Midterm CST 412

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A leading stakeholder is one who is aware of the project and is neither supportive nor resistant to it. true false

false

Key stakeholders need not be invited to participate in a kick-off meeting. true false

false

Project management software tools normally do not promote the use of Facebook as a forum to promote project activities. true false

false

Project stakeholder management has resonances with project cost management and project time management. true false

false

Projects often do not cause any changes in an organization. true false

false

Sensitive information can be included in the stakeholder register as very few people in the organization have access to it. true false

false

Stakeholders might change during a project due to employee turnover, partnerships, and other events. true false

false

Communication and interpersonal skills are important for successful project stakeholder management. true false

true

Communications software like e-mail, blogs, Web sites, texts, and tweets can aid in stakeholder communications. true false

true

Groups representing consumer, environmental, or other interests can be identified as project stakeholders. true false

true

Internal stakeholders include top management, other functional managers, and other project managers. true false

true

The stakeholder management plan should not be accessible to all stakeholders. true false

true

Though stakeholders cannot be controlled, their level of engagement can be controlled. true false

true

A project management plan is? A. A document used to coordinate all project planning documents and help guide a project's execution and control. B.A document used to solicit quotes or bids from prospective suppliers C. A document that includes at least a description of the project, including its overall objectives and justifi- cation, detailed descriptions of all project deliverables, and the characteristics and requirements of products and services pro- duced as part of the project D.A document that formally recognizes the existence of a project and provides direction on the project's objectives and management

A

A project's IRR (internal rate of return) can be calculated by determining what discount rate results in an NPV (net present value) of _____ for the project. A. zero B. one C. a hundred percent D. fifty percent

A

If a project manager is communicating important or sensitive information to a team member, this type of method for conveying the information is likely to be most effective? A. Short face-to-face meetings B. E-mails C. Telephone conversations D. Reading reports from other team members

A

In a project, most of the time and budget is spent on _______ of the project? A. executiong B. planning C.closing D. monitoring and controlling

A

In project procurement management the procedure of choosing suppliers/sellers is called? A. source selection B. a bid C. WBS D. a change order

A

In project time management, the main goal of _____ is to ensure that the project team has complete understanding of all the work they must do as part of the project scope so they can start scheduling the work. A. defining activities B. estimating activity durations C. estimating activity resources D.controlling the schedule

A

Providing the direction & funding for a project is the responsibility of this individual/group/organization? A.project sponer B. project manager C.support staff member D.project team

A

This type of report shows/describes what the project team has completed/accomplished during a specific period. A. progress reports B. status reports C. forecasts D> Lessions-learned reports

A

Which of the following is an output of the process of controlling costs? Select one: a. Cost forecasts b. Project funding requirements c. Basis of estimates d. Scope baselines

A

Which of the following is true of the schedule performance index (SPI)? Select one: a. It can be used to estimate the projected time to complete the project. b. It means that a project is behind schedule if an SPI is greater than one. c. It means that a project is ahead of schedule if SPI is lesser than one or hundred percent. d. It is the ratio of planned value to actual costs.

A

Which of the following processes in project time management involves identifying the specific tasks that the project team members and stakeholders must perform to produce the project deliverables? A. defining activites B. sequencing activites C. developing the schedule D.estimating activity durations

A

An important scope aspect of IT projects that affect quality is _______ which, addresses how well a product or service performs the customer's intended use. A. Reliability B.Performance C. Maintainability D. Functionality

B

In this approach to creating a WBS for a system, begin by listing all detailed tasks needed to be perform in order to create the system. After listing these detailed tasks, you would group the tasks into categories. Then you would group these categories into higher-level categories. A. analogy B. bottom-up C. top-down D. mind mapping

B

According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) _____ is the most appropriate medium for assessing commitment and building a consensus. A. phone call B. E-mail C. meeting D.Web Site

C

An example of push communication is _____. A. meetings B. Bulletin Boards C. Faxes D. web sites

C

When completing a weighted scoring model, the weights used in the model should sum up to total what percentage value? A. ten percent B. fifty percent C. one hundred percent D.zero

C

Setting _____ for a meeting, forces organizers of the meeting to plan ahead and gives individuals who may, or are required to participate, the chance to make a decision if they need to attend. A. minutes B.handouts C. emails D. agendas

D

This communication method is best utilized for communicating simple routine information. A. meetings B.face-to-face C. hard copy D. email

D

Which of the following involves developing an approximation of the costs of resources needed to complete a project? Select one: a. Determining the budget b. Finalising the cost baseline c. Controlling costs d. Estimating costs

D

_____ includes the processes required to ensure that a project team completes a project within an approved budget. Select one: a. Project scope management b. Project quality management c. Project time management d. Project cost management

D

_____ is the amount of satisfaction or pleasure received from a potential payoff. A. Risk Aversion B. Risk Neutral C. Risk Sensitivity D. Risk Utility

D

A cost estimation tool which is used to allocate money into an organization's budget is known as a _____ estimate. Select one: a. budgetary b. definitive c. rough order of magnitude d. ballpark

A

A definition of scope creep within a project is? A. the tendency for project scope to keep getting bigger and bigger. B. subdividing project deliverables into smaller pieces. C. the approved project scope statement and its associated WBS. D. a task at the lowest level of the WBS.

