MS - Upper and Lower GI
Offer a diet that appeals to the patient's preferences. Administer antiemetics one hour before meals to prevent nausea. Offer the patient foods, such as cooked cereal and soft or canned fruits. Foods such as cooked cereals, soft or canned fruits, crackers, toast, and sherbet are high-carbohydrate, low-fat foods that are helpful in managing nausea. An antiemetic before meals also would decrease nausea. Planning the diet around the patient's preferences also will help stimulate the appetite. Hot foods and foods with spices may worsen nausea.
A 54-year-old patient admitted with cancer has not been able to eat because of nausea. Which strategies should the nurse use to increase the patient's intake? Select all that apply. 1 Serve foods that are warm to hot in temperature. 2 Offer the patient meats and foods with mild spices. 3 Offer a diet that appeals to the patient's preferences. 4 Administer antiemetics one hour before meals to prevent nausea. 5 Offer the patient foods, such as cooked cereal and soft or canned fruits.
8:00 AM, 12:00 PM, and 4:00 PM A nasogastric tube should be checked for patency routinely at four-hour intervals. Thus, if the tube were inserted at 4:00 AM, it would be due to be checked at 8:00 AM, 12:00 PM, and 4:00 PM.
A 61-year-old patient with suspected bowel obstruction had a nasogastric tube inserted at 4:00 AM. The nurse shares in the morning report that the day shift staff should check the tube for patency at what times? 1 7:00 AM, 10:00 AM, and 1:00 PM 2 8:00 AM, 12:00 PM, and 4:00 PM 3 9:00 AM and 3:00 PM 4 9:00 AM, 12:00 PM, and 3:00 PM
Colonoscopy Colonoscopy is the gold standard for CRC screening because the entire colon is examined (only 50 percent of CRCs are detected by sigmoidoscopy), biopsies can be obtained, and polyps can be removed immediately and sent to the laboratory for examination. A less favorable, but acceptable, screening method includes testing the stool for fecal blood. The FOBT and fecal immunochemical test (FIT) look for blood in the stool. Stool tests must be done frequently because tumor bleeding occurs at intervals and easily may be missed if only a single test is done.
A patient who has a family history of colon cancer asks the nurse about tests for colon cancer. Which of these is considered the best method for colorectal cancer (CRC) screening? 1 Colonoscopy 2 Barium enema 3 Sigmoidoscopy 4 Fecal occult blood test (FOBT)
Cardiac failure Pulmonary edema First, the patient is being given large doses of fluids in a short period of time, which can result in volume overload. This may eventually cause cardiac failure and subsequent pulmonary edema. Also, the patient has had two previous heart attacks, which means heart function is compromised. Intravenous fluids are unlikely to cause conduction abnormalities, infection, or vomiting.
A patient who is admitted with an upper gastrointestinal bleed has a history of two previous heart attacks and is presently being given large doses of intravenous fluids. For which possible complication(s) should the nurse monitor the patient? Select all that apply. 1 Infection 2 Vomiting 3 Arrhythmias 4 Cardiac failure 5 Pulmonary edema
Correct 1. If responsive, monitor the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation. Correct 2. Place two large-bore IVs and begin fluid administration. Correct 3. Obtain complete blood count (CBC), coagulation studies, and type and crossmatch. Correct 4. Administer an intravenous (IV) proton pump inhibitor. Correct 5. Insert a urinary catheter to measure output. In a patient with decreased LOC, the priority is always to monitor and maintain his or her airway, breathing, and circulation. Placing two large-bore IVs will allow for rapid volume resuscitation in the hypotensive patient, as well as provide access for lab specimens. CBC and coagulation studies give information regarding the cause of hypotension, tachycardia, and decreased LOC. Sending a type and crossmatch ensures that the proper blood products are available to transfuse if needed. Administering an IV proton pump inhibitor will decrease acid production in the stomach, reducing further damage caused by hydrochloric acid. A urinary catheter can provide valuable information regarding hydration status and end organ perfusion, but it is not a primary life-saving intervention in an actively hemorrhaging patient, so it is the nurse's lowest priority.
A patient with a known gastric ulcer is brought into the emergency department (ED) with a decreased level of consciousness (LOC), appears pale, is hypotensive and tachycardic, and has a rigid abdomen. In what order does the nurse provide care for this patient who has a suspected upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleed? 1. Administer an intravenous (IV) proton pump inhibitor. 2. Insert a urinary catheter to measure output. 3. Place two large-bore IVs and begin fluid administration. 4. If responsive, monitor the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation. 5. Obtain complete blood count (CBC), coagulation studies, and type and crossmatch.
