MTA 98-365 Win Server Admin Fundamentals
What do you call one or more IP subnets that are connected by a high-speed link?
Answer: A site Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Introducing Sites and Domain Controllers Explanation: A site is one or more IP subnets that are connected by a high-speed link, typically defined by a geographical location. Suppose that you have a four-story office building. Although the building includes several subnets, all computers within the building use layer-2 and layer-3 switches to communicate with each other.
___________ is the primary authentication protocol used in Active Directory.
Answer: Kerberos Difficulty: Hard Section Reference: Introducing Directory Services with Active Directory Explanation: Kerberos is a computer network authentication protocol that allows hosts to prove their identity securely over a non-secure network. It can also provide mutual authentication so that both the user and server can verify each other's identity.
What port does Remote Desktop and Remote Assistance use?
Answer: TCP port 1389 Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Introducing Remote Administration Explanation: To access a computer running Remote Desktop Services, you use Remote Desktop Connections to access a computer's graphical user interface, including the desktop, start menu, and programs, just as if you were sitting in front of the computer. Two technologies that allow you to remotely access a computer's desktop are Remote Desktop and Remote Assistance over TCP port 1389.
What two ports does FTP use?
Answer: TCP ports 20 and 21. Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Managing FTP with IIS Explanation: FTP uses TCP ports 20 and 21. Port 20 is used for control, while port 21 is used for data transfer.
A ________ is a logical unit of computers and network resources that define a security boundary.
Answer: domain Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Introducing Directory Services with Active Directory Explanation: A Windows domain is a logical unit of computers and network resources that defines a security boundary. A domain uses a single Active Directory database to share its common security and user account information for all computers within the domain, allowing centralized administration of all users, groups, and resources on the network.
A __________ is a Windows server that stores the Active Directory database.
Answer: domain controller Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Introducing Directory Services with Active Directory Explanation: A domain controller is a Windows server that stores a replica of the account and security information for the domain and defines the domain boundaries. To make a computer running Windows Server 2008 a domain controller, you must install the Active Directory Domain Services and execute the dcpromo (short for dc promotion) command.
What do you call one or more trees with disjointed namespaces?
Answer: forests Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Introducing Directory Services with Active Directory Explanation: A forest is made of one or more trees (although most people think of a forest as two or more trees). A forest varies from a tree because it uses disjointed namespaces between the trees.
What technology is used to standardize the Windows environment on all client computers?
Answer: group policies Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Introducing Group Policy Explanation: One of Active Directory's most powerful features is Group Policy, which controls the working environment for user accounts and computer accounts. Group Policy provides centralized management and configuration of operating systems, applications, and user settings in an Active Directory environment.
A ___________ is a process in which you convert a physical computer to a virtual machine.
Answer: physical-to-virtual (P2B) conversion Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Creating Virtual Machines Explanation: In many organizations, you may want to consolidate several physical servers to one machine running multiple virtual servers. Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) allows you to convert existing physical computers into virtual machines through a process known as physical-to-virtual (P2V) conversion. VMM simplifies P2V by providing a task-based wizard to automate much of the conversion process.
When you are connected to a VPN tunnel, what do you call it when you use your own Internet connection to visit the web?
Answer: split tunnel Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Understanding Remote Access Explanation: If you want to route your Internet browsing through your home Internet connection rather than go through the corporate network, you can disable the Use Default Gateway on Remote Network option. Disabling this option is called using a split tunnel.
What do you need to do with your forests and domains so that you can use all available features?
Answer: upgrade to the highest domain and forest functional levels Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Defining Functional Levels Explanation: The functional level of a domain or forest depends on which Windows Server operating system versions are running on the domain controllers in that domain or forest. The functional level also controls which advanced features are available in the domain or forest. To get all the features available with Active Directory, you must have the latest version of the Windows Server operating system, and you have to use the highest forest and domain functional level.
A ___________ is used on a website that corresponds to a physical directory elsewhere on the server, on another server, or on a website.