A

A dependency or relationship pertains to the sequencing of project activities or tasks. An example of this type of dependency is you cannot test programming code until after it is written. This type of dependency is also termed hard logic. A. mandory B. discretionary C. external D.random

A

A diagramming model used in quantitative risk analysis, using a branching method to illustrate every possible outcome based on probability, to outline the best action to take in situations where there is uncertainty in future outcomes. A. decision tree B. activity-on-arrow C. workaround D. backward pass

A

A response strategies for negative risks which entails eradicating certain/specific threat, normally by removing its causes. A. Risk avoidance B. Risk acceptance C. Risk transference D. Risk mitigation

A

According to McClelland's acquired-needs theory, people with a high need for _____ desire harmonious relationships with other people and need to feel accepted by others. A. affiliation B. self-actualization C. power D. achievement

A

After identifying and analyzing stakeholders, the project manager and team should develop a(n) ______ to help them effectively engage stakeholders and make sure that good decisions are made throughout the life of the project. A. stakeholder management plan B. stakeholder register C. issue log D.power/interest grid

A

Any/all instance(s) where the product or service fails to meet customer requirements. A. defect B. yield C. deliverable D. variance

A

Define resource loading in regards to human resource management. A. refers to the amount of individual resources an existing schedule requires during specific time periods. B. A technique for resolving resource conflicts by delaying tasks. C. A hierarchical structure that identifies the project's resources by category and type D. Specific uncertain events that may occur to the detriment or enhancement of the project

A

In the planning process the 1st step is to? A. to tie the information technology strategic plan to the organization's overall strategic plan B.to perform a business area analysis C.to start defining potential IT projects in terms of their scope, benefits, and constraints D.to choose which projects to do and assigning resources to work on them

A

In the project life cycle, project feasibility includes the concept and development phases. What is accomplished in the development phase? A.the project team creates more detailed project plans, a more accurate cost estimate, and a more thorough WBS. B.the project team delivers the requiredwork, and provides performance reports to stakeholders. C.managers develop a business case, which describes the need for the project and basic underlying concepts. D.managers prepare a preliminary or rough cost estimate for the required work.

A

In the project life cycle, project; ___________ includes the concept and development phases. A. Feasibility B. acquisiton C.implementation D.close-out

A

Newtech Inc. hires John for the position of a software programmer to work on their new project. Salary paid to John by Newtech Inc. would be an example of _____ costs. Select one: a. direct b. indirect c. sunk d. intangible

A

Organizational process assets include which of the following? A. Management systems B.The organization's infrastructure C. Government standards D.Marketplace conditions

A

Outsourcing suppliers can often provide economies of scale, especially for hardware and software, that may not be available to the client alone. Which of the following benefits does this offer an organization? A. Reduction in fixed and recurrent costs B. Increased flexibility C. Increased accountability D. Access to specific skills

A

Project scope management is defined as processes involved in defining and controlling what work is or is not included in a project. Within the items below which is associated with scope management? A. Collecting requirements B.Performing qualitative risk analysis C Planning schedule management D. Estimating cost

A

Schedule variance is: Select one: a. the earned value minus the planned value. b. the earned value minus the actual cost. c. the planned value plus the earned value. d. the planned value plus the rate of performance.

A

The __________ frame perspective of a company, deals with how the company is organized, and focuses on different groups' responsibilities/roles in order to meet the policies/goals set by upper management. A. Structural Frame B. Human resources frame C. Political Frame D. Symbolic Frame

A

The closing process, _________ _______ _________, has organizational process asset update as its output. A.Project integration management B. project quality management C.project procurement management D. project time management

A

The improvement of the product & process in the Scrum method (SCRUM is the leading agile method for completing projects) is discussed when? A. Sprint reflection meeting B.spring review meeting C. kick-off meeting D.daily scrum meeting

A

The main goal of the _____ process is to produce a cost baseline for measuring project performance and project funding requirements. Select one: a. cost budgeting b. cost planning c. cost controlling d. cost estimating

A

The project team must take corrective action if stakeholders with high interest and high power are categorized as _____. A. resistant B. neutral C. supportive D. leading

A

This involves all stakeholders of the project officially accepting the completed project scope. A. scope validation B. scope planning C. scope control D. scope baseline

A

This is a name given to doing anything possible to guarantee a positive risk takes place/happens. A. Risk exploitation B. Risk Sharing C. risk enhancement D. risk acceptance

A

This network diagramming technique advantage is that it is utilized by most project management software including Microsoft Project. The method uses nodes/boxes to signify tasks(activities). A. PDM B. CPM C. ADM D. PERT

