MS2: Test 1 RN Video Questions ( MI, CAD,EC,EKG, Preload/Afterload)
17. A patient is complaining of a nagging cough that is continuous. Which medication below can cause this side effect? A. Losartan B. Lisinopril C. Cardizem D. Lipitor
The answer is B. ACE inhibitors, such as Lisinopril, can cause a nagging cough that is continuous. The patient may be switched to an ARB (angiotensin receptor blocker) if the cough is troublesome.
1. Which statement below best describes the term cardiac preload? A. The pressure the ventricles stretch at the end of systole. B. The amount the ventricles stretch at the end of diastole. C. The pressure the ventricles must work against to pump blood out of the heart. D. The strength of the myocardial cells to shorten with each beat.
The answer is B. Cardiac preload is the amount the ventricles stretch at the end of diastole (the filling or relaxation phase of the heart).
7. In 3rd degree heart block, the SA node generates impulses but those impulses do not go to the ventricles. Therefore, the atrial and ventricles are independent. True False
true
2. Which coronary artery provides blood to the left atrium and left ventricle:* A. Right marginal artery B. Posterior descending artery C. Left circumflex artery D. Right coronary artery
Answer: C. The LCA provides blood to the left atrium and left ventricle.
Atrial contraction is what wave on EKG?
P-wave
9. A patient with endocarditis has listed in their medical history "Roth Spots". You know that this is a complication of infective endocarditis and presents as? A. Non-tender spots found on the feet and hands B. Red and tender lesions found in the eyes C. Retinal hemorrhages with white centers D. Purplish spots found on the forearms and groin
The answer is C. Roth spots are found in the eyes as retinal hemorrhages with white centers.
8. In 2nd degree, type 2 (Mobitz II), the p-waves (atrial rate) are usually regular while the ventricle rate is irregular. In addition, this pattern tends to be CYCLIC. True False
false
Normal PR Interval measures A. 0.12 to 0.20 seconds B greater than 0.20 seconds C. 0.06 to 0.16 seconds D. 0.20-0.26 seconds
0.12-.20 seconds
ST segment is located where on EKG?
Between QRS complex and T wave
14. A patient is experiencing Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia from Heparin therapy. The doctor orders Heparin to be discontinued. The patient will most likely be placed on what other medication? A. Argatroban B. Lovenox C. Levophed D. Tridil
The answer is A. Argatroban or Angiomax may be prescribed in place of Heparin for a patient experiencing HIT (heparin-induced thrombocytopenia).
15. A patient taking Lovenox is having a severe reaction. What is the antidote for this medication? A. Activated Charcoal B. Acetylcysteine C. Narcan D. Protamine sulfate
The answer is D.
5. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by random p-waves on the EKG. True False
The answer is FALSE: A-fib has no p-waves presents.
5. Keeping the patient in question 4 in mind: What type of diagnostic tests will the physician most likely order (at first) for this patient to evaluate the cause of the patient's symptoms? Select-all-that-apply:* A. EKG B. Stress test C. Heart catheterization D. Balloon angioplasty
.
18. A patient's morning lab work shows a potassium level of 6.3. The patient's potassium level yesterday was 4.0 The patient was recently started on new medications for treatment of myocardial infarction. What medication below can cause an increased potassium level? A. Losartan B. Norvasc C. Aspirin D. Cardizem
The answer is A. Losartan is an ARB. ARBs (angiotensin receptor blockers) and ACE inhibitors (angiotension converting enzyme inhibitors) can cause an INCREASE potassium level because of it affects of decreasing aldosterone. A normal potassium level is 3.5-5.1.
3. A patient is receiving treatment for infective endocarditis. The patient has a history of intravenous drug use and underwent mitral valve replacement a year ago. The patient is scheduled for a transesophageal echocardiogram tomorrow. On assessment, you find tender, red lesions on the patient's hands and feet. You know that this is a common finding in patients with infective endocarditis and is known as? A. Janeway Lesions B. Roth Spots C. Osler's Nodes D. Trousseau's Sign
Answer is C...Osler's Nodes. They are TENDER, red lesions on the hands and feet. Don't get this confused with Janeway Lesions which are NON-TENDER, red lesions on the PALMS of the hands and SOLES of the feet. Roth spots are retinal hemorrhages with white centers and Trousseau's Sign is found in hypocalcemia.