Answer: virtual directory Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Creating Websites and Virtual Directories Explanation: A virtual directory is used in a website that corresponds to a physical directory elsewhere on the server, on another server, or on a website. This allows you to reuse the same folder for multiple sites or to connect to content without physically moving it.
What technology is used to consolidate multiple servers onto one large physical server?
Answer: virtualization Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Understanding Server Virtualization Explanation: By using virtual machine technology, you can run multiple operating systems concurrently on a single machine, which allows separation of services while keeping costs minimal. It can also be used to create Windows test systems in a safe, self-contained environment.
By default, what port does a web server use? a) 80 b) 8080 c) 489 d) 21
a) 80 Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Introducing the Web Server Explanation: When you view web pages, you are connecting to the web server using TCP port 80.
What protocol is used to transfer files to or from a server? a) FTP b) SNMP c) VPN d) SMTP
a) FTP Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Managing FTP with IIS Explanation: File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is used to transfer files to or from a server. Most FTP sites are used primarily to download files. In most of these situations, FTP uses anonymous authentication, in which username and password are not required.
What does L2TP use to encrypt data? a) IPSec b) PPTP c) MPPE d) SSTP
a) IPsec Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Understanding Remote Access Explanation: Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is used with IPSec to provide security. L2TP is the industry standard when setting up secure tunnels.
What Microsoft web server is included with Windows servers? a) Internet Information Services b) Web Manager c) Web Provider d) Internet Security and Acceleration
a) Internet Information Services Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Managing Websites with IIS Explanation: Microsoft's web server/application server is Internet Information Services (IIS). Windows Server 2008 R2 includes IIS 7.5, Windows Server 2008 includes IIS 7.0, and Windows Server 2003 includes IIS 6.0. IIS 7.0 and 7.5 support FTP, FTPS, SMTP, and HTTP/HTTPS, whereas IIS 6.0 supports FTP, SMTP, and HTTP/HTTPS.
What protocol is used to query and modify data contained within a structure that reflect geographical or organizational structure? a) LDAP b) DNS c) GlobalZones d) Kerberos
a) LDAP Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Introducing Directory Services with Active Directory Explanation: The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol, or LDAP, is an application protocol for querying and modifying data using directory services running over TCP/IP. Within the directory, the sets of objects are organized in a logical hierarchical manner so that you can easily find and manage them.
Which form of authentication sends username and password in clear text? a) PAP b) CHAP c) MS-CHAP d) EAP
a) PAP Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Understanding Remote Access Explanation: Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) uses plain text (unencrypted passwords). PAP is the least secure authentication and is not recommended.
Which type of IIS authentication does not provide a username and password? a) anonymous b) ASP.NET Impersonation c) Basic Authentication d) Windows Authentication
a) anonymous Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Using IIS Security Explanation: Authentication is used to confirm the identity of clients who request access to your sites and applications. Anonymous authentication allows access without providing a username and password.
What is used to store and distribute a public key? a) digital certificate b) digital signature c) digital lock d) digital envelope
a) digital certificate Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Exploring Secure Sockets Layer and Digital Certificates Explanation: When you use SSL to encrypt web traffic, you are using asymmetric encryption, which involves a private key and a public key. The public key is provided to anyone who wants to access the web server, and the private key is kept secret, usually by the web server that you are trying to protect. A common method to distribute a public key is to use a digital certificate.
What Windows server attached to a domain is not a domain controller? a) member server b) bridgehead server c) LDAP server d) Kerberos server
a) member server Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Introducing Sites and Domain Controllers Explanation: A server that is not running as a domain controller is known as a member server. To demote a domain controller to a member server, you rerun the dcpromo program.
To which type of group would you assign rights and permissions? a) security group b) distribution group c) scoped group d) Global Domain group
a) security group Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Comparing Group Types Explanation: Windows Active Directory has two types of groups: security and distribution. A security group is used to assign rights and permissions and gain access to network resources. It can also be used as a distribution group.
What authorizes a user to perform a certain action on a computer? a) user rights b) permissions c) assignments d) certificates
a) user rights Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Comparing Rights and Permissions Explanation: A right authorizes a user to perform certain actions on a computer, such as logging on to a system interactively or backing up files and directories on a system. User rights are assigned through local policies or Active Directory Group Policy.
