MLT ASCP CAT 3

C. Clostridium difficile

Which of the following organisms are gram-positive? A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. Bucella species C. Clostridium difficile D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C. Sulfosalicyclic acid precipitation The sulfosalicylic acid method is not specific for albumin.

Which of the following methods is not a quantitative method for the determination of albumin: A. Serum protein electrophoresis B. Nephelometry C. Sulfosalicyclic acid precipitation D. Colorimetric spectrophotometry

D. All of the above

False-positive test for protein on a urine reagent strip may be caused by: A. Blood presence B. High amounts of bilirubin C. Alkaline medication D. All of the above

anti-I

Following an infection with Mycoplasma pneumoniae a patient may demonstrate a strong cold agglutinin response against

Candida dubliniensis (rough colonies with extending "feet") Candida albicans (smooth margins without peripheral feet-like extensions)

Fungal species produce oropharygeal thrush:

Potassium The valinomycin membrane electrode is most selective for potassium as opposed to sodium, glucose, chloride, or CO2 which utilize different membranes for their respective electrodes.

A liquid ion-exchange membrane electrode using the antibiotic valinomycin is MOST selective for which ion:

B. A soluble mediator produced by lymphocytes

A lymphokine can BEST be described as: A. A soluble mediator produced by granulocytes and affecting lymphocytes B. A soluble mediator produced by lymphocytes C. A soluble mediator produced by plasma cells D. An antibody that reacts with lymphocytes

Hollow cathode lamp

The usual radiation source in atomic absorption instruments is the:

Calcium Calcium forms a red-colored complex with Ortho-cresolphthalein complexpne in an alkaline medium.

8-Hydroxyquinoline and Ortho-Cresolphthalein complexone reagent is commonly used in the determination of:

A. increased Long term alcohol abuse causes accumulation of lipids in hepatocytes. A high serum HDL is specific of long term alcohol abuse. Continued ethanol abuse may progress to alcoholic hepatitis and cirrhosis.

A 46-year old known alcoholic with liver damage is brought in the ER unconscious. One would expect his lipid values to be affected in what way? A. Increased B. Decreased C. Normal D. Unaffected by the alcoholism

200 ng/mL

A serum ferritin above what level would be suggestive of iron overload and possibly hereitary hemochromatosis (HH) in a pre-menopausal woman?

D. Fast mobility of Hgb C at pH 8.6 Hgb C has a high positive charge and therefore slow monility on electrophoresis. Hgb C migrates with Hgb A2 and Hgb E on cellulose acetate electrophoresis at pH 8.6

All of the following are associated with Hgb C disease, EXCEPT? A. Hgb C crystal B. Target cells C. Lysine substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth positive of the beta chain D. Fast mobility of Hgb C at pH 8.6

B. Hemolysis Hemolysis both in vivo and in nitro, can cause elevations in LD-1 and LD-3. Also, LD-1 and LD-2 are both increased during MI since hey are both present in heart muscle. In normal conditions, LD-2 is present in higher concentration than LD-1. The reverse is true in MI and during staes of hemolysis. This term is referred to as the LD flip. Pancreatitis does cause increased levels of LD, but the LD-4 type is the most affected in this condition.

An electrophoretic separation of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme that demonstrate elevation in LD-1 greater than LD-2 could be indicative of: A. A normal LD isoenzyme pattern B. Hemolysis C. Pancreatitis

C. IV Type I hyperlipoproteinemia is a form of hyperlipoproteinemia associated with deficiencies of lipoprotein lipase. Hyperlipoproteinemia type II is the most common form and is classified into type IIa and type IIb, depending on whether there is elevation in the triglyceride level in addition to LDL cholesterol. Hyperlipoproteinemia type III is associated with high chylomicrons and IDL. Hyperlipoproteinemia type IV is assoicated with high triglycerides. It is also known as hypertriglyceridemia. Hyperlipoproteinemia type V is similar to type I, but with high VLDL in addition to chylomicrons.

An obese adult with premature arteiosclerosis is seen in the clinic. When her serum is tested no chylomicrons are present, LDL levels are normal, and VLDL levels are increased. There is an increase in triglycerides and slight increase in cholesterol. Lipoprotein electrophoresis reveals a heavy pre-beta band. She has no skin rash and uric acid is increased. This patient most likely has hat type of hyperlipoproteinemia? A. II B. III C. IV D. V E. VI

D. macrophages After digesting a pathogen, a macrophage will present the antigen on its cell surface to the corresponding helper T cell. The presentation is done by integrating it into the cell membrane and displaying it attached to an MHC class II molecule, indicating to other white blood cells that the macrophage is not a pathogen, despite having antigens on its surface.

