MS3: Ch. 62 - Burn Injuries

A manufacturing plant has exploded, and the nurse is assigned to triage burn victims as they arrive to the hospital. Which is the most important question for the nurse to ask prior to the arrival of victims?

"Are the burns associated with chemicals used in the plant?" If the victim has sustained chemical burns, the chemicals must be removed from the skin to prevent burns to others, including the triage nurse and emergency staff. Thermal and electrical burn victims do not require special handling considerations. The number of victims expected is not a significant issue for the triage nurse but rather for the external disaster team dispatch personnel.

A sample consensus formula for fluid replacement recommends that a balanced salt solution be administered in the first 24 hours of a chemical burn in the range of 2 mL/kg/% of burn, with 50% of the total given in the first 8 hours postburn. A 176-lb (80-kg) man with a 30% burn should receive a minimum of how much fluid replacement in the first 8 hours?

2,400 mL The ABA consensus formula provides for the volume of an isotonic solution (e.g., lactated Ringer's [LR]) to be administered during the first 24 hours in a range of 2 mL/kg/percentage TBSA. Half of the calculated total should be given over the first 8 postburn hours, and the other half should be given over the next 16 hours. Thus, the equation to find the minimum amount to infuse for this scenario is as follows: 2 mL × 80 kg × 30 = 4,800 mL of solution to be administered in the first 24 hours, with half this amount, 2,400 mL, to be administered in the first 8 hours.

A client is brought to the emergency department with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns on the left arm, left anterior leg, and anterior trunk. Using the Rule of Nines, what is the total body surface area that has been burned?

36% The Rule of Nines divides body surface area into percentages that, when totaled, equal 100%. According to the Rule of Nines, the arms account for 9% each, the anterior legs account for 9% each, and the anterior trunk accounts for 18%. Therefore, this client's burns cover 36% of the body surface area.

Which of the following measures can be used to cool a burn?

Application of cool water Once a burn has been sustained, the application of cool water is the best first-aid measure. Never apply ice directly to the burn, never wrap the person in ice, and never use cold soaks or dressings for longer than several minutes; such procedures may worsen the tissue damage and lead to hypothermia in people with large burns.

In a client with burns on the legs, which nursing intervention helps prevent contractures?

Applying knee splints Applying knee splints is one method which can help prevent leg contractures by holding the joints in a position of function. Elevating the foot of the bed can't prevent contractures because this action doesn't hold the joints in a position of function. Hyperextending a body part for an extended time is inappropriate because it can cause contractures. Performing shoulder range-of-motion exercises can prevent contractures in the shoulders, but not in the legs which is the focus for this individual's treatment and care.

A nurse practitioner administers first aid to a patient with a deep partial-thickness burn on his left foot. The nurse describes the skin involvement as the:

Epidermis and a portion of deeper dermis. A deep partial-thickness burn includes the epidermis, upper dermis, and a portion of the deeper dermis. A burn limited to the epidermal layer is classified as a superficial partial-thickness burn. The last two choices refer to a full-thickness burn.

A patient has a burn injury that has destroyed all of the dermis and extends into the subcutaneous tissue, involving the muscle. This type of burn injury would be documented as which of the following?

Full-thickness A full-thickness burn involves total destruction of the dermis and extends into the subcutaneous fat. It can also involve muscle and bone. A superficial burn only damages the epidermis. In a superficial partial-thickness burn, the epidermis is destroyed and a small portion of the underlying dermis is injured. A deep partial-thickness burn extends into the reticular layer of the dermis and is hard to distinguish from a full-thickness burn. It is red or white, mottled, and can be moist or fairly dry.

A person suffers leg burns from spilled charcoal lighter fluid. A family member extinguishes the flames. While waiting for an ambulance, what should the burned person do?

Have someone assist him into a bath of cool water, where he can soak intermittently while waiting for emergency personnel. After the flames are extinguished, the burned area and adherent clothing are soaked with cool water, briefly, to cool the wound and halt the burning process.

Immediately after a burn injury, electrolytes need to be evaluated for a major indicator of massive cell destruction, which is:

Hyperkalemia. Circulating blood volume decreases dramatically during burn shock due to severe capillary leak with variation of serum sodium levels in response to fluid resuscitation. Usually, hyponatremia (sodium depletion) is present. Immediately after burn injury, hyperkalemia (excessive potassium) results from massive cell destruction. Hypokalemia (potassium depletion) may occur later with fluid shifts and inadequate potassium replacement.

The nurse is caring for a patient who sustained a full-thickness burn to his arm when he was scalded with boiling water. How did the nurse determine that the patient's burns are full-thickness burns?

Identification by the destruction of the dermis and epidermis Third-degree (full-thickness) burns involve total destruction of the epidermis and dermis and, in some cases, destruction of underlying tissue. Second-degree burns are associated with blister formation.

A child tips a pot of boiling water onto his bare legs. The mother should:

Immerse the child's legs in cool water. The application of cool water is the best first-aid measure. Soaking the burned area intermittently in cool water or applying cool towels gives immediate and striking relief from pain and limits local tissue edema and damage.