What type of server serves HTML files to clients? a) web server b) FTP server c) SMB server d) application server
a) web server Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Introducing the Web Server Explanation: The World Wide Web is a system of interlinked hypertext documents known as web pages that can be viewed with a web browser such as Internet Explorer. Those pages are provided by a web server.
What type of environment has each computer keep its own security database? a) workgroup b) domain c) conglomerate d) association
a) workgroup Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Changing Computer Name and Domain Settings Explanation: By default, a computer is part of a workgroup. A workgroup is usually associated with a peer-to-peer network in which user accounts are decentralized and stored on each individual computer.
What protocol is used to send mail between servers? a) FTP b) SMTP c) SNMP d) HTTP
b) SMTP Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Introducing the Web Server Explanation: For emails to travel over the Internet, email servers (or any server or client that sends email directly out) use the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) as an outgoing mail transport.
When IIS is running multiple websites, what do you use to isolate one site from another website? a) applications b) application pools c) sites d) virtual directories
b) application pools Difficulty: Hard Section Reference: Exploring Applications and Application Pools Explanation: An application pool is a set of resources (a worker process or a set of worker processes) used by a website or application that defines the memory boundaries for the site. Forcing each application to have its own application pool ensures that one site does not interfere with another site on the same server, which ensures application performance and improved application availability. Therefore, if one application has a memory leak or crashes, it will not affect the other sites.
What service replicates information of every object in a tree and forest so that you can quickly find those objects? a) LDAP server b) global catalog c) Infrastructure Master d) PDC Emulator
b) global catalog Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Looking at Global Catalogs Explanation: A global catalog replicates the information of every object in a tree and forest. However, rather than store the entire object, it stores just those attributes that are most frequently used in search operations, such as a user's first and last name, computer name, and so forth. By default, a global catalog is created automatically on the first domain controller in the forest, but any domain controller can be made into a global catalog.
What popular application is used to access a Windows server remotely? a) remote assistance b) remote desktop c) TELNET d) SSH
b) remote desktop Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Understanding Remote Access Explanation: With early networks, users utilized dumb terminals (systems consisting of a monitor and keyboard without a processor) to connect to a mainframe. Later, computers could use TELNET to connect to a server and execute commands at a command prompt. Remote Desktop Services, formerly known as Terminal Services, is one component of Microsoft Windows that allows users to access applications and data on remote computers over a network.
Which of the following is not a primary subsystem for a server? a) processor b) video c) storage d) network
b) video Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Selecting Server Hardware Explanation: A server is made up of these primary subsystems: processor, memory, storage, and network. If any of these fails, the entire system can fail. Also, if any of these is asked to do more than what it was designed for, it can cause a bottleneck that may affect performance of the entire system.
By default, what port does SMTP use? a) 80 b) 23 c) 25 d) 21
c) 25 Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Introducing the Web Server Explanation: SMTP uses TCP port 25. ???Author: FYI: I shortened this explanation so that it doesn't repeat the preceding explanation. smdOk
By default, what port does a web server use when using SSL? a) 80 b) 8080 c) 443 d) 21
c) 443 Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Introducing the Web Server Explanation: Because personal information such as credit-card numbers can be sent over the Internet, a supplemental protocol was developed called Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). This protocol uses TCP port 443, which uses a digital certificate to encrypt the packet so that it cannot be read by anyone else except the source and target. When you use SSL, the browser URL starts with https (for example, https://www.acme.com).
Which type of IIS authentication sends the username and password in clear text? a) anonymous b) ASP.NET Impersonation c) Basic Authentication d) Windows Authentication
c) Basic Authentication Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Using IIS Security Explanation: Basic Authentication requires that users provide a valid username and password to gain access to content. Because basic authentication transmits passwords across the network in clear text, you should use it with a digital certificate to encrypt usernames and passwords being sent over the network.
