MLT License Exam
Anion gap
(Na +K)-(cl +hco3)
Which lipid does not serve as a source of fuel, but can be converted to steroid hormones? A) Fatty acids B) Cholesterol C) Triglycerides D) Phospholipids
B) Cholesterol
How is the Mean Cell Volume calculated? A) (Hemoglobin / Red blood cells) X 10 B) (Hemoglobin / Red blood cells) X 100 C) (Hematocrit %/ Red blood cells) X 10 D) (Hematocrit % X Hemoglobin) X 100
C) (Hematocrit %/ Red blood cells) X 10
The American Diabetes Association (ADA) recommends performing routine oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT): On all individuals who are at increased risk for diabetes. On all children under 5 years old On all pregnant patients OGTT use is discouraged for routine use
OGTT use is discouraged for routine use
Zollinger
Ellison syndromes 20 fold elevation of gastrin
Which of the following organisms are Gram positive? Pasteurella Erysipelothrix Aeromonas Fusobacterium.
Erysipelothrix
Respiratory acidosis is associated with: Normal pH High pH Decreased pCO2 Increased pCO2
Increased pCO2
Transferrin saturation formula
Serum iron/TIBC X 100
Gastrointestinal infections of which of the following a organisms are associated with hemolytic uremic syndrome? Shiga toxin producing E. coli Salmonella Proteus mirabilis Clostridium difficile
Shiga toxin producing E. coli Feedback The correct answer is Shiga toxin producing E. coli. Bloody diarrhea is seen in the majority of cases of hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) caused by Shiga toxin producing E. coli. Shigella dysenteriae Type I is next on the list of culprits causing HUS. The other organisms listed are not commonly associated or known to cause HUS.
Hairy cell leukemia
Stain w acid phos and tartrate resistant
How many distinct bands are separated during a standard serum protein electrophoresis? 4 5 6 7
5
What would you expect the serum iron (SI) and total iron binding capacity (TIBC) to be in a person with hereditary hemochromatosis (HH)? A) Increased SI and decreased TIBC B) Decreased SI and decreased TIBC C) Decreased SI and increased TIBC D) Increased SI and increased TIBC
A) Increased SI and decreased TIBC Feedback Iron overload states are collectively referred to as hemochromatosis. Primary iron overload is most frequently associated with hereditary hemochromatosis which is a single-gene homozygous recessive disorder. The expected values would show the serum iron being increased and the total iron binding capacity being decreased.
All of the following normal urine crystals are most often found in a urine that has a pH > 7 EXCEPT: Calcium oxalate Triple phosphate Ammonium biurate Calcium carbonate
Calcium oxalate Feedback Calcium oxalate crystals, as seen in in the image, are most often found in an acidic (pH < 7.0) urine. Triple phosphate crystals have a 'coffin lid' appearance and are found in alkaline (pH > 7.0) urine. Ammonium biurate crystals have a 'thorny apple' appearance and are found in alkaline urine. Calcium carbonate crystals have a 'dumbbell' appearance and are found in alkaline urine.
An automated method for measuring chloride which generates silver ions in the reaction is called:
Chromatography
Wilson's disease
Low plasma ceroplasmin Increased urine copper
Megaloblastic anemia
Macrocyte and ovalocyte
Which of the following signs and symptoms may be associated with immediate transfusion reaction, but is NOT usually associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction? Fever and chills Unexplained bleeding from surgical site Unexplained drop in hemoglobin Transient jaundice
Unexplained bleeding from surgical site Unexplained bleeding is associated with immediate hemolytic transfusion reactions, but is not usually associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions. The bleeding results from disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) which can be activated by the antigen-antibody-complement complexes that form in an immediate hemolytic reaction. Fever, chills, transient jaundice and a drop in hemoglobin would be more likely present in cases of delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions.
