Mock Registry questions

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4 A

20 coulombs flow through a circuit in 5 seconds, how many amperes does the current have? Select one: a. 100 A b. 4 A c. 0.25 A d. 25 A e. 15 A

perform hand washing

Assume a radiographer donned eye protection, hair cover, mask, gown, and gloves. After removing one's gown and gloves, the next step should be to _______ in order to follow good isolation techniques and standard precautions. Select one: a. remove mask b. remove hair cover c. dispose of the gown and gloves in the sharps container d. perform hand washing

Coned PA patella

To demonstrate a vertical patellar fracture, which one of the following would be best: Select one: a. Lateral patella b. Coned PA patella c. Coned AP patella d. Medial PA oblique knee

Off-focus radiation

X-rays created on locations in the tube anode other than the target are called: Select one: a. Remnant radiation b. Off-focus radiation c. Brems rays d. Characteristic radiation

I and IV

_____________ effects are those from which no threshold dose of radiation exists, such as cancer and genetic effects - they are random in nature - regardless of the dose some will experience the effect. I. stochastic II. nonstochastic III. deterministic effects IV. probability effects Select one: a. I and II b. I and IV c. II and III d. II and IV

acromion process

In the attached image, #3 represents: Select one: a. Corocoid process b. Acromion process c. Lateral angle d. Acromioclavicular joint (missing picture 22a)

axillary border

In the attached image, #7 represents: 22a Select one: a. Axillary border b. Vertebral border c. Inferior angle d. Superior angle (missing picture 22a)

grid capture

In the use of a moving grid or bucky, ______ occurs if grid lines are demonstrated on the image due to slow grid movement, or a grid that starts too slowly or stops too quickly in relationship to the exposure. Select one: a. grid capture b. grid frequency c. grid focusing range d. grid clean up

6.3 x 10^18

One coulomb = ______________ electron charges. Select one: a. 6.3 x 10^18 b. 3.0 x 10^8 c. 1.007 x 10^27-31 d. 0.000532 x 10^-31

ethics

Principles or standards that define right and wrong within a profession are called: Select one: a. negligence b. malpractice c. accountability d. ethics

Recorded detail

Which of the following qualities can NOT be shown on the H&D curve? Select one: a. Recorded detail b. Film speed c. Film contrast d. Film density

congentital abnormalities

Which of the following radiation responses in utero is most likely when exposure occurs during organogenesis? Select one: a. childhood cancer b. congentital abnormalities c. leukemia d. neonatal death e. prenatal death

110

An image with optimum density is produced using: 400 mA 0.4 sec 80 kVp 48 inch SID 8:1 grid 200 speed IR Approximately what new mAs would be necessary to produce an image of equivalent density if one used: 70 kVp 40 inch SID 8:1 grid 400 speed IR Select one: a. 20 b. 40 c. 110 d. 90

quantum mottle

A loss in image quality sometimes produced when a very fast speed intensifying screen is used and a very low number of x-ray photons creates the image is called: Select one: a. high resolution b. quantum mottle c. intensification factor d. exposure index failure

Quantum mottle or image noise

A loss in image quality sometimes produced with very fast intensifying screens when a very low number of x-ray photons creates the image is called _______ . Select one: a. Quantum mottle or image noise b. Absorption deficiency c. High conversion efficiency d. High resolution

Central ray is not perpendicular to the image receptor but the part parallels IR

Elongation of part in relationship to the resulting radiographic image occurs when: Select one: a. Central ray is perpendicular to image receptor and part parallels IR. b. Central ray is perpendicular to the image receptor but part does not parallel IR c. Central ray is not perpendicular to the image receptor but the part parallels IR d. None of the above

A

Which figure demonstrates the downside intervertebral foramina? (pic not working) Select one: a. A b. B c. C

Carpometacarpal

Which joint is the most distal articulation of the wrist? Select one: a. Intercarpal b. Radiocarpal c. Carpometacarpal d. Metacarpophalangeal

Compton effect

Which of the following interactions of x-rays with matter results in a scattered x-ray photon which travels in a direction 180 degrees to the original incident photon? Select one: a. classical scattering b. photoelectric effect c. photodisintegration d. Compton effect

Pneumothorax

Which of the following is considered a destructive pathology and would require a decrease in exposure? Select one: a. Congestive heart failure b. Pneumonia c. Pneumothorax d. Pleural effussion

The hand is supinated.

Which positioning maneuver should be done initially to properly position for the AP projection of the humerus? Select one: a. The hand is supinated. b. The hand is pronated. c. The hand is true lateral. d. The elbow is flexed 90 degrees.

Right

Which primary bronchus would more than likely contain a foreign object that has been aspirated? Select one: a. Right b. Left

Lateral

Which projection best demonstrates the intervertebral foramina of the thoracic spine? Select one: a. AP b. Anterior oblique c. Lateral d. Posterior oblique

Lateral

Which projection of the knee best opens the femoropatellar space? Select one: a. AP b. External oblique c. Internal oblique d. Lateral

Decreased mAs by 40%

A radiograph is produced with a collimated field of 8 x 10 inches. If a second image of the same body part and projection is to be made but with an expanded field collimated to 14 x 17 inches, what technical factors should be selected? Select one: a. Decrease the mAs by 15% b. Increased mAs by 15% c. Increased mAs by 40% d. Decreased mAs by 40% e. No technical chang is needed

Invasion of privacy

A radiographer who discloses confidential information to a patient's minister may be found guilty of: Select one: a. Libel b. Slander c. Defamation d. Invasion of privacy

Xiphoid process

A radiologist has requested a spot radiograph of the tenth thoracic vertebra. The external landmark that would be most helpful for locating the level of the tenth thoracic vertebra is: Select one: a. Costal margin b. Xiphoid process c. Iliac crests d. Sternal angle

AP erect, both shoulders

Acromioclavicular separation is best demonstrated in which of the following: Select one: a. AP recumbent, affected shoulder b. AP recumbent, both shoulders c. AP erect, affected shoulder d. AP erect, both shoulders

1 and 2

An electrocardiogram will demonstrate which of the following? 1. Atrial dysrhythmias 2. Cardiac cycle 3. Mechanical dysfunction of myocardium Select one: a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3

83 mAs

An image with "optimum" density is produced using: 300 mA 0.4 sec. 70 kvp 48 inch SID 10:1 grid 200 speed image receptor Approximately what new mAs would be necessary to produce an image of equivalent density if one used: 80 kvp 40 inch SID 10:1 grid 100 speed image receptor Select one: a. 172 mAs b. 83 mAs c. 144 mAs d. 100 mAs

decrease technical factors

If a patient comes in the radiology department with a diagnosis of emphysema, what adjustments in technique should you make? Select one: a. Increase technical factors b. Decrease technical factors

Place the patient in the Trendelenbur position

If a patient is recumbent on the radiographic table and says that he or she feels "faint", what action should the radiographer take? Select one: a. Sit the patient upright slowly b. Contact the referring physician c. Place the patient in the Fowler's position d. Place the patient in the Trendelenbur position

Barium enema

If a patient was scheduled for an upper gastrointestinal series and a barium enema on the same day, which exam should be performed first? Select one: a. Barium enema b. UGI c. The order of the exams does not matter. d. Both exams cannot be performed on the same day.

1 and 2

If all other factors remain constant, an increase in kVp will: 1. Increase the efficiency of brems production 2. Increase the number of brems x-rays 3. Increase the energy of characteristic x-rays Select one: a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 1, 2, and 3 d. 3 only

turn the grid lengthwise

If during a trauma projection you are using a grid and need to cross-angle the CR, you will need to: Select one: a. Turn the grid lengthwise. b. Turn the grid crosswise. c. Angle the grid diagonally. d. It does not matter much.