9. A patient calls the cardiac clinic you are working at and reports that they have taken 3 sublingual doses of Nitroglycerin as prescribed for chest pain, but the chest pain is not relieved. What do you educate the patient to do next?* A. Take another dose of Nitroglycerin in 5 minutes. B. Call 911 immediately C. Lie down and rest to see if that helps with relieving the pain D. Take two doses of Nitroglycerin in 5 minutes
Answer: B. If a patient's chest pain is not relieved with 3 doses of Nitroglycerin, taken 5 minutes apart, they should call 911 immediately. The patient should never exceed more than 3 doses of Nitroglycerin or take 2 doses at one time.
11. A patient taking Zocor is reporting muscle pain. You are evaluating the patient's lab work and note that which of the following findings could cause muscle pain?* A. Elevated potassium level B. Elevated CPK (creatine kinase level) C. Decreased potassium level D. Decreased CPK (creatine kinase level)
Answer: B. Zocor (a statin medication used for lowering cholestorl) can cause increased CPK levels which will lead to a patient experiencing muscle pain. Therefore, CPK levels must be monitored while a patient is taking this medication.
7. A patient reports having crushing chest pain that radiates to the jaw. You administer sublingual nitroglycerin and obtain a 12 lead EKG. Which of the following EKG findings confirms your suspicion of a possible myocardial infraction?* A. absent Q wave B. QRS widening C. absent P-wave D. ST segment elevation
Answer: D This is a common finding on an EKG when a patient is having a myocardial infraction due to muscle damage.
10. Lipitor is prescribed for a patient with a high cholesterol level. As the nurse, how do you educate the patient on how this drugs works on the body?* A. Lipitor increases LDL levels and decreases HDL levels, total cholesterol, and triglyceride levels. B. Lipitor decreases LDL, HDL levels, total cholesterol, and triglyceride levels. C. Lipitor increases HDL levels, total cholesterol, and triglyceride levels. D. Lipitor increases HDL levels and decreases LDL, total cholesterol, and triglyceride levels.
Answer: D. Lipitor is a common "statin" medication used to lower cholesterol in CAD. It works by increasing HDL levels (the "good" cholesterol") and decreases LDL (the "bad" cholesterol"), total cholesterol, and triglyceride levels.
12. A patient who has diabetes will be started on Metoprolol for medical management of coronary artery disease. Which of the following will you include in your discharge teaching about this medication?* A. Check your heart rate regularly because Metoprolol can cause an irregular heart rate. B. Check your glucose regularly because this medication can cause hyperglycemia. C. Check your blood pressure regularly because this medication can cause hypertension. D. Check your glucose regularly because this medication can mask the typical signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia.
Answer: D. This patient needs to be educated to check their glucose levels regularly because this medication can mask the typical signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia. This is very important since the patient is diabetic.
13. True or False: ACE inhibitors work to decrease the workload on the heart by blocking the conversion of Angiotensin II to Angiotensin I which causes vasodilation.* True False
Answer: False. ACE inhibitors work to decrease the workload on the heart by blocking the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II (not Angiotensin II to Angiotensin I) which causes vasoconstriction (NOT vasodilation).
8. A patient is receiving treatment for stable coronary artery disease. The doctor prescribes the patient Plavix. What important information will you include in the patient's teaching? Select-all-that-apply:* A. If you are scheduled for any planned surgical procedures, let your doctor know you are taking Plavix because this medication will need to be discontinued 5-7 days prior to the procedure. B. A normal side effect of this medication is a dry cough. C. Avoid green leafy vegetables while taking Plavix. D. Notify the doctor, immediately, if you develop bruising, problems urinating, or fever.
Answers: A and D. Patients on Plavix should let their doctor know that they are taking Plavix because it should be discontinued 5 to 7 days before a surgical procedure due to increased risk of bleeding. Also, option D represents signs and symptoms of Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura a clotting disorder where clots form in the vessels of the body which is a complication of Plavix.
6. You're providing education to a patient who will be undergoing a heart catheterization. Which statement by the patient requires you to re-educate the patient about this procedure?* A. "The brachial artery is most commonly used for this procedure." B. "A dye is injected into the coronary arteries to assess for blockages." C. "Not all patients who have a heart catheterization will need a stent placement." D. "I will not be completely asleep and will be able to breathe on my own during the procedure."
