Microbiology Exam 2 Study Guide
All of the following are categories of diarrheogenic Escherichia coli EXCEPT: ETEC EMEC EIEC EPEC
EMEC
Which species of Haemophilus requires both X and V factors? H. parainfluenzae H. aphrophilus H. influenzae H. paraphrophilus
H. influenzae
What organism causes Brazilian purpuric fever (BPF)? Haemophilus parainfluenzae H. aphrophilus H. aegyptius H. influenzae biogroup aegyptius
H. influenzae biogroup aegyptius
A mother brings her lethargic, feverish baby into the emergency department. The baby is diagnosed with meningitis and the doctor does a spinal tap. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) Gram stain shows many tiny gram-negative rods. What is the most probably identification of this organism? Haemophilus influenzae serotype b H. parainfluenzae H. aegyptius H. aphrophilus
Haemophilus influenzae serotype b
This disease is slowly progressive, malignant, and, if untreated, life threatening. It is characterized by skin lesions and progressive, symmetric nerve damage. Lesions of the mucous membranes of the nose may lead to destruction of the cartilaginous septum, resulting in nasal and facial deformities. What disease is this? Hansen's disease Extrapulmonary tuberculosis Non-Mycobacterium tuberculosis pulmonary disease M. xenopi
Hansen's disease
All of the following are symptoms of salmonellosis that may appear 8 to 36 hours after ingestion of contaminated food EXCEPT: Nausea Vomiting Headache Watery diarrhea
Headache
For potassium hydroxide (KOH) to work properly, what is done to speed up the dissolution of the keratin and skin layers? Mix gently. Let the slide sit for 30 minutes before reading. Heat gently, then cool. Let sit under an ultraviolet light for 20 minutes
Heat gently, then cool.
Decontaminating agents used in the decontamination-digestion process include all of the following EXCEPT: Sodium hydroxide N-acetyl-1-cysteine Benzalkonium chloride Hydrochloric acid
Hydrochloric acid
What disease, caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, is considered a sexually transmitted disease where the organisms enter the lymph nodes near the genital tract, resulting in bubo formation and ultimately rupturing the lymph node? Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) Trachoma Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) Conjunctivitis
Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)
A microbiologist is checking the mycobacteria cultures. She notices one tube of Lowenstein-Jensen (LJ) that is a buff color, rough, and seems arranged in a cord. It has taken these organisms 4 weeks to grow. What is the most probable organism? Mycobacterium leprae M. avium M. tuberculosis M. marinum
M. tuberculosis
What constituent of Lowenstein-Jensen (LJ) medium is added to suppress the growth of gram positives? Carbolfuchsin Malachite green Gentian purple Mercurochrome
Malachite green
A patient with very pale patches on his arms and legs is examined at his doctor's office. His doctor orders a fungal culture. The fungus shows a spaghetti-and-meatball appearance on the direct smear. What organism is it? Microsporum canis Malassezia furfur Trichophyton rubrum Epidermophyton floccosum
Malassezia furfur
This genus has one species associated with it that has been implicated in urinary tract infections. What is the name of this species? Klebsiella pneumoniae Escherichia coli Hafnium alvei Morganella morganii
Morganella morganii
If a newborn has symptoms of meningitis but the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is negative for both Gram stain and a routine culture, what organisms should be suspected? Neisseria gonorrhea and Chlamydia trachomatis Treponema pallidum and Borrelia burgdorferi Mycoplasma hominis and Ureaplasma urealyticum M. pneumoniae and C. trachomatis
Mycoplasma hominis and Ureaplasma urealyticum
What two organisms are associated with urogenital tract infections but have also been isolated from asymptomatic individuals? Mycoplasma hominis and Ureaplasma urealyticum M. hominis and M. fermentans U. urealyticum and M. pneumoniae M. penetrans and M. pneumoniae
Mycoplasma hominis and Ureaplasma urealyticum
All of the following characteristics describe the genus Plesiomonas EXCEPT: Ferments glucose Glucose positive Oxidase negative Facultative anaerobes
Oxidase negative
A microbiologist is reading the plates from a sputum culture. On the sheep blood agar (SBA), she sees flat spreading colonies with a metallic sheen. On cetrimide agar, she sees a fluorescent green color in the media with clear colonies. On MacConkey, she sees medium clear colonies that have a fruity or grape-like odor. What is the most likely organism? Pseudomonas fluorescens P. aeruginosa P. putida P. stutzeri
P. aeruginosa
What organism causes pulmonary disease among individuals with cystic fibrosis? Pseudomonas fluorescens P. aeruginosa P. putida P. mendocina
P. aeruginosa
What is the most frequently isolated Pasteurella species? P. multocida P. septica P. gallicida P. canis
P. multocida
All of the following are biochemical tests for the identification of Mycobacterium spp. EXCEPT: Niacin Nitrate Catalase PYR
PYR
Where is the unusual rash seen in secondary syphilis? Chest and back Back and soles Buttocks and palms Palms and soles
Palms and soles
Factors that may play a role in pathogenicity of Leptospira include all the following EXCEPT: Hemolysin Endotoxins Pancytopenia in host Decreased phagocytosis in host
Pancytopenia in host
What disease does Chlamydia psittaci cause in humans? Conjunctivitis Endocarditis Parrot fever Bird flu
Parrot fever
What organism is likely to cause an infection after a cat bite? Campylobacter spp. Dysgonomonas capnocytophagoides Francisella tularensis Pasteurella spp.
Pasteurella spp.
