MLT 115 Final

All of the following cells are considered part of the natural immunity EXCEPT: a) eosinophils b) B lymphocytes c) monocytes d) neutrophils

B lymphocytes

Which of the following functions by inserting itself into target membranes and forming channels or holes in the membranes? a) C3bBb3b b) C4b2a c) C5b6789 d) C3b

C5b6789

Which immunoglobulin appears first in the primary response? a) IgG b) IgM c) IgA d) IgE

IgM

What is the function of the acute-phase protein haptoglobin? a) acts as an opsonin b) forms clots c) binds hemoglobin d) acts as a chemotoxin

binds hemoglobin

IgG subclasses differ from one another in the number and position of: a) heavy chain domains b) antigen binding sites c) light chains d) disulfide bonds

disulfide bonds

The lectin pathway is initiated by the presence of which of the following? a) antibody b) C3 c) mannose d) C1qrs

mannose

Which best describes hemagglutination tests? a) patient antibody reacts with hemoglobin b) the reaction involves red blood cells c) patient antibody is always involved d) hemoglobin binds to antigen

the reaction involves red blood cells

Which complement component is found in both the classic and alternative pathways? a) C1 b) C2 c) Factor B d) C3

C3

Which of the following can activate the alternative complement pathway? a) IgG b) mannose-binding lectin c) C3b d) C1q

C3b

The C3 convertase of the alternative pathway of complement activation is: a) C3bBbP b) C3bB c) C4b2a3b d) C4b2a

C3bBbP

Which of the following represents C3 convertase? a) C4b2a5b b) C3bBbP c) C1qrs d) BbH

C3bBbP

Which of the following is cleaved first by C1qrs in the classical pathway of complement activation? a) C2 b) C3 c) C4 d) Factor B

C4

The C5 convertase of the classical pathway of complement activation is: a) C3bBbP b) C3bBb3bP c) C4b2a3b d) C4b2a

C4b2a3b

Which factor helps to dissociate C3b from red blood cells? a) factor B b) DAF c) C1INH d) C5

DAF

Which region of the immunoglobulin molecule can bind antigen? a) Fab b) CL c) CH d) hinge region

Fab

C4 binding protein (c4BP) acts in association with which factor to inactivate C4b? a) Factor B b) Factor D c) Factor I d) C1NH

Factor I

Which factor must be associated with factor H to inactivate complement components? a) C1INH b) factor I c) DAF d) CR1

Factor I

Which antibody is found mainly as a dimer in mucosal secretions? a) IgA b) IgD c) IgE d) IgG

IgA

Which class makes up 70% to 80% of total serum immunoglobulins? a) IgA b) IgG c) IgM d) IgE

IgG

Which immunoglobulin can cross the placenta? a) IgM b) IgE c) IgA d) IgG

IgG

Identify the correct pairing of an immunoglobulin and its property. a) IgA: crosses the placenta b) IgG: most abundant in serum c) IgM: immunoglobulin produced by a T cell d) IgE: major immunoglobulin of secondary response

IgG: most abundant in serum

Agglutination reactions run at room temperature are appropriate for antigen-antibody reactions involving: a) IgA b) IgE c) IgG d) IgM

IgM

In an agglutination reaction, the antibody isotype that most effectively overcomes the electrostatic repulsion between particles is: a) IgA b) IgE c) IgG d) IgM

IgM

The antibody that appears first in an immune response and is a pentamer with a molecular weight of 900,000 Da best describes: a) IgM b) IgD c) IgA d) IgG

IgM

Which immunoglobulin activates the classical complement pathway? a) IgD b) IgM c) IgA d) IgE

IgM

Which of the following is the correct order of activation of complement in the lectin activation pathway? a) C1, C4, C2, C3 b) MBL, C4, C2, C3 c) C3, factor B, C3 d) MBL, C2, C3, C4

MBL, C4, C2, C3

Which of the following must be matched between donor and recipient as closely as possible to avoid rejection of a tissue transplant? a) Haptens b) MHC molecules c) Transporters associated with antigen processing d) Beta-2 microglobulins