Calculate the coefficient of variation for a set of data where the mean = 89 mg/dL and two standard deviations = 14 mg/dL. 7.7% 7.9% 15.7% 15.8%
7.9% Feedback Coefficient of variation (CV) = standard deviation ÷ mean x 100 (to convert to percentage) 2SD = 14 1SD = 7 7(SD) / 89 (mean) = 0.0786 x 100 = 7.9% The coefficient of variation (CV) is expressed as a percentage and describes the variation of a test.
AML=auer rods can b w RBC or WBC or Both. ALL=children around 5, increased TdT cells and WBC CLL=smudge cells CML= t(9;22), decreased LAP score, Philadelphia chromosome APL= t(15;17) HH= target cells, C282Y gene Immune thrombocytopenic purpura Low platelet count increased megakaroblast in BM G6PD- bite cells, Heinz body, shistocyte, keratocyte, tear drop, Specificity TN/TN+FP X 100 Sensitivity TP/TP+FN X 100 Molarity Grams/gmw Raynaud's phenomena C7 Waldenstron disease Spike in IGM Brutons agammaglobulinemia Congenital B-cell disorder Cells X 100/ # squares X .01 Corrected= uncorrected X 100/NRBC + 100) Eag= (28.7 X A1c) - 46.7 GFR=(urine cre/plasma cre) X (urine vol/min) Plasma cell myeloma- Mott cells NRBC=total WBC X 100/100+ NRBC Leukomoid reaction-increased LAP N=(g/mL) X (1eq/weight) X ( 1000mL/1L) N-% X 10/eq weight Rhig =% X mL 1000uL=1mL Multiple myeloma=rouloux n plasma cell Typing units= take % then get reciprocal (1/.33) Urine protein-UP X volume/ 100 PV- JAK2 mutation glanzmann thrombasthenia- glycoproteins IIb/IIIa- abnormal Osmolality-2Na+ (glucose/20) + (BUN/3) Platelets =dilution factor X total cell count X volume correct factor SDI-(your result-group mean)/group SD Centrifuge delay Decrease-glucose, ionized calcium, bicarbonate, folate Increase-potassium, ALT,AST,creatinine n
=total cholesterol-HDL - triglyceride/5
Which of the following statements best describes a normal mature erythrocyte? A biconcave disc, 6-8 µm in diameter, that stains pinkish-orange (salmon) in color A biconcave disc, 7 µm in diameter, with a salmon-colored cytoplasm and condensed nucleus A biconcave disc, 6-8 µm in diameter, containing ribosomes and mitochondria A biconcave disc, 7 µm in diameter, responsible for transporting myoglobin
A biconcave disc, 6-8 µm in diameter, that stains pinkish-orange (salmon) in color
Which of the following drug examples would be a good candidate for therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM)? A drug that is readily cleared A drug that has a narrow therapeutic window A drug that has a wide therapeutic window A drug that is used for short-term therapy
A drug that has a narrow therapeutic window
The name of the rapid test seen in the image, often used to differentiate S. pneumoniae from viridans streptococci, in which a drop of 10% deoxycholate was placed on an area of growth, is: A) Bile solubility test B) Bile esculin hydrolysis C) Optochin susceptibility test D) Bacitracin susceptibility test
A) Bile solubility test
Which bacterial species is most likely represented by the spreading, wrinkled, non-hemolytic colony appearance as illustrated in the photograph? A) Burkholderia pseudomallei B) Pseudomonas aerginosa C) Bacillus cereus D) Listeria monocytogenes
A) Burkholderia pseudomallei
A representative congenital neutrophil functional disorder is: A) Chédiak-Higashi syndrome B) Gaucher's disease C) Niemann-Pick Disease D) Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
A) Chédiak-Higashi syndrome
Beta thalassemia major, is also known as: A) Cooley's anemia B) Sickle cell anemia C) Milk anemia D) Pernicious anemia
A) Cooley's anemia Feedback: Cooley's anemia is a synonym for Beta thalassemia major. Sickle cell anemia refers to either the homozygous (Hb SS) or heterozygous (Hb S) hemoglobinopathy. Milk anemia refers to a specific form of iron deficiency anemia resulting from inadequate intake of iron in an infant's diet. When an infant is switched from an iron-fortified formula or breastmilk to cow's milk too soon, his/her iron stores may become depleted resulting in a microcytic and hypochromic anemia. Pernicious anemia is a macrocytic anemia characterized by an autoimmune process that results in the decreased production of intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12.