All the following antibiotics are used to treat mycoplasma infections EXCEPT: Macrolides Fluoroquinolones Tetracyclines Penicillin
Penicillin
Leptospires are susceptible to all the following antibiotics EXCEPT: Streptomycin Tetracycline Penicillin Macrolides
Penicillin
What is the drug of choice used to treat syphilis? Tetracycline Fluoroquinolones Penicillin Macrolides
Penicillin
Which antibiotic is added to mycoplasma isolation and transport media to minimize bacterial contamination? Tetracycline Penicillin Erythromycin Gentamicin
Penicillin
Chromoblastomycosis is caused by all the following organisms EXCEPT: Fonsecaea compacta Penicillium marneffei Fonsecaea pedrosoi Phialophora verrucosa
Penicillium marneffei
Guidelines for reporting the results of Chlamydia trachomatis testing on patients include all the following EXCEPT: Testing specifically using profiles Reporting which tests were and were not performed Reporting unusual observations Performing a routine culture in addition to all the tests for Chlamydia
Performing a routine culture in addition to all the tests for Chlamydia
What structure is responsible for motility in spirochetes? Axiles Periplasmic flagella Flexible cell wall Compressed nucleus
Periplasmic flagella
What is the causative agent of tinea nigra? Microsporum canis Trichosporon beigelii Piedraia hortae Phaeonnellomyces werneckii
Phaeonnellomyces werneckii
Chlamydia trachomatis is the infectious agent in all the following conditions in humans EXCEPT: Trachoma Urogenital infections Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) Pharyngitis
Pharyngitis
What is the causative agent of black piedra? Microsporum canis Trichosporon beigelii Piedraia hortae Sporothrix schenckii
Piedraia hortae
What do aeromonad colonies look like on cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN) agar? Purple colonies Clear colonies Green colonies Pink colonies
Pink colonies
What organism is one of the primary opportunistic infections in AIDS patients? Pneumocystis jiroveci Phaeoannellomyces werneckii Coccidioides immitis Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
Pneumocystis jiroveci
What is an example of a nontreponemal test? Rapid plasmin reagin (RPR) Fluorescent treponemal antibody, absorbed (FTA-ABS) Treponema pallidum particle agglutination (TPPA) Microhemagglutination-Treponema pallidum (MHA-TP)
Rapid Plasmin Reagin (RPR)
How is Bordetella disease spread? Fomites Contaminated food Respiratory droplet Airborne
Respiratory droplet
What component of mycobacteria is used for identification in the nucleic acid hybridization assays? DNA Ribosomal RNA Transfer RNA Messenger RNA
Ribosomal RNA
What organism causes endemic typhus? Rickettsia typhi R. canada R. rickettsii R. prowazekii
Rickettsia typhi
What organism possesses the Vi antigen? Salmonella serotype Typhi S. sonnei Shigella sonnei Citrobacter freundii
Salmonella serotype Typhi
When designing a mycobacterial laboratory, the designers should build in all the following engineering controls to keep the workers safe EXCEPT: Inside air vents to outside Nonrecirculating ventilation system Negative air pressure Separate room from main laboratory
Separate room from main laboratory
What is the primary method used to diagnosis syphilis infections? Serologic Microscopy Culture Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
Serologic
How is infection by Chlamydia psittaci determined in humans? Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) Cell culture Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) Serologic methods
Serologic methods
What testing method is the method of choice for detecting antibodies to Chlamydia pneumoniae? Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) Serologic tests Cell culture Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
Serologic tests
What genus of bacteria is considered an opportunistic pathogen associated with nosocomial outbreaks? Enterobacter Serratia Proteus Escherichia
Serratia
Bacillary dysentery caused by this organism is marked by penetration of intestinal epithelial cells following attachment of the organisms to mucosal surfaces, local inflammation, shedding of the intestinal lining, and formation of ulcers that follow the epithelial penetration. What is this organism? Enterobacter Citrobacter Shigella Salmonella
Shigella
Anaerobes outnumber aerobes in all of the following locations EXCEPT: Skin Oral cavity Gastrointestinal (GI) tract Genitourinary tract
Skin
What disk is used to presumptively identify Peptostreptococcus anaerobius? Bile Nitrate Sodium polyanethol sulfonate Indole
Sodium polyanethol sulfonate
How is the true Gram stain reaction of an anaerobe determined? Special potency disks Shape and colony morphology Aerotolerance DFA
Special potency disks
What are photochromogens? Species that produce carotene pigment upon exposure to light Species that produce pigment in the light or the dark Species whose colonies are a buff color and exposure to light does not induce pigment formation Species whose colonies fluoresce under ultraviolet light
Species that produce carotene pigment upon exposure to light
What are scotochromogens? Species that produce carotene pigment upon exposure to light Species that produce pigment in the light or the dark Species whose colonies are a buff color and exposure to light does not induce pigment formation Species whose colonies fluoresce under ultraviolet light
Species that produce pigment in the light or the dark
What substances do organisms that use oxygen have to protect themselves from superoxide anions? Hyaluronidase and proteases Exotoxins and superoxide dismutase Enterotoxins and lipase Superoxide dismutase and catalase
Superoxide dismutase and catalase
A man is taking a shower and notices this lesion on his penis that is not tender but is firm with a clean surface and raised edges. He is quite dismayed, so he goes to his physician. The physician does a rapid plasmin reagin (RPR) and a darkfield microscopy. Both tests are positive. What is the physician's probable diagnosis? Gonorrhea Nongonococcal urethritis (NGU) Syphilis Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Syphilis
What disease does Clostridium tetani cause? Botulism Tetanus Food poisoning Myonecrosis
Tetanus
Gram stains of specimens for anaerobic cultures should be examined for all the following reasons EXCEPT: The Gram stain reveals various types and relative number of bacteria present. Certain morphotypes may provide a presumptive identification and will guide media selection. The Gram stain often reveals the presence of leukocytes. The Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) guidelines recommend Gram stains on all anaerobic specimens.
The Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) guidelines recommend Gram stains on all anaerobic specimens.
Why is it that most cases of salmonella food poisoning are not treated with antibiotics? The organisms are very resistant to antibiotics. Antibiotics cannot reach the organisms, as they are deeply embedded in the intestinal walls. Antibiotics would only kill the bacteria, then release the endotoxins into the blood, making things worse. The disease is self-limiting and will subside on its own.
The disease is self-limiting and will subside on its own.