MHC molecules

"Cluster of differentiation" refers to: a) a category of cell surface proteins used to identify cell types b) aggregates of differentiating stem cells c) groups of antigens that identify a cell as foreign d) the cells that congregate in germinal centers

a category of cell surface proteins used to identify cell types

A substance that is too small to stimulate antibody production by itself unless it is attached to a larger carrier molecule is called: a) an autoantigen b) a cross-reacting antigen c) a hapten d) an alloantigen

a hapten

Which of the following is likely to be the most immunogenic? a) a lipid with a molecular weight of 50,000 Da b) a polysaccharide with a molecular weight of 40,000 Da c) a protein with a molecular weight of 45,000 Da d) a nucleic acid with a molecular weight of 60,000 Da

a protein with a molecular weight of 45,000 Da

Serum proteins that increase in concentration within 24 to 48 hours of the onset of infection or injury are called: a) reagins b) immunoglobulins c) complement proteins d) acute-phase proteins

acute-phase proteins

The assembly of particles into visible clumps is called: a) precipitation b) agglutination c) equivalence d) sensitization

agglutination

The process by which particulate antigens such as cells aggregate to form larger complexes when specific antibody is present is called: a) sensitization b) precipitation c) agglutination d) flocculation

agglutination

The ability to respond to antigen depends on which of the following factors? a) age b) proper nutrition c) genetic predisposition d) all of the above

all of the above

Which of the following can be measured as an indicator of inflammation? a) body temperature b) number of circulating leukocytes c) erythrocyte sedimentation rate d) all of these

all of these

A substance used to enhance antibody formation is called: a) a hapten b) an adjuvant c) an immunogen d) a carrier

an adjuvant

A macromolecule that is capable of eliciting an immune response in an immunocompetent host is celled: a) an antigen b) an antibody c) a hapten d) an acute-phase reactant

an antigen

An antigenic determinant is also called: a) an immunogen b) an epitope c) an antibody d) a polysaccharide

an epitope

Which of the following is true of a reverse agglutination test? a) the antigen is a natural particle b) antigen molecules are artificially bound to particles c) antibody is attached to particles d) the antigen-antibody reaction is competitive (no agglutination indicates a positive result)

antibody is attached to particles

In immunofixation electrophoresis, antibody is: a) distributed uniformly throughout the gel b) applied on the top surface of the gel c) added to troughs cut into the gel d) driven through the gel by application of electrical current

applied on the top surface of the gel

Kappa or lambda light chains: a) are encoded on the same chromosome b) associate with only one type of heavy chain at a time c) can be expressed by the same B cell d) are expressed by a pre-B cell

associate with only one type of heavy chain at a time

Pasteur's discovery that older bacterial cultures would not cause disease in chickens but would protect them from subsequent infection with more virulent strains is an example of: a) attenuated vaccine b) natural immunity c) passive immunity d) cross-immunity

attenuated vaccine

Hematopoietic stem cells are located in: a) the lymph nodes b) the spleen c) bone marrow d) the thymus

bone marrow

Although antibodies are generally regarded as part of the adaptive immune system, they can enhance the function of which innate process(es)? a) phagocytosis (via opsonization) b) natural killer cell cytotoxicity c) both phagocytosis (via opsonization) and natural killer cell cytotoxicity d) none of the both

both phagocytosis (via opsonization) and natural killer cell cytotoxicity

The process by which leukocytes are attracted to a specific area by chemical messengers is called: a) diapedesis b) degrandulation c) chemotaxis d) opsonization

chemotaxis

Antigen recognition by CD4-positive T cells requires: a) class I MHC molecules b) class II MHC molecules c) class III MHC molecules d) no MHC molecules

class II MHC molecules

The most effective phagocytic and antigen-presenting cell is the: a) neutrophil b) monocyte c) dendritic cell d) macrophage

dendritic cell

Inappropriately administered antibiotic therapy can sometimes cause disease, most often by: a) eliminating normal protective flora b) altering local pH c) being toxic to host tissues d) depressing adaptive immune responses

eliminating normal protective flora

A processed antigen first encounters and binds to class 1 MHC molecules in the: a) nucleus b) endoplasmic reticulum c) endosomal compartment d) membrane surface

endoplasmic reticulum

Which of the following is directly used in oxidative killing of target cells? a) hydrogen peroxide b) lysozyme c) defensin d) TNF-alpha