8:1

If the lead strips are 200 micrometers high and 50 micrometers thick and are separated by an interspace of 25 micrometers, what is the grid ratio? Select one: a. 8:1 b. 4:1 c. 6:1 d. 10:1

Calcaneus will obscure the talo-fibular joint

If the patient's foot is not dorsi-flexed on the medial oblique (mortise) projections of the ankle, the expected radiographic result would be that the: Select one: a. Toes will obscure the talo-tibial joint b. Distal fibula will not be visualized c. Calcaneus will obscure the talo-fibular joint d. Calcaneus is elongated

none of the above would produce a higher contrast image

If the technologist wanted to produce a radiograph with higher radiographic contrast, provided a technical compensation is made so that image density remains constant, which of the following would produce that result? 1. decrease the kVp from 78 to 70 2. remove the stationary grid from the grid holder 3. change collimation from a 10 x 12 inch to a 14 x 17 inch 4. change the SID from 100 cm to 120 cm Select one: a. 1 only b. 1, 2, and 4 c. 2, 3, and 4 d. none of the above would produce a higher contrast image

Radiopaque

If x-rays cannot easily pass through a material, the material is said to be: Select one: a. Radiolucent b. Translucent c. Transparent d. Radiopaque

5 degrees caudad

In an attempt to remove shoulders on the cross-table (C/T) lateral C-spine, the radiographer would perform a swimmer's view. If the patient was unable to offset the shoulders, the radiographer could adjust the CR by angling: Select one: a. 5 degrees caudad b. 5 degrees cephalic c. Perpendicular d. 15-20 degrees caudal

15%

In clinical practice due to the change in penetration ability as kVp is altered, the technologist should expect to increase the kVp by approximately ________ to double the optical density on the resulting image after the beam has passed through patient tissue. Select one: a. 15% b. 30% c. 50% d. 75%

decrease

In comparing film screen images with digital images produced with indirect digital (cassette based) radiography or CR, there is generally a(an) _________ in recorded detail with film screen images as compared to digital images. Select one: a. increase b. decrease c. equal result

silver bromide

In order to create a latent image on the film, which of the following compounds becomes disrupted during the photographic effect? Select one: a. Sodium sulfite b. Silver bromide c. Chromium alum d. Calcium tungstate

1 & 4 only

The attached figure demonstrates what position(s)? 1. RPO 2. LPO 3. RAO 4. LAO http://lenoircc.mrooms3.net/file.php/4861/Images/Simulated_Registries/SIM_1/161-21.jpg (picture doesn't work) Select one: a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1 & 4 only e. 2 & 3 only

Rt. zygapophyseal joints

The attached image demonstrates: (picture doesn't work) Select one: a. Lt. zygapophyseal joints b. Rt. intervertebral foramina c. Rt. zygapophyseal joints d. Lt. intervertebral foramina

chest with a grid

The choice of 110 kVp would be optimum kVp selection for which of the following body regions based on its ability to penetrate adequately with a favorable contrast scale result? Select one: a. abdomen without barium sulfate b. pelvis and hip c. chest with a grid d. chest without a grid

1, 2, and 3

Examples of devices that control the size and shape of the useful beam are: 1. Cone 2. Collimator 3. Aperture diaphragm Select one: a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3

Producing greater image contrast of up to 15%

Extended processing sometimes used in mammography is helpful by: Select one: a. Producing greater image contrast of up to 15% b. Decreasing image receptor sensitivity by up to 100 % c. Decreasing development time by 1/2 d. Increasing drying time by 2 to 3 minutes

Maintain congruence between the x-ray field and light field.

The mirror in a variable aperature collimator must be properly tilted at 45 degrees in order to: Select one: a. Insure the mirror is not in the pathway of the x-ray beam. b. Maintain congruence between the x-ray field and light field. c. Maintain 2.5 mm Al equivalency filtration. d. Decrease amount of off-focus radiation.

1 & 3 only

To better demonstrate ribs below the diaphragm, the patient is instructed to: 1. Suspend respiration at the end of full exhalation. 2. Suspend respiration at the end of deep inhalation. 3. Lie in a recumbent position. Select one: a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 1 & 3 only d. 2 & 3 only

have a least 2.5 mm of Al equivalent filtration.

To comply with radiation safety standards, fluoroscopic x-ray units must: Select one: a. be image-intensified. b. have a least 2.5 mm of Al equivalent filtration. c. have spot-film capability. d. limit leakage radiation to 1000 mR/hr at 1 m from the tube. e. never exceed 1-R/min at the tabletop.

Mitosis phase

Which cellular life cycle phase is the most sensitive to radiation exposure? Select one: a. G1 phase b. G2 phase c. S phase d. Mitosis phase

silver halide crystals in gelatin

Which components make up the emulsion of x-ray film? Select one: a. silver halide crystals in the polymer matrix b. gadolinium phosphor crystals in gelatin c. silver halide crystals in gelatin d. gadolinium phosphor crystals in the polymer matrix

Left lateral decubitus

Which decubitus position best demonstraste free air in the abdominal cavity? Select one: a. Left lateral decubitus b. Right lateral decubitus c. Dorsal decubitus d. Ventral decubitus

C

Which figure demonstrates the upside intervertebral foramina? http://de.lenoircc.edu/pluginfile.php/160774/question/questiontext/164296/145/2274425/Unit_III/Ex3/Image%201d.jpg (pic not working) Select one: a. A b. B c. C

Lower contrast and less visibility of detail.

Which of the choices A-D correctly completes the following statement and defines the relationship between the amount of scattered radiation and image contrast and visibility of detail? As scattered radiation increases, the image has ......... Select one: a. Lower contrast and less visibility of detail. b. Higher contrast and more visibility of detail. c. Lower contrast and more visibility of detail. d. Higher contrast and less visibility of detail

1 & 3 only

Which of the following are on the lateral side of the humerus? 1. Capitulum 2. Trochlea 3. Greater tubercle Select one: a. 1 & 2 only b. 1 & 3 only c. 2 & 3 only d. 1, 2, & 3

neurons

Which of the following are the most resistant cells to radiation damage? Select one: a. spermatogonia b. neurons c. lymphocytes d. erythroblasts

increased metabolic activity

Which of the following based on the Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau will increase the radiosensitivity of most human cells? Select one: a. increased age of the cell b. differentiation of the cell type c. decreased oxygen level d. increased metabolic activity

92 kVp

Which of the following changes would increase optical density by 100% if the original technique is 200 mA, 1/4 seconds, 80 kVp, 40 inch SID, 250 speed screens and 6:1 grid? Select one: a. 600 mA b. 92 kVp c. 1/8 seconds d. 20 inch SID

Head and tuberosity

Which structures are located on the proximal radius? Select one: a. Olecranon process and styloid process b. Head and tuberosity c. Head and styloid process d. Olecranon process and tuberosity

improperly erased PSP CR plate

"Ghosting" of the digital image is most often the result of: Select one: a. high SNR and low DQE b. use of an incorrect LUT c. improperly erased PSP CR plate d. manual processing of an image whose signals fall outside the acceptable exposure index range

to open up the joint spaces

A 15 degree cephalic angle is used for an AP projection of the cervical spine. Why? Select one: a. To demonstrate the top three cervical vertebrae b. To open up the joint spaces c. To prevent superimposition of the mandible d. To demonstrate the vertebral arches

pisiform

A 45 degree semisupination oblique, anteroposterior projection of the wrist, would demonstrate the __________ free from superimposition. Select one: a. Navicular b. Pisiform c. Trapezium d. Os magnum

Orthostatic hypotension

A decrease in blood pressure which occurs on suddenly arising from the recumbent position is called: Select one: a. Orthostatic hypotension b. Epistaxis c. Vertigo d. Syncope

ketoacidosis

A diabetic condition with incomplete fat metabolism due to too little insulin and evidenced by mental confusion or diabetic coma is: Select one: a. ketoacidosis b. hypoglycemia c. diabetic shock d. insulin shock

cystic duct, common bile duct

A stone which formed in the gallbladder would travel to the duodenum in what order? Select one: a. cystic duct, common bile duct b. Left hepatic duct, common bile duct, cystic duct c. Cystic duct, common hepatic duct, common bile duct d. None of the above

false imprisonment or battery

A technologist who performs a radiologic exam despite the patient's protests to stop the exam may be guilty of? Select one: a. slander b. false imprisonment or battery c. libel d. invasion of privacy

2200 volts

A transformer has 200 turns on the primary side and 2000 turns on the secondary side. If 220 volts are applied to the primary coil, what is the voltage that will be induced in the secondary coil? Select one: a. 22 volts b. 2200 volts c. 22 kilovolts d. b and c e. none of the above