Characteristics of Moraxella include: Oxidase-positive and nonmotile Biochemically inert and aerobic Susceptible to penicillin and opportunistic pathogens All of the above
All of the above
Bacterial growth requirements for oxygen and carbon dioxide can be divided into all the following categories EXCEPT: Ambient air (95% O2 and 5% CO2) Microaerophilic (5% O2 ) Anaerobic (0% O2) Capnophilic (about 15% O2 and 5% to 10% CO2)
Ambient air (95% O2 and 5% CO2)
Members of the Alcaligenes are usually susceptible to all the following antibiotics EXCEPT: Aminoglycosides Cefoperazone Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (SXT) Piperacillin
Aminoglycosides
What is an anaerobe? An organism that can live with very little oxygen An organism that does not require oxygen to live An organism that requires some oxygen but moderate concentrations of CO2 to live An organism that requires small amounts of oxygen and carbon dioxide to live
An organism that does not require oxygen to live
What is an obligate anaerobe? An organism that requires some oxygen but moderate concentrations of CO2 to live An organism that requires small amounts of oxygen and carbon dioxide to live An organism that grows only in the absence of molecular oxygen An organism that can live with very little oxygen
An organism that grows only in the absence of molecular oxygen
What is the ideal anaerobic incubation system? Anaerobic chamber Anaerobic jars Anaerobic bags Candle jars
Anaerobic Chamber
All of the following are poor prognostic factors associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa bacteremia EXCEPT: Septic shock Granulocytopenia Septic metastatic lesions Anemia
Anemia
How are Borrelia organisms transmitted to the host? Respiratory droplets Arthropods Birds Blood or body fluids
Arthropods
What organism frequently presents in fungus balls? Fonsecaea compacta Penicillium marneffei F. pedrosoi Aspergillus fumigatus
Aspergillus fumigatus
What is the causative agent of glanders? Burkholderia cepacia B. gladioli B. mallei Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
B. mallei
What is the single most important piece of equipment in a mycobacterial laboratory? Ultraviolet lights Covered centrifuge Biologic safety cabinet CO2 incubator
Biologic safety cabinet
What agar is used to isolate Bordetella species? BCYE Bordet-Gengou Chocolate Martin-Lewis
Bordet-Gengou
What disease does Clostridium botulinum cause? Botulism Tetanus Food poisoning Myonecrosis
Botulism
Which of the following agars is not selective for Enterobacteriaceae? Buffered charcoal yeast extract MacConkey Hektoen enteric Xylose-lysine deoxycholate
Buffered charcoal yeast extract
What nonfermenter may produce a weak, slow, positive oxidase reaction? Burkholderia cepacia Pseudomonas putida Stenotrophomonas maltophilia P. stutzeri
Burkholderia cepacia
Which plant pathogen may be mistaken for Burkholderia cepacia? Pseudomonas putida Burkholderia gladioli Stenotrophomonas maltophilia P. stutzeri
Burkholderia gladioli
All of the following are members of the Citrobacter genus EXCEPT: Citrobacter freundii C. diversus C. asteroides C. braakii
C. asteroides
What organism mostly commonly causes gas gangrene? Clostridium difficile C. tetani C. perfringens C. botulinum
C. perfringens
Escherichia coli strains are associated with all the following properties EXCEPT: Indole production Fermentation of glucose and lactose Methyl red (MR) positive, Voges-Proskauer (VP) negative Can use citrate as a sole carbon source
Can use citrate as a sole carbon source
What is the drug of choice for treating a life-threatening illness caused by H. influenzae? Penicillin Macrolides Aminoglycosides Ceftriaxone
Ceftriaxone
Mycoplasmas are a different type of bacteria because they do not have a _____. Cell wall Cell membrane Nuclear membrane Messenger transporter
Cell wall
What organism is found in the San Joaquin Valley region of California? Sporothrix schenckii Penicillium marneffei Coccidioides immitis Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
Coccidioides immitis
What organism has been recovered in normal, sexually active females but is associated with chorioamnionitis, congenital pneumonia, and development of chronic lung disease in premature infants? Mycoplasma hominis Ureaplasma ureolyticus M. penetrans M. fermentans
Ureaplasma ureolyticus
What is the recommended contact time for most disinfectants in a mycobacteriology laboratory? 5 minutes 10 to 30 minutes 10 minutes 60 minutes
10 to 30 minutes
What is the optimum growth time for most mycobacteria associated with disease? 2 to 6 weeks 1 to 2 weeks 5 to 7 days 3 to 5 days
2 to 6 weeks
Which factor is added to media to provide cholesterol for mycoplasma-like organisms? Trypticase soy digest 20% fetal calf serum X and V factor supplement 5% sheep blood
20% fetal calf serum
Cultures for Mycoplasma pneumoniae should be incubated for _____. 2 to 3 days 5 to 7 days 10 to 14 days 21 days or more
21 days or more
What temperature is an optimal growth temperature for Campylobacter jejuni? 35° C 42° C 25° C 60° C
42° C
How long are anaerobic cultures routinely held in the laboratory? 1 to 2 days 3 to 4 days 5 to 7 days 7 to 9 days
5 to 7 days
If a person has had tuberculosis during his or her lifetime, how likely is it that the person will get the disease again? 5% to 15% 20% to 25% 1% 50%
5% to 15%
All of the following reasons are cited for performing antimicrobial susceptibility testing on anaerobes by the Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) EXCEPT: To determine the resistance mechanisms in anaerobes To assist in the management of patients with serious illnesses To monitor local and regional resistance patterns To determine susceptibility of anaerobes to new antimicrobials
To determine the resistance mechanisms in anaerobes
A person travels to Mexico for a weeklong vacation. A couple weeks after returning come home, the person develops a cough, fatigue, weight loss, low-grade fever, and night sweats. What disease should the physician suspect? Streptococcal pneumonia Primary atypical pneumonia Tuberculosis (TB) Pneumonia caused by gram-negative rods
Tuberculosis (TB)
What disease produced by a salmonellae species is a severe form of enteric fever? Pontiac fever Typhoid fever Undulant fever Malignant fever
Typhoid fever
All of the following are characteristics of Shigella spp. EXCEPT: Nonmotile Urea positive Hydrogen sulfide negative Lysine decarboxylase negative
Urea positive
Which of the following organisms was once called "T-strain mycoplasma"? Ureaplasma spp. Mycoplasma hominis Mycoplasma fermentans Mycoplasma orale
Ureaplasma spp.