hydrogen peroxide

The phagosome of a macrophage is a membrane-bound vesicle that contains: a) enzymes b) reactive oxygen intermediates c) ingested pathogens d) perforin and granzymes

ingested pathogens

Acquired (adaptive) immunity can be characterized as: a) nonspecifically activated b) immediately responsive c) neutrophil dependent d) involving memory

involving memory

All of the following are characteristics of a strong immunogen EXCEPT: a) it is a large molecule b) it is foreign to the host c) it is a repeating polymer d) it is protein in nature

it is a repeating polymer

Which of the following is a characteristic of IgA? a) it is found in secretions b) it fixes complement c) it is a pentamer in serum d) it is the primary response antibody

it is found in secretions

Identify the true statement about C3. a) it is known as the recognition unit b) it plays a key role in all pathways c) it is the least abundant of the complement proteins d) its major function is antigen recognition

it plays a key role in all pathways

The function of NK cells is to: a) produce antibody b) phagocytize bacteria c) present antigen to T cells d) kill target cells such as tumor and virally infected cells

kill target cells such a tumor and virally infected cells

Which of the following pairs represents light chains of antibody molecules? a) kappa and epsilon b) gamma and lambda c) lambda and kappa d) alpha and beta

lambda and kappa

Bence-Jones proteins are identical to: a) secretory IgA b) heavy chains c) light chains d) IgG molecules

light chains

The term "human leukocyte antigen" is synonymous with: a) allele b) haplotype c) major histocompatibility complex d) chromosome

major histocompatibility complex

The target recognition molecule of the lectin pathway that initiates complement activation is: a) C1q b) C4 c) C5b6789 d) mannose-binding lectin

mannose-binding lectin

All of the following occur during the process of inflammation EXCEPT: a) increased capillary permeability b) migration of basophils away from tissue c) increase in blood flow d) swelling and pain

migration of basophils away from tissue

Which white cell in the peripheral blood migrates into tissue to become a macrophage? a) eosinophil b) basophil c) neutrophil d) monocyte

monocyte

Which of the following best describes diapedesis? a) movement toward increasing concentrations of a cytokine b) attachment of immunoglobulin to target cells c) movement through blood vessel walls as cells exit the circulation d) engulfment of target cells

movement through blood vessel walls as cells exit the circulation

The ability to resist infection through normally present body functions best characterizes: a) autoimmunity b) natural immunity c) acquired immunity d) alloimmunity

natural immunity

The measurement of light scattered at an angle by the antigen-antibody complexes in a solution is called: a) turbidimetry b) nephelometry c) agglutination d) equivalency

nephelometry

All of the following are involved in adaptive immunity EXCEPT: a) memory b) lymphocytes c) specificity d) neutrophils

neutrophils

Which best characterizes agglutination inhibition reactions? a) the antigen is naturally expressed on particles b) antigen molecules are artificially bound to particles c) antibody is attached to particles d) no agglutination indicates a positive result

no agglutination indicates a positive result

Eosinophils are involved in the immune response against: a) viruses b) intracellular bacteria c) parasites that cannot be phagocytized d) extracellular bacteria

parasites that cannot be phagocytized

Which cell is capable of producing antibody? a) plasma cell b) CD4+ T cell c) macrophage d) neutrophil

plasma cell

Antibodies are secreted by: a) plasma cells b) B cells c) T cells d) dendritic cells

plasma cells

Class II molecules bind to what kind of peptides? a) native peptides b) processed exogenous c) processed endogenous d) any of the above

processed exogenous

Which is characteristic of IgG? a) first class of antibody to appear b) found mainly in secretions c) the least abundant antibody in serum d) provides immunity for the newborn

provides immunity for the newborn

Select the test that could be used to determine whether a patient has a specific deficiency in C3. a) CH50 b) AH50 c) radial immunodiffusion d) hemolytic titration assay

radial immunodiffusion

Which of the following is an acute-phase protein? a) serum amyloid A b) streptolysin O c) cardiolipin d) reagin

serum amyloid A

Which of the following is part of the external defense system? a) ceruloplasmin b) skin c) neutrophils d) complement