3.0 A

A transformer has 200 turns on the primary side and 2000 turns on the secondary side. If 30 amperes are applied on the primary side of the transformer, what will be the current on the secondary side? Select one: a. 300 A b. 30 A c. 3.0 A d. 1.5 A e. None of the above

hypovolemic

A type of shock due to low blood volume caused by conditions such as trauma, burns, GI or surgical bleeding and evidenced by weak and rapid pulse rate, cool or clammy skin and increased respirations is called: Select one: a. anaphylactic b. hypovolemic c. cardiogenic d. septic

2% of the SID

According to federal regulations, the congruence or matchup between x-ray field localization light and x-ray field should not vary by more than: Select one: a. 5% of the difference between mA stations b. 10% of the OID c. 10% of the SID d. 2% of the SID

800 mA and 100 ms

According to the law of reciprocity, which set of technical factors should provide near equal density to the factors: 200 mA and 0.4 sec? Select one: a. 100 mA and 0.7 sec b. 400 mA and 0.3 sec c. 800 mA and 100 ms d. 50 mA and 1/5 sec.

decrease the mAs to 8.5 mAs

An AP knee is performed upright at 72 inch SID at 25 mAs, 68 kVp using a 10:1 grid. The resulting intensity of the original exposure is 8.5 mR. If the exam is repeated at a 42 inch SID, what change is best made to maintain near equal density of the resulting image? (Do not consider any changes in collimation, kVp, or grid ratio in your calculations.) Select one: a. increase the mR to 14.6 mR b. no change is needed, maintain the 8.5 mR c. decrease the mAs to 8.5 mAs d. increase the mAs to 73.5 mAs

1, 4, and 6

An AP lumbar spine radiograph is produced using an ion chamber automatic exposure control device (AECD) and the following factors: 400 mA 75 kVp 40 inch SID Center Detector Normal Density If the kVp is increased to 85 and the mA reduced to 100 with all other selections remaining constant, what changes would occur in the repeated exposure? 1. Longer exposure time 2. Shorter exposure time 3. Decreased image density 4. No change in image density 5. Higher Contrast 6. Lower Contrast Select one: a. 1, 4, and 6 b. 1, 3, and 5 c. 2, 4, and 6 d. 2, 3, and 5

2, 4, and 6

An AP thoracic spine radiograph is produced using an ion chamber automatic exposure control device (AECD) and the following factors: 400 mA 65 kVp 42 inch SID Center detector chamber Normal density setting If the mA is increased to 600 and the kVp is increased to 70 kVp with all other selections remaining the same, what changes (from the list below) would occur in the repeat exposure? 1. Longer exposure time 2. Shorter exposure time 3. Decreased image density 4. No change in image density 5. Higher contrast 6. Lower contrast Select one: a. 1, 2, and 5 b. 2, 4, and 6 c. 2, 4, and 5 d. 1, 3, and 6

carina

Another name for the trachea's point of bifurcation is the: Select one: a. Carina b. Cricoid c. Epiglottis d. Thyroid

Adjust technical factors in the image intensifier as part thickness changes.

Automatic brightness stabilization systems or ABS function to: Select one: a. Control the size of the collimated x-ray field. b. Intensify the action of the x-ray as it passes through the image intensifier. c. Adjust technical factors in the image intensifier as part thickness changes. d. Convert electrons into a light image.

100 mA, 0.2 seconds, and 76 kVp

Based on the law of reciprocity for mAs, which set of technical factors should provide near equal density to the factors: 400 mA 0.05 seconds 76 kVp Select one: a. 400 mA, 0.1 seconds, and 66 kVp b. 200 mA, 0.025 seconds, and 76 kVp c. 800 mA, 0.05 seconds, and 86 kVp d. 100 mA, 0.2 seconds, and 76 kVp

1.5

Based on the principles of size distortion or magnification, if an actual object width is 12 cm and the image width of that object on the finished radiograph measures 18 cm, the magnification factor or MF is ____ . Select one: a. 0.7 b. 1.25 cm c. 1.5 d. 2.3 cm

31.411 keV

Barium has a K-shell binding energy of 37.4 keV and an L-shell binding energy of 5.989 keV. During the Photoelectric effect, the energy of the resulting x-ray created by an L-shell filling a K-shell vacancy would be: Select one: a. 43.389 volts b. 43.389 keV c. 31.411 volts d. 31.411 keV

2 mrad per minute; 4 mrad per minute

Besides high level settings, the output radiation intensity for a fluoroscopic tube should be greater than _______ but less than ________ . Select one: a. 2 mrad per minute; 4 mrad per minute b. 5 rad per minute; 10 rad per minute c. 100 mR per minute; 200 mR per minute d. two HVLs; four HVLs

Reduce foreshortening of the femoral neck.

Both lower extremities should be medially rotated about 15 degrees for an AP pelvis projection to: Select one: a. Reduce magnification of the hip joint. b. Reduce foreshortening of the femoral neck. c. Aid in immobilization of the patient to reduce motion blur. d. Realign potentially fractured bone ends and reduce soft tissue damage.

Fomites

Contaminated inanimate objects capable of transmitting disease are called: Select one: a. Vectors b. Hosts c. Vehicles d. Fomites

Diet, cathartics, suppositories, or enemas

Common preparation for the examination of the intestinal tract may include: Select one: a. Diet, exercise, suppositories, or enemas b. Diet, jogging, suppositories, or fasting c. Diet, cathartics, drip I.V. injections d. Diet, cathartics, suppositories, or enemas

1.03

Calculate the MF or magnification factor for an image produced with an SID of 72 inches and an OID of 2 inches. MF equals: Select one: a. 36 inches b. 0.03 c. 0.97 inches d. 1.03

7 mAs

Calculate the mAs when an mA of 200 and an exposure time of 35 milliseconds is used. The mAs equals: Select one: a. 700 mAs b. 70 mAs c. 7 mAs d. 0.7 mAs

blunt trauma to the chest

Cardiac tamponade would likely be caused by: Select one: a. blunt trauma to the chest b. reaction to certain medications c. radiation sequela d. pulmonary edema

Radiation dose, number of cells surviving

Cell survival curves show the relationship between _____ and the proportion of _______. Select one: a. Mitosis, Apoptosis b. Radiation dose, number of cells surviving c. Direct effects, indirection action of radiation dose d. RBE, LET

creasing or bending the film prior to processing

Crescent shaped black artifacts on a conventionally wet processed radiograph may be commonly caused by: Select one: a. static electricity b. creasing or bending the film prior to processing c. low humidity levels in the darkroom d. improper development

Luminescence

Crystals such as lithium fluoride, calcium fluoride and calcium sulfate formed into chips represent a detection method based on this principle where energy is first stored then released as light when heated. Select one: a. Ionization chamber b. Film badge c. Scintillation d. Luminescence

I, II, and III

Employee dosimetry reports based on governmental regulations must list the following data: I. current exposure II. daily exposure III. cummulative quarterly exposure IV. infrared radiation exposure to the skin Select one: a. I and II b. I, II, and III c. I and III d. II, III, and IV

1, 2, and 3

Factors that determine the speed of medical intensifying screens include: 1. Phosphor type 2. Phosphor thickness or size 3. Absence or presence of dyes in the active layer 4. Presence of lead foil layers in the cassette Select one: a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1, 2, and 3 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

6 feet

Federal regulations require mobile or portable x-ray units have an exposure cord of not less than _______. Select one: a. 40 inches or 100 cm b. 6 feet c. 2% of the SID d. 12 inches or 30 cm

15 inches or 38 cm

Federal regulations require that a fixed fluoroscopic unit NOT have a source to table-top distance of less than: Select one: a. 12 inches or 30 cm b. 15 inches or 38 cm c. 20 inches or 52 cm d. 25 inches or 64 cm

increase

Filtration amounts increase, the average energy (quality) of the beam should _________ . Select one: a. Remain unchanged b. Increase c. Decrease

medial

For a lateral radiograph of the fifth digit, which surface of the finger is in contact with the cassette? Select one: a. Palmar b. Volar c. Medial d. Lateral

1.0 mm Al equivalent

General purpose x-ray tubes typically have an inherent filtration of: Select one: a. 0.10 mm aluminum (Al) equivalent b. 0.15 mm Al equivalent c. 1.0 mm Al equivalent d. 2.5 mm Al equivalent

5

Gonadal shielding should be used during diagnostic radiiography procedures when the reproductive organs are within approximately ______ cm of the primary beam. Select one: a. 2 b. 5 c. 8 d. 10

Within 2.5 cm medial to the ASIS

Gonadal shields used for attenuation of the primary beam for the female must be placed ________ to insure proper shielding of the femal gonads. Select one: a. At the level of the pubic symphysis b. Within 2.5 cm medial to the ASIS c. Over the entire pelvis d. From the iliac crest to the ASIS level

The greater the tomographic angle, the thinner the section

How is the thickness of the tomographic section related to the tomographic angle? Select one: a. The greater the tomographic angle, the thicker the section b. The greater the tomographic angle, the thinner the section c. The smaller the tomographic angle, the thinner the section d. The tomographic angle is unrelated to section thickness

From the prone position, rotate the hand radial side up.

