MLT Missed Question Review
1.________ is a large, gram-positive rod with square ends appearing in single and short chains. 2.________ is fat, gram-negative rod in single or short chains with bipolar staining. 3.________ is a very tiny, weakly stained gram-negative coccobacilli and it is difficult to see individual cells. 4.________ is a very small, gram-negative coccobacilli that may stain gram-positive. The individual cells are evident.
1.Bacillus anthrasis 2.Yersinia pestis 3.Francisella tularensis 4.Brucella species
To produce hemoglobin S, glutamic acid that is normally present in the sixth position on the beta globin chain is substituted with what?
Valine Valine substitutes for glutamic acid in the Beta 6 position to produce HbS.
What laboratory results are characteristic for a patient with von Willebrand disease?
Von Willebrand disease is associated with abnormal platelet aggregation with ristocetin, an increased bleeding time, abnormal factor VIII level test, and abnormal platelet function tests.
True of false C.difficile is an aerobic organism.
false C. difficile is an anaerobic organism found in the large intestine of approximately 3% of the population. It is the causative agent of an inflammatory condition of the large intestine. C. difficile produces two potent toxins: Toxin A ((TcdA), an enterotoxin and Toxin B (TcdB), a cytotoxin. It is the production of these toxins in the gastrointestinal tract that ultimately leads to disease. Large, thin, gram-positive bacilli with spores will be observed on a Gram stain of a typical C. difficile colony.
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is characterized by a large (usually 20-fold) elevation of: cholecystokinin pepsin glucagon gastrin
gastrin Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, or ZES, is a rare disorder where one or more tumors in the pancreas, duodenum cause the stomach to make too much gastric acid, leading to peptic ulcers. Cholecystokinin plays a key role in facilitating digestion within the small intestine and is not found in elevated levels in ZES. Pepsin is an enzyme that is released by the chief cells in the stomach to degrade food proteins into peptides and is not found in elevated levels in ZES. Finally, glucagon is a hormone involved in carbohydrate metabolism which is also not associated with ZES.
What type of electrode is used to is Hydrogen ion concentration (pH) in blood ?
glass pH electrodes that measure hydrogen ion concentrations are actually glass electrodes.
If an R1 r patient received R2R2 blood, what antibodies could be produced?
Anti-E R1r = DCe/dce, R2R2 = DcE/DcE. Since E is not present in R1r anti-E could be produced.
What is most appropriate temperature for long term storage of viral cultures?
-70° C Cultures can be stored at either -20° or -70°, but -70° is preferred for long term storage.
Skeletal deformations are most commonly present in which of the following beta thalassemias?
Beta thalassemia major.
True or false Aplastic anemia may be caused by enzyme deficiencies.
Enzyme deficiencies Enzyme deficiencies are usually associated with hemolytic anemias.
Which of the following is a cause of metabolic alkalosis? Late stage of Salicylate poisoning Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus Renal failure Excessive vomiting Polyuria
Excessive vomiting Metabolic alkalosis may be caused by several conditions, of which one is excessive vomiting. Other causes are (1) loss of hydrogen ions in renal acid losses that exceed acid production from cellular metabolism, (2) disproportionate chloride loss compared with HCO3 loss (ie, the plasma concentration of HCO3 increases upon restriction to a smaller space of distribution), and (3) HCO3 administration (unusual because additional HCO3 is very quickly eliminated by the kidneys).
True or False The use of non-specific fluorescent dyes is the most specific method of measuring amplicons in real-time PCR.
False Non-specific fluorescent dyes can bind to both the product and the primers, resulting in lack of specificity. The use of DNA probes is more specific.
True or False Serum lead level is a good inexpensive screening test for lead toxicity
FalseSerum lead level is a good inexpensive screening test for lead toxicity Serum lead levels are of little value, since they fluctuate rapidly, and do not remain positive very long after episodes of exposure to lead.