A

This process in Project Risk Management, includes defining any uncertainty that can have a negative or positive effect on meeting project objectives that are more than likely going to affect a project and documenting the characteristics of each of these uncertainties. A. Identifying risks B. Planning risk management C. Performing qualitative risk analysis D.Perfoming quantitative risk analusis

A

This segment of Project Risk Management involves assessing the probability and impact of identified risks to establish their magnitude and priority. In this process you can use a probability/ impact matrix to produce a prioritized list of risks. A. Performing qualitative risk analysis B. Identifying risks C. Planning risk responses D. Performing quantitative risk analysis

A

Tiffin MSC, a wholesaler, buys a particular product produced by Gabes. Recently, Gabes declared bankruptcy and shut its doors for good. Tiffin MSC does not know what to do because there are no other manufacturers in the market that supplies this particular product. Which of the following constraints is Tiffin MSC currently facing? A.Resources B. time C.scope D.cost

A

Using x as a variable representing the number of people involved in a communication, what is the formula for calculating the amount/number of channels needed for the communication? A. x (x-1)/2 B. x(x+1)/2 C.x (x+1)/x(x-1) D. x(x-1)/x(x+1)

A

Variances are calculated by subtracting the actual cost from _____. Select one: a. earned value b. schedule variance c. planned value d. rate of performance

A

When a project team does not have contingency plans in place, this is a name given to an unplanned response to a risk event. A. Workaround B.Fallback Plan C. Contingency plans D. Triggers

A

When looking at the agile method/approach to software development, what statement below is true? A. In the agile method, requirements and solutions evolve thought collaboration B.An agile approach sets scope goals, but leaves time and cost goals flexible. C.Agile is a predictive model of software development. D.In the agile approach, requirements must be clearly expressed early in the life cycle.

A

When looking at the concept of project life cycle, what statement below is true? A.In the early phases of a project life cycle, resource needs are usually lowest. B.In the later phases of the project life cycle, the level of uncertainty is usually the highest. C.It is much more expensive to make major changes to a project during the earlier phases than the latter phases. D.More resources are usually needed during the initial phases of a project

A

When looking at the concept of the Scrum method (SCRUM is the leading agile method for completing projects) this is a function that is usually not necessary? A. team contract B. velocity estimate C.grantt chart D.produt backlog

A

Which of the following is true of contingency reserves? Select one: a. They allow for future situations that can be partially planned for. b. They are also known as unknown unknowns. c. They are not included in a cost baseline. d. They allow for dollar amounts to be used to cover existing, fixed costs.

A

_____ are those costs that are difficult to measure in monetary terms. Select one: a. Intangible costs b. Direct costs c. Tangible costs d. Fixed costs

A

_____ involves allocating the overall cost estimate to individual work items to establish a baseline for measuring performance. Select one: a. Determining the budget b. Finalising policies for project costs c. Controlling costs d. Estimating costs

A

_____ involves determining everyone involved in the project or affected by it, and determining the best ways to manage relationships with them. A. Identifying stakeholders B. Planning stakeholder management C. Managing stakeholder engagement D. Controlling stakeholder engagement

A

_____ is a technique that helps identify which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome of a process. A. Design of experiments B. Backward pass C. Activity-on-arrow D. Crashing

A

_____ is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under normal conditions. A.Reliability B. Performance C.Maintainability D. Functionality

A

_____ is the newest knowledge area identified by the Project Management Institute and is the last knowledge area in our textbook. A. Project stakeholder management B. Project communication management C. Project risk management D. Project procurement management

A

_____ risks are risks that remain after all of the response strategies have been implemented. A. residual B. known C. positive D. secondary

A

A _____ estimate is used for making many purchasing decisions for which accurate estimates are required and for estimating final project costs. Select one: a. budgetary b. definitive c. rough order of magnitude d. final

B

A(n) _____ is a document that contains results of various risk management processes. A. Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS) B. Risk Register C. Risk Sensitivity Report D. Risk Probability Matrix

B

A(n) _____ is also known as a tender or quote, short for quotation. A. offer B. bid C. tender D. submission

B

Analogous estimates are also known as _____ estimates. Select one: a. bottom-up b. top-down c. parametric d. budgetary

B

Benchmarking a project includes? A. Devising and maintaining a workable scheme to ensure that the project addresses the organization's needs B. Generating ideas by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products inside or outside the performing organization C.A technique that uses branches radiating from a core idea to structure thoughts and ideas D.Testing that occurs between unit and system testing to test functionally grouped components and ensure that a subset or subsets of the entire system work together

B

Cost variance is: Select one: a. the planned value plus actual costs. b. the earned value minus the actual cost. c. the rate of performance minus earned value. d. the planned value minus the rate of performance.