How should the hand be positioned for the PA medial oblique projection of the hand? Select one: a. From the prone position, rotate the hand ulnar side up. b. From the prone position, rotate the hand radial side up. c. From the supine position, rotate the hand ulnar side up. d. From the supine position, rotate the hand radial side up.

By keeping the drainage set below the level of the chest

How should the radiographer handle a water-sealed pleural drainage set when transporting a patient with a chest tube in place? Select one: a. By disconnecting the drainage set before transport b. By keeping the drainage set above the level of the chest c. By keeping the drainage set at the level of the chest d. By keeping the drainage set below the level of the chest

200 rad (2 Gy)

Human reproductive (germ) cells are relatively radiosensitive and temporary sterilization can occur at doses of _____ which is equal to _____ . Select one: a. 50 rad (0.5 Gy) b. 200 rad (2 Gy) c. 500 rad (5 Gy) d. 800 rad (8Gy)

3.0 volts

If a current of 0.5 amperes passes through a conductor that has a resistance of 6 ohms, then what is the voltage across the conductor? Select one: a. 12.0 volts b. 6.5 volts c. 5.5 volts d. 3.0 volts e. None of the above

0%

If a healthy population of humans was exposed to a quick whole-body dose of 1200 rad and then given vigorous medical support, approximately what percentage would be expected to survive? Select one: a. 0% b. 40% c. 75% d. Near 100%

Negative wave of AC is changed into a second positive wave

In a full wave rectification circuit, the: Select one: a. Negative wave of AC is suppressed b. Positive wave of AC is suppressed c. Negative wave of AC is changed into a second positive wave d. Positive wave of AC is changed into a second negative wave

1, 2, and 3

In addition to using a grid, other techniques or devices that will increase radiographic contrast include: 1. collimator 2. air gap technique 3. compensating filter Select one: a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

1 and 3

In the lateral radiograph of the scapula, the: 1. Vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed 2. Acromion and coracoid process are superimposed 3. Patient may be more comfortably radiographed in the erect position Select one: a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3

Long axis of the lower leg

In the semi-axial anteroposterior projection (Beclere) of the knee, the CR is directed at a right angle to the: Select one: a. Femoropatellar articulation b. Long axis of the lower leg c. Base of the patella d. None of the above

central nervous system

In total body irradiation, the radiation syndrome which results most often in death due to radiation doses above 50 Gy is the ______ syndrome. Select one: a. hematologic b. bone marrow c. gastrointestinal d. central nervous system

2 and 3 only

Medial oblique of the knee demonstrates: 1. Medial condyles and epicondyles 2. Fibular head and neck free of superimposition. 3. Lateral condyles and epicondyles Select one: a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1 and 2 only e. 2 and 3 only

250 kVp x-rays

Of the following types of ionizing radiation, which has the lowest LET: Select one: a. fast neutrons b. alpha particles c. 250 kVp x-rays d. beta particles

Respondeat superior

Of the following, which phrase indicates a legal doctrine which assigns responsibility for actions in the workplace? Select one: a. Everyone can be a good Samaritan. b. Esse quam videra. c. Que pasa. d. Respondeat superior

higher kVp settings

Of the following, which results in an increase of the HVL? Select one: a. smaller focal spot size b. higher kVp settings c. decreased atomic number of the tissue d. all of the above

laser light

Radiation dosimeters using the optically stimulated luminescence process contain a detector that is stimulated by: Select one: a. white light b. laser light c. heat d. certain chemicals

1 and 2 only

Signs and symptoms associated with approaching diabetic coma is/are: 1. severe thirst 2. fruity smelling breath 3. quick onset of symptoms Select one: a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

1 and 2 only

Size distortion will increase when: 1. object to image distance is increased 2. source to image disatnce is decreased 3. the IF for the screen is increased Select one: a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

medical diagnostic and therapeutic exams

The man-made radiation source which contributes most to the average American's 360 mrem of irradiation every year whole body dose is: Select one: a. medical diagnostic and therapeutic exams b. exposure from nuclear power plants c. cardiac pacemakers d. televisions and CRTs

T2-3 interspace

The manubrial notch is approximately at the same level as the: Select one: a. Fifth thoracic vertebra b. T2-3 interspace c. T4-5 interspace d. Costal

100 mA, 0.5 sec.

The set of exposure factors below produced an "optimum" image in terms of optical density. 200 mA 0.25 sec. 72 kVp 42 inch SID 8:1 grid 200 speed image receptor Which of the following mA and exposure time combinations would produce a similar image density if a new exposure is made with these changes? 62 kVp 42 inch SID Non-grid 100 speed image receptor Select one: a. 100 mA, 0.5 sec. b. 200 mA, 0.5 sec. c. 400 mA, 1 sec. d. 100 mA, 1 sec.

kVp

The technical factor that determines the potential difference or EMF between the cathode and anode thereby controlling the kinetic energy of the projectile electrons is: Select one: a. kVp b. mA c. Seconds d. keV

higher SNR

To produce less noise and greater spatial resolution, the intensity of photons reaching the digital detector should be kept at an acceptable level. This is referred to as a(an): Select one: a. low DQE b. higher SNR c. lower SNR d. optimum LUT

Epiglottis

Tracheostomies are performed just below the ring of cartilage forming the inferior margin of the larynx and the area known as the: Select one: a. Carina b. Cricoid c. Epiglottis d. Thyroiod

downside

Using the attached image, if the patient is supine, would it demonstrate the anatomy of the side that is up or the side that is down? http://lenoircc.mrooms3.net/file.php/4861/Images/Simulated_Registries/SIM_1/161-21.jpg (pic not working) Select one: a. Upside b. Downside

Pneumothorax

What is the condition where free air enters the pleural cavity? Select one: a. Pleurisy b. Pleural effusion c. Pneumothorax d. Pneumonia

B

Which figure demonstrates the apophyseal joints? (pic not working) Select one: a. A b. B c. C

1 & 3 only

Which of the following methods will demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa? 1. Beclere method 2. Settegast method 3. Camp-Coventry method Select one: a. 1 & 2 only b. 1 & 3 only c. 2 & 3 only d. 1, 2, & 3

Intestinal tract perforation

A barium sulfate suspension should not be used for a colon examination in a patient with suspected: Select one: a. Rectal bleeding b. Intestinal tract perforation c. Vomiting d. Polyps

60 - 70, 100 - 110

A reasonable amount of automatic processor replenishment for a 14 x 17 inch radiograph is ______ milliliters of developer solution and _____ milliliters of fixer solution. Select one: a. 10 - 20, 40 -50 b. 60 - 70, 100 - 110 c. 93 - 98, 5 - 10 d. 125 - 170, 93 - 98

Increase the mAs to 80

An acceptable radiograph of the cervical spine is performed at 20 mAs, 74 kVp and a 36 inch SID. The intensity of the original exposure is 10 mR. If the exam is repeated at a 72 inch SID, what change is best made to maintain near equal density of the resulting image. (Do not conside changes in collimation or grid versus nongrid in your calculations). Select one: a. Reduce the mR to 2.5 b. Reduce the mAs to 2.5 c. Increase the mR to 40 d. Increase the mAs to 80

Initial and date any corrections which should be made in permanent ink.