Antigen processing is primarily accomplished by which cell type? A. basophil B. eosinophils C. polymorphonuclear neutropils D. macrophages

B. Nephrotic syndrome E. Pernicious anemia Bence-Jones proteins are monoclonal light chains excreted in he urine, seen with multiple myeloma, and other neoplasms of lymphoid cells. Small amounts can be missed by urine dipsticks, which are more sensitive to albumin than globulins. They are best detected by urine protein electrophoresis, immunoelectrophoresis, or immunofixation. Large amounts cause renal tubular damage, resulting in myeloma kidney. Bence-Jones proteins have unusual heat solubility properties, in that they precipitate between 50-60C and redisolve at 90-100C.

Bence-Jones proteinuria can be seen in all of the following conditions except: A. Amyloidosis B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Multiple myeloma D. Macroglobulinemia E. Pernicious anemia

Scopulariopsis brumptii

Chain of conida with deep-staining truncated bases, are called annelloconidia, are most characteristic of:

D. vitamin B12 or Folate deficiency

Hypersegmentation of granulocytes most commonly asociated with: A. Inherited trait or lipid storage disease B. Iron deficiency C. Viral infection D. vitamin B12 or Folate deficiency

Easy to find compatible blood but difficult to identify the antibody.

If patient has an antibody to a low-frequency antigen like Kpa or Jsa, how would the ability to find compatible blood and to identify the antibody?

Clostridium perfringens

Intense proteolytic activity, produces the stormy fermentation.

B. Absence of motility C. Failure to decarboxylate ornithine Klebsiellapneumoniae is characteristically nonmotile, in contrast to other members of the Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Hafnia, Serratia group which are all motile. Also, a key reaction for the identification of Klebsiellapneumoniae in the API profile of tests is a negative ornithine decarboxylase, as most other members of this group produce a positive reaction. The indole reaction is not discriminatory for Klebsiella pneumoniae. A positive phenylalanine deaminase reaction is most helpful in distinguishing Proteus species and Providencia species from other members of the Enterobacteriaceae, and has no discriminatory value in distinguishing Klebsiellapneumoniae.

Key characteristics by which Klebsiella pneumoniae can be suspected when an unknown member of the Enterobacteriaceae is recovered in primary culture include: A. Indole production B. Absence of motility C. Failure to decarboxylate ornithine D. Positive phenylalanine deaminase

A. Room temp motility - Listeris monocytogenes B. H2S production - Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae C. "Whiff" test - Gardnerella vaginalis D. Lecithinase production - Bacilus mycoides

Match bacterial species and distinguishing characteristic. (Listeris monocytogenes, Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, Gardnerella vaginalis, Bacilus mycoides) A. Room temp motility B. H2S production C. "Whiff" test D. Lecithinase production

Light transmission and scatter by particles in suspension

Nephelometry nd tubidimetry measure different properties of:

C. Elevated serum potassium Washing not only reduces the number of leukocytes and platelets that are often responsible for febrile reactions, but also eliminates anticoagulants, ammonia, lactic acid, and potassium.

Patients with which of the following conditions would benefit most from washed red cells: A. Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia B. Cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia C. Elevated serum potassium D. Multiple red cell alloantibodies

Reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction(RT-PCR)

Recommended lab method confirmation influenza A H1N1 subtype infection

B. Hepative cirrhosis

Tear drop cells are associated with all of the following except: A. Myelofibrosis B. Hepative cirrhosis C. Thalassemia D. Myelophthisis

B. alpha-beta-lipoproteinemia Schistocytes are formed when fibrin is deposited within the vasculature while the RBC must pass through the fibrin clots, as in DIC. These RBC may be secondary to trauma to RBC as they pass through prosthetic valves and they may accompany extensive burns, among other disorders. Alpha-beta-lipoproteinemia is highly associated with acanthocytes.

The "spiked"erythrocytes (schistocytes) may be found in each of the following conditions XCEPT: A. cardiac valve prosthesis B. alpha-beta-lipoproteinemia C. DIC D. extensive burns

C. production of ammonia from ammonium phosphate Simmons citrate medium contains inorganic sodium citrate as a source fro carbon, and ammonium phosphate, which served both as a buffer and as a source of nitrogen. Bacterial species that can exract carbon from the sodium citrate can also extract nitrogen from the ammonium phosphate, resulting in release of ammonia (NH3), causing a rise in pH of the medium and conversion of the bromthymol indicator from green to blue. Although the utilization of carbon from sodium citrate may reduce the amount of acid ions making the medium more alkaline, this pH shift is insufficient to convert the indicator. Simmons citrate medium is devoid of all organic of carbon, including peptones.