B

Define resource leveling in terms of human resource management. A. The amount of individual resources an existing schedule requires during specific time periods B. Is a technique for resolving resource conflicts by delaying tasks C. Assigning people, equipment, and materials to a project D. A column chart that shows the number of resources assigned to a project over time

B

Doctors who have been co-opted to actively participate in a project related to using information technology for chronic health problems would be examples of _____ stakeholders. A. supportive B. leading C. resistant D. neutral

B

For this type of individual, risk utility (which is the amount of satisfaction or pleasure received from a potential payoff) rises at a decreasing rate. A. risk-seeking B. risk-averse C.risk neutral D. risk indeifferent

B

If the cost estimate for a project is a basis for contract awards and performance reporting, it should be a(n) _____ estimate and as accurate as possible. Select one: a. budgetary b. definitive c. rough order of magnitude d. analogous

B

In project quality management this is name given to a standard of measurement? A. Milestone B. metric C. Merge D. Matrix

B

In project time management, the next step after defining project activities is: A.planning schedule management. B. determining their dependencies C. controlling the schedule D.estiating activity duration

B

In the project life cycle, within this phase, performance reports are provided to stakeholders, definitive cost estimates are produced and execution of required work is performed. A.development B.implementation C.concept D.close-out

B

Includes defining & managing all mandatory work needed to finish a project effectively/successfully. A.project human resources management B. project scope management C. project time management D. project cost management

B

Managers who follow _____ assume that the average worker wants to be directed and prefers to avoid responsibility. A. Theory Z B. Theory X C. Theory Y D. Theory K

B

Net Present Value (NPV) Analysis is? A. A technique that provides a systematic process for selecting projects based on numerous criteria B. s a method of calculating the expected net monetary gain or loss from a project by discounting all expected future cash inflows and outflows to the present point in time. C. The amount of time needed to recoup the total dollars invested in a project, in terms of net cash inflows D.The cost at which the contractor assumes total responsibility for each additional dollar of contract cost in a fixed-price incentive fee contract

B

Of the 4 processes for human resource management in a project, this process can include mental team exercises that utilize the (M)yers-(B)riggs (T)ype (I)ndicator, Social Styles Profile, and the (D)ominance, (I)nfluence, (S)teadiness, and (C)ompliance Profile. A. Developing the human resource plan B. Developing the project team C. Acquiring the project team D. Managing the project team

B

Of the variables scope, costs, time and quality which, has the smallest flexibility in the schedule for a project? A. cost B.time C. quality D. scope

B

Organizational culture is defined as a set of shared assumptions, values, and behaviors that characterize the functioning of an organization". Control refers to what in organizational culture? A. the degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment B.the degree to which rules, policies, and direct supervision are used to oversee employee behavior C.the degree to which management focuses on outcomes rather than on techniques and processes used to achieve results D.the degree to which employees are encouraged to be aggressive, innovative, and risk seeking

B

Pareto analysis states: A. 80 percent of problems are often due to poor management B. 80 percent of problems are often due to 20 percent of the causes C. 20 percent of problems are often due to 80 percent of the causes D. 20 percent of problems are often due to poor management

B

Payback on a project happens when? A. the net cumulative benefits minus costs equal one. B. the net cumulative benefits equal the net cumulative costs. C. the net costs are lower than the cumulative benefits. D. the cumulative benefits are double the cumulative costs.

B

Power, is the ability to influence behavior to get people to do things they would not otherwise do. There are five main types of power, according to French and Raven's classic study, "The Bases of Social Power. They include ___________, legitimate, expert, reward and referent. A. Genuine B.Coercive C.Forced D.Skilled

B

Project management (PM) is defined as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements. The most often unappreciated and difficult process in PM is? A. initiating B. Planning C. Executing D. monitoring and controlling

B

Projects must operate in a broad organizational environment, and project managers need to consider projects within the greater organizational context. A. linear analysis B. systems thinking C. reductionism D.the silo approach

B

Projects that use Six Sigma principles for quality control normally follow a five-phase improvement process called _____. A. Define, Measure, Analyze, Incorporate and Control (DMAIC) B. Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve and Control (DMAIC) C. Define, Measure, Add, Improve and Control (DMAIC) D. Define, Make, Analyze, Improve and Control (DMAIC)

B

Scope, time and cost goals in order of importance can be ranked on a(n) _____. A. requirements traceability matrix B. expectations management matrix C. responsibility assignment matrix D. probability matrix

B

The cost performance index (CPI): Select one: a. indicates that a project is under budget if CPI is less than one. b. can be used to estimate the projected cost of completing the project. c. indicates that the planned and actual costs are equal if CPI is more than one. d. is the ratio of earned value to planned value.

B

The first step in project cost management is: Select one: a. to allocate project cost estimates to individual material resources. b. to plan how costs will be managed. c. to control project costs and monitor cost performance. d. to develop several estimates of costs for different types of resources.

B

The hierarchy of needs theory is a motivational theory based on this psychologist work. A. Sigmund Freud B. Abraham Maslow C. Carl Jung D. Philip Zimbardo

B

The knowledge area cost management of project management (PM), maps/correlates to this process group by actions of budget determination & estimating cost? A. initiating B. planning C. executing D. monitoring and controlling

B

The period of time given to managers during the feasibility phases to decide on the cost, quality, and time constraints for the project A.The period of time given to managers during the feasibility phases to decide on the cost, quality, and time constraints for the project B. A review of the status of a project at each phase of development to determine if it should be continued, redirected, or terminated C.The point of time in the project lifecycle after which it is impossible to terminate a running project D.The final submission of the project deliverables after which the project is terminated

B

The process of controlling costs primarily involves: Select one: a. determining the policies for project costs. b. managing changes to the project budget. c. finalising the procedures for project costs. d. determining a basis for estimates.