Sexual dysfunction Delayed wound healing Persistent perineal sinus tracts APR is a colorectal cancer surgery in which both the tumor and the entire rectum are removed, and the patient has a permanent colostomy. APR involves complications such as sexual dysfunction, delayed wound healing, and persistent perineal sinus tracts. Hepatotoxicity and upper respiratory tract infections are complications associated with immunomodulators.
A patient with a rectal tumor has undergone an abdominal-perineal resection (APR). The nurse should monitor the patient for what postoperative complications? Select all that apply. 1 Hepatotoxicity 2 Sexual dysfunction 3 Delayed wound healing 4 Persistent perineal sinus tracts 5 Upper respiratory tract infection
Vomiting Metoclopramide is classified as a cholinergic and antiemetic medication. If it is effective, the patient's nausea should resolve. Metoclopramide is not effective in the treatment of migraine, vertigo, or diarrhea.
After administering a dose of metoclopramide to the patient, the nurse determines that the medication has not been effective when which symptom is noted? 1 Vertigo 2 Vomiting 3 Diarrhea 4 Migraine headache
Drowsiness Although being given to this patient as an antiemetic, promethazine also has sedative and amnesic properties. For this reason, the patient is likely to experience drowsiness as an adverse effect of the medication. Urinary retention, tinnitus, and a sensation of falling are not considered common adverse effects of promethazine.
After administering a dose of promethazine, the nurse explains that which common temporary adverse effect may occur? 1 Tinnitus 2 Drowsiness 3 Urinary retention 4 Sensation of falling
Through the submucosa into the muscular propria According to TNM classification, T2 indicates that the primary tumor has grown through submucosa into the muscularis propria. Tumors that have grown beyond mucosa into the submucosa indicate a T1 Type of primary tumor. T3 indicates that the tumor has grown through the muscularis propria into the subserosa. A tumor that has grown completely through the colon or rectal wall and into nearby tissues or organs indicates a T4 type of primary tumor.
After reviewing the diagnostic reports of a patient with colorectal cancer, the nurse concludes that the patient has a T2 type of primary tumor based on the growth of the tumor into what area? 1 Beyond the mucosa into the submucosa 2 Through the submucosa into the muscularis propria 3 Through the muscularis propria into the subserosa 4 Completely through the colon or rectal wall and into nearby tissues or organs
Hypovolemic Although fluctuations in vital signs occur in neurogenic, cardiogenic, and septic shock states, these fluctuations are not associated with blood loss. However, signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock caused by GI blood loss, such as elevated heart rate, respiratory rate, and decreased blood pressure, would be evident. Assessment of the patient's vital signs assist the nurse in determining whether patient is in hypovolemic shock.
In assessing the vital signs of a patient with an upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleed, it is important to determine whether the patient is in which kind of shock? 1 Septic 2 Neurogenic 3 Cardiogenic 4 Hypovolemic
Education on a mechanical soft diet Avoidance of citrus fruits and vegetables Use of antiseptic mouthwash frequently Oral candidiasis is a fungal infection of the mouth. The tongue, cheeks, and mouth are covered by an overgrowth of yeast, and the mouth is typically very painful. A patient with candidiasis may have difficulty swallowing. Providing education on a mechanical soft diet will be beneficial, as will the avoidance of irritating citric acid containing foods. Using antiseptic mouthwash kills the viable candida and is therefore also beneficial to the patient. Warm, salt water gargles can aggravate the lesions and increase the patient's discomfort. Spicy food should be avoided in patients with candidiasis because spices irritate the ulcers and may worsen the patient's condition.
In planning treatment for a patient with oral candidiasis, which interventions would the nurse anticipate being helpful? Select all that apply. 1 Use of warm salt water rinses. 2 Inclusion of spicy food in the diet. 3 Education on a mechanical soft diet. 4 Avoidance of citrus fruits and vegetables. 5 Use of an antiseptic mouthwash frequently.
Domperidone Prokinetic medications such as domperidone cause central nervous system side effects including anxiety, hallucinations, tremors, and dyskinesias. Droperidol causes dry mouth, hypotension, rashes, and constipation. Palonosetron is a serotonin (5-HT3) antagonist, which causes constipation, diarrhea, headache, fatigue, malaise, and elevated liver function tests. Perphenazine also causes dry mouth, hypotension, rashes, and constipation.