What technology automatically assigns IP addresses to clients? a) DNS b) GlobalZones c) DHCP d) WINS
c) DHCP Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: DHCP Services Explanation: It would take hours to configure every host IP configuration, including IP address, addresses of DNS and WINS servers, and any other parameters. Thus, most organizations use Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) services to automatically assign IP addresses and related parameters (including subnet mask, default gateway, and length of the lease) so that a host can immediately communicate on an IP network when it starts.
Which FSMO role is the master time server and password keeper? a) Schema Master b) Domain Naming Master c) PDC Emulator d) Infrastructure Master
c) PDC Emulator Difficulty: Hard Section Reference: Flexible Single Master Operations Explanation: The Primary Domain Controller (PDC) was the main domain controller used with Windows NT. The PDC Emulator provides backward compatibility for NT4 clients. It also acts as the primary server for password changes and as the master time server within the domain.
Which DNS resource records translate IP addresses to a host name? a) SOA b) A c) PTR d) MX
c) PTR Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Exploring DNS Explanation: PTR (short for pointer) resolves an IP address to a hostname (reverse mapping) and is contained in the reverse lookup zone.
Which DNS resource record is used to locate a domain controller? a) SOA b) A c) PTR d) SRV
c) PTR Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Exploring DNS Explanation: SRV (service) records locate servers that host particular services, including LDAP servers or domain controllers.
What technology is used to link two computers or sites over the Internet while providing a secure connection? a) FTP b) SMTP c) VPN d) telnet
c) VPN Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Understanding Remote Access Explanation: Virtual private networks (VPNs) link two computers through a wide-area network such as the Internet. To keep the connection secure, the data sent between the two computers is encapsulated and encrypted.
What do you use to organize your users, computers, and other network resources within a domain? a) groups b) forest c) organizational units d) group policy
c) organizational units Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Introducing Organizational Unites Explanation: To help organize objects within a domain and minimize the number of domains required, you can use organizational units (OUs). OUs can be used to hold users, groups, computers, and other organizational units.
Which type of group can contain any user or group in any domain and can be assigned to any resource in any domain? a) domain local group b) global group c) universal group d) distribution group
c) universal group Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Comparing Group Scopes Explanation: Universal group scope is designed to contain global groups from multiple domains. Universal groups can contain global groups, other universal groups, and user accounts. Because global catalogs replicate universal group membership, you should limit the membership to global groups.
What is Microsoft's virtualization server called? a) RRAS b) VPN c) Telnet d) Hyper-V
d) Hyper-V Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Understanding Server Virtualization Explanation: Virtualization has become quite popular during the last few years. By using virtual machine technology, you can run multiple operating systems concurrently on a single machine, which allows separation of services while keeping costs to a minimum. It can also be used to create Windows test systems in a safe, self-contained environment. Microsoft Hyper-V is a hypervisor-based virtualization system for 64-bit computers starting with Windows Server 2008.
Today, most keyboards and mice use what type of port? a) PS/2 b) Serial c) DVI d) USB
d) USB Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Ports Explanation: Universal Serial Bus (USB) ports are used to connect keyboards, mice, printers, modems, and external disk drives.
What is the best way to give managers a way to change passwords for the users they manage? a) Make the manager a domain administrator. b) Make the manager an account operator. c) Make the manager a local administrator. d) Use the Delegate of Authority wizard.
d) Use the Delegate of Authority wizard. Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Introducing Organizational Units Explanation: By delegating administration, you can assign a range of administrative tasks to the appropriate users and groups. For instance, you can assign basic administrative tasks to regular users or groups and leave domain-wide and forest-wide administration to members of the Domain Admins and Enterprise Admins groups.
What legacy naming service is used to translate computer names to IP addresses? a) DNS b) GlobalZones c) DHCP d) WINS
d) WINS Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: WINS Explanation: Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) is a legacy naming service that translates from NetBIOS (computer name) to specify a network resource. A WINS sever contains a database of IP addresses and NetBIOS names that update dynamically.
What six steps in Microsoft's Troubleshooting Methodology are used by Product Support?