The blue color seen in the Simon's citrate agar slant indicating a positive reaction, results from: A. reduction of citric acid to sodium citrate B. assimilation of carbon from sodium citrate C. production of ammonia from ammonium phosphate D. formation of amines from peptones in the medium

D. Various mixed acids

The end product of the fermrntative metabolism that characterizes members of the enterobacteriaceae is: A. CO2 and water B. nitrogen gas C. pyruvic acid D. various mixed acids

HIV-1/HIV-2 antibody differentiation immunoassay

The most recent algorithm for HIV confirmatory testing in patients who are positive by ELISA is the:

3-12 hours, 7-14 days

Troponin I is used frequently to assess acuye myocardial infractions (AMI). If a patiet has experienced an AMI, at what point will the troponin I to increase and how long will it stay increased?

Proteins that are on the surface of lipoprotein molecules that bind enzymes or transport specific proteins and direct lipoproteins to their sites of metabolism.

What are apolipoproteins?

Release of merozoites from erythrocytes

What causes the hemolysis associated with infection by malaria organisms?

B. proglottid

What is the anatomical feature of a tapewprm that possesses both male and female reproductive structure? A. brood capsule B. proglottid C. rostellum D. scolex

D. Endocytosis is the process by which phagosomes are released by the cell to expel the macromolecules inside.

Which one of the following statement concerning endocytosis is NOT TRUE? A. Cells may employ endocytosis to ingest latge polar molecules from extracellular fluid. B. In endocytosis, the =membrane often extends outward until it surrounds the material that will be ingested. C. Endocytosis is a natural process of intravascular digestion for nutrition D. Endocytosis is the process by which phagosomes are released by the cell to expel the macromolecules inside.

Yersinia entercolitica

Which organism is most likely responsible for septic reactions associated with red blood cell transfusion?

A. Folic acid deficiency Pancytoenia is often seen with megaloblastic anemias that are caused by folic acid or vitamin B12 deficiency. Thrombocytopoiesis is ineffective. The bone marrow will contain normal, or even increased megakaryocytes, but the number of platelets entering the peripheral circulation is decreased. In aplastic anemia, megakaryocytes are decreased in number in the bone marrow, leading to decreased number of circulating platelet. Radiation therapy causes bone marrow hypoplasia, all cells lines are depressed. Massive blood transfusion may also cause a transient thrombocytopenia, but megakaryocytes will not be increased in the bone marrow.

With which of these conditions or procedures may there be an increased number of megakaryocytes in the bone marrow, but a decreased number of circulating platelets? A. Folic acid deficiency B. Aplastic anemia C. Radiation therapy D. Massive blood transfusion

A. albumin

Which one of the following proteins in CSF is used to monitor the integrity of the blood-brain barrier? A. albumin B. prealbumin C. transferrin D. IgG

A. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid Serum calcitonin is normally produced by the C cells of the thyroid. It functions to reduce serum calcium by inhibiting release of calcium from bone. It is peptide with a molecular weight of 3400, and has a half life of 12 minutes. it is characteristically elevated in medullary carcinoma of the thyroid. Since medullary carcinoma often occurs as an autosomal disorder, family members of patients with this condition should be screened fro serum calcitonin.

Serum calcitonin is typically elevated in which of the following conditions? A. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid B. Hyperthyroidism C. Glioblastoma D. Adrenal adenoma

False. Although boh sickle cells and target cells are present in HbSS, hemoglobin electrophoresis is necessary to establish the underlying condition.

Sickle cells along with target cells confirm a diagnosis of sickle cell disease (HbSS). T/F

D. MCHC only Hemoglobin and hematocrit are required to calculate the MCHC. Since both of these values are available from the backup instrument, MCHC can be calculated. Red blood cell (RBC) count and hemoglobin are required to calculate the MCH and RBC and hematocrit are required to calculate the MCV. Since RBC count is not available during the downtime, MCH and MCV cannot be calculated.

The hematology laboratory is experiencing instrument downtime. The laboratory has a back-up method for hemoglobin and hematocrit testing that is being used until the instrument is repaired. The hematologist calls and asks if you can provide any of the red blood cell indices. Which of the indices, if any, can you provide for the hematologist? A. MCV and MCH B. MCH and MCHC C. MCH only D. MCHC only E. MCV, MCH and MCHC

A. precipitation

The reaction that occurs when a soluble antigen is mixed with its specific antibody is termed: A. precipitation B. agglutination C. sensitization D. fixation

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

The serum medium and methylene blue stain originally described by Loeffler is helpful in the identification of:

C. Cording factor

The tendency for the mycobacterial cells of M. tuberculosis in linear aggregates of an acid-fast stained preparation is caused by production of: A. Lysozyme B. Niacin C. Cording factor D. Oleic acid

23 days. IgM - 6 days IgA - 1-3 days IfE 2-3 days

What is the half-life of IgG?