Answers: A. The femoral or radial artery is used during a heart cath...not the brachial.
3. Which patient(s) are most at risk for developing coronary artery disease? Select-all-that-apply:* A. A 25 year old patient who exercises 3 times per week for 30 minutes a day and has a history of cervical cancer. B. A 35 year old male with a BMI of 30 and reports smoking 2 packs of cigarettes a day. C. A 45 year old female that reports her father died at the age of 42 from a myocardial infraction. D. A 29 year old that has type I diabetes.
Answers: B,C, D. Remember risk factors for developing CAD include: smoking, family history, diabetes, being overweight or obese, and high cholesterol.
6. The R waves in atrial fibrillation are regular. True False
False
2. Which of the following patients are MOST at risk for developing endocarditis? Select-all-that-apply: A. A 25 year old male who reports using intravenous drugs on a daily basis. B. A 55 year old male who is post-opt from aortic valve replacement. C. A 63 year old female who is newly diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism and is taking Aspirin. D. A 66 year old female who recently had an invasive dental procedure performed 1 month ago and is having a fever.
Options A, B, and D are all risks for developing endocarditis. Remember that any thing that allows entry of bacteria into the system can potentially cause endocarditis. Option C is not relevant.
6. Select-all-that-apply: What are the typical signs and symptoms of infective endocarditis? A. Hyperthermia B. S4 gallop C. Enlarged Spleen D. Hyperkalemia E. Substernal pain that radiates to the back F. Heart failure G. Cardiac Murmur
The answer is A, C, F, and G. These are classic signs and symptoms of IE.
11. In regards to the patient in the previous question, after administering the first dose of Nitroglycerin sublingual the patient's blood pressure is now 68/48. The patient is still having chest pain and T-wave inversion on the cardiac monitor. What is your next nursing intervention? A. Hold further doses of Nitroglycerin and notify the doctor immediately for further orders. B. Administer Morphine IV and place the patient in reverse Trendelenburg position. C. Administer Nitroglycerin and monitor the patient's blood pressure. D. All the options are incorrect.
The answer is A. Nitroglycerin can cause hypotension, however, if there is a significant drop in blood pressure with SBP <90, further doses of Nitroglycerin should be held. The doctor should be notified for further orders, especially since the patient is still having chest pain and t-wave inversion. Morphine should NOT be given because it can cause hypotension.
8. A patient is admitted with chest pain to the ER. The patient has been in the ER for 5 hours and is being admitted to your unit for overnight observation. From the options below, what is the most IMPORTANT information to know about this patient at this time? A. Troponin result and when the next troponin level is due to be collected B. Diet status C. Last consumption of caffeine D. CK result and when the next CK level is due to be collected
The answer is A. The key words in this question are "chest pain" and "been in the ER for 5 hours". The patient should have already had one troponin level drawn since it starts to elevate 2-4 hours after injury and has been in the ER for 5 hours. Therefore, it is essential you know what the level is and when the next level is due. If the patient's chest pain is caused by a myocardial event the troponin levels will trend upward. Troponin levels are usually ordered every 6 hours x 3. CK results are not as specific as a troponin levels. This question wanted to know the MOST important, and the troponin level for this patient/when it is drawn next is MOST important. Diet status and last consumption of caffeine are things the nurse needs to know but not the MOST important.
4. A 30 year old female is being treated for infective endocarditis with IV antibiotics. At the beginning of the hospitalization, the patient's symptoms were severe and sudden with a high fever but are now controlled. She has no significant health history other than 2 cesarean sections in the past. She is being prepped for a central line placement so she can be discharged home with home health to continue the 4 week antibiotic regime. What is type of infective endocarditis this classified as based on the information listed? A. Acute Infective Endocarditis B. Subacute Infective Endocarditis C. Non-infective Endocarditis D. Pericarditis
The answer is A. This is acute infective endocarditis. The key clues in this question are patient has no significant health history and signs and symptoms were sudden/severe. In subacute infective endocarditis, the patient will have a pre-existing condition that caused them to develop the IE and the symptoms are gradual and subtle.
4. A patient with hypovolemic shock is given IV fluids. IV fluids will help _________ cardiac output by: A. decrease; decreasing preload B. increase, increasing preload C. increase, decreasing afterload D. decrease, increasing contractility
The answer is B. IV fluids will increase venous return to the heart. This will increase the amount of fluid that will fill the ventricles at the end of diastole...hence increasing preload and increasing cardiac output.