Answer: 1. Discover the problem. 2. Evaluate system configuration. 3. List or track possible solutions and try to isolate the problem by removing or disabling hardware or software components. 4. Execute a plan. 5. Check results. 6. Take a proactive approach. Difficulty: Hard Section Reference: Introducing Troubleshooting Methodology Explanation: Microsoft Product Support Service engineers use the "detect method," which consist of the following six steps: 1. Discover the problem: Identify and document problem symptoms, and search technical information resources such as Microsoft Knowledge Base (KB) articles to determine whether the problem is a known condition. 2. Evaluate system configuration: Ask the client or customer and check the system's documentation to determine whether any hardware, software, or network changes have been made, including any new additions. Also check any available logs, including the Event Viewer. 3. List or track possible solutions and try to isolate the problem by removing or disabling hardware or software components: Consider turning on additional logging or running diagnostic programs to gather more information and test certain components. 4. Execute a plan: Test potential solutions and have a contingency plan if these solutions do not work or have a negative impact on the computer. Of course, you don't want to make the problem worse, so if possible, back up any critical system or application files. 5. Check results: If the problem is not fixed, go back to track possible solutions. 6. Take a proactive approach: Document changes that you made along the way while troubleshooting the problem. Also notify the customer or client and document internal symptoms of the problem in case it happens in the future or in case those changes that fixed the problem affect other areas.
What is the difference between a server and a client computer?
Answer: A server is designed to support many users and therefore is typically more powerful than a client computer. It also has fault-tolerant and reliable components. Difficulty: Hard Section Reference: Comparing Servers and Workstations Explanation: A server has two goals: • Because servers are designed to support many users, they often have an increased load compared to a single user computer. • Because many users access a server, the server needs to be reliable. Therefore, servers often contain components that are fault tolerant and reliable (such as redundant power supplies, redundant hard drives, and redundant network cards). Systems designated as servers often contain additional circuitry to detect problems, such as conditions in which the system overheats.
Explain why it is important to have the correct date and time.
Answer: Because many security features and functions are based on the date and time, it is important to have the correct date or time—otherwise, those features and functions may fail. Date and time is also important for auditing. Difficulty: Hard Section Reference: Changing Date and Time Explanation: One of the simplest but most essential tasks is ensuring that the server has the correct date and time. This is essential for logging purposes and for security. If a secure packet is sent with the wrong date or time, it may be automatically denied because the date and time is used to determine whether the packet is legitimate.
What are the steps to implement a new server, service, or application for your organization?
Answer: Collecting requirements, designing and planning, implementing, and managing and monitoring. Difficulty: Hard Section Reference: Managing Information Technology Explanation: When you want to start using a server, service, or application, you should follow certain steps to implement it properly: 1. Collecting requirements 2. Designing and planning 3. Implementing 4. Managing and monitoring
____________ combines two basic forms of RAID.
Answer: Hybrid or nested RAID Difficulty: Hard Section Reference: Introducing Redundant Arrays of Independent Disks Explanation: Two other forms of RAID worth mentioning are considered hybrid or nested RAIDs: • RAID 1+0 is a mirrored dataset (RAID 1), which is then striped (RAID 0). • RAID 0+1 is a striped dataset (RAID 0), which is then mirrored (RAID 1).
What do you call a manageable piece of a disk array or SAN that is mapped to a server?
Answer: LUN Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Looking at Network Attached Storage and Storage Area Networks Explanation: Logical unit numbers (usually referred to as LUNs) allow a SAN to break its storage down into manageable pieces, which are then assigned to one or more servers in the SAN. It is a logical reference that can comprise a disk, a section of a disk, a whole disk array, or a section of a disk array.
__________ is the overall effectiveness of how data moves through the system.
Answer: Performance Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Understanding Performance Explanation: Performance is the overall effectiveness of how data moves through the system. Selecting the proper hardware (processor, memory, disk system, and network) is important to satisfy the expected performance goals. Without the proper hardware, hardware bottlenecks can limit the effectiveness of software.
What program gives you a detailed look at a system's performance?