Which of the following methods for long-term diabetic monitoring is recommended for patients with sickle cell anemia? A) Fructosamine B) Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) C) Both methods are acceptable. D) Neither method is acceptable.
A) Fructosamine Feedback In sickle cell anemia, rapid hemoglobin turnover may be present. HbA1c and other glycosylated hemoglobin assays are not valid in rapid hemoglobin turnover and hemoglobinopathy conditions. Fructosamine measurements are more sensitive than HbA1c in monitoring long term diabetes in patients with such conditions. Fructosamine (also called glycosylated albumin) is formed by the nonenzymatic attachment of glucose to amino groups of proteins other than hemoglobin. Because albumin is the most abundant serum protein whose halflife is about 20 days, the concentration of glycosylated albumin reflects the consumption of glucose over a period of 2-3 weeks. This feature makes fructosamine the test of choice for monitoring diabetic control in patients with hemolytic anemias such as sickle cell anemia, thalassemia, and autoimmune hemolysis
Which of the following is considered an action of the hormone glucagon? A) Increase glycogenolysis B) Increase glycogenesis C) Increase glycolysis D) Increase lipogenesis
A) Increase glycogenolysis Feedback Glucagon is the primary hormone responsible for increasing glucose levels in the blood. Glucagon increases plasma glucose levels by increasing glycogenolysis (breakdown of glycogen to glucose) and increasing gluconeogenesis (formation of glucose-6-phosphate from non-carbohydrate sources). Insulin is the primary hormone responsible for the entry of glucose into the cell. The release of insulin causes an increase in glycogenesis (conversion of glucose to glycogen for storage), an increase in glycolysis (metabolism of glucose molecule to pyruvate or lactate for production of energy), and an increase in lipogenesis (conversion of carbohydrates to fatty acids).
A 32-year-old teacher, is seeing her internist for her yearly physical. Because her great grandmother suffered from cardiac disease, she is concerned about her own risk for cardiac disease. She is not a smoker nor hypertensive, and is not overweight. She is physically active and maintains a good diet and nutrition. Her physician orders a lipid panel and hs-CRP to evaluate her cardiac disease risk. Test Patient Result Reference Range Cholesterol 189 mg/dL < 200 mg/dL Triglyceride 140 mg/dL < 150 mg/dL LDL- cholesterol 98 mg/dL < 100 mg/dL (optimal) HDL-cholesterol 60 mg/dL > 59 mg/dL (optimal) hs-CRP 0.9 mg/dL < 1 mg/dL (low risk) Based on age, history, and laboratory results, what is her risk of cardiac disease at this point? A) Low risk B) Moderate risk C) High risk D) No risk
A) Low risk
What is one of the main characteristics of secondary granules in the neutrophilic granulocyte cytoplasm? Appear first at the myelocyte stage Dissolve in mature granulocytes Are formed on the mitochondria Are derived from azurophil (primary) granules
Appear first at the myelocyte stage
What is the molarity of H2SO4 (GMW = 98) that has a specific gravity of 1.21 and an assay weight of 68% w/v? A) 0.84 M B) 8.4 M C) 1.68 M D) 16.8 M
B) 8.4 M Feedback molarity = moles of solute liter of solution The specific gravity tells us that 1 ml of the acid solution weighs 1.21 grams, therefore 1 liter (1000 ml) of the acid will weigh 1210 grams. Because the solution is 68 percent H2SO4 by weight, 1210 grams of the solution contains: 1210 grams X 0.68 = 822.8 grams of H2SO4 The gram-formula weight of H2SO4 is 98, therefore, 822.8 grams of solution contain: Moles of H2SO4 = 822.8 grams/98 g/mole = 8.40 moles Since the concentrated sulfuric acid contains 8.40 moles of H2SO4 in 1 liter of solution, its concentration is 8.4 M.
