MLT mock

The qualitative differences between A1 and A2 phenotypes includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. The formation of anti-A1 in A subgroups. B. The amount of transferase enzymes. C. The length of the precursor oligosaccharide chains. D. The lack of agglutination of patient red cells with anti-A reagent.

D. The lack of agglutination of patient red cells with anti-A reagent.

Currently the MOST common method for the confirmation of serum barbiturates is: A. Immunoassay B. Thin-layer chromatography C. Gas-liquid chromatography, mass spectrometry D. Ultraviolet absorption spectroscopy

C. Gas-liquid chromatography, mass spectrometry

All of the following are Lancefield carbohydrate antigens found on beta hemolytic Streptococcus species. All of the following antigens are found on organisms from the Streptococcus anginosus group EXCEPT? A. A B. B C. F D. G

B. B

A variety of additives are used in blood collection tubes. Which of the following additives prevents clotting by inhibiting thrombin and thromboplastin? A. EDTA B. Gel C. Lithium or sodium heparin D. Sodium fluoride

C. Lithium or sodium heparin

Which of the following thyroid function assay results would you expect with hyperthyroidism? A. High TSH, low free T4 B. Normal TSH, normal free T4 C. Low TSH, high free T4 D. High TSH, normal free T4

C. Low TSH, high free T4

Homogentisic acid in urine will cause urine to be which of the following colors? A. Green B. Pink C. Port-wine D. Brown/black

D. Brown/black

All of the following carbohydrates are considered reducing sugars EXCEPT: A. Lactose B. Sucrose C. Glucose D. Ribose

B. Sucrose

What is the half-life of IgG? Why is the duration of the half-life significant? A. 1-3 days; it is the first antibody produced in an immune response. B. 5-6 days; it participates in an immediate hypersensitivity reaction. C. 18-23 days; it is important for B-cell activation and/or regulation. D. 18-23 days; it binds with neonatal Fc receptor.

D. 18-23 days; it binds with neonatal Fc receptor.

Which adsorption technique removes cold (IgM) antibodies, particularly anti-I specificities? A. Cold autoadsorption B. Warm autoadsorption C. Differential (allogeneic) D. Rabbit erythrocyte stroma (RESt)

D. Rabbit erythrocyte stroma (RESt)

Various methods have been employed for detection of Clostridium difficile disease, which method is the gold standard for detection? A. Culture on cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar (CCFA) B. Cell cytotoxicity neutralization assay (CCNA) C. Enzyme immunoassays (EIA) detecting toxins D. Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs)

B. Cell cytotoxicity neutralization assay (CCNA)

All of the following laboratory tests are used to determine kidney function, EXCEPT? A. Creatinine B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) C. Amylase D. Phosphorus

C. Amylase

If detected in antibody screen testing, which of the following antibodies is NOT considered clinically significant in prenatal patients? A. Anti-M B. Anti-N C. Anti-Leb D. Anti-Fya

C. Anti-Leb

In the formalin-ethyl acetate sedimentation procedure, four layers will occur. Out of the layers, where does the formalin layer occur? A. Top layer B. Bottom layer C. Between the bottom layer and the debris/fat layer D. Below the top layer and above the debris/fat layer

C. Between the bottom layer and the debris/fat layer

Which of the following genotypes is found with the highest frequency in the Caucasian population? A. CDe/cDe B. cDE/ce C. cDE/cE D. CDe/ce

D. CDe/ce

A medical laboratory scientist working in Hematology was performing Myeloperoxidase staining on a suspected AML case. They found positive reactions of the segmented neutrophils. What would be the next step? A. Report result, patient is confirmed for AML B. Report result and perform Sudan Black B and Esterase stains to further confirm AML C. Inaccurate result, Myeloperoxdase stain confirms ALL and not AML D. Inaccurate result, only blast cells are to be examined for reaction