Yersinia pestis
Fat, gram-negative rods in single or short chains with bipolar staining
Which of the following thyroid function assays is affected least by pregnancy: Total T3 Total T4 Free T4
Free T4 Free T4 is affected the least by changes in plasma proteins during pregnancy.
The biochemical testing results of an alpha-hemolytic streptococcus show that the isolate is bile esculin-positive, but does not grow in the presence of 6.5% NaCl. The MOST probable identity of this isolate is what?
Group D streptococcus, non-enterococcus The MOST probable identity of the isolate in this case is group D streptococcus, non-enterococcus. Group D streptococcus show: bile esculin +, 6.5 % NaCl -, PYR -. While group D enterococcus show: bile esculin +, 6.5 % NaCl +, PYR +. Group A usually does not show alpha hemolysis. Group B strep is usually beta -hemolytic with the following reactions: growth in 6.5 % NaCl - variable, bile esculin -, PYR -.
Describe HCG levels throughout pregnancy.
HCG levels rise rapidly during the first trimester, then the levels start to decline around week 16. The hCG levels slowly decrease and can level off during the remainder of the pregnancy.
The results which would be MOST consistent with macro-amylasemia are? Normal serum amylase and elevated urine amylase values Increased serum amylase and normal to low urine amylase values Increased serum and increased urine amylase values Normal serum and normal urine amylase values
Increased serum amylase and normal to low urine amylase values Macroamylasemia can be diagnosed by measuring amylase levels in the urine and serum. In patients with macroamylasemia, there will be high levels of amylase in the serum. However, macroamylasemia can look similar to acute pancreatitis, which also causes high levels of amylase in the blood. To help differentiate, we measure amylase levels in the urine. Urine levels of amylase are low in people with macroamylasemia, but high in patients with pancreatitis.
If a drug is given at intervals that are the same as its half-life, approximately how long will it take the drug to reach steady state?
It will take about 5 half-lives to reach steady state.
Whole blood glucose values are ____________ plasma glucose values. Greater than Lower than Equal to
Lower than Whole blood glucose values are lower than plasma glucose values. For this reason, point-of-care whole blood glucose meters are programmed to correct the value before presenting the result; therefore, the whole blood glucose meter result correlates to serum or plasma results.
A patient is admitted to the hospital with acute chest pain, but which of the following cardiac markers will be elevated FIRST if the patient had an MI? LD CK Myoglobin Troponin
Myoglobin Myoglobin rises typically within 2-4 hours after a myocardial infarction and stay elevated for days, with a peak at the 6-9-hour mark post-MI. After myoglobin, troponin is the next fastest to rise afer a mycardial infarction and can rise within 3-4 hours with a peak around 12 hours post-MI. LD (8-12 hours, 24-48 hour peak) and CK (4-6 hours with peak at 24-36 hours) will also rise after MI, but are not as fast to rise as myoglobin and troponin.
It has already been established that the gated cell population is lymphocytic in nature. CD19 and CD20 cell surface antigens both appear on what type of lymphocytes? B cells T-helper cells Cytotoxic T cells
Normal mature B cells are positive for CD19 and CD20. T-helper cells and cytotoxic T cells should not express these two antigens.
Which one of the following terms does not describe a significant elevation of a single immunoglobulin class
Polyclonal protein Polyclonal proteins do not describe a significant elevation of a single immunoglobulin class but are usually present due to hypergammaglobulinemia, resulting from an increased production of several different immunoglobulins and usually associated with infectious, inflammatory, and immune-mediated diseases such as HIV. Paraproteins, monoclonal proteins, and M proteins all refer to the abnormal monoclonal proteins of a single immunoglobulin class, seen in patients with multiple myeloma, and various lymphomas.
Elevation in conjugated bilirubin is most likely to be found in which of the following conditions: Transfusion reactions Erythroblastosis fetalis Crigler-Najjar syndrome Biliary obstruction
Posthepatic jaundice is the result of bile duct obstruction, not impaired hepatic function. It will result in elevation of direct (conjugated) bilirubin. Crigler-Najjar syndrome, erythroblastosis fetalis and transfusion reactions are all associated with increases in unconjugated bilirubin.