What Vibrio species is most infrequently isolated in the laboratory? Vibrio alginolyticus V. parahaemolyticus V. cholerae V. vulnificus
V. alginolyticus
What is the name of the organism that causes the disease cholera? Vibrio furnissii V. cholerae V. vulnificus V. parahaemolyticus
V. cholerae
A patient is brought to the emergency department with a severe case of gastroenteritis. The patient experienced gastrointestinal upset after eating raw oysters. What organism can be the culprit of this patient's condition? Vibrio trota V. parahaemolyticus V. cholerae V. vulnificus
V. vulnificus
Aeromonads are generally susceptible to all these antibiotics EXCEPT: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole Vancomycin Aminoglycosides Quinolones
Vancomycin
At-risk groups for contracting walking pneumonia include all the following EXCEPT: Prisoners College students Military personnel Very young children
Very young children
Which of the following is a curved, gram-negative rod that grows on TCBS agar? Vibrio Campylobacter Clostridium Fusobacterium
Vibrio
What is the name of the organism that is responsible for "summer diarrhea" in Japan? Vibrio cholerae V. vulnificus V. parahaemolyticus V. trota
Vibrio haemolyticus
What is a Leptospira infection called when it becomes a severe systemic disease? Niemann-Pick Bordet-Gengou Gaucher's disease Weil's disease
Weil's disease
Which of the following is considered a better specimen for anaerobic culture than a swab? Aspirate Washing Scraping Lavage
Aspirate
Campy-BAP contains: Brucella agar base, 10% sheep red blood cells, vancomycin, trimethoprim, polymyxin B, amphotericin B, and cephalothin Columbia agar base, 5% sheep red blood cells, erythromycin, spectinomycin, Diflucan, and ampicillin Brucella agar base, 5% sheep red blood cells, Zithromax, sulfamethoxazole, nystatin, amphotericin B, and imipenem Columbia agar base, glycerol, L-cysteine, hemin, streptomycin, amphotericin B, and gentamicin
Brucella agar base, 10% sheep red blood cells, vancomycin, trimethoprim, polymyxin B, amphotericin B, and cephalothin
What organism is associated with pneumonia in patients with cystic fibrosis or chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)? Stenotrophomonas maltophilia Pseudomonas putida Pseudomonas fluorescens Burkholderia cepacia
Burkholderia cepacia
Which nonfermenter is considered by government agencies to be a potential bioterrorist agent? Moraxella catarrhalis Burkholderia mallei Pseudomonas putida B. gladioli
Burkholderia mallei
How are mycobacterial infections transmitted? By blood By respiratory droplet By sexual contact By air
By air
All the following are biochemical features of Salmonella EXCEPT: Lactose positive Indole negative Hydrogen sulfide positive Voges-Proskauer (VP) negative
Lactose positive
A microbiologist is working the miscellaneous bench reading stool cultures. The campy plate from a culture has growth on the plate that was incubated at 42° C. The colonies are nonhemolytic, moist, "runny looking," and spreading. The Gram stain shows tiny gram-negative rods with some S-shapes and seagull-wing shapes. What is growing on the plate? Aeromonas Helicobacter Campylobacter Acinetobacter
Campylobacter
What organism has a microscopic morphology of tiny gram-negative rods, curved, with S-shapes or seagull-wing shapes on Gram stain? Helicobacter Campylobacter Haemophilus Acinetobacter
Campylobacter
What organism may play a role in Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)? Helicobacter Aeromonas Campylobacter Plesiomonas
Campylobacter
What organism is the most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis worldwide? Campylobacter jejuni C. fetus C. lari C. coli
Campylobacter jejuni
All of the following are examples of dimorphic fungi EXCEPT: Candida albicans Coccidioides immitis Histoplasma capsulatum Sporothrix schenckii
Candida albicans
What organisms often are involved in septicemia in the granulocytopenic patient? Capnocytophaga Eikenella corrodens Kingella spp. Fusobacterium spp.
Capnocytophaga
All of the following are normal inhabitants of the human oral cavity EXCEPT: Capnocytophaga fusofurium Capnocytophaga gingivalis Capnocytophaga ochraceum Capnocytophaga haemolyticus
Capnocytophaga fusofurium
Which one of the virulence factors associated with Haemophilus spp. plays the most significant role in the invasiveness of the organism? IgA protease Pili Capsule Enterotoxin
Capsule
What substances do nonfermenters fail to ferment? Lipids Carbohydrates Proteins Alkaloids
Carbohydrates
When collecting specimens that may contain Campylobacter spp. bacteria, what transport medium should they be placed in, if a delay in transport is possible? Bordet-Gengou Regan-Lewis Aimes Cary-Blair
Cary-Blair
Which of the following methods is used to determine the presence of growth in mycoplasma broth media? Broth turbidity Presence of biofilm on surface Change in phenol red pH indicator Release of radiolabeled CO2
Change in phenol red pH indicator
What organism's unique life cycle contains an elementary body and a reticulate body? Haemophilus Chlamydia Ureaplasma Mycoplasma
Chlamydia
What organisms are considered obligate intracellular parasites? Chlamydia Mycoplasma Ureaplasma Haemophilus
Chlamydia
What organism has been established as a risk factor for Guillain-Barré syndrome? Chlamydia pneumoniae C. trachomatis C. psittaci C. urealyticum
Chlamydia pneumoniae
What medium will sustain the growth of most Haemophilus spp.? Chocolate agar SBA PEA Thayer-Martin
Chocolate
What type of media is recommended for the recovery of Mycobacterium haemophilum? Sheep blood agar (SBA) Chocolate Polysaccharide egg antigen (PEA) Lowenstein-Jensen (LJ)
Chocolate
What disease manifests in acute cases as a severe gastroenteritis, accompanied by vomiting followed by diarrheic stools that are described as rice water and occur 10 to 30 times a day? Cholera Typhoid Dysentery Food poisoning
Cholera
What organism is an opportunistic pathogen that strikes the immunocompromised patient with neutrophil deficits and produces a violet pigment on nonselective agar? Psychrobacter immobilis Chromobacterium violaceum Chryseomonas luteola Paracoccus phenylpyruvicus
Chromobacterium violaceum
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends all the following drugs for the treatment of Mycobacterium tuberculosis EXCEPT: Ethambutol Isoniazid Rifampicin Ciprofloxacin
Ciprofloxacin
What is the name of the organism that has been a documented cause of nursery outbreaks of neonatal meningitis and brain abscesses? Citrobacter freundii C. asteroides C. braakii C. koseri
Citrobacter freundii
All of the following are non-spore-forming, anaerobic, gram-positive bacilli EXCEPT: Actinomyces Bifidobacterium Eubacterium Clostridium
Clostridium
All of the following organisms are found on the skin EXCEPT: Propionibacterium Peptostreptococcus Eubacterium Clostridium
Clostridium
The HACEK group includes all of the following EXCEPT: Haemophilus spp. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans Cardiobacterium hominis Clostridium difficile
Clostridium Difficile
An elderly patient in a nursing home is recovering from bacterial pneumonia. The patient has been on a lengthy regiment of antibiotics to kill the organism causing the disease. A few days later, the patient is diagnosed with pseudomembranous colitis. What organism is the most likely cause? Clostridium difficile C. tetani C. perfringens C. botulinum
Clostridium difficile
A microbiology technologist is reading an anaerobic culture and observes a double zone of hemolysis on an anaerobically incubated sheep blood agar plate. The Gram stain of that organism was a boxcar-shaped, gram-positive bacillus. What organism is this? Clostridium perfringens C. difficile C. ramosum C. clostridiiforme
Clostridium perfringens
Where are most Salmonella serotypes found? Dogs Cold-blood animals (fish) Cats Horses
Cold blood animals (fish)
How has the treatment of mycobacterial disease changed in light of the multidrug-resistant strains of mycobacteria that are being isolated? Antibiotic therapy is started sooner in the course of the disease. More powerful antibiotics are used to treat mycobacterial disease. Combinations of three or four drugs are used instead of a single drug. Patients are hospitalized for the duration of their disease.