A client has partial-thickness burns on both lower extremities and portions of the trunk. Which IV fluid does the nurse plan to administer first?

Lactated Ringer's solution Lactated Ringer's solution replaces lost sodium and corrects metabolic acidosis, both of which commonly occur following a burn. Albumin is used as adjunct therapy, not as primary fluid replacement. D5W isn't given to burn clients during the first 24 hours because it can cause pseudodiabetes. The client is hyperkalemic as a result of the potassium shift from the intracellular space to the plasma, so giving potassium would be detrimental.

The nurse determines which statement reflects current research regarding the utilization of nonpharmacological measures in the management of burn pain?

Music therapy may provide reality orientation, distraction, and sensory stimulation. Researchers have found that music affects both the physiologic and psychological aspects of the pain experience. Music diverts the client's attention away from the painful stimulus. Music may also provide reality orientation, distraction, and sensory stimulation. It allows for client self-expression. Humor therapy has proven effective in the management of burn pain. Pet therapy has not proven effective in the management of burn pain.

Which of the following would indicate the need to increase fluids beyond what is recommended for fluid resuscitation?

Myoglobin in the urine Myoglobin from muscle tissue destruction is transported to the kidneys for excretion and can cause tubular necrosis and acute renal failure. Increase in fluid intake until urine output clears is recommended in serious burns. An increase in ADH release is expected as the body tries to prevent hypovolemic shock. Elevation in glucose levels occurs when the adrenal cortex is stimulated. Sodium levels rise in response to aldosterone levels, which directly leads to peripheral edema.

The nurse knows that inflammatory response following a burn is proportional to the extent of injury. Which factor presents the greatest impact on the ability to modify the magnitude and duration of the inflammatory response in a client with a burn?

Preexisting conditions Preexisting disease disorders including trauma and infections can modify the inflammatory response and movement of fluid from the vascular to the interstitial space. Age, weight, and family history are not as significant in the inflammatory response following a burn.

After being exposed to smoke and flames from a house fire, which assessment finding is most important in determining care of the client?

Presence of soot around nasal passages If the client has soot or evidence of carbon about the nasal passages, the nurse should anticipate respiratory difficulties. Edema and swelling of the internal airways may not be present initially but can progress quickly. Elevation of heart rate without hypotension is not as significant. Fracture to any bone as well as care of burns should be managed once the airway, breathing, and circulation are assessed and managed.

Following a burn injury, the nurse determines which area is the priority for nursing assessment?

Pulmonary system Airway patency and breathing must be assessed during the initial minutes of emergency care. Immediate therapy is directed toward establishing an airway and administering humidified 100% oxygen. Pulmonary problems may be caused by the inhalation of heat and/or smoke or edema of the airway. Assessing a patent airway is always a priority after a burn injury followed by breathing. Remember the ABCs.

A nurse is aware that after a burn injury and respiratory difficulties have been managed, the next most urgent need is to:

Replace lost fluids and electrolytes. After managing respiratory difficulties, the next most urgent need is to prevent irreversible shock by replacing lost fluids and electrolytes. The total volume and rate of IV fluid replacement are gauged by the patient's response and guided by the resuscitation formula.

A client who has sustained burns to the anterior chest and upper extremities is brought to the burn center. During the initial stage of assessment, which nursing diagnosis is primary?

Risk for Impaired Gas Exchange During the initial assessment of a burn victim, the nurse must look for evidence of inhalation injury. Once oxygen saturation and respirations are determined, pain intensity is evaluated. The assessment of damage to the tissues and prevention of infection are secondary to airway issues.

Which antimicrobials is not commonly used to treat burns?

tetracycline Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene), mafenide (Sulfamylon), and silver nitrate (AgNO3) 0.5% solution are the three major antimicrobials used to treat burns.

To meet early nutritional demands for protein, a 198-lb (90-kg) burned patient will need to ingest a minimum of how much protein every 24 hours?

180 g/day Recommendations from recent literature advocate protein requirements of 1.5 to 2 g/kg/day (Saffle, Graves, & Cochran, 2012).

The nurse has completed teaching home care instructions to a client being discharged from the burn unit. Which statement from the client indicates the need for further teaching?

"As my wound heals, my skin will be itchy; I can apply lotion if scratching doesn't help." Itching is a normal part of healing. Many clients describe this as one of the most uncomfortable aspects of burn recovery. The client can apply mild moisturizers to decrease itching from dryness. Medications can be discussed with your treatment team. The client should pat the areas; scratching is contraindicated. The other statements indicate that teaching has been effective.

The nurse cares for a client with extensive burn injuries. Which parameter(s) would the nurse evaluate to determine if the client is receiving adequate fluid resuscitation? Select all that apply.

-Heart rate -Urine output Fluid resuscitation is administered to maintain adequate cardiac output and tissue perfusion. If adequate fluid is administered, tachycardia, hypotension, and oliguria will resolve. Expected outcomes of fluid resuscitation specifically include the following: urine output between 0.5 and 1.0 mL/kg/hr (30-50 mL/hr; 75 to 100 mL/hr if electrical burn injury), mean arterial pressure (MAP) pressure > 60 mm Hg, voids clear yellow urine with specific gravity within normal limits, and serum electrolytes are within normal limits.