Adult Ascaris lumbricoides worms live in the:
Small Intestines
What causes fine basophilic stippling?What causes course basophilic stippling?
The fine basophilic stippling seen here may be due to reticulocytosis secondary to hemolytic anemia. Coarse basophilic stippling is usually associated with megaloblastic anemia, thalassemias, and lead poisoning.
What can impact on electrophoresis techniques in the clinical lab?
The pH, type of support media used, type of stains used, and voltage settings all have an impact on electrophoresis techniques; however, the amount of light present in an electrophoresis box does not.
Enterobius vermicularis infection occurs through
ingesting or inhaling ova Enterobius vermicularis infection occurs through swallowing ova. Pinworm infections including those caused by Enterobius vermicularis, usually occur due to a fecal-oral route of transmission. According to the CDC, "Eggs are deposited on perianal folds. Self-infection occurs by transferring infective eggs to the mouth with hands that have scratched the perianal area. Person-to-person transmission can also occur through handling of contaminated clothes or bed linens. Enterobiasis may also be acquired through surfaces in the environment that are contaminated with pinworm eggs (e.g. , curtains, carpeting). Some small number of eggs may become airborne and inhaled. These would be swallowed and follow the same development as ingested eggs. Following ingestion of infective eggs, the larvae hatch in the small intestine and the adults establish themselves in the colon. The time interval from ingestion of infective eggs to oviposition by the adult females is about one month. The life span of the adults is about two months. Gravid females migrate nocturnally outside the anus and oviposit while crawling on the skin of the perianal area. The larvae contained inside the eggs develop (the eggs become infective) in 4 to 6 hours under optimal conditions . Retroinfection, or the migration of newly hatched larvae from the anal skin back into the rectum, may occur but the frequency with which this happens is unknown."
Isoenzymes of CK include all of the following except: MB MM MBM BB
mbm CPK-BB is found mainly in the brain and lungs. CPK-MB is found mainly in the heart. CPK-MM is found mainly in skeletal muscle. There is no such thing as CK-MBM
Fetal lung maturity can be determined from amniotic fluid because the surfactant is PRIMARILY composed of: protein cholesterol glycerol triglycerides phosphatidylcholine and other phospholipids
phosphatidylcholine and other phospholipids Assessment of the status of amniotic fluid phospholipids has become important in determining fetal lung maturity. During pregnancy, it has been documented that the ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin (L/S ratio), with respect to pediatric gestational age, is a reliable predictor of maturity.
The Lecithin/Sphingomyelin ratio determination of amniotic fluid is useful in assessing the probability of: cystic fibrosis phenylketonuria respiratory distress syndrome chromosomal abnormalities
respiratory distress syndrome The lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio is a test for assessing fetal lung maturity that is useful in determining risk of an infant born with respiratory distress syndrome.
A patient has the following serum results: Na = 130 mEq/L K = 4.9 mEq/L Cl = 107 mEq/L Glucose = 300 mg/dL BUN = 18 mg/dL Creatinine = 1.1 mg/dL What is the osmolality for this patient?
283 Osmolality = 2 x Na + (Glucose / 18) + (BUN / 2.8) In this case: 2 (130) + (300/18) + (18/2.8) = 283 The difference between this calculated value and the measured osmolality usually ranges from +13 to -13 mosm/Kg. Large disparities between measured and calculated osmolalities are most commonly encountered in alcohol intoxications. Serum osmolality is increased by 0.26 mosm/kg for each 1.0 mg/dl of ethanol in serum.