Combinations of three or four drugs are used instead of a single drug.
How is cholera treated? Tetracycline Copious amounts of intravenous fluids Aminoglycosides with a large amount of intravenous fluids Rest and cold showers
Copious amounts of intravenous fluids
How is congenital syphilis transmitted from the mother to her unborn child? During birth from the birth canal During the microhemorrhages that occur as the placenta breaks away from the uterus Crossing the placenta None of the above
Crossing the placenta
Acceptable specimens during the first week of leptospirosis include all the following EXCEPT: Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) Blood Urine a and b
A and B
Plesiomonas spp. cause all of the following clinical types of gastroenteritis EXCEPT: The more common watery or secretory diarrhea A second subacute or chronic disease that lasts between 14 days and 2 to 3 months A more invasive, dysenteric form that resembles colitis A hemorrhagic diarrhea
A hemorrhagic diarrhea
What genus has the following characteristics: negative for urea, positive for lysine decarboxylase, positive for hydrogen sulfide, positive for indole, and does not grow on Simmon's citrate? Providencia Edwardsiella Escherichia Morganella
Edwardsiella
What organism causes the human ehrlichiosis that occurs mostly in Japan and a fish trematode is the vector? Neorickettsia sennetsu Ehrlichia chaffeensis Anaplasma phagocytophilum Leptotrombidium deliensis
Ehrlichia chaffeensis
What has an outer membrane similar to that of many gram-negative bacteria, with the most prominent feature being the major outer membrane protein? Haemophilus Reticulate body Elementary body (EB) Intracellular parasites
Elementary Body (EB)
All of the following diseases are produced by Treponema EXCEPT: Syphilis Elephantiasis Yaws Pinta
Elephantiasis
All of the following are symptoms of tertiary syphilis EXCEPT: Gummas in the skin, bones, and liver Encephalitis Aortitis Aortic valve insufficiency
Encephalitis
Early-onset congenital syphilis is characterized by all the following symptoms EXCEPT: Osteochondritis Anemia Hepatosplenomegaly Encephalitis
Encephalitis
Infants can contract all the following chlamydial infections when passing through the birth canal EXCEPT: Conjunctivitis Nasopharyngeal infections Pneumonia Endocarditis
Endocarditis
A child visits his doctor because he has had a fever and a nonproductive cough. The child is also short of breath. The doctor orders a routine sputum culture and an acid-fast bacillus (AFB) culture and smear. The smears shows red organisms arranged in ropes. What is the most probable cause of this child's fever and cough? Mycobacterium leprae M. avium M. intracellulare M. tuberculosis
M. tuberculosis
What substance, when produced by Salmonella spp. that cause gastroenteritis, has been implicated as a significant virulence factor? Hyaluronidase Protease Enterotoxin Endotoxin
Enterotoxin
What is the most commonly used test technique to detect Chlamydia trachomatis infection? Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) Nucleic acid probes Cell culture Cytologic methods
Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
What test method is used to detect antibodies to Mycoplasma spp.? Complement fixation (CF) Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) Cellulose ion exchange (CIE)
Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
All of the following are approaches to treating anaerobic infections EXCEPT: Surgical therapy Hyperbaric oxygen Antitoxins Enzyme inactivators
Enzyme inactivators
What is the name of the disease that is characterized by rapid onset, acute inflammation, and intense edema that may cause complete airway obstruction in 2- to 4-year-olds? Cellulitis Epiglottis Meningitis Conjunctivitis
Epiglottis
What is the drug of choice for treating Bordetella infections? Erythromycin Penicillin Aminoglycosides Quinolones
Erythromycin
What is the drug of choice for treating a Legionella infection? Aminoglycosides Penicillin Vancomycin Erythromycin
Erythromycin
What is the drug of choice for treating intestinal campylobacteriosis? Erythromycin Gentamicin Vancomycin Imipenem
Erythromycin
What is the specimen of choice for Bordetella species? Throat cultures Sputum specimens Bronchial aspirations Nasopharyngeal swabs
Nasopharyngeal swabs
What organism presents as a pink colony with a halo on MacConkey media and a green metallic sheen on EMB? Salmonella enterica Proteus mirabilis Escherichia coli Klebsiella pneumonia
Escherichia coli
Which organism is the most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs) in humans? Escherichia coli Klebsiella oxytoca Proteus mirabilis Enterobacter cloacae
Escherichia coli
Bacterial vaginosis is a synergistic infectious process involving all the following bacteria EXCEPT: Eubacterium Bacteroides Gardnerella Peptostreptococcus
Eubacterium
Despite all its virulence factors, what type of pathogen is Pseudomonas aeruginosa? Opportunistic Primary Secondary Commensal
Opportunistic
All of the following are urogenital infections in men, produced by Chlamydia trachomatis, EXCEPT: Epididymitis Orchitis Prostatitis Nongonococcal urethritis (NGU)
Orchitis
What are the primary antigens used in serologic grouping of salmonellae? Somatic A antigen and flagellar O antigens Capsular A antigen and somatic O antigen Flagellar H antigen and capsular A antigen Flagellar H antigen and somatic O antigen
Flagellar H antigen and somatic O antigen
What medium is used in the laboratory to grow leptospires? MacConkey Fletcher's Sheep blood agar None of the above
Fletcher's
What is a confirmatory test for a positive rapid plasmin reagin (RPR)? Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) Fluorescent treponemal antibody, absorbed (FTA-ABS) Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) Darkfield
Fluorescent treponemal antibody, absorbed (FTA-ABS)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is resistant to all the following antimicrobial agents EXCEPT: Ampicillin Chloramphenicol Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole Fluoroquinolones
Fluoroquinolones
What disease does Clostridium perfringens cause? Botulism Tetanus Food poisoning Toxic shock syndrome
Food poisoning
What is the name of the organism that causes tularemia that can be contracted from rabbits? Brucella tularensis B. hareis Francisella tularensis F. philomiragia
Francisella tularensis
In the carrier state, where are pathogenic salmonellae carried? Gallbladder Liver Intestines Stomach
Gall bladder
Elizabethkingae (Chryseobacterium) meningosepticum causes all the following diseases EXCEPT: Pneumonia Gastroenteritis Endocarditis Meningitis
Gastroenteritis
All of the following are common extrapulmonary infection sites for tuberculosis EXCEPT: Lymph nodes Gastrointestinal Genitourinary tract Abdominal cavity
Gastrointestinal
All of the following are biochemical tests for the identification of Mycobacterium spp. EXCEPT: Gelatin liquefaction Hydrolysis of Tween 80 Iron uptake Arylsulfatase
Gelatin liquefaction
All of the following are traditional characteristics used to identify mycobacteria EXCEPT: Rate of growth Colony morphology Gram stain results Pigmentation
Gram stain results
All of the following are characteristics of Haemophilus spp. EXCEPT: Gram-positive cocci Small coccobacilli Oxidase positive Catalase positive
Gram-positive cocci
Infections with Vibrio spp. can be contracted in all of the following situations EXCEPT: Increased travel to either coastal or cholera-endemic areas Increased consumption of seafood (particularly uncooked) Greater numbers of Vibrio spp. in the environment Increased use of recreational water facilities
Greater numbers of vibrio spp. in the environment
What Haemophilus species is called the Koch-Weeks bacillus? H. influenzae H. parainfluenzae H. aegyptius H. aphrophilus
H. aegyptius
A microbiologist is reading a sputum culture and notices that there is no growth on the sheep blood and MacConkey agars, but there is growth on the chocolate plate. The colonies on the plate are translucent, moist, smooth, and convex, with a mousy odor. What is the most likely identification of the organism? Haemophilus parainfluenzae H. influenzae H. aegyptius H. ducreyi
H. influenzae
What organisms, which are gram-negative coccobacilli, can appear as gram-positive cocci in smears made from blood culture bottles? Pseudomonas putida Acinetobacter spp. Haemophilus Alcalgenes spp.