Answer: Performance Monitor Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Using Performance Monitor Explanation: Windows Performance Monitor is a Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in that provides tools for analyzing system performance. It is included in the Computer Management and Server Manager consoles and can be executed using perfmon. From a single console, you can monitor application and hardware performance in real time, specify which data you want to collect in logs, define thresholds for alerts and automatic actions, generate reports, and view past performance data in various ways.
_________ uses two or more drives in combination to create a fault-tolerant system.
Answer: RAID Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Introducing Redundant Arrays of Independent Disks Explanation: A redundant array of independent disks (RAID) uses two or more drives in combination to create a fault-tolerant system that protects against physical hard drive failure and increases hard drive performance. A RAID can be accomplished with either hardware or software and is usually used with network servers.
Which service needs to be running on a Windows server so that it can provide file sharing?
Answer: Server Difficulty: Hard Section Reference: Managing Services Explanation: The Server service supports file, print, and named-piped sharing over the network. If the Server service is not started, you can't access shared folders, including administrative shares such as C$ and IPC$.
______________ allows users to retrieve previous versions of files and folders on their own.
Answer: Shadow copies Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Understanding Shadow Copies of Shared Folders Explanation: Shadow copies allow users to retrieve previous versions of files and folders on their own, without requiring IT personnel to restore files or folders from backup media. Of course, you need to have sufficient disk space to store the shadow copies, at least 100 MB of free space.
Why use a troubleshooting methodology?
Answer: To reduce the amount guesswork needed to troubleshoot and fix the problem in a timely manner Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Introducing Troubleshooting Methodology Explanation: The whole reason for using an effective troubleshooting methodology is to reduce the amount of guesswork needed to troubleshoot and fix the problem in a timely manner. Microsoft Product Support Service engineers use the "detect method."
What is the advantage of dynamic disks over basic disks?
Answer: You can extend or shrink dynamic disks without rebooting. You can also divide the disks into up to 2,000 separate volumes and five types of volumes. Difficulty: Hard Section Reference: Comparing Types of Disks Explanation: Dynamic disks were created for increased flexibility. Instead of the basic partition table found in a basic disk, a dynamic disk uses the Logical Disk Manager (LDR) database to store information about the basic disk. Because it uses the LRD, the disk can be divided into 2,000 separate volumes. However, you should limit the number of volumes to 32 to allow the system to reboot in a reasonable amount of time. Dynamic disks are meant to be dynamic, which means you can extend or shrink a dynamic disk without having to reboot. Also, dynamic disks support five types of volumes.
How do you flash the BIOS?
Answer: You need a special program from the motherboard manufacturer and an image of the BIOS that you want to save to your ROM chips. Difficulty: Hard Section Reference: The Motherboard Explanation: Before flashing the BIOS, be sure to thoroughly review the system or motherboard manufacturer's documentation to determine your system's BIOS version and the correct version to download and install. You can then download the BIOS image and an executable program to flash the BIOS.
What is the first Windows file loaded during boot-up? a) NTLDR b) NTDetect.com c) NTSOSKRNL.EXE d) BOOTMGR
Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Booting the System Explanation: If the system is running Windows XP or Windows Server 2003, the first file loaded is the NT loader (NTLDR), which reads the boot.ini file to display the boot menu or to boot from a partition or volume.
Which types of drives, usually found in servers, provide a higher level of performance? a) IDE b) SCSI c) MFM d) RLL
Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Managing Storage Explanation: Servers and high-performance workstations usually use SCSI drives. SCSI drives typically offer faster performance and throughput than IDE drives, and they can support a larger number of drives that can be attached using the same interface.
A ___________ is when you install Windows and applications to a new drive with nothing on it.
Answer: clean installation Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Performing Clean Installations Explanation: A clean installation is installing the software from scratch on a new drive or on newly reformatted drive. Many people find that doing a clean install of an operating system is the best way to go because you are starting fresh. The disadvantage is that the system and all its software needs to be reinstalled, patched, and configured and data copied over, something that may take hours or even days.
A ____________ is a program that controls a device in Windows.
Answer: device driver Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Managing Devices and Device Drivers Explanation: A device driver is a program that controls a device. You can think of it as a translator between the device and the operating system and programs that use the device. Programmers write code that accesses generic commands, such as sending sound, and the device driver translates those generic commands to specific commands understood by the device, such as a specific sound card.