D. Inaccurate result, only blast cells are to be examined for reaction

Contact dermatitis is mediated by: A. B lymphocytes B. Mast cells C. Polymorphonuclear cells D. T lymphocytes

D. T lymphocytes

What blood system is often tested to either establish or dispute paternity? A. HLA B. ABO C. Rh D. Duffy

A. HLA

A joint fluid was received in the microbiology laboratory. The specimen was cloudy and many neutrophils with intracellular and extracellular Gram negative diplococci were seen on the Gram stain. The specimen was inoculated to sheep blood and chocolate agar and grew a small, grayish white colony on chocolate with no growth observed on the sheep blood. Which of the following is most likely the organism? A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. Haemophilus influenzae C. Bacteroides fragilis D. Streptococcus pyogenes

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

These 3 tubes of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) are delivered to the laboratory for analysis. The tube labeled #1 was the first tube collected. Which one of the tubes should be used by the hematology department for cell count and differential? The correct answer is highlighted below A. Tube #1 B. Tube #2 C. Tube #3 D. Any one of the tubes can be used

C. Tube #3

Which of the following smear techniques has the advantage of providing the best WBC distribution when performed correctly? A. Coverslip technique B. Spun technique C. Manual wedge technique D. Semi-automated wedge technique

A. Coverslip technique

Baseline testing for latent Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection (LTBI) is recommended for all newly-hired healthcare workers. In which of these cases would a tuberculin skin test (TST) be repeated a second time, one to three weeks after the first test? A. The first test is negative and the new employee has never been tested for LTBI before. B. The first test is negative and the new employee has documentation showing he/she had a negative TST 6 months ago. C. The first test is positive. D. A positive Interferon Gamma Release Assay (IGRA) blood test.

A. The first test is negative and the new employee has never been tested for LTBI before.

Which of the following substances can cause a false positive result for blood on the urine chemical reagent strip? A. Ascorbic acid B. Bleach in the collecting bottle C. High levels of nitrite D. High specific gravity

B. Bleach in the collecting bottle

The purpose of C3a and C5a, the split-products of the complement cascade, is to: A. Bind with specific membrane receptors of lymphocytes and cause release of cytotoxic substances. B. Cause increased vascular permeability, contraction of smooth muscle, and release of histamine from basophils. C. Bind with membrane receptors of macrophages to facilitate phagocytosis and the removal of debris and foreign substances. D. Regulate and degrade membrane cofactor protein after activation by C3 convertase.

B. Cause increased vascular permeability, contraction of smooth muscle, and release of histamine from basophils.

The normal Myeloid-to-erythroid ratio (M:E ratio) ranges from: The correct answer is highlighted below A. 2:1 to 7:1 B. 1.2:1 to 5:1 C. 2:1 to 4:1 D. 0.5:1 to 1:1

C. 2:1 to 4:1

How many standard deviations (SD) above and below the mean is accepted as being an appropriate control limit range on a control chart utilizing the Westgard rules: The correct answer is highlighted below A. 1 SD B. 2 SD C. 3 SD D. 4 SD

C. 3 SD

Bacterial colonies often emit distinct odors associated with foods. Which organism produces an odor that resembles fresh apples? A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. CDC group EF4 C. Alcaligenes faecalis (odorans) D. Streptococcus milleri

C. Alcaligenes faecalis (odorans)

How does hydroxyurea aid in the treatment of sickle cell disease? a. Acts as an analgesic in pain management. B. Prevents sickle cells from clumping together. C. Induces increased production of HbF. D. Reduces the number of sickle cells that form.