On a follow-up visit, a patient on medication for vomiting and nausea reports hallucinations to the nurse. Which medication does the nurse expect to be the reason for this condition? 1 Droperidol 2 Palonosetron 3 Perphenazine 4 Domperidone
Tardive dyskinesia Metoclopramide and domperidone are the prokinetic agents used to treat vomiting and nausea. When metoclopramide is discontinued, tardive dyskinesia occurs. It is characterized by involuntary movements of the patient's tongue, lips, face, trunk, and extremities. Xerostomia and somnolence are side effects of anticholinergic medications. Serotonin (5-HT3) antagonists produce elevated liver function tests as a side effect.
On a follow-up visit, the nurse finds that a patient prescribed prokinetic medication to treat nausea and vomiting has discontinued the medication. Which complication does the nurse expect to be present? 1 Xerostomia 2 Somnolence 3 Tardive dyskinesia 4 Elevated liver function tests
Topical application of antibiotics Painful bleeding gums, anorexia, fever, and bleeding ulcers in the mouth with bad odor indicates Vincent's infection. It is caused by fusiform bacteria, called Vincent spirochetes. Topical application of antibiotics is used to treat Vincent's infection. Acyclovir is used in patients with herpes simplex infection. Oral suspension of amphotericin B is used to treat oral candidiasis. In aphthous stomatitis, topical application of corticosteroids is recommended.
The nurse finds fever, bleeding ulcers in the mouth, and bad oral odor in a patient with bleeding and painful gums. Which intervention is most beneficial to the patient? 1 Oral tablets of acyclovir 2 Topical application of antibiotics 3 Oral suspension of amphotericin B 4 Topical application of corticosteroids
Surgical excision A hard, painless ulcer is a sign of oral cancer affecting the lip. Surgical excision of the ulcer is the treatment option for cancer of the lip. Glossectomy is the complete removal of the tongue. It is performed when the tongue becomes cancerous. Mandibulectomy is the removal of the mandible (lower jaw). It is done when the mandibular region is affected by oral cancer. Hemiglossectomy is the surgical removal of part of the tongue. Hemiglossectomy is prescribed if the patient has tumors on part of the tongue.
The nurse finds that the patient has a hard, painless ulcer on the upper lip. What treatment does the nurse expect the primary health care provider to prescribe? 1 Glossectomy 2 Surgical excision 3 Mandibulectomy 4 Hemiglossectomy
Report the finding to the primary health care provider. Urine output below 0.5 mL/kg of body weight indicates inadequate vascular volume and risk of acute kidney injury. The nurse should immediately report any output below 0.5 mL/kg of body weight to the primary health care provider. Asking the UAP to re-weigh the patient may be appropriate, but it is not the priority. The finding is abnormal and needs immediate attention; it should not just be monitored routinely. The finding may be representative of inadequate fluid intake but more assessment data are necessary before this determination is made.
The nurse inserts a urinary catheter into a patient with an intestinal obstruction. One hour after insertion, the nurse calculates that the urinary output is 0.4 mL/kg of the patient's body weight. What is the priority nursing intervention? 1 Ask the Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP) to re-weigh the patient. 2 Instruct the patient to increase the intake of fluids. 3 Record the output in the medical record and continue to monitor it. 4 Report the finding to the primary health care provider.
Notify the primary health care provider about the patient's condition. Vomitus with a "coffee ground" appearance is related to gastric bleeding, in which blood changes to dark brown as a result of its interaction with hydrochloric acid. The primary health care provider needs to be notified immediately about this change in the patient's condition. Asking the patient about the timing of the last meal and monitoring the patient are appropriate, but not the priority. The nurse should not offer water just in case the patient may have to have a diagnostic study that requires nothing by mouth (NPO) status.
The nurse is assisting a patient who has been admitted with severe abdominal pain. Suddenly, the patient vomits a large amount of emesis that looks similar to coffee grounds. Which action by the nurse is a priority? 1 Ask the patient about the timing of the last meal. 2 Offer the patient sips of water to prevent dehydration. 3 Monitor the patient for any further episodes of nausea and vomiting. 4 Notify the primary health care provider about the patient's condition.
Dry toast Dry toast or crackers may alleviate the feeling of nausea and prevent further vomiting. Water is the initial fluid of choice. Extremely hot (hot coffee) or cold liquids (iced tea) and fatty foods (hamburgers) generally are not well tolerated.