Which of the following statements regarding the L/S ratio is TRUE? A ratio of 2:1 or greater usually indicates adequate pulmonary surfactant to prevent respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) A ratio of 1.5:1 indicates fetal lung maturity in pregnancies associated with diabetes mellitus. Sphingomyelin levels increase during the 3rd trimester causing the L/S ratio to fall slightly during the last two weeks of gestation. A phosphatidylglycerol (PG) spot indicates the presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid Lecithin is in direct ratio with sphingomyelin
A ratio of 2:1 or greater usually indicates adequate pulmonary surfactant to prevent respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) L/S ratio <2.0 indicates an increased risk of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) at delivery. L/S ratio <1.5 indicates a very high risk of developing RDS.
Describe a lymphokine.
A soluble mediator produced by lymphocytes Lymphokines are a type of cytokine that are produced by lymphocytes, usually T cells, to direct the immune system response by signaling between its cells. Lymphokines attract immune cells to an infected area and helps activate them to attack the foreign pathogens.
What blood group system's antibodies is the direct antiglobulin test (DAT) most UNRELIABLE in helping to diagnose hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)?
ABO In ABO HDFN, the DAT may be weakly positive or negative, making it an unreliable test. The DAT is usually reliable for antibodies in the other listed blood group systems that cause HDFN.
If greater than 50% lymphocytes were found on the peripheral blood smear of a 5 month old child you would suspect which of the following conditions: A. Acute viral infection B. Immune deficiency syndrome C. Normal finding D. Infectious hepatitis
C 45 to 75% of the WBCs normally seen in the peripheral blood of infants are lymphocytes.
Which one of the following antigen markers is BEST associated with stem cells? CD3 CD10 CD18 CD34 CDC007
CD34, a cell surface marker, presents on undifferentiated pluripotential hemopoietic stem cells. CD34 is a cell surface glycoprotein and functions as a cell-cell adhesion factor.
Is clostridium difficile gram-positive?
Clostridium difficile is a gram-positive, spore-forming bacilli. The remaining organisms will all stain gram-negative on direct smear or smears made from culture.
Match the complications that are most likely to be associated with either Cryptococcosis or Candidiasis 1. Meningoencephalitis 2. Esophagogastritis 3. Cranial nerve palsy 4. Onychomycosis 5. Renal abscess 6. Thrush
Cryptococcosis Meningoencephalitis Candidiasis Esophagogastritis Cryptococcosis Cranial nerve palsy Candidiasis Onychomycosis Candidiasis Renal abscess Candidiasis ThrushAlthough there is crossover in the complications that may occur during the disease processes of both candidiasis and cryptococcosis, central nervous system involvement including meningoencephalitis and cerebral nerve palsies are more likely to occur in cryptococcosis. All of the other items listed are more likely to occur in candidiasis, although not to the total exclusion of occasionally occurring in cryptococcosis as well. Esophagogastritis, onychomycosis and thrush are common complications of candidiasis and would be extremely unusual in cryptococcosis. The urinary tract can be involved in cryptococcosis and organisms can frequently be recovered in the urine. However, in most instances the lesions are occult in which cryptococcal cells may be seen within the glomeruli or tubules, but with little inflammation. Hematogenous spread of the yeast cells of Candida albicans to the kidneys commonly results in foci of suppurative inflammation in the cortex and medulla, that can progress to abscess formation.
Which test result will be normal in a patient with dysfibrinogenemia? Thrombin time APTT PT fibrinogen level
In dysfibrinogenemia, fibrinogen levels are normal; however, the fibrinogen has a functional impairment. About 1 person in 1 million is affected by this condition. The PT, aPTT, and TT tests will be prolonged in cases where fibrinogen is dysfunctional.
A 46-year old known alcoholic with liver damage is brought in the ER unconscious. One would expect his lipid values to be affected in what way? Increased Decreased Normal Unaffected by the alcoholism
Increased High triglycerides may be caused by disorders such as type 2 diabetes, hypothyroidism, Cushing's sydnrome, liver disease, uremia, dysglobulinemia, nephrotic syndrome, and alcoholism can cause hypertriglyceridemia.