Updating the BIOS is known as ___________ the BIOS.
Answer: flashing Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: The Motherboard Explanation: Like any software, the BIOS may need to have a bug fixed or to be expanded to support a new type of hardware that did not exist when the BIOS was written. Sometimes a newer BIOS version can lead to better system performance. To overcome some problems, check with your system or motherboard manufacturer to see if a new version of the BIOS is available for download and use on your system. The process of updating your system ROM BIOS is called flashing the BIOS.
How many primary partitions does MBR support on a single drive?
Answer: four Difficulty: Hard Section Reference: Introducing Disk Partitioning Styles Explanation: MBR supports partitions up to 2 terabytes (TB) and allows up to four primary partitions per disk.
What do you call an extra drive usually found with RAID that can be used when a drive fails?
Answer: hot spare Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Introducing Hot Spares Explanation: A hot spare is much like it sounds. When drives need to be fault tolerant, you can combine a hot spare drive with a RAID. Then, if a drive fails, the system will automatically grab the hot spare drive to replace the failed drive and rebuild or restore the missing data.
The _________ allows the processor to connect to or communicate with every other device within the server.
Answer: motherboard Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: The Motherboard Explanation: For the processor to communicate with the rest of the system, it plugs in or connects to a large circuit board called the motherboard or system board. The motherboard allows the processor to branch out and communicate with all other computer components.
What command would you use to configure a static IP address and default gateway for a computer running Windows Server 2008 Server Core?
Answer: netsh Difficulty: Hard Section Reference: Managing Server Core Explanation: When you view the output of the netsh command, you need to note the number shown in the Idx column for your network adapter. To set a static IP address and default gateway, use the following command: netsh interface ipv4 set address name="<ID>" source=static address=<StaticIP> mask=<SubnetMask> gateway=<DefaultGateway>
What component converts AC into clean DC power?
Answer: power supply Difficulty: Hard Section Reference: Power Supplies and Cases Explanation: The power supply has two functions: it converts AC into clean DC power and provides cooling fans to help keep the system from overheating.
A __________ is a computer meant to be a dedicated service provider.
Answer: server Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Understanding What a Server Does Explanation: With today's computers, any computer on the network can provide services or request services depending on how the network is set up. A server is a computer that is a meant to be a dedicated service provider, and a client is a computer that requests services.
What is a program, routine, or process that performs a specific system function to support other programs or to provide a network service?
Answer: service Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Managing Services Explanation: A service is a program, routine, or process that performs a specific system function to support other programs or to provide a network service. A service runs in the system background without a user interface. Some examples include web serving, event logging, and file serving.
What command would you use to restart Windows on a computer running Windows Server 2008 Server Core?
Answer: shutdown /r Difficulty: Hard Section Reference: Managing Server Core Explanation: To restart the computer, you use the following command: shutdown /r /t 0 or shutdown /r The /r specifies reboot, and /t 0 (short for 0 seconds) indicates a reboot immediately.
What system is used to translate www.microsoft.com to an IP address? a) DNS b) WINS c) DHCP d) ARP
a) DNS Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Exploring DNS Explanation: Domain Name System (DNS) is a hierarchical client/server-based distributed database management system that translates domain/hosts names to IP addresses. Your organization most likely has one or more DNS servers that provide name resolution for your company.
What program would you use to configure IRQs or DMAs for a device? a) Device Manager b) Computer Management console c) Devices and Printers d) Device Installer
a) Device Manager Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Using Device Manager Explanation: Device Manager provides you with a graphical view of the internal and external hardware installed on your computer and gives you a way to manage and configure your devices. With Device Manager, you can determine whether Windows recognizes a device and whether the device is working properly. You can also enable, disable, or uninstall the device; roll back the previous version of the driver; and identify the device driver, including its version and change hardware configuration settings.
