglobulins pass through breast milk C) the variable region of antibodies is genetically determined D) relative production of IgE is inherited E) All of the choices are correct.
relative production of IgE is inherited
4) The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the ________. A) skin B) respiratory tract C) digestive tract D) urinary tract E) eyes
respiratory tract
23) Epinephrine ________. A) is an antihistamine B) reverses constriction of airways C) causes desensitization D) inhibits the activity of lymphocytes E) All of the choices are correct.
reverses constriction of airways
8) Lysozyme is found in ________. A) mucous membranes of the respiratory tract B) mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract C) salivary secretions D) sweat from sweat glands E) All of the choices are correct.
salivary secretions
8) The initial encounter with an allergen is called the ________. A) sensitizing dose B) provocative dose C) allergic dose D) hypersensitivity dose E) desensitizing dose
sensitizing dose
35) Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to formation of antigen-antibody complexes occurs in ________. A) serum sickness B) delayed hypersensitivity C) anaphylaxis D) hemolytic disease of the newborn E) All of the choices are correct.
serum sickness
20) A systemic, sometimes fatal reaction with airway obstruction and circulatory collapse is ________. A) delayed B) T-cell mediated C) atopic D) antibody mediated E) systemic anaphylactic
systemic anaphylactic
22) All of the following are associated with IgE and mast cell-mediated allergy except ________. A) drug allergy B) eczema C) anaphylaxis D) allergic asthma E) systemic lupus erythematosus
systemic lupus erythematosus
76) Inflammation, fever, phagocytosis, and antimicrobial molecules are considered innate because ________. A) they are not antigen-specific; they contribute to host defenses regardless of the source of activation B) they are activated only if the system has encountered the antigen previously C) they are physical barriers that block the binding of pathogens to host tissues D) they operate independently of the first line of defense and the B and T lymphocytes in the third line of defense
they are not antigen-specific; they contribute to host defenses regardless of the source of activation
41) Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all of the following diseases except ________. A) rheumatoid arthritis B) myasthenia gravis C) Graves' disease D) tuberculin reaction E) multiple sclerosis
tuberculin reaction
5) Atopy and anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category ________. A) type I only B) type I and type IV C) type IV only D) type I, type II, and type III E) type I, type II, type III, and type IV
type I only
1) The major category(ies) of hypersensitivity that typically involve a B-cell immunoglobulin response is (are) ________. A) type I only B) type I and type IV C) type IV only D) type I, type II, and type III E) type I, type II, type III, and type IV
type I, type II, and type III
65) Type II hypersensitivities differ from type III in that ________. A) type II hypersensitivity involves the activation of complement proteins that attack and lyse cells, whereas type III involves the formation of immune complexes causing chronic inflammation B) type II hypersensitivity involves the formation of immune complexes causing chronic inflammation, whereas type III involves the activation of complement proteins that attack and lyse cells C) type II hypersensitivity involves the formation of IgM antibodies that attack tissues, whereas type III involves IgE causing degranulation of mast cells D) type II hypersensitivity involves B cells whereas type III involves the activation and sensitization of cytotoxic T cells
type II hypersensitivity involves the activation of complement proteins that attack and lyse cells, whereas type III involves the formation of immune complexes causing chronic inflammation
40) Histamine, serotonin, and bradykinin are all ________. A) vasoactive mediators B) mediators of B-cell activity C) mediators of T-cell activity D) mediators that increase chemotaxis E) fever inducers
vasoactive mediators