C. Induces increased production of HbF.

A 30-year-old woman developed progressive, painful swelling of the right foot after incurring traumatic penetration of the soft tissue by a splinter. The wound initially healed. The upper photograph is a direct Gram stain of purulent material expressed from a sinus tract. The lower photograph illustrates the colony that grew out in 72 hours, which had a "musty" odor. The most likely identification is: A. Nocardia brasiliensis B. Rhodococcus equi C. Streptomyces anulatus (fromerly griseus) D. Actinomyces israelii

A. Nocardia brasiliensis

What procedure utilizes leukapheresis to collect the buffy coat from whole blood? A. Photopheresis B. Plasmapheresis C. Therapeutic apheresis D. Erythrocytapheresis

A. Photopheresis

When evaluating the patterns of fluorescent anti-nuclear antibody (FANA) testing, cytoplasmic patterns: A. Are not considered in pattern assessment B. May demonstrate anti-mitochondrial antibodies seen primary biliary cirrhosis C. Indicate the presence of anti-histone antibodies D. Indicate the presence of anti-Smith antibodies

B. May demonstrate anti-mitochondrial antibodies seen primary biliary cirrhosis

Which of the following tests require a 72 hour stool (fecal) collection? A. Occult blood B. Quantitative fecal fat C. Ova and Parasite (O&P) D. Stool culture

B. Quantitative fecal fat

All of the following should be done when centrifuging specimens, EXCEPT? A. Specimens without anticoagulant should sit for 30 minutes before centrifugation. B. Specimens with anticoagulant should sit for 20 minutes before centrifugation. C. Cap all tubes for centrifugation. D. Allow the centrifuge to come to a complete stop by itself before opening it.

B. Specimens with anticoagulant should sit for 20 minutes before centrifugation.

When a patient has a bile duct obstruction, the bilirubin test portion of the reagent strip is: A. Negative because unconjugated bilirubin is increased and cannot be excreted by the kidneys. B. Positive because unconjugated bilirubin is increased and is excreted by the kidneys. C. Negative because conjugated bilirubin is decreased and cannot be excreted by the kidneys. D. Positive because conjugated bilirubin is present and is excreted by the kidneys.

D. Positive because conjugated bilirubin is present and is excreted by the kidneys.

The arrangement of erythrocytes on this peripheral blood smear can be associated with each of the following conditions EXCEPT: A. Multiple myeloma B. Cold agglutinin disorders C. Chronic inflammatory disorders

B. Cold agglutinin disorders

The properties of enzymes are CORRECTLY described by which of the following statements? A. Enzyme activity is not altered by heat denaturation B. Enzymes are protein catalysts of biological origin C. Enzymes are stable proteins and unaffected by pH changes D. Enzymes affect the rate of a chemical reaction by raising the activation energy needed

B. Enzymes are protein catalysts of biological origin

All of the following represent a 2 week temporary deferral from donating blood or blood products EXCEPT: A. Measles (rubeola) vaccine B. German measles (rubella) vaccine C. Mumps vaccine D. Polio vaccine

B. German measles (rubella) vaccine

A 21-year-old female developed painful swelling of the left knee along with a low grade fever. The knee was painful to palpation, an effusion was evident, and the overlying skin was slightly erythematous. Fluid was aspirated and a gram stain was performed (as seen in the images to the right). Based on the Gram stain morphology, which of the following bacterial species is LEAST likely to serve as the etiologic agent in the case described? A. Neisseria meningitidis B. Haemophilus influenzae C. Kingella kingae D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

B. Haemophilus influenzae

The measurement of sodium and chloride in sweat is the most useful test for the diagnosis of what condition/disease? A. Steatorrhea B. Direct determination of the exocrine secretory capacity of the pancreas. C. Cystic fibrosis D. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

C. Cystic fibrosis

The number of patients correctly diagnosed for the disease or not having the disease is defined as: A. Positive predictive value B. Negative predictive value C. Efficiency D. Sensitivity

C. Efficiency

What are the MAIN functions of the distal convoluted tubules? A. Balance hydrogen ions and keep the body pH at 6.8 B. Control aldosterone production and ammonia reabsorption C. Excrete various antibiotics and uric acid D. Maintain water-electrolyte and acid-base balances

D. Maintain water-electrolyte and acid-base balances