In which of the following condition(s) would an increased serum osmolality be an expected finding? Dehydration Hyponatremia Increased ADH secretion Diabetes Insipidus
Dehydration Diabetes Insipidus In dehydration, the decreased volume of body water causes a subsequent rise in serum osmolality. In diabetes insipidus, renal insensitivity to vasopressin results in the excretion of an increased volume of dilute urine, a decrease in body water, and a rise in serum osmolality. In hyponatremia and when ADH is abnormally secreted, the serum osmolality values can be expected to decrease.
The steps in the PCR process are:
Denaturation (Turning double stranded DNA into single strands.) Annealing/Hybrization (Attachment of primers to the single DNA strands.) Extension (Creating the complementary strand to produce new double stranded DNA.)
Which of the following blood group antigens are most susceptible to destruction by the action of enzymes: Rho Jka Lea Fya
Duffy, or Fya and Fyb antigens, are most sensitive to enzyme treatment since they will be destroyed during this process. Enzyme panels can be helpful when multiple antibodies, including duffy, are present in a patient sample. With the duffy antigens destroyed, the panel can be performed to identify the remaining antibodies present.
What disorders increase alkaline phosphatase?
Increased levels of alkaline phosphatase are found in patients suffering from obstructive jaundice, and in bone disorders involving osteoblasts such as Paget's disease.
A 29-year old pregnant woman had an outpatient glucose tolerance test. The patient was given a 100-gm dose of glucose and the following values were obtained: Fasting 110 mg/dL 1 hr. 188 mg/dL 2 hr. 175 mg/dL 3 hr. 143 mg/dL The MOST likely interpretation of this glucose tolerance would be: Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM) Non insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) Normal glucose tolerance test
Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) Normal blood values for a 100-gram oral glucose tolerance test used to screen for gestational diabetes are as follows: Fasting: less than 95 mg/dL 1 hour: less than 180 mg/dL 2 hour: less than 155 mg/dL 3 hour: less than 140 mg/dL
Which enzyme is responsible for the conjugation of bilirubin? Beta-Glucuronidase Bilirubin oxidase Bilirubin reductase Glucuronyl transferase
Glucuronyl transferase is responsible for the conjugation of bilirubin in the liver. When deficiencies exist of this important enzyme, disease states can occur. A deficiency in glucuronosyl transferase is thought to be the cause of Gilbert's syndrome (unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia) and Crigler-Najjar syndrome, where this enzyme is completely or mostly absent.
A defective clot retraction might be caused by which one of these? A. Lack of or defect of platelet receptor glycoprotein Ib B.Lack of or defect of platelet receptor Ilb/IIIa C. Insufficient storage of ADP in platelet granules D.Absence or defect of von Willebrand's factor
Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa is integral in the process of platelet aggregation as well as clot retraction.
What sero-marker is the first marker to become positive in Hepatitis B and is associated with the infective stage?
HBs antigen Hepatitis B surface antigen, or HBs, is a protein that is present on the surface of the virus. The protein will be present via laboratory testing in the blood with acute and chronic HBV infections
Which of the following parts of the body synthesizes and secretes BNP? Kidney Liver Heart Adrenal gland
Heart
A patient with alpha thalassemia, who is African American, most likely has which form of the disorder?
Heterozygous minor The homozygous form of alpha thalassemia minor can be seen in African Americans. The heterozygous form of alpha thalassemia minor and other alpha thalassemias is more often seen in persons from Southeast Asia and the Mediterranean.
An obese adult with premature arteriosclerosis is seen in the clinic. When her serum is tested no chylomicrons are present, LDL are normal and VLDL are increased. There is an increase in triglycerides and slight increase in cholesterol. Lipoprotein electrophoresis reveals a heavy pre-beta band. She has no skin rash and uric acid is increased. This patient has a hyperlipoproteinemia with the MOST likely type of: II III IV V VI
IV Type I hyperlipoproteinemia is a form of hyperlipoproteinemia associated with deficiencies of lipoprotein lipase. Hyperlipoproteinemia type II is the most common form and is classified into type IIa and type IIb, depending on whether there is elevation in the triglyceride level in addition to LDL cholesterol. Hyperlipoproteinemia type III is associated with high chylomicrons and IDL. Hyperlipoproteinemia type IV is assoicated with high triglycerides. It is also known as hypertriglyceridemia. Hyperlipoproteinemia type V is similar to type I, but with high VLDL in addition to chylomicrons.