A CSF glucose value is 62 mg/dL. What would you estimate the serum glucose? A) 65 mg/dL B) 93 mg/dL C) 120 mg/dL D) 180 mg/dL
B) 93 mg/dL Feedback CSF glucose is roughly estimated to be about 2/3 of the serum glucose level in mg/dL. Therefore: 62 mg/dL = 2/3 x serum glucose serum glucose = 62 mg/dL x 3/2 serum glucose = 93 mg/dL
Which of the following autoantibodies would be usually found in a patient with Hashimoto's thyroiditis? A) Thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor antibodies (TRAbs) B) Antithyroid peroxidase (TPO) C) Islet cell antibodies D) Antitransglutaminase (tTG)
B) Antithyroid peroxidase (TPO) Feedback Antithyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies are associated with Hashimoto's thyroiditis. They are found in about 95% of patients with Hashimoto's and are the best indicator if the disease. Thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor antibodies (TRAbs) are associated with Graves disease. Islet cell antibodies are associated with Type 1 diabetes mellitus. Antitransglutaminase (tTG) antibodies are associated with Celiac disease.
Which of the following group B antigens is generally associated with a mixed field reaction? A) B B) B3 C) Bm D) Bx
B) B3 Feedback B3 is characterized by a weaker than usual reaction with anti-B and by a mixed field reaction with the same reagent. B is characterized by a strong reaction with anti-B. Bm and Bx are characterized by a weaker than usual reaction with anti-B but no mixed field.
What is the principle of the Kleihauer-Betke test? A) Fetal cells present in the mother's blood smear contain fetal hemoglobin (Hgb F). When treated with acid the fetal cells are sensitive and become ghost cells. B) Fetal cells present in the mother's blood smear contain fetal hemoglobin (Hgb F). When treated with acid the fetal cells are resistant and will stain pink with the counter stain. C) Maternal red blood cells contain fetal hemoglobin (Hgb F). When treated with acid the maternal cells are resistant and will stain pink with the counter stain. D) Paternal cells present in the mother's blood smear are stained pink with an acid treatment.
B) Fetal cells present in the mother's blood smear contain fetal hemoglobin (Hgb F). When treated with acid the fetal cells are resistant and will stain pink with the counter stain.
Which of the following red cell inclusions are often found in peripheral blood smears of patients with sideroblastic anemia? A) Howell-Jolly bodies B) Pappenheimer bodies C) Heinz bodies D) Cabot rings
B) Pappenheimer bodies
Which of the following is an example of a macroscopic urinalysis abnormality? A) Glitter cells B) Positive protein C) Waxy casts D) Red blood cell casts
B) Positive protein Feedback The macroscopic abnormalities are detected by the physical and chemical portions of the urinalysis. Obtaining a positive protein during the chemical portion of a urinalysis would be an example of a macroscopic abnormality. The presence of glitter cells, waxy casts, and red blood cell casts could only be determined by the microscopic examination of the urine sample.
A 43-year-old female presented to her doctor for a routine check-up. Her only complaint was that she had been experiencing watery stools that occasionally contained pus and blood. Examination revealed tenderness in her abdomen. A stool for ova and parasite testing was sent to the laboratory and two suspicious forms were seen. The oblong form on the left measured 53 µm by 60 µm whereas the rounder form measured 45 µm by 37 µm. The parasite is MOST likely: Entamoeba histolytica Balantidium coli Dientamoeba fragilis Trichomonas vaginalis
Balantidium coli
Illustrated in the top photograph is a 4-day-old white to cream-colored colony with a yeast-like background, but with the surface having a delicate silk-like consistency. Such colonies may be recovered as a contaminant in laboratory cultures. The identification is illustrated in a cornmeal agar mount shown in the bottom photograph. From these observations, the MOST likely identification of this yeast-like isolate is: A) Trichosporon beigelii B) Aureobasidium pullulans C) Geotrichum candidum D) Phaeoannelomyces werneckii
C) Geotrichum candidum
Which hemoglobin will be increased in delta-beta thalassemia? A) Hb A B) Hb A2 C) Hb F D) Hb H
C) Hb F Feedback HbF is increased in delta-beta thalassemia. It is increased to 100% in delta-beta thalassemia major. In beta thalassemia HbA, a2ß2, is decreased or absent. In delta beta thalassemia HbA2, a2d2, is decreased. HbH is beta globin tetramer seen in alpha thalassemia HbH disease. HbH is not seen in beta thalassemia.