2. You note in the patient's chart that the patient recently had a myocardial infarction due to a blockage in the left coronary artery. You know that which of the following is true about this type of blockage? A. A blockage in the left coronary artery causes the least amount of damage to the heart muscle. B. Left coronary artery blockages can cause anterior wall death which affects the left ventricle. C. Left coronary artery blockage can cause posterior wall death which affects the right ventricle. D. The left anterior descending artery is least likely to be affected by coronary artery disease.
The answer is B. The LCA (if blocked) can cause the MOST amount of damage to the heart muscle. It affects the ANTERIOR part of the heart which affects the LEFT ventricle. The left descending artery is MOST likely to be affected by coronary artery disease.
1. You're educating a patient about the causes of a myocardial infarction. Which statement by the patient indicates they misunderstood your teaching and requires you to re-educate them? A. Coronary artery dissection can happen spontaneously and occurs more in women. B. The most common cause of a myocardial infarction is a coronary spasm from illicit drug use or hypertension. C. Patients who have coronary artery disease are at high risk for developing a myocardial infarction. D. Both A and B are incorrect.
The answer is B. The most common cause of a myocardial infarction is CORONARY ARTERY DISEASE...not coronary spasm which is uncommon.
8. A patient has a blood pressure of 220/140. The physician prescribes a vasodilator. This medication will? A. Decrease the patient's blood pressure and increase cardiac afterload B. Decrease the patient's blood pressure and decrease cardiac afterload C. Decrease the patient's blood pressure and increase cardiac preload D. Increase the patient's blood pressure but decrease cardiac output.
The answer is B. The patient has a high systemic vascular resistance...as evidence by the patient's blood blood....there is vasoconstriction and this is resulting in the high blood pressure. Therefore, right now, the cardiac afterload is high because the ventricle must overcome this high pressure in order to pump blood out of the heart. If a vasodilator is given, it will decrease the blood pressure (hence the systemic vascular resistance) and this will decrease the cardiac afterload. The amount of the pressure the ventricle must pump against will decrease (cardiac afterload decrease) because the blood pressure will go down (hence the systemic vascular resistance).
16. A patient is being discharged home after receiving treatment for a myocardial infarction. The patient will be taking Coreg. What statement by the patient demonstrates they understood your education material about this drug? A. "I will take this medication at night." B. "I will take this medication as needed." C. "I will monitor my heart rate and blood pressure while taking this medication." D. "I will take this medication in the morning with grapefruit juice."
The answer is C. It is the only correct option that reflects Coreg. This medication doesn't have to be taken at night, preferably in the morning. It is taken daily (not as needed), and must be avoided with grapefruit juice because it slow down the absorption of Coreg.
12. A patient recovering from a myocardial infarction is complaining of the taste of blood in their mouth. On assessment, you note there is bleeding on the anterior gums. Which medication can cause this? A. Coreg B. Cardizem C. Lovenox D. Lipitor
The answer is C. Lovenox is an antithrombotic. An adverse side effect of this medication is bleeding. Coreg (beta-blocker), Cardizem (calcium channel blocker), and Lipitor (statin) do NOT cause excessive bleeding.
7. You're providing discharge teaching to a patient being treated for endocarditis. Which statement by the patient demonstrated they understood your teaching about this condition? A. "I will stop taking the antibiotics once my fever is gone in order to prevent antibiotic resistance." B. "I will avoid going to the dentist due to the increased risk of developing endocarditis again." C. "I will inform my GI doctor about my history of endocarditis prior to any invasive procedures." D. "I will avoid eating fish and organ meats."
The answer is C. Patients should finish all antibiotics doses and never stop taking them in the middle of treatment because this increases antibiotic resistances. Also, the patient should maintain good oral hygiene and should go to the dentist regularly for cleanings. However, it is very important the patient inform all other healthcare practitioners about their history of endocarditis because they will need prophylactic antibiotics therapy prior to any invasive procedures to prevent acquiring endocarditis again. Option D is incorrect.