The nurse is caring for a patient treated with intravenous (IV) fluid therapy for severe vomiting. As the patient recovers and begins to tolerate oral intake, the nurse understands that which food choice would be most appropriate? 1 Iced tea 2 Dry toast 3 Hot coffee 4 Plain hamburger
Overexposure to the sun Using smokeless tobacco Drinking carbonated beverages Excessive drinking of alcoholic beverages Risk factors for oral cancer include use of smokeless tobacco, overexposure to the sun, and excessive intake of alcohol. Chewing gum and drinking carbonated beverages do not cause or place a patient at risk for oral cancer.
The nurse is involved in a health promotion program for teenagers related to the potential development of oral cancer. Which behaviors can put a person at risk for oral cancer? Select all that apply. 1 Chewing gum 2 Overexposure to the sun 3 Using smokeless tobacco 4 Drinking carbonated beverages 5 Excessive drinking of alcoholic beverages
History of colorectal polyps A history of colorectal polyps places this patient at risk for colorectal cancer. This tissue can degenerate over time and become malignant. Osteoarthritis, lactose intolerance, and the use of herbs do not pose additional risks to the patient.
The nurse is planning care for a 68-year-old patient with an abdominal mass and suspected bowel obstruction. Which factor in the patient's history increases the patient's risk for colorectal cancer? 1 Osteoarthritis 2 History of colorectal polyps 3 History of lactose intolerance 4 Use of herbs as dietary supplements
The patient avoids eating half-boiled eggs. Improperly cooked eggs are a source of Salmonella typhimurium. Avoiding improperly cooked eggs prevents Salmonella poisoning. Contaminated cheese contains Escherichia coli (E. coli) and therefore causes E. coli poisoning. Canned food poses a risk of botulism. Rewarmed meat contains Clostridium perfringens and may cause clostridial poisoning.
The nurse is teaching a patient about measures to prevent Salmonella poisoning. Which action indicates effective learning? 1 The patient avoids eating cheese. 2 The patient avoids eating half-boiled eggs. 3 The patient avoids purchasing canned items. 4 The patient avoids eating rewarmed meat dishes.
Rapid onset Frequent, copious vomiting Colicky, cramping, intermittent pain Manifestations of an obstruction in the small intestine include rapid onset; frequent and copious vomiting; colicky, cramping, intermittent pain; production of feces for a short time; and greatly increased abdominal distension. Absolute constipation and low-grade, cramping abdominal pain are manifestations of an obstruction of the large intestine.
The nurse performs a detailed health history for a patient with a possible bowel obstruction. Which of these are manifestations of an obstruction in the small intestine? Select all that apply. 1 Rapid onset 2 Absolute constipation 3 Frequent, copious vomiting 4 Colicky, cramping, intermittent pain 5 Low-grade, cramping abdominal pain
Cetuximab Cetuximab is an epidermal growth factor inhibitor given to patients with colorectal cancer. Regorafenib is a multi-kinase inhibitor that blocks several enzymes that promote cancer growth. Bevacizumab and ziv-aflibercept are angiogenesis inhibitors that inhibit blood supply to tumors.
The nurse recalls that which medication blocks epidermal growth factor in patients with colorectal cancer? 1 Cetuximab 2 Regorafenib 3 Bevacizumab 4 Ziv-aflibercept
Laparoscopic surgery Laparoscopic surgery is used to treat stage I colorectal tumors. Stage II colorectal tumors are treated with resection and reanastomosis. Chemotherapy is used to treat high-risk stage II, stage III, and stage IV colorectal tumors.
The nurse recognizes that which treatment strategy is beneficial for patients with stage I colorectal tumors? 1 Resection 2 Reanastomosis 3 Chemotherapy 4 Laparoscopic surgery
Sulfasalazine Sulfasalazine is a 5-aminosalicylate that suppresses pro-inflammatory cytokines and other mediators of inflammation. Sulfasalazine causes yellow discoloration of the skin and urine. Adalimumab is a tumor necrosis factor agent that causes upper respiratory and urinary tract infections, headache, nausea, joint pain, and abdominal pain. Azathioprine is an immunosuppressant that suppresses bone marrow and causes inflammation of the pancreas. Methotrexate is an immunosuppressant that causes flu-like symptoms, liver dysfunction, and bone marrow depression.
The nurse reviews the medication profile of a patient with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) who presents with yellow-orange discoloration of the skin. Which medication does the nurse suspect is responsible for the patient's symptoms? 1 Adalimumab 2 Sulfasalazine 3 Azathioprine 4 Methotrexate
Nausea Ondansetron is an antiemetic. The nurse would inquire as to its effectiveness in reducing the patient's nausea. Ondansetron will not treat headaches, pain, or leg cramps.