B

The project team must take corrective action if stakeholders with _____ are categorized as resistant or unaware. A. high interest/low power B. high interest/high power C. low interest/low power D.high interest/high power

B

The technique for making cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain the greatest amount of schedule compression for the least incremental cost is known as _____. A. dependency B. crashing C. cirtical chain scheduling D. feeding buffers

B

This is a name given to a testing mechanism where each individual component is tested (often this is each components of a program) to make sure it is as defect-free as possible. A. integration test B. unit test C. user acceptance test D. System test

B

This process in project management (or a project phase) includes bringing the project/phase to a logical/orderly end by obtaining customer/stakeholder acceptance of the final services/products. A.executing process B.closing process C.planning process D.monitoring process

B

This term refers to the difference between performance that is planned and the actual performance and is used for analysis in scope control. A. decomposition B. variance C. scope vlidation D. scope creep

B

This type of report shows/describes where a project is at, or stands at a certain point in time. A. progress reports B. status reports C. forecasts D. lession-learned reports

B

Three tools used in contract closure include procurement audits, which are used to identify lessons learned in the entire procurement process, records management system, which are used to provide ability to easily organize, find, and archive procurement-related documents and this. A. change over B. negotiated settlements C. Request for Proposal D. Request for Quotes

B

Using the formula for calculating the number of communication channels, how many channels would four people require? A. 5 B.6 C. 7 D.8

B

When creating a (W)ork (B)reakdown (S)chedule, which of the following is recommended as a good practice? A. Any WBS item should be the responsibility of all the people working on it. B. A unit of work should appear at only one place in the WBS. C. Each WBS item should be created assuming that the requirements are inflexible. D.The work content of a WBS item is independent of the WBS items below it.

B

When looking at virtual teams, what is a disadvantage compared to the more traditional team? A.Increased costs for office space and support B.Reduced opportunities for informal transfer of information C.Limited flexibility in team working hours D.Reduced dependence on technology and processes for accomplishing work

B

Which of the following is an input of the process of controlling costs? Select one: a. Cost forecasts b. Work performance data c. Change requests d. Scope baseline

B

Which of the following is most likely to be a reason for inaccuracies in information technology cost estimates? Select one: a. Estimates take a long time to be worked out. b. People lack estimating experience. c. Human beings are biased toward overestimation. d. Only software development provides the scope for estimates to be accurate.

B

Which of the following is true of a rough order of magnitude estimate? Select one: a. It is used to allocate money into an organization's budget. b. It provides an estimate of what a project will cost. c. Its timeframe is always less than a year prior to project completion. d. It is a type of estimate that is done in the final stages of a project.

B

Which of the following is true of lump-sum contracts? A. They incur a high degree of risk for the buyer. B. They involve a fixed total price for a well-defined product or service. C. They consist of a fee based on the satisfaction of subjective performance criteria. D. They are also known as cost-reimbursable contracts.

B

Which of the following is true of tangible costs? Select one: a. They cannot be calculated in monetary terms. b. They can be easily measured. c. They are difficult to quantify. d. Their examples include goodwill and prestige.

B

Which of the following provides certification as a Project Management Professional? A. Project Management Incorporated B.Project Management Institute C.Project Management Association D.Project Management Organization

B

Which of the following reserves allows for future situations that are unpredictable? Select one: a. Contingency reserves b. Management reserves c. Known unknowns d. Cost baseline reserves

B

_____ is a method for determining the estimated annual costs and benefits for a project. Select one: a. Critical path analysis b. Cash flow analysis c. Present value analysis d. Requirements analysis

B

_____ means that a product can be used as it was intended A. Conformance to requirements B. Fitness for use C.Critical chain scheduling D. Free slack

B

_____ refers to action taken to bring rejected items into compliance with product requirements or specifications or other stakeholder expectations. A. A process adjustment B. Rework C. An acceptance decision D. Validation

B

_____ uses project characteristics in a mathematical model to estimate project costs. Select one: a. Rough order of magnitude estimating b. Parametric estimating c. Bottom-up estimating d. Analogous estimating

B

this type of contract the buyer pays the supplier for allowable costs along with a predetermined percentage based on total costs and this type of contract A. Cost Plus Partial Costs B. Cost Plus Percentage of Costs C. Cost Plus Paid Costs D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee

B

A cost estimation tool which involves estimating individual work items or activities and summing them to get a project total is known as a(n) _____ estimate. Select one: a. budgetary b. parametric c. bottom-up d. analogous

C

A document (normally a template) used to petition proposals from potential sellers/suppliers. A. Request For Quotes B. Request For Payment C. Request For Proposal D. Statement Of Work