When using the Palmer method to estimate the extent of a small or scattered burn injury, the nurse recognizes the palm is equal to which percentage of total body surface area?

1 In clients with scattered burns, or for a quick prehospital assessment, the Palmer method may be used to estimate the extent of the burns. The size of the client's palm, including the surface area of the digits, is approximately 1% of the total body surface area.

In an industrial accident, a client who weighs 155 lb (70 kg) sustained full-thickness burns over 40% of his body. He's in the burn unit receiving fluid resuscitation. Which finding shows that the fluid resuscitation is benefiting the client?

A urine output consistently above 40 ml/hour In a client with burns, the goal of fluid resuscitation is to maintain a mean arterial blood pressure that provides adequate perfusion of vital structures. If the kidneys are adequately perfused, they will produce an acceptable urine output of at least 0.5 ml/kg/hour. Thus, the expected urine output of a 155-lb client is 35 ml/hour, and a urine output consistently above 40 ml/hour is adequate. Weight gain from fluid resuscitation isn't a goal. In fact, a 4-lb weight gain in 24 hours suggests third spacing. Body temperature readings and ECG interpretations may demonstrate secondary benefits of fluid resuscitation but aren't primary indicators.

When assessing a client with partial-thickness burns over 60% of the body, which finding should the nurse report immediately?

Hoarseness of the voice Hoarseness is indicative of injury to the respiratory system and could indicate the need for immediate intubation. Thirst following burns is expected because of the massive fluid shifts and resultant loss, leading to dehydration. Pain, either severe or moderate, is expected with a burn injury. The client's urine output is adequate.

The nurse is caring for a client who has sustained severe burns to 50% of the body. The nurse is aware that fluid shifts during the first week of the acute phase of a burn injury cause massive cell destruction. What should the nurse report if it occurs immediately after burn injury?

Hyperkalemia Immediately after burn injury, hyperkalemia (excessive potassium) may result from massive cell destruction. Hypokalemia (potassium depletion) may occur later with fluid shifts and inadequate potassium replacement. During burn shock, serum sodium levels vary in response to fluid resuscitation. Hyponatremia (serum sodium depletion) may be present as a result of plasma loss. Hyponatremia may also occur during the first week of the acute phase, as water shifts from the interstitial space and returns to the vascular space.

The nurse participates in a health fair about fire safety. When clothes catch fire, which intervention helps to minimize the risk of further injury to an affected person at a scene of a fire?

Roll the client in a blanket. When clothing catches fire, the flames can be extinguished if the person drops to the floor or ground and rolls ("stop, drop, and roll"); anything available to smother the flames, such as a blanket, rug, or coat, may be used. The older adult, or others with impaired mobility, could be instructed to "stop, sit, and pat" to prevent concomitant musculoskeletal injuries. The client should not be covered immediately with a wet cloth or kept in any position other than horizontal. However, IV fluid therapy should be administered en route to the hospital.

The client is admitted with full-thickness burns to the forearm. Which is the most accurate interpretation made by the nurse?

Skin grafting will be necessary. In a full-thickness burn, all layers of the skin are destroyed and will result in the need for skin grafts. Full-thickness burns are painless. A deep partial-thickness burn may take 3 or more weeks to heal. In the most serious full-thickness burns, ligaments, tendons, muscles, and bone may be involved.

A nurse is required to monitor the effectiveness of fluid resuscitation in a client who is being treated for burns. Which of the following assessments would indicate the success of the fluid resuscitation?

The client's urinary output is 0.5 mL/kg/hour. Successful fluid resuscitation is gauged by a urinary output of 0.5 mL/kg/hour via an indwelling catheter. Fluid resuscitation does not directly affect the client's heart rate, breathing, or mental status.

The most important intervention in the nutritional support of a client with a burn injury is to provide adequate nutrition and calories. The nurse recognizes this intervention is to promote

decreased catabolism. Burn injuries produce profound metabolic abnormalities fueled by the exaggerated stress response to the injury. The body's response has been classified as hyperdynamic, hypermetabolic, and hypercatabolic. The most important intervention in the nutritional support of a client with a burn injury is to provide adequate nutrition and calories to decrease catabolism. Nutritional support with optimized protein intake can decrease the protein losses by approximately 50%. A marked increase in metabolic rate is seen after a burn injury and interventions are instituted to decrease metabolic rate and catabolism. A marked increase in glucose demand is seen after a burn injury and interventions are instituted to decrease glucose demands and catabolism. Rapid skeletal muscle breakdown with amino acids serving as the energy source is seen after a burn injury and interventions are instituted to decrease catabolism.

A client with deep partial-thickness and full-thickness burns on the arms receives autografts. Two days later, the nurse finds the client doing arm exercises. The nurse provides additional client teaching because these exercises may:

dislodge the autografts. Because exercising the autograft sites may dislodge the grafted tissue, the nurse should advise the client to keep the grafted extremity in a neutral position. Exercise doesn't cause increased edema, increased scarring, or decreased circulation.