5. A patient is admitted with sepsis. The patient has a temperature of 104.2 'F and is experiencing chills. On assessment, you note a mitral murmur which the patient states they've never had before, and dark, small lines on the patient's fingernails. The patient has a history of IV drug use in the past. However, the patient states they are no longer using drugs. The physician suspects possible infective endocarditis. What diagnostic test do you expect the physician to order in order to confirm the presence of infective endocarditis? A. Abdominal ultrasound B. Heart catheterization C. Transesophageal echocardiogram D. White blood cell count
The answer is C. Transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) is an ultrasound performed to look at the back side of the heart and assesses the valve structure. It is a test used to diagnose vegetations found on the valves. All the other options do not confirm endocarditis.
3. A patient is 36 hours status post a myocardial infarction. The patient is starting to complain of chest pain when they lay flat or cough. You note on auscultation of the heart a grating, harsh sound. What complication is this patient mostly likely suffering from? A. Cardiac dissection B. Ventricular septum rupture C. Mitral valve prolapse D. Pericarditis
The answer is D. A complication of a myocardial infarction is PERICARDITIS, especially 24-36 hours post MI. This is because of neutrophils being present at the site which causes inflammation. The patient's signs and symptoms are classic pericarditis.
2. Select the statement below that best describes cardiac afterload: A. It's the volume amount that fills the ventricles at the end of diastole. B. It's the volume the ventricles must work against to pump blood out of the body. C. It's the amount of blood the left ventricle pumps per beat. D. It's the pressure the ventricles must work against to open the semilunar valves so blood can be pumped out of the heart.
The answer is D. Cardiac afterload is the pressure the ventricles must work against to pump blood out of the heart by opening up through the semilunar valves. So, it's the pressure the ventricles must overcome to open the semilunar valves to push blood out of the heart.
13. A patient is on a Heparin drip post myocardial infarction. The patient has been on the drip for 4 days. You are assessing the patient's morning lab work. Which of the following findings in the patient's lab work is a potential life-threatening complication of Heparin therapy and requires intervention? A. K+ 3.7 B. PTT 65 seconds C. Hgb 14.5 D. Platelets 135,000
The answer is D. Platelet value of <150,000 indicates thrombocytopenia and is found in patients with Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia. The potassium and hemoglobin level are normal. The PTT level is therapeutic (60-80 seconds) for Heparin and isn't a cause for concern.
5. ___________ is the amount of blood pumped by the left ventricle with each beat. A. Cardiac output B. Preload C. Afterload D. Stroke volume
The answer is D. Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped by the left ventricle with each beat.
8. A patient being treated for infective endocarditis is complaining of very sharp radiating abdominal pain that goes to the left shoulder and back. As the nurse familiar with complications of infective endocarditis, what do you suspect is the cause of this patient finding? A. Renal embolic event B. Pulmonary embolic event C. Central nervous system embolic event D. Splenic embolic event
The answer is D. These are classic signs and symptoms of a splenic embolic event. The patient with endocarditis is at risk for renal, pulmonary, central nervous system, or spleen emboli. Renal emboli would present with flank pain with pus or blood in the urine. Pulmonary emboli would present with dyspnea, chest pain, or shortness of breath, and CNS emboli would present with confusion or difficulty speaking.
4. Which of the following conditions are not thought to cause atrial fibrillation? A. Mitral stenosis B. Mitral regurgitation C. Tricuspid regurgitation D. Peripheral vascular disease
The answer is D: peripheral vascular disease
10. 2nd Degree Type 2 Heart Blocks are sometimes called Wenckebach Heart Blocks. True False
The answer is FALSE. 2nd degree type 1 are sometimes called Wenckebachs....not 2nd degree type 2.
10. True or False: Pulmonary and systemic vascular resistance both play a role with influencing cardiac afterload. True False
The answer is True. If pulmonary vascular resistance or systemic vascular resistance is high, it will create an increased cardiac afterload. If pulmonary vascular resistance or systemic vascular resistance is low, it will create a decreased cardiac afterload.