Which of the following tests confirms the presence of Bence-Jones proteinuria: Protein electrophoresis Sulfosalicylic acid precipitation Cryoprecipitation Immunoelectrophoresis
Immunoelectrophoresis Immunoelectrophoresis is used to detect the presence of Bence-Jones proteins. Immunoelectrophoresis is used to help detect, diagnose, and monitor the course and treatment of conditions associated with abnormal proteins (such as Bence-Jones), including Multiple Myeloma, Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia, and a few other related diseases.
Why are small dense LDL molecules more atherogenic? The correct answer is highlighted below Small dense LDL molecules contain less cholesterol and phospholipid Small dense LDL molecules increase the concentration of HDL-C in the blood Small dense LDL molecules increase the concentration of adoponectin and inflammatory cytokines Small dense LDL molecules have greater mobility in the endothelium and arterial wall
Small dense LDL molecules have greater mobility in the endothelium and arterial wall Most researchers believe that the small size and increased density of LDL molecules found in atherogenic dyslipidemia enable the molecules to more easily invade the endothelium and arterial wall of vessels.
Which of the following conditions would argue in favor of therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) for a given drug? The drug has a low degree of protein binding. The drug is given chronically. The drug has low toxicity and few side effects. The effective and toxic concentrations are not well defined.
The drug is given chronically. Drugs that are given chronically are usually monitored by TDM. Drugs that are highly protein-bound are good candidates for TDM since changes in plasma binding proteins can affect drug levels. A drug that has low toxicity and rare side effects will probably not need TDM. If the effective concentration and toxic concentrations are not well-defined, TDM will not be useful because there is no reference for comparison.
A patient has been characterized as a CYP2D6 poor metabolizer (PM) after genotyping. Which of the following statements is not true? The patient will likely need lower doses of CYP2D6-metabolized drugs. The patient is less likely to require therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) since the genotype is known. CYP2D6 metabolizes many drugs, and so attention must be given to the doses of drugs from different classes.
The patient is less likely to require therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) since the genotype is known. Though it may not be required, TDM should still be used to confirm adequate dosing. Genotyping does not make TDM redundant. A PM will metabolize the drug more slowly and therefore will need lower doses. CYP2D6 metabolizes many different drugs; it is not associated with just one class of drugs. Anytime a drug is taken that competes for the same metabolizing enzyme as another drug, there is potential for the concentrations of both drugs to be increased.
The hemoglobin electrophoresis patterns that are shown on the right include controls for A and F and A, S, and C above and below the patient results on the alkaline electrophoresis (on the left) and above the patient results on the acid electrophoresis (on the right).
The patient lanes show equal bands of hemoglobin in the "S" position and the "C" position on both alkaline and acid electrophoresis. The hemoglobin that is present in the S position is Hb S and not D because a band is still present in the S position on the acid electrophoresis. HbD would not migrate with S on the acid electrophoresis as it does in the alkaline electrophoresis. There is no Hb F present in the patient sample.
If a disease or disorder causes serum binding proteins (such as albumin) to decrease, what may occur if the dose of a highly protein-bound drug with a narrow therapeutic window is not adjusted? The patient may not realize a therapeutic benefit (low free drug fraction). The patient may experience toxic effects (high free drug fraction). The serum level of the drug will most likely remain in the therapeutic range.