An accepted practice in medical charting after the record has already been completed would be: Select one: a. Omissions or errors should be erased or corrected in pencil. b. Circle any error and place a "post-it" note on the page. c. Initial and date any corrections which should be made in permanent ink. d. Destroy the page where the error occurs and replace with a new page.

Cystic duct

In the attached diagram, Letter F is the: Select one: a. Sphincter of Oddi b. Cystic duct Correct c. Right hepatic duct d. Left hepatic duct e. Common bile duct

Classical scattering has no change in wavelenght (energy of the photon).

Classical scattering is unlike Compton scattering in that: Select one: a. Classical scattering has no change in x-ray direction. b. Compton scattering has no change in x-ray direction. c. Classical scattering has no change in wavelenght (energy of the photon). d. Compton scattering has no change in wavelenght (energy of the photon).

Sphincter of Oddi

In the attached diagram, Letter I is the: Select one: a. Right hepatic duct b. Left hepatic duct c. Sphincter of Oddi d. Cystic duct e. Common bile duct

Gastric or bowel mucosa

Double contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize: Select one: a. Position of the organ b. Size and shape of the organ c. Diverticula d. Gastric or bowel mucosa

Entrance roller assembly

During automatic processing, the activation of the developer replenishment pump microswitch is accomplished when the film comes in contact with the: Select one: a. Crossover assembly between fixer and wash tanks b. Guideshoes located between developer and fixer tanks c. Entrance roller assembly d. Developer squeegee assembly

Compensate for changes in patient part/thickness

During fluoroscopic procedures, the automatic brightness control (ABC) funtions to: Select one: a. Increase resolution in the image b. Decrease noise in the image c. Compensate for changes in patient part/thickness d. Change in focal point, thus magnifying the image

pulmonary edema

For a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), allowing an IV infusion to run too fast could result in: Select one: a. Pneumothorax b. Pulmonary edema c. Ischemic stroke d. Legg-Perthes disease

pulmonary edema

For a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), allowing the IV infusion to run too fast could result in: Select one: a. pneumothorax b. ischemic stroke c. Legg-Perthes disease d. pulmonary edema

Reduces to 1/4

If the distance between two magnetic poles is doubled, what does this do to the magnetic force between the two poles? Select one: a. Doubles b. Quadruples c. Halves d. Reduces to 1/4 e. Reduces to 1/8

3, 2, then 1

If the following series of radiologic exams are to be performed on the same patient, in what order should they be scheduled to insure the best results? 1. UGI 2. BE 3. IVU Select one: a. 1, 2, then 3 b. 2, 3, then 1 c. 3, 1, then 2 d. 3, 2, then 1

Outlet, inferior pelvic bones

The AP projection in which the CR is directed 35-40 degrees cephalic and enters 1-2 inches distal to the superior border of the pubic symphysis is the ________ projection and this projection best demonstrates _________ . Select one: a. Inlet, inferior pelvic bones b. Inlet, pelvic ring c. Outlet, inferior pelvic bones d. Outlet, pelvic ring

renal function

The BUN and creatinine levels in a patient's blood will provide an indication of what physiologic function? Select one: a. liver function b. renal function c. coagulation factor d. pulmonary function

good body mechanics

The practice of protecting the body from injury due to lifting or movement is called: Select one: a. standard precautions b. HIPAA c. good body mechanics d. OSHA

triage

The process of identifying victims, determining the extent of their injuries and prioritizing their treatment when time, personnel and facilities are limited is called: Select one: a. diagnosis b. situation review c. disaster critique d. triage

50 mSv

The NCRP annual dose limit for occupational exposure is set at: Select one: a. 50 mSv b. 10 mSv multiplied by your age c. 150 mSv d. 500 mSv

RA

The Norgaard Method is used for patients with: Select one: a. GERD b. RA c. Situs inversus d. HH

no less than 30 cm or 12 inches

The SSD for any x-ray tube (fluoroscopic included) should be: Select one: a. greater than 3% of the SID b. at least 2 mm of lead equivalency c. no less than 30 cm or 12 inches d. less than 100 mR per minute at 1 meter

Direct action

The action in which ionizing radiation interactions with the master DNA molecule of an atom, and is more likely to occur with high-LET radiation is: Select one: a. Free radical formation b. Indirect action c. Direct action d. RBE

1 and 2 only

The amount of scatter radiation increase with: 1. an increase in patient thickness 2. a larger field size 3. an increase in atomic number of the tissue Select one: a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 1, 2, and 3 d. 2 and 3 only

a shorter SID is used and larger field sizes are necessary

The anode heel effect has greatest application in improving image quality when: Select one: a. the part to be radiographed has uniform thickness and part density b. smaller receptor sizes such a 8 x 10 inches are utilized c. OID is more than 6 inches d. a shorter SID is used and larger field sizes are necessary

wire mesh

The quality assurance test tool which evaluates film screen contact is the: Select one: a. spinning top b. pin hole camera c. wire mesh d. resolution grid

76

The attached atom is a stable, electrically neutral atom. How many neutrons are there in this atom? http://lenoircc.mrooms3.net/file.php/4861/Images/Simulated_Registries/SIM_1/atom.jpg - (picture doesn't work) Select one: a. 53 b. 76 c. 129 d. 182 e. Can not be determined from the information given.

medial oblique elbow

The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions? Select one: a. Scapular Y b. AP Scapula c. Medial oblique elbow d. Lateral oblique elbow

spatial distortion

The principle of distortion which can be defined as the misrepresentation of the three-dimensional relationship of the structures within the body where overlying structures are shown as separated is called: Select one: a. image noise b. spatial distortion c. elongation d. foreshortening

0.5 mm of Al

The performance recommendations for an x-ray tube operating below 50 kVp is total filtration at a level of: Select one: a. 3.5 mm of Al b. 2.5 mm of Al c. 1.5 mm of Al d. 0.5 mm of Al

Spina bifida

The Kite method is done to demonstrate what congenital abnormality? Select one: a. Spina bifida b. Maran's syndrome c. Talipes equinavarous d. Arthritis

Splenic flexure

The LAO position of the large bowel is used to "open up" and best demonstrate which of the following? Select one: a. Splenic flexure b. Hepatic flexure c. Sigmoid colon d. Ileocecal valve

ALARA

The philosophy whereby radiation protection is applied to maintain radiation doses at a level which considers limitation of dose and the degree of results of the radiation procedures is called: Select one: a. Linear threshold dose b. sublethal dose c. ALARA d. ICRP

Toe

The portion of the characteristic curve on the graph that represents the extremely small exposures that result from an exam or sensitometric exposure to the film is called the _____ . Select one: a. Toe b. Shoulder c. Base plus fog d. Straight line portion

30 compressions, 2 breaths

The correct cycle of chest compressions and ventilation for one person performing CPR on an adult would be: Select one: a. 5 compressions, 1 breath b. 5 compressions, 2 breaths c. 15 compressions, 1 breath d. 30 compressions, 2 breaths

doubling

The dose of radiation that will produce twice the frequency of genetic mutations as would have been observed without the radiation is the _______ dose. Select one: a. genetically significant b. doubling c. LD 50/30 d. Hazard induction

digital technology can capture a much wider range of exposures to create the image

The dynamic range of CR or indirect digital radiography compared to the film latitude of conventional film screen combinations is such that: Select one: a. digital technology can capture a much wider range of exposures to create the image b. digital technology has much narrower exposure latitude c. film screen combinations have a much wider exposure latitude d. film screen combinations can detect radiation and exhibit optical density at a much lower level than digital radiography

Workload (W)

The quantity that describes radiation output within a week's use of a diagnostic radiographic unit is its: Select one: a. Occupancy Factor (T) b. Use Factor (U) c. Workload (W) d. Control area

is higher for high-LET radiation than for low-LET radiation.

The relative biological effectiveness or RBE for different types of ionizing radiation: Select one: a. has a value of 1 to 100. b. is a ratio of effects needed to produce a given dose. c. is higher for high-LET radiation than for low-LET radiation. d. differs depending upon the desired effect.