Which symptom of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) is associated with low levels of glucuronyl transferase? A) Anemia B) Increased reticulocyte count C) Jaundice D) Cardiac failure
C) Jaundice
Abnormal granulation can be seen in the cytoplasm of leukocytes in which of the following conditions? A) Pelger-Huët anomaly B) Pseudo-Pelger-Huët anomaly C) May-Hegglin anomaly D) Chediak-Higashi syndrome
C) May-Hegglin anomaly
The skin infection of the foot of a farmer as illustrated in the upper photograph was caused in a farmer when walking barefoot in soil contaminated with a filariform larva. Based on the morphology of the 50 µm in diameter ovum (lower image), select from the question/answer list the species that is the presumptive cause of this infection. A) Trichuris trichiura B) Enterobius vermcularis C) Necator americanus D) Ascaris lumbricoides
C) Necator americanus
Which of the following describes the Westgard multi-rule R4S? A) Four consecutive control data points are within ±1s B) Four consecutive control data points are outside ± 2s C) One data point is +2SD and a consecutive data point is -2SD D) Two consecutive data points fall outside the mean four times
C) One data point is +2SD and a consecutive data point is -2SD Feedback Westgard R4S rule: this rule applies when the difference between the highest and lowest result of a run exceeds 4 standard deviations (SD). For example, on day one the control is at +2SD. On day two, the same control is at -2SD. This rule detects random errors. The run is rejected.
What should be done FIRST if a donor unit of red blood cells is found to be incompatible at the antiglobulin phase but compatible at immediate spin with several different recipients? A) Repeat the ABO grouping on the incompatible unit using different sera B) Do a panel made up of red cells having all low-frequency antigens C) Perform a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) on the donor unit D) Obtain a new specimen and repeat the minor crossmatch
C) Perform a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) on the donor unit
The following BEST describes serum hCG levels during pregnancy: A) Rise in levels throughout pregnancy B) Highest levels found at end of pregnancy C) Rapid rise in levels during first trimester; slow decline and possible level-off throughout remainder of pregnancy D) Slow rise in levels during first trimester; rapid rise during second trimester; slow decline during the third trimester
C) Rapid rise in levels during first trimester; slow decline and possible level-off throughout remainder of pregnancy Feedback hCG levels rise rapidly during the first trimester, then the levels start to decline around week 16. The hCG levels slowly decrease and can level off during the remainder of the pregnancy.
Small, gray, alpha hemolytic colonies with indented centers were isolated on sheep blood agar from a peritoneal fluid. The following biochemicals were performed: Gram Stain: Gram positive lancet-shaped cocci in chains and pairs Catalase: Negative Optochin susceptibility: Sensitive >14 mm A) Alpha hemolytic streptococcus species B) Streptococcus pneumoniae C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Streptococcus agalactiae
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
The term pharmacokinetics BEST describes: A) What the drug does to the body B) Concentration of drug at its sites of action C) What the body does to the drug D) Concentration of the drug at the time of administering
C) What the body does to the drug
All of the following hormones increase or decrease plasma glucose concentration by regulating glycogenolysis (converting glycogen to glucose) EXCEPT? Cortisol Glucagon Epinephrine Insulin
Cortisol Feedback From the listed hormones, cortisol is the only one that does not regulate glycogenolysis. Cortisol increases gluconeogenesis, formation of glucose from noncarbohydrates which also raises plasma glucose concentration. Glucagon and epinephrine promote glycogenolysis, conversion of glycogen to glucose, which increases plasma glucose. Insulin decreases glycogenolysis and increases glycogenesis, lipogenesis, and glycolysis.