C

A response strategies for negative risks which entails shifting the risk consequences and responsibility of the risk's management to a 3rd party. A. Risk avoidance B. Risk acceptance C. Risk transference D. Risk mitigation

C

A tangible or intangible product/good/service produced as part of a project(phase of a project). A. variance B. scope C. deliverable D. work package

C

An agile method for project management can be defined as an approach to managing projects that include a workflow comprised of short iterations and incremental delivery of software. From the list below which statement is true about an agile method? A.It is often used when a project team can express the scope early in the product life cycle. B.It is used when a project team wants to provide a potentially shippable product earlier rather than later. C.It uses several iterations or deliveries of software instead of waiting until the end of the project to provide a product. D.It is used when project teams want to use the predicative approach to a project.

C

Good Earth, a company manufacturing packaged food products, sets up its stores in Baltonia. However, a year later, the company closes the store down due to high operating costs. In such a scenario, the money spent in paying for the rent of the store in Baltonia would be an example of _____ costs. Select one: a. recurring b. direct c. sunk d. intangible

C

In this predictive SDLC model/method, a developer works with a prototype which evolves through the process and the model requires substanical user participation. the model/method helps create systems fast without sacrifiing quality A. incremental build life cycle B. waterfall life cycle C. RAD life cycle D. spiral life cycle

C

In this type of organizational structure(configuration), employees/personnel often report(check in with) both: functinoal manager one/several project managers A.project B. symbolic C.matrix D.functional

C

Of the following dependencies, which pertains to relationships between activities not related to the project and activities related to the project? A. mandatory B. discretionary C.external D.inherent

C

One of the main outputs of the _____ process are the issue logs. A. Planning stakeholder management B. Identifying stakeholders C. Managing stakeholder engagement D. Controlling stakeholder engagement

C

One of the main outputs of the _____ process is a cost baseline. Select one: a. cost controlling b. cost estimating c. cost budgeting d. cost planning

C

Payback analysis, which is determining the length of time required to recover the cost of the project, is most likely utilized in what following area of management? A. Human resources B. Communication C.Cost D. Quality

C

Project Scope Management is defined as processes involved in defining and controlling what work is or is not included in a project. Of the items below which is a planning process within the Project Scope Management knowledge area. A. Schedule development B.Developing a project management plan C.Creation of a WBS D.Quality planning

C

Soles is a footwear company which has recently set up its store in Ambrosia. To manufacture its products, Soles incurs a range of different costs. Which of the following would be an example of an indirect cost? Select one: a. Cost of machines to produce shoes b. Salary paid to factory workers c. Electricity used to run its factories d. Cost of leather used to manufacture shoes

C

The critical path represents the _____ amount of slack or float and is the _____ path through a network diagram. A. longest; longest B. logest;shortest C. shortest; longest D.shortest; shortest

C

The stakeholder register is the output of the _____ process of project stakeholder management. A. initiating B. planning C. execurting D. monitioring and controlling

C

This approach for constructing a WBS involves starting with top hierarchy tasks of the project and breaking those tasks into their lowest level of subordinate tasks. A. analogy B. bottom-up C. top-down D. mind mapping

C

This lists the relative probability of a risk taking place and relative impact of a risk taking place. A. Top Ten Risk Item Tracking chart B. requirements traceability matrix C. probability/impact matrix D. risk-breakdown structure

C

This provides the foundation for generating a schedule for the project and doing EAV(earned value management) for forecasting/measuring performance within a project. A.scope statement B.cost management plan C.work breakdown structure D.project charter

C

This quantitative risk analysis technique is a simulation model and the simulation steps include: 1.Collect the most likely, optimistic, and pessimistic estimates for the variables in the model 2.Determine the probability distribution of each variable. What is the likelihood of a variable falling between the optimistic and most likely estimates 3. For each variable select a random value based on the probability distribution for the occurrence of the variable 4. Run a deterministic analysis or one pass through the model using the combination of values selected for each of the variables 5. Repeat Steps 3 and 4 many times to obtain the probability distribution of the model's results A. Sensitivity B.Systems C. Monte Carlo D. NPV

C

Three different types of this form of contract include: Cost Plus Incentive Fee, Cost Plus Fixed Fee and Cost Plus Percentage of Costs. A. Firm-fixed-price B. Lump sum C. Cost-reimbursable contracts D. Fixed-price incentive fee

C

Three types of cost-reimbursable contracts include ______________________, cost plus fixed fee, and cost plus percentage of costs. A. Cost plus commission fee B. cost plus secured fee C. Cost plus incentive fee D.cost less incentive fee

C

What answer below best describes the critical path of a project? A.is the shortest path through a network diagram. B.represents schedule information in calendar form. C.determines the earliest completion date of a project. D.is a quality management tool to ensure a project meets the minimum quality standards.