Characteristic and Bremsstrahlung

The two types of target interactions between projectile electrons and atoms of the tungsten target material that produce x-ray photons are ________ x-ray productions. Select one: a. Infared and characteristic b. Characteristic and Bremsstrahlung c. Brems and centripetal d. Centrifugal and infrared

Pleural effusion

What is the name of the condition where fluid enters the pleural cavity? Select one: a. Pleurisy b. Pleural effusion c. Pneumothorax d. Pneumonia

unchanged, use the same mAs

A 72 inch SID is employed for a lateral cervical spine done non-grid. If the image is repeated, but with a decrease in SID to 36 inches and use an 8:1 grid, the compensation in radiographic exposure selection to maintain needed image density should be: Select one: a. 1/2 the mAs b. 100% increase in mAs c. unchanged, use the same mAs d. 200% increase in kVp

1, 2, and 4

A CR reader utilizes which of the following in producing the digital image signal? 1. photomultiplier tube 2. laser beam 3. charged coupled device 4. light channeling guide Select one: a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 2, 3, and 4 c. 1, 2, and 4 d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

ascites

A condition that leads to an abnormal collection of fluid in the abdominal cavity is: Select one: a. Ascites b. Peritonitis c. Pleuritis d. Ileus

Negative

A contrast agent which has a decreased atomic number and takes away from body part density; thereby showing up as a blacker area on the film image is termed as a(an): Select one: a. Non-ionic b. Ionic c. Positive d. Negative

parallel to the floor

A flat and upright abdomen is requested on an acutely ill patient to demonstrate the presence of air-fluid levels. Due to the patient's condition, the x-ray table can be tilted upright only 70 degrees (rather than the desired 90 degrees). How should the CR be directed? Select one: a. Perpendicular to the film. b. Parallel to the floor. c. 20 degrees caudal d. 20 degrees cephalic

Parallel to the floor

A flat and upright abdomen is requested on an acutely ill patient, to demonstrate the presence of air-fluid levels. Due to the patient's condition, the x-ray table can be tilted upright only 70 degrees (rather than the desired 90 degrees). How should the CR be directed? Select one: a. Perpendicular to the film b. Parallel to the floor c. 20 degrees caudad d. 20 degrees cephalad

AP or PA and lateral

A foreign body within the soft tissues of an extremity requires which of the following projections> Select one: a. AP or PA and lateral b. Both obliques c. Tangential and lateral views d. High kVp imaging

1 and 2 only

A lateral projection of the lumbar spine demonstrates which of the following: 1. Intervertebral disc spaces 2. Intervertebral foramina 3. Articular facets Select one: a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Crossover or parallax effect

A loss of image sharpness occurs when light from the screens passes through the film base to the other film emulsion and deposits a magnified and less sharp image. This occurence is called _____ . Select one: a. Crossover or parallax effect b. Narrow exposure latitude c. Capturing a grid d. Grid cutoff

vector

A mode of transmission of microorganisms where a carrier such as an insect transmits the infection is called a(an): Select one: a. fomite b. vector c. vehicle d. microbial dilution

is acquired during hospitalization

A nosocomial infection is one that: Select one: a. interferes with sleep patterns b. is acquired during hospitalization c. occurs primarily in young children d. requires isolation in order to treat it

Right lateral decubitus chest

A patient entered the ER with possible right hemothorax. The patient is unable to stand or sit erect. Which of the following projections would best demonstrate this pathology. Select one: a. Apical lordotic b. Ventral decubitus chest c. Left lateral ducubitus chest d. Right lateral decubitus chest

blood pressure reading of over 140 mm Hg systolic

A patient suffering from chronic hypertension should demonstrate: Select one: a. elevated body temperature of 103 degrees Fahrenheit or more. b. blood pressure reading of over 140 mm Hg systolic c. respirations of less than 12 breaths per minute d. pulse rate of less than 55 beats per minute

Pale, cool, clammy skin

A patient who is diaphoretic has: Select one: a. Pale, cool, clammy skin b. Hot, dry skin c. Dilated pupils d. Warm, moist skin

Reduce the time the patient is exposed where exposure = exposure rate x time

A primary action of dose limitation which can be applied by the technologist is: Select one: a. Reduce the time the patient is exposed where exposure = exposure rate x time b. Use a longer SID whenever possible to reduce personnel exposure c. Decrease the added filtration in place in the x-ray tube collimator d. A and B e. B and C

Cataract formation

A radiation exposure of 1000 rems or greater to the lens of the eye will in almost every instance result in: Select one: a. Glaucoma b. Cataract formation c. Necrosis of the optic nerve d. Color blindness

An increase of exposure equal to about a doubling of the density (mAs).

An increase in log relative exposure from 0.3 to 0.6 corresponds to: Select one: a. A decrease in slope and corresponding decrease in film speed. b. An increase of exposure equal to about a doubling of the density (mAs). c. An increase in density at the level of 3.0 or greater. d. Clear film with a corresponding density of 0.25 to 0.5

elevated heart rate with pulse rate over 120 beats per minute

An individual with respiratory distress due to airway obstruction will usually exhibit: Select one: a. inability to speak b. elevated heart rate with pulse rate over 120 beats per minute c. atrial fibrillation d. coma or petit mal seizures

Setting up a magnetic attraction that rotates the anode disk

An induction motor and stator serve the x-ray tube by: Select one: a. Producing free electrons b. Focusing the electron cloud or stream onto the target c. Opening and closing the window d. Setting up a magnetic attraction that rotates the anode disk

High kVp and high mA

An ion chamber AECD is used in performing overhead GI radiographs. In order to reduce the risk of perisaltic motion blur but maintain adequate density, one should employ: Select one: a. Shorter Back-up time b. Low kVp and low mA c. High kVp and high mA d. Higher plus density selections

Thermal radiation

Approximately 99 percent of the kinetic energy of the high-speed electron stream is converted to ______ when it strikes the target on the anode. Select one: a. X-radiation b. Gamma radiation c. Thermal radiation d. Light waves

1 and 2 only

As a general rule, a grid is employed when: 1. body part thickness exceeds 10 cm 2. kVp is 70 or above 3. a cassette size of 10 x 12 inches or more is used Select one: a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 1 and 2 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Narrower

As film contrast (differences between shades of black, white, and grays) becomes higher contrast; film latitude or the range of exposures that will produce an acceptable image will be: Select one: a. Wider b. Narrower c. Unchanged d. Increased by the inverse squared

Decreases

As the oxygen content of the cell decreases, cell sensitivity to irradiation: Select one: a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remain unchanged

Reduce foreshortening of the femoral neck

Both lower extremities should be medially rotated about 15 degrees from an AP pelvis projection to: Select one: a. Reduce magnification of the hip joint b. Reduce foreshortening of the femoral neck c. Aid in immobilization of the patient to reduce motion blur d. Realign potentially fractured bone ends and reduce soft tissue damage

1, 2, and 3

Breast shields are recommended for young females to reduce exposure during which of the following examinations? 1. Humerus 2. Shoulder 3. Thoracic spine and scolosis series 4. PA chest Select one: a. 1 and 2 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 2, 3, and 4 d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Angled 30 - 35 degrees cephalad

For an AP projection of the L5 - S1 joint space, the CR is: Select one: a. Angled 7 - 10 degrees caudad b. Perpendicular to the film c. Angled 25 degrees caudad d. Angled 30 - 35 degrees cephalad

4,590

How many heat units are generated by a three-phase, six pulse generator operting at 85 kVp, 100 mA, for 0.4 seconds? Select one: a. 3,000 b. 3,400 c. 4,590 d. 4,794

A line between the occlusal plane and the mastiod tip is perpendicular to the IR

In order to demonstrate the first two cervical vertebrae in the AP position, the patient is positioned so that: Select one: a. The acanthiomeatal line is perpendicular to the IR b. The infraorbitomeatal line is perpendicular to the IR c. A line between the mentum and the mastoid tip is perpendicular to the IR d. A line between the occlusal plane and the mastiod tip is perpendicular to the IR

Toward the affected side

In order to demonstrate the glenoid fossa in profile, the patient is placed in an AP recumbent position and obliqued 45 degrees. Select one: a. Toward the affected side b. Away from the affected side c. With the arm in the anatomical position d. With the arm in external rotation