The plant lectin obtained from the Dolichos biflorus plant will agglutinate which of the following? A) B cells B) O cells C) A2 cells D) A1 cells
D) A1 cells Feedback Anti-A1 lectin is extracted from the seeds of Dolichos biflorus. This reagent will agglutinate A1 cells and A1B cells but not A2 cells. Anti-B lectin is extracted from the plan Bandeiraea simplicifolia. This reagent would agglutinate any blood type with the B antigen. Anti-H lectin is extracted from the plant Ulex europaeus. This reagent would agglutinate any ABO blood type, as all ABO types contain some H antigen (the precursor molecule for the A and B antigens). The Bombay phenotype (hh) is the only blood type that would not agglutinate with this reagent.
Which tests will be abnormal in a patient with Fibrin Stabilizing factor deficiency? A) aPTT B) 5 M urea clot solubility test C) Factor XIII assay D) Both 5 M urea clot solubility test and Factor XIII assay
D) Both 5 M urea clot solubility test and Factor XIII assay
A patient reported to her doctor that her stools have been ribbon-like over the last few weeks. What is most likely the cause of the patient's stool appearance? A) Diarrhea B) Constipation C) Inflammation of the intestinal wall D) Bowel obstruction
D) Bowel obstruction Feedback The most likely cause of ribbon-like stools is bowel obstruction, where the normal passage of fecal waste is restricted in some way. Diarrhea would result in watery stool. If the patient was constipated, you would expect the stool to be small and hard. Inflammation of the intestinal wall would result in mucus-coated stools.
Essential components of compatibility testing include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Antibody screen on recipient's serum B) Major crossmatch or computer crossmatch C) ABO and Rh typing of recipient D) Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT)
D) Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) Feedback A direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is used to detect in-vivo sensitization of red blood cells with IgG or complement components. Cases in which this test is used include hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn, hemolytic transfusion reaction, and autoimmune or drug induced hemolytic anemia. AABB Standards do not require a DAT for pretransfusion testing. Studies have looked into whether or not a routine DAT would benefit patient outcomes and have shown that they do not have a positive impact for the patients. All recipient have compatibility testing done that includes ABO grouping, Rh typing, and antibody screen, and a crossmatch.
Which of the following best describes the benefits of the RPR or VDRL tests: A) Diagnostic of active syphilis B) Diagnostic of latent syphilis C) Diagnostic of neuro-syphilis D) Monitoring course of treatment
D) Monitoring course of treatment Feedback While the RPR and VDRL tests are often the first screening test used to detect syphilis, a definitive diagnosis of syphilis can only be made using a specific treponemal test such as EIAs for IgG and IgM antibodies, agglutination tests such as FTA-ABS, TP-PA and MHA-TP, or a direct detection method of the organism. The RPR and VDRL detect nontreponemal antibody proteins called reagin that the body produces in response to infection with T. pallidum. Because reagin proteins are also detected in pregnancy, old age, Lupus, and other syndromes and disease states, the RPR and VDRL tests are very sensitive but not highly specific and so a confirmatory test specifically for treponemal organisms or antibodies needs to be performed.
Which of the following fungi is the cause of tinea pedis, ringworm of the feet? Trichophyton rubrum Microsporum canis Fusarium species Aspergillus species
Feedback Trichophyton rubrum is the correct response. T. rubrum is a dermatophyte that commonly causes an itching, scaling skin infection of the feet, known as tinea pedis as well as ringworm of the nails (tinea unguium), and body (tinea corporis). Microscopum canis is zoophilic and causes ringworm in cats, dogs, and other animals. Children may become infected through an infected pet. M. canis is associated with ringworm of the scalp (tinea capitis) and ringworm or the body (tinea corporis), but not ringworm of the feet. Fusarium species are opportunistic pathogens and may be associated with mycotic keratitis, mycetoma, pulmonary disease and skin and nail infections, but not ringworm. Aspergillus species are widespread in nature and are a common laboratory contaminant. Aspergillosis is an opportunistic infection and may involve the lungs, eyes, heart or central nervous system, but does not cause ringworm. Pulmonary aspergillosis includes allergic pulmonary aspergillosis, commonly known as "fungus ball" infections.