C

Which of the following is true about identifying stakeholder? A. The project manager's family is not a potential stakeholder. B. It is not very difficult to identify stakeholders. C. Stakeholders with indirect ties to the project need not be engaged with. D. Stakeholders do not change during a project

C

Which of the following is true of analogous estimates? Select one: a. Their main disadvantage is that they cost more than other techniques. b. They are the only technique which do not require expert judgement. c. They are most reliable when previous projects are similar in fact with current projects. d. They use project characteristics in a mathematical model to estimate project costs.

C

Which of the following is true of earned value? Select one: a. It is the actual cost plus the planned cost. b. It is based solely on the total cost estimate to be spent on an activity. c. It is an estimate of the value of the physical work actually completed. d. It is also known as the planned value.

C

Which of the following techniques involve doing activities in parallel that one would normally do in sequence? A.Critical chain scheduling B. Crashing C. Fast Tracking D. PERT analysis

C

Work performance information and cost forecasts are main outputs of the _____ process. Select one: a. cost budgeting b. cost estimating c. cost control d. cost pricing

C

_____ helps develop an accurate projection of a project's financial expenses and benefits. Select one: a. Critical path analysis b. Fast tracking c. Life cycle costing d. Crashing

C

_____ is the product of a risk event probability and the risk event's monetary value. A. Evaluating Monetary Value B. Estimated Monetary Value (EMV) C. Expected Monetary Value (EMV) D. Expected Monthly Visits (EMV)

C

A change control system is? A. The processes required to ensure that the project is completed within the approved budget B. Devising and maintaining a workable scheme to ensure that the project addresses the organization's needs C. A management review that should occur after each project phase to determine if projects should be continued, redirected, or terminated; also called a kill point D. A formal, documented process that describes when and how official project documents may be modified, the people authorized to make modifications, and the paperwork required for these changes.

D

A definition of a scope of a project is? A.each level of work that is outlined in a work breakdown structure. B. the end product created as part of a project that is delivered to the client. C.tasks that are decomposed into smaller tasks in a work breakdown structure. D.the work involved in creating the products and the processes used to create them

D

A document that defines work needed for the procurement. A. Request for quotes B. Request For Proposal C. Statement Of Worthy D. Statement Of Work

D

A method used in performing quantitative risk analysis that show the effects of changing variables (one or multiples) to analyze the effects on an outcome/result. A. sensitivity analysis B. decision tree C. Monte Carlo analysis D. systems analysis

D

A name given to risks that are a direct results of employing risk responses. A. Architectural B. Primary C.residual D. Secondary

D

A negative risk is? A. Risks that remain after all of the response strategies have been implemented. B. Risks that are a direct result of implementing a risk response. C. A risk that, if it happens, enhances the project in an optimistic way. D. Identified potential problems that might occur on a project and how they might impede project success.

D

A project chater is? A. A document used to coordinate all project planning documents and guide project execution and control. B. A document that includes at least a description of the project, including its overall objectives and justifi- cation, detailed descriptions of all project deliverables, and the characteristics and requirements of products and services pro- duced as part of the project C. A document used to solicit quotes or bids from prospective suppliers D. A document that recognizes the existence of a project and provides direction on the project's objectives and management.

D

A rough order of magnitude estimate can be referred to as a _____ estimate. Select one: a. definitive b. budgetary c. final d. ballpark

D

A(n) _____ is a tool used to document, monitor, and track problems that need resolution. A.requirement traceability matrix B. gantt chart C. power/interest grid D. issue log

D

According to Blake and Mouton, project managers who use the _____ method use a give-and take-approach to resolving conflicts. A. smoothing B. forcing C. confrontation D. compromise

D

After planning for procurement management, which of the following does the next process involve? A. Determining the evaluation criteria for the contract award B. Developing procurement statements of work C. Using expert judgement in planning purchases and acquisitions D. Sending appropriate documentation to potential sellers

D

An advantage to outsourcing is that: A. organization does not have as much control over the aspects of projects that suppliers carry out B. it invariably results in an increase in both fixed and recurrent costs. C. it can make an organization become overly dependent on particular suppliers. D. it increases accountability of suppliers through a written contract.

D

An example of pull communication is _____. A. meetings B.reports C. vocie mails D. web sites

D

Any type of contract should include specific clauses that account for unique project issues. This specific type of contract clause allows the buyer/supplier to end the contract. A. expiration B. final C.end D. termination

D

As the number of people involved in a project _____, the complexity of communications _____. A. increases, decreases B. decreases, increases C. increases, stays constant D. decreases, decreases

D

Define the term mirroring in regards to human resource management. A. Listening with the intent to understand B. A relation of harmony, conformity, accord, or affinity C. An approach in which the whole is greater than the sum of the parts D.Refers to matching certain behaviors of the other person

D

Ensures that a project will meet the stated/implied requirements. A. project cost management B. Project time management C. Project risk Management D. Project Quality Management

D

Fishbone diagrams, checklists and Pareto charts are technical tools and techniques associated with the ___________ process of quality management? A. quality planning B.quality certification C. quality assurance D. quality control