The patient history indicates the patient was taking ondansetron at home before admission. The nurse inquires as to the effectiveness of this medication in treating which symptom? 1 Pain 2 Nausea 3 Headache 4 Leg cramps
"This will reduce the amount of acid in your stomach until you can eat a regular diet again." Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that decreases acid production in the stomach. It minimizes damage to the gastric mucosa while the patient is on bed rest and hospitalized after surgery. Pantoprazole will not prevent gas pains and will not prevent stomach bleeding from surgery. Heartburn is not a side effect of diabetes.
The postoperative patient states that he or she has never taken pantoprazole in the past. The patient asks why he or she is getting this medication if the patient has never had heartburn. What is the best response by the nurse? 1 "This will prevent gas pains from the excess air in your small intestine." 2 "This will prevent the heartburn that occurs as a side effect of your diabetes." 3 "The stress of surgery is likely to cause stomach bleeding if you do not receive it." 4 "This will reduce the amount of acid in your stomach until you can eat a regular diet again."
Thoracic spinal fracture Intestinal obstruction occurs when intestinal contents are unable to pass through the gastrointestinal tract. Paralytic ileus is the most common form of nonmechanical obstruction. A thoracic spinal fracture is a cause of paralytic ileus. Hernia, intussusceptions, and strictures from Crohn's disease cause mechanical obstruction.
What is the cause of nonmechanical intestinal obstruction? 1 Hernia 2 Intussusception 3 Thoracic spinal fracture 4 Strictures from Crohn's disease
Postoperative activities and pain management Because anesthesia, an abdominal incision, and pain can impair the patient's respiratory status in the postoperative period, it is of highest priority to teach the patient to cough and deep-breathe and to use pain medication. Otherwise, atelectasis and pneumonia could develop, delaying recovery from surgery and, as a result, hospital discharge. Caring for a colostomy and activity restrictions also can be discussed postoperatively. Medications for discharge should be discussed before discharge, not before surgery. To reduce the risk of adverse outcomes, the highest priority is pain control and early ambulation and activity.
What is the highest priority information to include in preoperative teaching for a patient scheduled for a colectomy? 1 How to care for the colostomy 2 Activity restrictions and bed rest requirements 3 Postoperative activities and pain management 4 Medications planned for use during the procedure
Paralytic ileus Hypovolemic shock Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) Abdominal pain with tenderness caused due to duodenal ulcer indicates peritonitis. Peritonitis restricts the peristalsis that blocks bowels, causing paralytic ileus. Peritonitis depletes the body fluids, resulting in hypovolemic shock. Peritonitis is caused by both bacteria and fungi, and causes severe infection of the lungs, precipitating respiratory distress. Hemorrhage and colonic dilation are complications associated with inflammatory bowel disease.
When a patient with a history of duodenal ulcers reports abdominal tenderness, the nurse suspects peritonitis. The nurse identifies that the patient is at risk for what complications? Select all that apply. 1 Hemorrhage 2 Paralytic ileus 3 Colonic dilation 4 Hypovolemic shock 5 Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
Identifying signs and symptoms of infection Patients should be instructed to report signs and symptoms of infection or acute exacerbation of diverticulitis such as narrowed stools (resulting from inflammation) and mucus, pus, or blood mixed in the stool. Following the correct diet is also important with diverticular disorders; however, early detection and treatment of infection are higher priorities. There are no fluid or physical exercise restrictions to be recommended.
When planning nursing care for a patient with newly diagnosed diverticular disease, what is the most important goal for the nurse? 1 Identifying signs and symptoms of infection 2 Advising consumption of a diet high in fiber and protein 3 Restricting the patient's oral fluid intake to no more than 1 L/day 4 Limiting the patient's physical exercise to make it possible for the bowel to rest
Scopolamine Xerostomia is dryness of the mouth. Scopolamine is an anticholinergic (antimuscarinic) medication that causes xerostomia. Granisetron is a serotonin (5-HT3) antagonist that causes diarrhea. Perphenazine causes constipation, dry mouth, rashes, and sedative effects. Domperidone causes anxiety, hallucinations, tremors, and dyskinesias.