Acinetobacter spp.
All of these stains are used to visualize mycobacteria on a smear EXCEPT: Ziehl-Neelsen Kinyoun Auramine Acridine orange
Acridine orange
Mycoplasma sp. from patient samples are visible by which staining technique? Gram stain Methylene Blue Acridine orange All of the above
Acridine orange
An immunosuppressed patient notices sinus tracts that are draining pus. He also notices that there appear to be small, hard "nuggets" in the pus. What disease will his doctor most likely diagnose? Gas gangrene Pseudomembranous colitis Actinomycosis Myonecrosis
Actinomycosis
What species of Aeromonas is the most frequently associated with gastrointestinal infections? Aeromonas hydrophila A. caviae A. veronii A. sobria
Aeromonas hydrophila
How are suspected colonies of anaerobes processed? Gram stain morphology and reaction is observed. An aerotolerance test is set up. A pure culture/subculture plate is inoculated and appropriate disks are added. All of the above.
All of the above
Mycoplasma organisms will grow in which of the following atmospheres? Ambient Capnophilic Anaerobic All of the above
All of the above
What evidence indicates the presence of anaerobes in cultures? A foul odor upon opening an anaerobic jar or bag Growth on the anaerobic plates, but not on the sheep blood agar (SBA) plates incubated in the CO2 incubator Colonies on kanamycin-vancomycin laked blood agar (KVLBA) that fluoresce brick-red under ultraviolet light All of the above
All of the above
When Mycoplasma hominis invades the upper genitourinary tract, it can cause the following? Salpingitis Pyelonephritis Pelvic inflammatory disease All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is a virulence factor of Pseudomonas aeruginosa? Endotoxin Exotoxins Capsule All of the above
All of the above
Which species are associated with infections in humans? Haemophilus influenzae H. aegyptius H. ducreyi All of the above
All of the above
What is the definition of a multidrug-resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis? Organisms resistant to at least isoniazid and rifampicin Organisms resistant to isoniazid, rifampicin, ethambutol, and streptomycin Organisms resistant to streptomycin and rifampicin Organisms resistant to ciprofloxacin and imipenem
Organisms resistant to at least isoniazid and rifampicin
What biochemical test will differentiate nonfermenters from Enterobacteriaceae (except Plesiomonas)? Oxidase Indole Citrate Voges-Proskauer (VP)
Oxidase
What two biochemical tests help distinguish Aeromonas species from other enterics? Oxidase and indole Oxidase and Simmon's citrate Simmon's citrate and indole Voges-Proskauer (VP) and indole
Oxidase and indole
All of the following are biochemical characteristics of Vibrio spp. EXCEPT: Ferments glucose Reduce nitrate to nitrite Halophilic Oxidase negative
Oxidase negative
All of the following are rapid methods used to definitively identify Legionella species EXCEPT: Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) DNA detection Indirect immunofluorescence Urine antigen testing
Indirect Immunofleorescence
All of the following are characteristics of nonfermenters EXCEPT: Thin gram-negative bacilli or coccobacilli Oxidase positive Indole positive Resistance to a variety of antimicrobials, such as aminoglycosides, third-generation cephalosporins, penicillins, and fluoroquinolones
Indole positive
A patient goes to the dentist with an abscess. The physician cultures the tooth. Which of the following bacteria can possibly cause this infection? Bacteroides fragilis Porphyromonas asaccharolytica P. gingivalis Mobiluncus
P. gingivalis
The three species of nonfermenters that make up the majority of isolates routinely seen in clinical laboratories include all the following EXCEPT: Pseudomonas aeruginosa Acinetobacter spp. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia P. putida
P. putida
What two species of Pseudomonas have been linked to transfusion-associated septicemia? Pseudomonas aeruginosa and P. stutzeri P. fluorescens and P. aeruginosa P. putida and P. fluorescens P. putida and P. mendocina
P. putida and P. fluorescens
Aeromonads have been implicated in all of the following diseases EXCEPT: Osteomyelitis Meningitis Pneumonia Otitis
Pneumonia
All of the following symptoms are characteristic of Weil's disease EXCEPT: Pneumonia Renal failure Hepatic failure Intravascular disease
Pneumonia
All the following organisms are found in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract EXCEPT: Bacteroides Clostridium Propionibacterium Bifidobacterium
Propionibacterium
The primary pathogens of the Enterobacteriaceae include all the following EXCEPT: Salmonella enterica Proteus mirabilis Shigella spp. Yersinia spp.