Central ray is directed 15 to 20 degrees cephalic

In order to demonstrate the pulmonary apices with the patient in the supine position, the: Select one: a. Central ray is directed 15 to 20 degrees cephalic b. Central ray is directed 15 to 20 degrees caudad c. Exposure is made on full exhalation d. Patient's shoulders are rolled backward

Low-LET radiation

In terms of Linear Energy Transfer (LET), x-rays and gamma rays, are considered ____: Select one: a. Low-LET radiation b. High-LET radiation c. Non-ionizing radiation d. High keV/mm

occipital bone

In the AP axial position of the skull, the central ray is directed 30 degrees caudal to the orbitomeatal line (OML) and passes between the external auditory meatuses, which of the following anatomical structures is best demonstrated: Select one: a. Frontal bone b. Facial bones c. Temporal bone d. Occipital bone

Occipital bone

In the AP axial position of the skull, the central ray is directed 30 degrees caudal to the orbitomeatal line (OML) and passess between the external auditory meatuses, which of the following anatomical structures is best demonstrated? Select one: a. Frontal bone b. Facial bones c. Temporal bones d. Occipital bone

right hepatic duct

In the attached diagram, Letter B is the: Select one: a. Sphincter of Oddi b. Cystic duct c. Common bile duct d. Left hepatic duct e. Right hepatic duct

Left hepatic duct

In the attached diagram, Letter C is the: Select one: a. Left hepatic duct b. Sphincter of Oddi c. Cystic duct d. Common bile duct e. Right hepatic duct

Common bile duct

In the attached diagram, Letter E is the: Select one: a. Common bile duct b. Right hepatic duct c. Sphincter of Oddi d. Cystic duct e. Left hepatic duct

vertebral border

In the attached image, # 9 represents: Select one: a. Axillary border b. Vertebral border Correct c. Inferior angle d. Superior angle (missing picture 22a)

corocoid process

In the attached image, #2 represents: Select one: a. Acromion process b. Lateral angle c. Corocoid process d. Acromioclavicular joint (missing picture 22a)

emphysema

In which of the following pathologic conditions should the technologist decrease normal exposure factors to insure appropriate image density? Select one: a. pulmonary edema b. Ascites c. pleural effusion d. emphysema

Plantodorsal axial projection of the os calcis

In which of the following positions/projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized? Select one: a. Dorsoplantar projection of the foot b. Plantodorsal axial projection of the os calcis c. Medial oblique position of the foot d. Lateral foot

58-year-old female relative of the patient

It is necessary to immobilize a patient during a radiographic procedure. Which of the following would be the most suitable person to hold the patient during the x-ray exposure? Select one: a. 18-year-old brother of the patient b. 20-year-old female technologist c. 40-year-old male technologist d. 58-year-old female relative of the patient e. 30-year-old hospital orderly

1 mSv/0.1 rem

The effective annual dose limit recommendation for radiology students (education or training) is: Select one: a. 1 mSv/0.1 rem b. 50 mSv/5 rem c. 0.5 mSv/0.05 rem d. 10 mSv/1 rem

3-5 amps and 10-12 volts

The electrical current applied to the filament should be within the range of: Select one: a. 3-5 amps and 10-12 volts b. 3-5 mA and 10-12 kVp c. 25 to 1000 amps and 40 to 150 volts d. 25 to 1000 mA and 10-12 kVp

300 to 400 rems

The estimated mean lethal dose (LD50/30) which results in death for 50% of those irradiated in 30 days is estimated to be approximately: Select one: a. 5 to 10 mrems b. 100 to 200 mrems c. 30 to 40 mrems d. 300 to 400 rems

negligence

The failure of the radiographer to provide reasonable care or caution is a description of: Select one: a. assault b. negligence c. libel d. battery

Latent

The first response stage of radiation sickness that occurs after a whole-body absorbed dose of 1 Gy (100 rads) or more is the _______ stage or period. Select one: a. Prodromal b. Latent c. Manifest d. Respiratory distress

be of a dead man type

The fluoroscopic exposure switch should: Select one: a. terminate the exposure if high level or boost fluoro is selected b. be of a dead man type c. allow for a minimum of 6 feet or 2 meters between tube and operator d. operate at a reproducibility level of 10%

Effective focal spot

The focal spot size measured directly under the anode target and projected onto the patient and image receptor is referred to as the: Select one: a. Space charge b. Effective focal spot c. Actual focal spot d. Anode heel

1 only

The following is a true statement of the attached image: 1. Demonstrates a posterior view of the scapula 2. Demonstrates an anterior view of the scapula 3. Demonstrates it's costal surface 4. Demonstrates it's sternal articular surface 22a (pic not working) Select one: a. 1 only Correct b. 2 only c. 1 & 3 only d. 2 & 4 only

An indirect action

The formation of free radicals that can occur when ionizing radiation interacts with water molecules in the human body is considered: Select one: a. Common water b. Heavy water c. An indirect action d. A direct action

focused

The grid design that matches the divergence of the beam so that lead strips are scanted from perpendicular as they move from the center of the grid is the _____ grid. Select one: a. linear b. cross hatch or criss cross c. focused d. parallel

grid focusing range

The ideal SID to prevent excessive grid cut-off in the use of a focused grid is referred to as: Select one: a. grid efficiency b. grid frequency c. grid focusing range d. grid clean up

Emulsion

The layer of radiographic film which converts x-ray or light photons into a latent image is the _______ . Select one: a. Base b. Superlayer c. Activator d. Emulsion

45 degrees

The maximum tomographic angle used in tomography is approximately: Select one: a. 6 degrees b. 10 inches c. 10 degrees d. 45 degrees e. 45 inches

nasal cannula

The method of oxygen therapy administration which used the lowest rate usually between 1 and 6 liters per minute is: Select one: a. face mask b. mechanical respirator c. nasal cannula d. deep suctioning

Relationship of the pedicle and the lumbar body.

The obliquity used to demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints of the lumbar spine is 45 degrees. When evaluating the resultant image, how is the correctness of the obliquity determined? Select one: a. Relationship of the pedicle and the lumbar body. b. Space between adjacent vertebral bodies. c. Distance between the ear and tip of the front leg of the "Scottie Dog". d. Amount of curve in the lumbar spine.

RPO

The patient position used to best demonstrate the splenic flexure is: Select one: a. LPO b. PA c. RPO d. RAO

decrease the mAs by a factor of 1/2

The technique chart calls for a average size PA hand technique of 56 kVp, 5 mAs, 40 inch SID, and 100 speed intensifying screen. The only cassette available is a 200 speed screen. What technique change is needed to compensate for this change? Select one: a. no change is needed, film speed remains the same b. increase the mAs by a factor of 2 c. decrease the mAs by a factor of 1/2 d. decrease the kVp by a factor of 1/2

defamation

The unintentional tort that is described as actions which harm the reputation of an individual is termed: Select one: a. invasion of privacy b. assault c. false imprisonment d. defamation

Sievert

The unit of measurement of radiation which measures biological effects on the human body, and equals 100 Rem when stated in the SI system would be called the ________ . Select one: a. Roentgen b. Kerma c. SI d. Sievert

2% of the SID setting

The x-ray field to collimator congruence based on performance recommendations should operate within: Select one: a. 1 inch of the collimator settings b. 2% of the SID setting c. 10% linearity d. 5% reproducibility

photelectric effect

The x-ray interaction with matter that results in ionization of the atom and a characteristic x-ray photon with energy dependent on the atomic number of the atom in which the interaction is occurring is called: Select one: a. pair production b. Rayleigh scattering c. photelectric effect d. Compton effect

20 kW

What is the power rating for a three-phase x-ray tube that operates at 100 kVp and 200 mA? Select one: a. 20,000 kW b. 2,000 kW c. 200 kW d. 20 kW e. 2 kW

Petrous pyramids are projected in the lower half of the maxillary sinus.