Which antiemetic medication causes xerostomia as a side effect? 1 Granisetron 2 Scopolamine 3 Perphenazine 4 Domperidone
Dronabinol Dronabinol is an oral active cannabinoid, which helps prevent chemotherapy-induced emesis. Aprepitant is a Substance P/Neurokinin-1 receptor antagonist that helps chemotherapy-induced and postoperative nausea and vomiting. Droperidol is a butyrophenone that blocks cholinergic pathways to the vomiting center. Dexamethasone is an anticholinergic, which blocks neurochemicals that trigger nausea and vomiting.
Which is the oral active cannabinoid used in the prevention of chemotherapy-induced emesis? 1 Aprepitant 2 Droperidol 3 Dronabinol 4 Dexamethasone
Acyclovir Lip lesions and painful ulcers caused by herpes simplex infection and triggered by excessive exposure to sunlight and emotional stress can be treated by antiviral drugs such as acyclovir. Ampicillin is an antibiotic used in the treatment of parotitis and Vincent's infection. Prednisone is a corticosteroid used in the treatment of aphthous stomatitis. Amphotericin B is an antifungal agent used in the treatment of oral candidiasis.
Which medication does the nurse expect to be beneficial to the patient who works outdoors, has high levels of emotional stress, and complains of lip lesions and painful ulcers? 1 Ampicillin 2 Acyclovir 3 Prednisone 4 Amphotericin B
Use the Z-track technique Promethazine can be irritating to tissues; therefore, the medication should be injected into the upper outer quadrant of the buttock with the use of the Z-track technique. It is not required to numb the area before injection. This medication should not be administered subcutaneously in the flank because of irritation to tissues. Intramuscular injections always should be administered at a 90-degree angle.
Which technique should the nurse use to effectively administer a dose of promethazine by the intramuscular (IM) route? 1 Use the Z-track technique. 2 Inject at a 45-degree angle. 3 Numb the area with ice before injection. 4 Administer in the flank area to increase absorption.
Pseudo-obstruction Pseudo-obstruction is a type of mechanical intestinal obstruction with no cause found on radiologic imaging. Pseudo-obstruction is associated with Parkinson's disease, renal failure, MI, trauma, opiate use, and metabolic disturbances (hypokalemia). Vascular obstruction results from emboli and atherosclerosis of the mesenteric arteries. Hernias and strictures due to Crohn's disease cause mechanical obstruction. Neuromuscular and vascular diseases as well as abdominal surgery cause non-mechanical obstruction and are characterized by reduced or absent peristalsis.
Which type of intestinal obstruction does the nurse recall may be observed in a patient with Parkinson's disease? 1 Pseudo-obstruction 2 Vascular obstruction 3 Mechanical obstruction 4 Nonmechanical obstruction
Strangulation with necrosis Strangulation is a condition in which blood circulation to a body is stopped because of a constriction of tissues. Necrosis indicates tissue death. These conditions result in a reduced red blood cell percentage, causing decreased hematocrit. Elevated white blood count indicates perforation. Dehydration can be assessed by monitoring serum electrolytes, blood urea nitrogen, and creatinine. An elevated hematocrit indicates hemoconcentration.
While reviewing the complete blood count (CBC) report of a patient with intestinal obstruction, the nurse notes a decreased hematocrit level. What reason does the nurse suspect for this finding? 1 Perforation 2 Dehydration 3 Hemoconcentration 4 Strangulation with necrosis
Elevated leukocytes Chronic inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract indicates inflammatory bowel disease. Toxic megacolon is a condition characterized by swelling and dilation of the large intestine due to severe inflammation of the intestinal wall and accumulation of excess gas. Toxic megacolon causes leukocytosis, resulting in an increased number of leukocytes. Decreased albumin indicates protein loss. Decreased serum sodium indicates fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Elevated C-reactive protein is a nonspecific finding that indicates generalized inflammation.
While reviewing the laboratory reports of a patient with chronic inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract, the nurse suspects toxic megacolon in the patient. Which laboratory finding supports the nurse's suspicion? 1 Decreased albumin 2 Elevated leukocytes 3 Decreased serum sodium 4 Elevated C-reactive protein
Edema Erythema Elevated leukocyte count If a patient with colorectal cancer has a partially closed wound, the nurse should monitor for edema, erythema, fever, and an elevated leukocyte (white blood cell) count. Hypoalbuminemia and elevated C-reactive protein levels are observed in patients with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD).
he nurse is caring for a patient with colorectal cancer who has a partially closed wound. Which parameters associated with the condition should the nurse monitor? Select all that apply. 1 Edema 2 Erythema 3 Hypoalbuminemia 4 Elevated leukocyte count 5 Elevated C-reactive protein