What type of anticoagulant is generally suitable for TDM analysis ? Heparin EDTA Citrate Oxalate
Heparin Feedback When considering therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM), heparinized plasma is generally suitable for most drug analyses. Calcium-binding anticoagulants add a variety of anions and cations that may interfere with analysis or cause a drug to distribute differently between cells and plasma. As a result, specimen tubes that contain ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA), citrate, or oxalate are generally considered unacceptable specimen types for TDM. Furthermore, some drugs have a tendency to be absorbed into the gel of certain separator collection tubes and that is why it is important to follow the manufacturer's recommendations.
Antibodies within which of the following blood group systems are known to result in severe hemolytic transfusion reactions, but are not always detected during pre-transfusion testing in the blood bank? Duffy Kell Lewis Kidd
Kidd Feedback The correct answer is: Kidd. Kidd is the most common cause of delayed transfusion reactions. The antibody titer for Kidd can drop to undetectable levels several months after primary exposure to the antigen. Upon subsequent exposure to the antigen, a robust antibody response and hemolysis of the offending donor red cells occurs. This is also referred to as an anamnestic response. Duffy Blood Group System antibodies have been implicated in HTRs and DHTRs, but not as frequently implicated in DHTRs as Kidd antibodies. Kell antibodies have been implicated in severe HTRs and less frequently DHTRs. Lewis antibodies are often naturally-occurring, primarily IgM antibodies that rarely cause HTRs.
During phagocytosis by a neutrophil, the granules which fuse with the phagosome (phagocytic vacuole) can contain all of the following EXCEPT: Lysozyme Myeloperoxidase Lactoferrin Lactase
Lactase
During phagocytosis by a neutrophil, the granules which fuse with the phagosome (phagocytic vacuole) can contain all of the following EXCEPT: Lysozyme Myeloperoxidase Lactoferrin Lactase
Lactase Feedback Neutrophils are phagocytes, which means they ingest harmful microorganisms or other foreign particles that enter the body. When these foreign bodies are engulfed, granules containing digestive enzymes and cytotoxic proteins are released into the phagocytic vacuole, and the foreign body is destroyed. However, lactase is not one of the enzymes in a neutrophil and is not considered antibacterial. The primary or azurophilic granules can contain lysozyme, an antibacterial substance. The primary granules can also contain myeloperoxidase, which participates in oxygen-dependent killing of bacteria. Lactoferrin contained in secondary or specific granules has antibacterial functions as well.
A specimen drawn from an indwelling catheter that was contaminated by heparin would be indicated by: Normal PT and aPTT results Prolonged PT and normal aPTT results Prolonged aPTT and prolonged reptilase time test Prolonged aPTT and normal reptilase time test
Prolonged aPTT and normal reptilase time test Feedback Heparin contamination is characterized by an elevation in the aPTT test and can also cause an increased PT test as well. Reptilase time tests are used to eliminate the effects of heparin contamination as the reagents and method are resistant to the effects of antithrombin III, unlike the PT and aPTT tests. Therefore, it would be expected that a patient sample containing pre-analytical heparin contamination will show an increased aPTT (and sometimes PT as well) while showing a normal reptilase time.
The degree in which a measure is consistent in producing the same results when measuring the same analyte is called: Reliability Validity Accuracy Concurrency
Reliability Feedback Reliability is a concept that shows the level of consistency of the results when running the same test with the same method. Validity refers to whether the test measures what it is supposed to measure. Accuracy refers to whether the test is able to measure the true amount or concentration of a substance in a sample. Concurrency refers to testing that is run in parallel or at the same time.