Proteus Mirabilis
What two bacteria produce swarming colonies on nonselective media such as sheep blood agar (SBA)? Enterobacter aerogenes and Serratia marcescens Proteus pannier and Klebsiella pneumoniae Proteus vulgaris and Proteus mirabilis Proteus mirabilis and Escherichia coli
Proteus vulgaris and Proteus mirabilis
What organism in the genus Providencia is incriminated in nosocomial outbreaks in burn units and has been isolated from urine cultures? Providencia stuartii P. heimbachae P. rustigianii P. alcalifaciens
Providencia stuartii
What nonfermenter is the leading cause of nosocomial pneumonia and bacteremia? Pseudomonas aeruginosa P. fluorescens P. putida P. mendocina
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
What organism causes epidemic louse-borne typhus? Rickettsia typhi R. canada R. rickettsii R. prowazekii
R. prowazekii
What organism causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever? Rickettsia prowazekii R. typhi R. canada R. rickettsii
R. rickettsii
What are nonchromogens? Species that produce carotene pigment upon exposure to light Species that produce pigment in the light or the dark Species whose colonies are a buff color and exposure to light does not induce pigment formation Species whose colonies fluoresce under ultraviolet light
Species whose colonies are a buff color and exposure to light does not induce pigment formation
What is unique about the Sphingobacterium spp.? Sphingomyelin in the cell wall Cholesterol in the cell wall Sphingophospholipids in the cell wall Collagen in the cell wall
Sphingophospholipids in the cell wall
What type of bacteria are those in the genus Clostridium? Anaerobic cocci Spore-forming anaerobic bacilli Spore-forming anaerobic cocci Anaerobic bacilli
Spore-forming anaerobic bacilli
All of the following organisms cause cutaneous mycoses EXCEPT: Sporothrix schenckii Trichophyton beigelii Microsporum canis Epidermophyton floccosum
Sporothrix schenckii
What is the drug of choice for treating Borrelia infections? Aminoglycosides Macrolides Tetracyclines Penicillins
Tetracyclines
Why can't direct microscopy be used to provide a presumptive identification of the enteric bacteria? Some members of the genus Gram stain weakly. The microscopic characteristics are indistinguishable from other gram-negative bacteria Some members of the genus do not decolorize well and appear gram positive. Some members have very thick capsules, and these do not allow the penetration of the Gram stain.
The microscopic characteristics are indistinguishable from other gram-negative bacteria
One of the factors that allows Mycoplasma to infect the respiratory tract and the urogenital tract is that: The body has a hard time detecting their presence because they have no cell wall. They are virulent organisms. They adhere to the epithelium of mucosal surfaces and are not eliminated by mucus secretions. All of the above.
They adhere to the epithelium of mucosal surfaces and are not eliminated by mucus secretions.
What is the purpose of the digestion-decontamination processing of specimens submitted for mycobacterial culture? To release all bacteria in the sample To make the specimen easier to plate To allow chemical decontaminants to kill nonmycobacterial organisms To liquefy the outer cell wall of the mycobacteria so that they will grow faster
To allow chemical decontaminants to kill nonmycobacterial organisms
What bacterium is the causative agent of the plague? Salmonella enteritidis Citrobacter freundii Shigella sonnei Yersinia pestis
Yersinia pestis
What is the antigen used in the purified protein derivative (PPD) skin test? A purified protein from the nucleus of Mycobacterium tuberculosis A purified piece of DNA from M. tuberculosis A purified protein from the cell wall of M. tuberculosis A piece of ribosomal RNA from M. tuberculosis
A purified protein from the cell wall of M. tuberculosis
How is Helicobacter pylori presumptively identified? A culture of a gastric biopsy A culture of gastric scrapings A rapid oxidase test done on gastric scrapings A rapid urease test done on a gastric biopsy
A rapid urease test done on a gastric biopsy
What is the name of the genus of organisms that colonized 45% of all tracheotomy patients? Acinetobacter spp. Pseudomonas aeruginosa P. mendocina P. fluorescens
Acinetobacter spp.
A microbiology technologist is reading an anaerobic plate from an intestinal abscess. There is growth on the Bacteroides bile esculin (BBE) plate: gray colonies with a brown color in the area around the colonies. There is also a dark precipitate in the medium in the areas of heavy growth. The technician Gram stains the colonies and observes gram-negative coccobacilli. What is the presumptive identification of this organism? Bacteroides vulgatus B. fragilis B. pneumoniae B. denticola
B. fragilis
All the following organisms are associated with human illness EXCEPT: Brucella melitensis B. ovis B. suis B. canis
B. ovis
What organism causes melioidosis? Burkholderia mallei B. cepacia B. gladioli B. pseudomallei
B. pseudomallei
What medium is used to isolate Legionella? MacConkey BCYE Chocolate Bordet-Gengou
BCYE
Chlamydia trachomatis produces all the following conditions in adult women EXCEPT: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) Salpingitis Bacterial vaginosis Endometritis
Bacterial vaginosis
Aerotolerant anaerobes include all the following EXCEPT: Clostridium Bacteroides Actinomyces Bifidobacterium
Bacteroides
What organism causes the disease called whooping cough? Bordetella pertussis Legionella pneumoniae Mycoplasma pneumoniae Chlamydophila pneumoniae
Bordetella Pertussis
What organism causes relapsing fever? Borrelia recurrentis B. burgdorferi Leptospira interrogans C. psittaci
Borrelia recurrentis
When does a patient develop tertiary syphilis? Decades after the initial infection Two to 3 years after the initial infection 1 year after the initial infection 5 years after the initial infection
Decades after the initial infection
Which of the following stains is used to enhance the visibility of mycoplasma-like colonies? Gram stain Acridine orange Dienes stain Wright stain
Dienes stain
What method is used to confirm a positive Chlamydia trachomatis enzyme immunoassay (EIA)? Cytologic methods Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) Cell culture Nucleic acid probes
Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)
When transporting specimens for Mycoplasma culture to the laboratory, extreme care must be taken so that the specimen does not: Become contaminated Leak from the specimen container Become overgrown with bacterial normal florae Dry out
Dry out
All of the following are clinically significant isolates of the genus Enterobacter EXCEPT: Enterobacter cloacae E. aerogenes E. sakazakii E. hartmanni
E. hartmanni
A microbiologist is reading a sputum culture when she notices tiny, translucent colonies growing closely around a β-hemolytic colony on sheep blood agar (SBA). In fact, the colonies are growing in the area where the blood has been hemolyzed. What is the probable identity of the organism that is growing closely to the β-hemolytic organism, and why are they growing in the hemolyzed area? Neisseria spp., because they need the factor X in this area Haemophilus spp., because they need the factor V in this area Acinetobacter spp., because they need the factors X and V Alcalgenes spp., because they require antibiotics be added to the media