skin

If a serum sample does not cause agglutination when mixed with a particular antigen, then you should: a) report that the patient does not have antibody against the antigen b) test a more diluted sample to overcome possible prozone effects c) increase the particle surface charge by alternating the pH d) decrease the viscosity of the sample

test a more diluted sample to overcome possible prozone effects

Contact with antigen and activation of B cells normally occurs in: a) peripheral blood b) the connective tissue c) the thymus d) the lymph nodes

the lymph nodes

The primary response is characterized by: a) the recognition of antigens by naive B cells b) the recognition of antigens by memory B cells c) the production of large amounts of IgG d) a very short lag period e) a long duration of high titer

the recognition of antigens by naive B cells

T cells mature in: a) bone marrow b) the thymus c) the lymph nodes d) the spleen

the thymus

Which of the following is a characteristic of opsonins? a) they are carbohydrates that stimulate T cells b) they are molecules that coat bacteria, making them more susceptible to phagocytosis c) they are expressed on the surface of neutrophils d) they are produced by NK cells

they are molecules that coat bacteria, making them more susceptible to phagocytosis

Which statement about complement components is most accurate? a) they all are active enzymes b) they are synthesized only when antigen is present c) they play a major part in the inflammatory response d) they are mainly produced in lymphoid tissue

they play a major part in the inflammatory response

Where on an antibody molecule does combination with antigen take place? a) variable region b) constant region c) hinge region d) Fc region

variable region

Cytotoxic T cells are the primary immune response against which type of pathogen? a) viruses b) parasites c) bacteria d) fungi

viruses

Which is the major function of C-reactive protein? a) opsonization b) binding hemoglobin c) causing vasodilation d) promoting clot formation

opsonization

Which of the following molecules is the best immunogen? a) protein b) polysaccharide c) nucleic acid d) lipid

protein

If antibody is uniformly distributed in a gel and antigen is added to a well cut into the gel, the process is called: a) single diffusion b) double diffusion c) immunofixation d) retrodiffusion

single diffusion

Which is a characteristic of resident bacteria (microbiota) in the gastrointestinal tract? a) develop when a person has an immunodeficiency b) consist of a single species that is tolerated by the host c) supplant pathogenic bacteria d) cause gastrointestinal disease

supplant pathogenic bacteria

The valence of an IgG antibody molecule is: a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 10

2

The recognition unit in the classical complement pathway consist of: a) C4b2a3b b) C5b6789 c) C1qrs d) factor B

C1qrs

A patient has an abnormal alternative pathway activation pattern. Which of the following complement proteins should be assessed to further investigate the problem? a) C1 b) C2 c) C3 d) C4

C3

What is cleaved by C3bBb? a) C3 b) C5 c) C6 d) Properdin

C3

Which of the following activities is associated only with the alternative pathway of complement fixation? a) formation of a membrane attack unit b) factor B and C3b combination c) antigen-antibody combination d) lysis

factor B and C3b combination

In performing blood typing using the tube method, if the red cell button is not resuspended properly, what are the most likely results? a) false positive b) false negative c) does not affect the results d) makes the reaction weaker

false positive

Which acute-phase reactant is an important clotting factor? a) haptoglobin b) ceruloplasmin c) fibrinogen d) alpha-2 macroglobulin

fibrinogen

The particle-counting immunoassay method counts the number of: a) agglutinated particles b) free antibody molecules c) free latex particles d) antigen-antibody bonds

free latex particles

Identify the alternative pathway trigger. a) fungal cell walls b) mannose-binding proteins c) antigen-MHC complexes d) antigen-antibody combination

fungal cell walls

In serum protein electrophoresis, which band contains the immunoglobulins? a) alpha-1 b) alpha-2 c) beta d) gamma

gamma

Immunoglobulins are grouped into classes on the basis of similarities in: a) light chains b) heavy chains c) antigen binding sites d) disulfide bonds

heavy chains

A serological test that uses red blood cells coated with exogenous antigens such as bacterial polysaccharides as a method to detect patient antibodies against those exogenous antigens is called: a) latex agglutination b) hemagglutination c) neutralization d) complement fixation

hemagglutination

When a patient's red blood cells combine with anti-A typing serum to produce a positive result, this reaction is known as: a) passive agglutination b) reverse passive agglutination c) hemagglutination d) flocculation

hemagglutination