What is the primary evaluation criteria for the modified waters projection? Select one: a. Petrous pyramids fill the orbits. b. Petrous pyramids fill the lower 1/3 of the orbits. c. Petrous pyramids are projected in the lower half of the maxillary sinus. d. Petrous pyramids are projected at the infraorbital rim.

maintain the position of the drainage bag lower than the bladder

What precaution must be taken when dealing with a patient with a Foley catheter in place? Select one: a. disconnect the drainage bag from the catheter b. maintain the position of the drainage bag lower than the bladder c. maintain the position of the drainage bag higher than the bladder d. maintain the position of the drainage bag level with the bladder

Sphenoid effusion

What radiographic sign within the skull may indicate a basilar skull fracture as seen on the lateral projection? Select one: a. Maxillary effusion b. Sphenoid effusion c. Frontal effusion d. Ethmoid effusion

Right lateral Decubitus

What specific lateral decubitus would be performed if a pneumothorax is suspected in the left lungs? Select one: a. Left lateral decubitus b. Right lateral Decubitus c. Dorsal decubitus d. Ventral decubitus

Increases

When cell poliferation rate increases, cellular radiosensitivity: Select one: a. Increases b. Remains unchanged c. and metabolism usually decreases. d. Decreases

The ionized atom has a positive charge.

When ionization occurs due to the loss of an electron, which of the following is true? Select one: a. The ionized atom has a negative charge. b. The ionized atom has a positive charge. c. The lost electron has a positive charge. d. The lost electron has a neutral charge. e. The electron is destroyed.

45-60 degree LAO

When performing a PA scapular Y on the left shoulder, a ______ degree rotation is helpful in positioning the scapula in a lateral position. Select one: a. 25-30 degree LPO b. 25-30 degree RAO c. 45-60 degree RAO d. 45-60 degree LAO

55 degrees

When performing the modified waters projection, the OML forms a ______ angle with the IR. Select one: a. 37 degrees b. 55 degrees c. 47 degrees d. 15 degrees

Scaphoid, lunate, pisiform, and triquetrum.

Which bones are located in the proxima row of the wrist? Select one: a. Scaphoid, lunate, capitate, and hamate. b. Scaphoid, lunate, pisiform, and triquetrum. c. Trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, and hamate. d. Trapezium, trapezoid, pisiform, and triquetrum.

Radial notch, olecranon process, and coronoid process

Which bony structures are located on the proximal end of the ulna? Select one: a. Radial notch, styloid process, and ulnar head. b. Radial head, olecranon process, and ulnar head. c. Radial head, styloid process, and coronoid process. d. Radial notch, olecranon process, and coronoid process

small pixel size, high pixel matrix numbers and smaller imaging detector

Which of the following conditions should produce the highest spatial resolution (also referred to as MTF or modulation transfer function) on the completted digital image? Select one: a. large pixel size, high pixel matrix numbers and larger imaging detector b. small pixel size, high pixel matrix numbers and larger imaging detector c. small pixel size, low pixel matrix numbers and smaller imaging detector d. small pixel size, high pixel matrix numbers and smaller imaging detector

high kVp, low contrast scale, high photon energy

Which of the following correctly identifies the relationship between kVp, contrast scale, and x-ray photon energy? Select one: a. high kVp, low contrast scale, high photon energy b. low kVp, low contrast scale, low photon energy c. high kVp, high contrast scale, low photon energy d. low kVp, high contrast scale, high photon energy

compensatory filter

Which of the following devices is most helpful when radiographing an anatomical part with variations in thickness? Select one: a. crossed grid b. adjustable collimators c. low kVp techniques d. compensatory filter

10 cm

Which of the following diameters of input phosphor size selected for a magnified image will result in the most magnified fluoro image? Select one: a. 25 cm b. 17 cm c. 10 cm d. 54 cm

criminal background

Which of the following is NOT an element that is required to prove a case of medical negligence or malpractice? Select one: a. causation b. criminal background c. breach of duty d. injury

when using high kVp, use a high ratio grid.

Which of the following is true of grid selection as it relates to kVp? Select one: a. when using high kVp, use a high ratio grid. b. Grids with ratios of 5:1 and 6:1 are best suited to kVp of 90 or more. c. The kVp selected is not a factor in grid selection. d. As kVp increases the grid ratio should increase by 15%.

control booth barrier.

Which of the following is usually considered to be a secondary protective barrier? Select one: a. all walls from floor to 7 feet in height. b. chest board wall. c. control booth barrier. d. floor.

I and II only

Which of the following is/are features of OSL doimeters NOT associated with film badges? I. Minimum reportable dose of 1.0 mrem. II. Re-analysis possible. III. Immediate read-out of exposure by user possible. Select one: a. I only b. I and II only c. II and III only d. I, II, and III

OID, SID, and focal spot size

Which of the following lists includes influences that produce geometric changes on the completed radiographic image? Select one: a. OID, SID, and focal spot size b. Grid versus nongrid, kVp, and SID c. exposure time and developer temperature d. mAs, development time, and umbra

2 and 3 only

Which of the following may be seen as exceptions to the requirement that all patients give informed consent prior to a medical procedure? 1. experimental practices 2. emergencies 3. therapeutic privilege 4. under the legal age Select one: a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 3 and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Magnification mode

Which of the following practices would increase the patient dosage during fluoroscopic procedures? Select one: a. Magnification mode b. Pulsed Fluoroscopy c. Beam limitation d. Last Image Hold

Protect the IR with plastic.

Which of the following procedures should the radiographer perform if the trauma patient has bleeding wounds? Select one: a. Protect the IR with plastic. b. Enclose the IR inside a pillowcase. c. Ask ED personnel to assist with procedure. d. Cover the wounds with gauze and tape.

AP or PA chest

Which of the following radiologic exams would be most helpful in demonstrating the correct position of a swan-ganz catheter? Select one: a. AP and Lateral femur b. KUB c. AP or PA chest d. ventral decubitus abdomen

cassette backs

Which of the following requires 0.25 mm lead equivalency to provide proper shielding? Select one: a. bucky slot covers b. cassette backs c. fluoroscopic image intensifier d. primary wall barriers in an x-ray room

700 mA, 1/20 seconds, 72 kVp, 40 inch SID, and 6:1 grid

Which of the following sets of technical factors would produce a radiographic image with the greatest optical density? Select one: a. 1000 mA, 1/120 seconds, 75 kVp, 48 inch SID, and 6:1 grid b. 700 mA, 1/20 seconds, 72 kVp, 40 inch SID, and 6:1 grid c. 600 mA, 1/40 seconds, 76 kVp, 54 inch SID, and 12:1 grid d. 300 mA, 1/10 seconds, 74 kVp, 52 inch SID, and 12:1 grid

200 mA, 0.1 seconds, 60 kVp, 12:1 grid, large focal spot

Which of the following sets of technical factors would produce the shortest scale of radiographic contrast? Select one: a. 100 mA, 0.05 seconds, 80 kVp, 10:1 grid, small focal spot b. 200 mA, 0.1 seconds, 60 kVp, 12:1 grid, large focal spot c. 400 mA, 0.25 seconds, 75 kVp, 8:1 grid, large focal spot d. 600 mA, 0.40 seconds, 65 kVp, 6:1 grid, small focal spot

Silver bromide

Which of the following silver halides is present in the largest numbers in film emulsion? Select one: a. Silver sulfite b. Silver iodide c. Silver sulfide d. Silver bromide

Atoms that have the same atomic number are atoms of the same element.

Which of the following statements about atoms is true? Select one: a. The number of protons is always greater than the number of neutrons. b. Atoms that have the same atomic number are atoms of the same element. c. Electrons are more tightly bound in smaller atoms than they are in larger atoms. d. M-shell electrons are more tightly bound than L-shell electrons. e. Neutron number determines the chemical properties.

double strand breaks

Which of the following types of radiation damage to DNA results more often with less efficient cellular repair, slower repair and the highest correlation with cell death? Select one: a. prodromal interaction b. single strand breaks c. ssublethal d. double strand breaks

Single Phase Full-wave

Which of the following will have the highest voltage ripple? Select one: a. Single Phase Full-wave b. Three-phase Six pulse c. Three-phase 12 pulse d. High Frequency

straight line portion

Which part of the characteristic curve represents the diagnostic range of exposures? Select one: a. straight line portion b. shoulder c. average gradient d. toe


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