PT/INR

What lab test result is commonly used to monotir oral anticoagulant therapy?

B. delta C. gamma Globin chain loci are found on: chromosome 11 (beta, delta, epsilon, and gamma) chromosome 16 (alpha, and zeta)

What other hemoglobin gene loci occur on the same chromosome as the beta chain loci? A. alpha B. delta C. gamma D. zeta

To have a minimum of 5.5*10^10 platelets/unit

What unit contains the proper number of platelets from a random donor?

C. Trichophyton rubrum The tiny microconidia are lined up in a "birds on the fence" arrangement along the hyphal strand Trichophyton verrucosum may produced microconidia in small quantities. However, they are irregularly arranged with little tendency to line up along the hyphae. Antler hyphae and string bean macroconidia are characteristic of this species. Key characteristics in the identification of Epidermophyton flocoosum is the inability of its dermatophyte to produce microconidia. Two to four-celled, club-shaped macroconidia are produced, usually in clusters of two or three.

The profusion of tiny microconidia lining up along the hyphae is characteristic of: A. Epidermophyton floccosum B. Trichophyton verrucosum C. Trichophyton rubrum

IgM Rheumatoid Factor (RF) is an antibody against the Fc portion of IgG molecule. It is primarily, of the IgM class and can less commonly be IgG or IgA. These circulating antibody complexes are found in the synovial fluid ad tend to cause systemic problems, Inthe lab, routine latex agglutination test would typically detect only IgM RF since most IgG and IgA antibodies are nonp-agglutinating.

The rheumatoid factor arthritis is primarily which type if immunoglobulin?

C. Only Anti-VCA (IgG) and anti-Epstein-Barr nuclear antigen (EBNA) are positive Viral capsid antigen VCA (IgM), VCA (IgG) and D early antigen (EA-D) are used to detect a current or recent infection. VCA (IgG) and Epstein Barr nuclear antigen (EBNA)are used to detect a previous infection. The EBV heterophile antibody titers are highest during the first four weeks of disease, but taper off after the infection has cleared; so it would not be positive in a patient infected 9 years ago.

Which EBV markers would be MOST likely positive for an individual who has infectious mononucleosis nine years ago? A. All would still be positive B. Only anti-viral capsid antigen (VCA)-IgM and heterophile are positive C. Only Anti-VCA (IgG) and anti-Epstein-Barr nuclear antigen (EBNA) are positive D. None of the markers would be positive after 9 years

D. adiponectin Adiponectin is a protective cytokine synthesized and secreted almost exclusively by the adipocytes.

Which adipokine is decreased in obesity, is anti-flammatory, and increases insulin sensitivity? A. leptin B. resistin C. TNF-alpha D. adiponectin

CD 34

Which antigen markers is BEST associated with stem cells?

B. cTnT Troponin is a complex of three proteins, TnT, Tnl, and TnC, that help regulate stirated muscle contraction. TnT and Tnl have cardiac specific isoforms, cTnT and cTnl respectively, which are involved specifically in myocyte contraction. Because of their cardiac specificity, quick release during myocardial infraction (MI), and prolonged elevation in the serum (more than a week), they are great biomarkers for MI.

Which cardiac biomarker is a regulator of myocyte contraction? A. Myoglobin B. cTnT C. CK-MB D. CK-MB isoforms

C. Myoglobin Troponin and CK-MB both tend to rise about 3 hours after a MI, however troponin can stay elevated up to 2 weeks as CK-MB tends to return to baseline around 36 hours.

Which cardiac biomarkers rises within 103 hours after chest pain, peaks in 206 hours, and is usually normal within 24 jours. A. TnT B. CK-MB C. Myoglobin D. TnI

A. Fructosamine

Which of the following methods for long-term diabetec monitoring is recommended for patients with sickle cell anemia? A. Fructosamine B. HbA1c C. Both D. Neither

pH will be normal with a decrease in pCO2

Which of the following statement is true with respect to fully compendated metabolic acidosis?

pH will elevated without an elevation of pCO2

Which of the following statement is true with respect to uncompendated metabolic alkalosis?

A. urobilinogen Urobilinogen is reported as normal, not negative.

Which of the following tests included on a urine reagent strip would never be reported out as negative? A. urobilinogen B. bilirubin C. leukocyte esterase D. nitrite

Staph epidermidis

Which one of the following bacteria is the most frequent cause of prosthetic heart valve infections occurring after heart surgery?

Lewis Lea may disappear during pregnancy, resulting in the formation of anti-Lea.

Which one of the following blood group systems may show a cell typing change during pregnancy?