Haemophilus spp., because they need the factor V in this area
Spirochetes are made up of all the following EXCEPT: Helicobacter Leptospira Borrelia Treponema
Helicobacter
What is the name of the organism that is strongly associated with gastric, peptic, and duodenal ulcers as well as GI carcinoma? Campylobacter jejuni Helicobacter pylori C. curvus H. rectus
Helicobacter pylori
Middlebrook 7H10 and 7H11 media are enriched with all of the following EXCEPT: Oleic acid Bovine albumin Heme Beef catalase
Heme
All of the following procedures should be performed on clinical specimens to recover anaerobic bacteria EXCEPT: Specimen plating on appropriate tubed and plated media Anaerobic incubation Kinyoun stain Gram stain
Kinyoun stain
A microbiologist is reading a stool culture and notices a very moist and mucoid pink colony on MacConkey agar. What is the most likely organism? Klebsiella pneumoniae Escherichia coli Proteus vulgaris Acinetobacter
Klebsiella pneumoniae
What enteric organism may produce a blue-violet pigment on non-blood-containing media? Kluyvera Shigella Ewingella Cedecea
Kluyvera
What organism produces a community-acquired pneumonia, with symptoms different than a Streptococcus pneumoniae pneumonia, leading to the designation of atypical pneumonia? Legionella pneumophila Mycoplasma urelytica Chlamydophila asteroides C. trachomatis
Legionella pneumophila
What are the names of the two diseases caused by Legionella species? Rabbit fever and Pontiac fever Scalded skin syndrome and Legionnaire's disease Malta fever and undulating fever Legionnaire's disease and Pontiac fever
Legionnaire's disease and Pontiac fever
An animal attendant at the zoo became ill. Symptoms included fever, chills, headache, severe myalgia, and malaise. This person's urinalysis was abnormal with protein and blood present. A couple of weeks earlier, the attendant was handling the chimpanzees and one of the chimps urinated on him. What is the most likely cause of illness? Borrelia Leptospira Treponema Helicobacter
Leptospira
How long does it take to detect Mycobacterium spp. with the BACTEC method? Less than 2 weeks 3 weeks 4 weeks 6 weeks
Less than 2 weeks
The Escherichia coli serotype O157:H7 is associated with all the following EXCEPT: Hemorrhagic diarrhea Colitis Liver damage Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
Liver Damage
What media are recommended for routine culturing of specimens for the recovery of acid-fast bacilli? Lowenstein-Jensen and mycobacterial growth indicator tube Middlebrook 7H10 and cooked meat broth Sabouraud dextrose and LIM broth Thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts-sucrose (TCBS) and thioglycollate broth
Lowenstein-Jensen and mycobacterial growth indicator tube
What diseases do Borrelia spp. cause? Undulant and hemorrhagic fevers Lyme disease and Parrot fever Rocky Mountain spotted fever and Relapsing fever Lyme disease and Relapsing fever
Lyme disease and Relapsing fever
A young woman notices a bruise that looks like an erythema chronicum migrans lesion on her lower leg. She cannot remember getting bruised, even though she went hiking through the woods last weekend. The bruise goes away in about a week and she thinks nothing more about it. About 2 weeks later, she begins to feel very bad. She has joint and bone pain, extreme fatigue, and her heart just "doesn't feel right." What disease does she have, and what antibiotic is used to treat it? Lyme disease and doxycycline Relapsing fever and macrolides Parrot fever and penicillin Hemorrhagic fever and gentamicin
Lyme disease and doxycycline
A patient with Hodgkin's disease is feeling bad, so he pays a visit to his physician. The physician's clinical examination reveals submandibular lymphadenitis, subcutaneous nodules, painful swellings, ulcers progressing to abscesses, and draining fistulas. What organism is probably producing these symptoms? Mycobacterium tuberculosis M. avium M. gordonae M. haemophilum
M. haemophilum
What Mycobacterium species fails to grow in vitro? Mycobacterium tuberculosis M. leprae M. avium M. marinum
M. leprae
What disease causes the condition primary atypical pneumonia? Mycoplasma hominis M. urealyticum M. fermentans M. pneumoniae
M. pneumoniae
Why are antibody detection methods for Chlamydia trachomatis infection severely limited in the knowledge they provide the physician? Because C. trachomatis is an intracellular parasite, the body does not produce antibodies against it. Only IgE antibodies are produced against C. trachomatis. Many people have antibodies from previous infections, and local infections do not cause great increases in antibody levels. All of the above.
Many people have antibodies from previous infections, and local infections do not cause great increases in antibody levels.
All of the following techniques are used for making definitive identification of anaerobes EXCEPT: PRAS and non-PRAS tubed biochemical test media Gas-liquid chromatography of metabolic end products Preexisting enzyme-based minisystems Mass spectroscopy
Mass spectroscopy
What type of an atmosphere do campylobacters require for growth? Microaerophilic and capnophilic Anaerobic and moist Capnophilic and halophilic Microaerophilic and high nitrogen content
Microaerophilic and capnophilic
What is the most sensitive and rapid primary isolation liquid media for Mycobacterium spp.? Thioglycollate Cooked meat 5% NaCl broth Middlebrook 7H12
Middlebrook 7H12
What are two important factors that must be taken into consideration when transporting specimens for anaerobic culture? Making sure there is enough specimen in a tightly closed container Minimum exposure to oxygen and drying out Minimum exposure to oxygen and making sure the specimen is transported in a tightly closed screw-cap container Drying out and proper nutrition
Minimizing exposure to oxygen and drying out
The four major groups of anaerobic gram-negative bacilli include all the following EXCEPT: Bacteroides fragilis Porphyromonas Prevotella Mobiluncus
Mobiluncus
What is the most common member of the genus Moraxella isolated in the clinical laboratory? Moraxella nonliquefaciens M. osloensis M. lacunata M. catarrhalis
Moraxella nonliquefaciens
Burkholderia pseudomallei is found in all the following areas EXCEPT: New Zealand Northern Australia Mexico Southeast Asia
New Zealand
A young man goes to his doctor complaining of a discharge from his penis. The doctor collects a slide for Gram stain and a swab for culture and sends them to the laboratory. The Gram stain is prepared and read: > 25 wbc/hpf, no bacteria seen. The culture results after 48 hours show no growth. What is the most probable diagnosis and the organism responsible? Urethritis, Streptococcus pneumonia Epididymitis, Moraxella Nongonococcal urethritis, Neisseria meningitidis Nongonococcal urethritis, Chlamydia trachomatis
Nongonococcal urethritis, Chlamydia trachomatis
In what single setting does Stenotrophomonas maltophilia produce all its disease? Community Military barracks Nosocomial College dorms
Nosocomial
What time frame is suitable for blood draws to diagnose Mycoplasma infections? Onset of symptoms and 2 to 3 weeks later Week after symptoms start and 2 months later Weeks after symptoms start and 3 months later Onset of symptoms and 2 months later
Onset of symptoms and 2 to 3 weeks later