D

From the buyer's perspective, the _____ is the least desirable among all contracts because the supplier has no incentive to decrease costs. A. CPIF B. CPFF C. CPAF D. CPPC

D

In project time management, of the following tools, which are most likely to be utilized? A.payback analysis B. Motivation techniques C. Grantt Charts D.Work Breakdown Structures

D

In project time management, which of the following processes involve calculating the number of work periods that are needed to complete individual activities? A. Defining activities B. sequencing activites C.planning schedule management D.estimating activites durations

D

In the MBTI, the _____ dimension relates to the manner in which you gather information. A. Extrovert/Introvert B. Thinking/Feeling C. Judgment/Perception D. Sensation/Intuition

D

In the Tuckman model, _____ occurs as team members have different opinions as to how the team should operate. A. performing B. norming C. forming D. storming

D

In this project management process group project managers/staff measure progress against the plans and taking corrective action when necessary. A.executing process B. Closing process C. Monitoring and controlling process D. Planning process

D

Indirect costs are: Select one: a. directly related to performing the project. b. those that cannot be allocated to projects. c. those that can be easily controlled by managers. d. not directly related to the products or services of a project.

D

Profits may be defined as: Select one: a. expenses plus net income. b. costs plus revenues. c. revenues plus expenses. d. revenues minus expenditures.

D

Project document updates, change request status updates and project management plan updates are all outputs of what process? A. inititating B. planning C.executing D. monitoring and controlling

D

The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any immediately following activities is know as a _______ A. forward pass B. backward pass C. fast tracking D.free slack

D

The budget is one of the three values of earned value management and is also known as _____. Select one: a. earned value b. actual cost c. indirect cost d. planned value

D

The cost at which the contractor assumes total responsibility for each additional dollar of contract cost is known as a(n) _____. A. Point of Complete Assumption (PCA) B. Point of Overall Assumption (POA) C. Point of Total Consumption (PTC) D. Point of Total Assumption (PTA)

D

These are new requirements imposed by government, management, or some outside infulence A. opportunities B. charters C. problems D. directives

D

This breaks a project down into a series of smaller tasks, including their duration and dependencies. The bar chart created by developing this is called a Gantt chart. When completed this will outline/define the project's total scope. A. project charter B. buisness case C. project scope statement D. WBS

D

This is a task(activity) at the lowest level of the (W)ork (B)reakdown (S)tructure. A. variance B. objective C. deliverable D. work package

D

This is one of the 5 majors cost categories related to quality management and examples of these types of costs include warranty cost, field service personnel training cost, product liability suits, and cost incurred handling complaints. A. Prevention cost B. Appraisal cost C. Internal Failure cost D. External Failure cost

D

This segment of Project Risk Management includes data gathering and analysis and modeling techniques, and its purpose is to numerically estimate effects of risk on project goals/objectives. A. Performing qualitative risk analysis B. Planning risk responses C. Identifying risks D. Performing quantitative risk analysis

D

What statement below describes the difference between portfolio management and project management? A.Project management involves making wise investment decisions whereas portfolio management does not. B.Portfolio management is an easy task whereas project management is a more difficult task. C.Portfolio management asks questions like, "Are we carrying out projects efficiently?" whereas project management asks questions such as "Are we investing in the right areas?" D.Project management addresses specific, short-term goals whereas portfolio management focuses on long-term goals.

D

What would be a downside to outsourcing for a company? A. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business. B. Provide flexibility. C. Increases accountability D. Form dependency on particular suppliers.

D

When an organization needs a new direction, the ________ leadership style is appropriate. A. commanding B/ democratic C. pacesetting D. visionary

D

Which of the following is true of bottom-up estimates? Select one: a. They are based on the actual cost of a previous, similar project. b. They are also known as parametric estimating. c. They are most accurate when they involve large, extensive work items. d. They are time-intensive and expensive to develop.

D

Which of the following is true of projects A.They have an indefinite beginning and end. B.They have no specific purpose. C.They are developed using regressive elaboration. D.They are temporary in nature.

D

Which of the following statements is true of project management? A.It is a simple discipline with a limited scope. B.It has specific tools which work universally across all kinds of projects. C.It guarantees successes for all projects. D.Is a very broad, often complex discipline and what works for one project may not work for another

D

Which of the following types of estimate use the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project? Select one: a. Definitive estimates b. Parametric estimates c. Bottom-up estimates d. Analogous estimates

D

_____ involves monitoring stakeholder relationships and adjusting plans and strategies for engaging stakeholders as needed. A. Planning stakeholder management B. Identifying stakeholders C. Managing stakeholder engagement D. Controlling stakeholder engagement

D

_____ management is the topic of chapter 12 of the textbook and is defined as obtaining goods/services from an outside source. A. Project Stakeholder B. Project Resource C. Project Cost D. Project Procurement

D

_____ refers to a problem-solving approach that requires defining the scope of a system, dividing it into its components, and then identifying and evaluating its problems, opportunities, constraints, and needs. A. Linear programming B.Independent component analysis C.Principal component analysis D.Systems analysis

D


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