The patient may experience toxic effects (high free drug fraction). If serum protein levels fall, as can occur in liver failure or nephrotic syndrome, less protein (specifically albumin) will be available for drug binding; a subsequent dose may produce a toxic concentration of free drug. Doses of drugs that are highly protein-bound may need to be adjusted in patients with lower drug-binding protein levels.
Serum TSH levels five-times the upper limit of normal in the presence of a low T4 and low T3 uptake could mean which of the following: The thyroid has been established as the cause of hypothyroidism The thyroid is ruled-out as the cause of hypothyroidism The pituitary has been established as the cause of hypothyroidism The diagnosis is consistent with secondary hyperthyroidism
The thyroid has been established as the cause of hypothyroidism During primary hypothyroidism, where a defect in the thryoid gland is producing low levels of T3 and T4, the TSH level is increased. TSH is released in elevated quantities in an attempt to stimulate the thryoid to produce more T3 and T4 as part of a feedback mechanism.
A patient suffering from Celiac disease and Crohn disease (both inflammatory conditions of the GI tract) is given a new oral medication that has a narrow therapeutic window. Which of the following would be true? The correct answer is highlighted below An oral medication is never effective for a patient that has these diseases. The drug must be given through IV. Toxicity in this patient is not likely since most of the drug won't be absorbed. Therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) would be helpful to see how much drug has been absorbed. Serum drug levels obtained 15 minutes after the oral dose should confirm the drug was absorbed.
Therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) would be helpful to see how much drug has been absorbed. TDM would be helpful to see how much drug has been absorbed. Blood collection for the TDM test should occur at least one hour after the administration of the oral drug. Measuring the serum level of the drug 15 minutes after the oral dose has been given is not sufficient time to allow for absorption Celiac disease and Crohn's disease are both inflammatory conditions of the GI tract that can cause decreased absorption. Although an IV drug may be preferred, not all drugs are available as IV solutions; until low absorption is confirmed, an oral drug may be tried. The patient may or may not have poor absorption, but toxicity could still occur regardless of absorption. For example, toxicity to the GI tract could ensue without the drug ever being absorbed.
Why were Chlamydia and Neisseria logical targets for the development of a commercial molecular assay?
These organisms are of concern for significant patient populations. The organisms are difficult to sustain in transport. The sensitivity of culture and antigen detection methods was not optimal. Culture and antigen detection methods for Chlamydia and Neisseria are likely to be LESS expensive than a molecular method. However, the sensitivity is less; a prime factor is the difficulty in maintaining viable organisms throughout transport. Since a significant population could benefit from more sensitive and rapid detection, these organisms were one of the first targets for commercial applications.
What type of transfusion reaction caused the highest number of transfusion-related fatalities that were reported to the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) from 2005 - 2009?
Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) In combined fiscal years 2005 through 2009, transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) caused the higest number of reported fatalities (48%), followed by hemolytic transfusion reactions (26%) due to non-ABO (16%) and ABO (10%) incompatibilities. Complications of microbial infection, transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), and anaphylactic reactions each accounted for a smaller number of reported fatalities.
True or False Multiplexing is the process of assaying several different genes within the same PCR reaction.
True
True or False. Any organism which is oxidase positive can be excluded from the Enterobacteriaceae
True
True or False Xanthochromia in a premature infant may be due to an immature blood-brain barrier.
True Xanthochromia may be observed in the cerebrospinal fluid of premature infants. Reasons for this include: Immaturity of the blood-brain barrier Elevated protein in CSF Elevated bilirubin in the blood
In molecular diagnostic testing, hybridization employs complementary base pair binding of a synthetic strand to DNA or RNA. T/F
True . Hybridization is a technique used to determine presence of target DNA or RNA by adding a synthetic strand that binds by complementary base pairing to the target.
The immunoassay procedure for serum hCG utilizes antisera against which subunit of hCG? alpha gamma epsilon beta
beta The hCG molecule consists of two combined, dissimilar subunits designated alpha and beta. Immunoassays utilize antibodies specific to the beta subunit of the hCG glycoprotein.