3. What two factors are used to calculate cardiac output? Select all that apply: A. Heart rate B. Blood pressure C. Stroke volume D. Mean arterial pressure
The answers are A and C. Cardiac output is calculated by taking the heart rate and multiplying it by stroke volume. CO = HR x SV
9. What conditions below can result in an increased cardiac afterload? Select all that apply: A. Vasoconstriction B. Aortic stenosis C. Vasodilation D. Dehydration E. Pulmonary Hypertension
The answers are A, B, and E. Vasoconstriction increases systemic vascular resistance which will increase cardiac afterload. It will increase the pressure the ventricle must pump against to open the semilunar valves to get blood out of the heart. Aortic stenosis creates an outflow of blood obstruction for the ventricle (specifically the left ventricle) and this will increase the pressure the ventricle must pump against to get blood out through the aortic valve. Pulmonary hypertension increases pulmonary vascular resistance which will increase the pressure the right ventricle must overcome to open the pulmonic valve to get blood out of the heart....all of this increase cardiac afterload.
10. A patient is complaining of chest pain. On the bedside cardiac monitor you observe pronounce T-wave inversion. You obtain the patient's vital signs and find the following: Blood pressure 190/98, HR 110, oxygen saturation 96% on room air, and respiratory rate 20. Select-all-that-apply in regards to the MOST IMPORTANT nursing interventions you will provide based on the patient's current status: A. Obtain a 12-lead EKG B. Place the patient in supine position C. Assess urinary output D. Administer Nitroglycerin sublingual as ordered per protocol E. Collect cardiac enzymes as ordered per protocol F. Encourage patient to cough and deep breath G. Administer Morphine IV as ordered per protocol H. Place patient on oxygen via nasal cannula I. No interventions are needed at this time
The answers are A, D, E, G, and H.
6. Stroke volume plays an important part in cardiac output. Select all the factors below that influence stroke volume: A. Heart rate B. Preload C. Contractility D. Afterload E. Blood pressure
The answers are B, C, and D. Preload, afterload, and contractility all have a role with influencing stroke volume.
7. Which treatments below would decrease cardiac preload? Select all that apply: A. IV fluid bolus B. Norepinephrine C. Nitroglycerin D. Furosemide
The answers are C and D. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that will dilate vessels, which will decrease venous return to the heart and this will decrease preload. Furosemide is a diuretic which will remove extra fluid from the body via the kidneys. This will decrease venous return to the heart and decrease preload. An IV fluid bolus and Norepinephrine (a vasoconstrictor) will increase venous return to the heart and increase preload.
1. True or False: Endocarditis only affects the atrioventricular and semi-lunar valves in the heart. True False
This statement is FALSE. Endocarditis can affect not only the heart valves but the interventricular septum and chordae tendineae as well.
7. The hallmark of atrial flutter are "saw-tooth" waves, sometimes called F-waves. True False
True
1. True or False: The left anterior descending coronary artery provides blood supply to the left ventricle, front of the septum and part of the right ventricle.* True False
True...the LAD (left anterior descending artery) provides blood supply to the left ventricle, front of the septum and collateral circulation to the right ventricle.
24-36 hours after a myocardial infarction _____________ congregate at the site during the inflammation phase. A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Platelets D. Macrophages
a
19. Which of the following EKG changes are abnormal findings that may indicate ischemia or injury to the cardiac muscle found on a 12-lead EKG? SELECT-ALL-THAT-APPLY: A. Lengthening p-waves B. ST-segment elevation C. T-wave inversion D. Tall t-waves E. QT interval narrowing F. ST-segment depression
b,c,d,f
PR complex is located where on EKG
beginning of P wave to teh start of the QRS complex
7. On an EKG, the lateral view of the heart is represented with leads? A. V1, V2, V3 B. II, II, AVF C. I, AVL, V5, V6 D. V1, V2, V6
c
After a myocardial infraction, at what time (approximately) do the macrophages present at the site of injury to perform granulation of the tissue? A. 24 hours B. 2 days C. 10 days D. 6 hours
c
9. A doctor has ordered cardiac enzymes on a patient being admitted with chest pain. You know that _____________ levels elevate 2-4 hours after injury to the heart and is the most regarded marker by providers. A. Myoglobin B. CK-MB C. CK D. Troponin
d
A patient is complaining of chest pain. You obtain a 12-lead EKG and see ST elevation in leads II, III, AVF. What area of the heart does this represent? A. Lateral B. Septal C. Anterior D. Inferior
d
9. In 1st degree AV heart block, the p-waves are always accompanied by the QRS complex. True False
true
True or False: A U-wave may be present after the T-wave but this is not very common. True False
true
QRS complex represents what on an EKG?
ventricle contraction
T wave represents
ventricle repolarization/relaxation