Which of the following is true about drivers and 64-bit versions of Windows Server 2008? a) Drivers must be signed. b) Drivers must be registered by the PnP Society. c) Drivers must include 32-bit and 64-bit support. d) Drivers must be multilingual.
a) Drivers must be signed. Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Understanding Signed Drivers Explanation: Drivers included on the Windows installation DVD or downloaded from Microsoft's update website are digitally signed. A driver that lacks a valid digital signature or was altered after it was signed cannot be installed on 64-bit versions of Windows. If you have problems with a device driver, download only drivers that are from Microsoft's update website or the manufacturer's website.
Which of the following is used as a signal sent by a device to get the attention of the processor? a) IRQ b) DMA c) I/O port address d) memory address range
a) IRQ Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Understanding Plug and Play Devices Explanation: For years, Windows has benefited from Plug and Play (PnP) technology, in which you install or connect a device, the device is automatically recognized and configured, and the appropriate driver is installed. The interrupt request (IRQ) line numbers is a signal sent by a device to get the processor's attention when the device is ready to accept or send information. Each device must be assigned a unique IRQ number.
What is a set of concepts and practices for managing information technology (IT) systems, IT services, IT development, and IT operations? a) ITIL b) ITWAN c) HIPAA d) Rainbow Books
a) ITIL Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Managing Information Technology Explanation: The Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) is a set of concepts and practices for managing IT systems, IT Service Management (ITSM), IT development, and IT operations. ITIL gives detailed descriptions of a number of important IT practices and provides comprehensive checklists, tasks, and procedures that any IT organization can tailor to its needs.
Where do you enable Remote Desktop? a) In the Control Panel's System Properties b) SysInfo c) SysConf d) RDC
a) In the Control Panel's System Properties Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Configuring Remote Settings Explanation: Unlike Remote Assistance, Remote Desktop is installed but must be enabled before you connect to the server. It is enabled using the System Properties of the Control Panel.
Which partitioning style supports only drives up to 2 TB? a) MBR b) GPT c) Dynamic d) Basic
a) MBR Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Introducing Disk Partitioning Styles Explanation: Master Boot Record (MBR) is a traditional partitioning style that has been around since DOS and for all versions of Windows. MBR supports partitions up to 2 terabytes (TB) and allows up to four primary partitions per disk. Each partition can contain a bootable operating system.
What file-level data storage device is accessed for a network and often uses SMB/CIFS? a) NAS b) SAN c) VOL d) Dynamic Drive
a) NAS Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Looking at Network Attached Storage and Storage Area Networks Explanation: Network attached storage (NAS) is a file-level data storage device connected to a computer network to provide shared drives or folders, usually using SMB/CIFS. NAS devices usually contain multiple drives in a form of RAID for fault tolerance and are managed usually using a web interface.
In Windows Server 2008 R2, where would you configure the IPv4 configuration? a) Network and Sharing Center b) SysInfo c) SysConf d) System Properties of the Control Panel
a) Network and Sharing Center Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Configuring IP Address Settings Explanation: For a server to serve other clients, it needs to connect to and communicate over the network. Therefore, you need to know how to connect the server and configure the TCP/IP properties, which is found in the Network and Sharing Center.
Which Fibre Channel topology is the simplest topology where two devices are connected back to back? a) PC-P2P b) FC-AL c) PC-B2B d) FC-SW
a) PC-P2P Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Introducing Fibre Channel Explanation: Three major Fibre Channel topologies describe how multiple ports are connected together. The simplest of the three is the Point-to-Point (PC-P2P) topology, in which two devices are connected back to back.
What part of the boot-up process initializes hardware and finds an operating system to load? a) POST b) MBR boot c) WinBoot d) PXEBoot
a) POST Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Booting the System Explanation: Every time you turn on a computer, it goes through the Power-On Self Test (POST), which initializes hardware and finds an operating system to load.
Which form of RAID is not fault tolerant? a) RAID 0 b) RAID 1 c) RAID 5 d) RAID 0+1
a) RAID 0 Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Introducing Redundant Arrays of Independent Disks Explanation: RAID 0 stripes data across all drives. Because RAID 0 has no parity control or fault tolerance, it is not a true form of RAID. Here, if one drive fails, you lose all data on the array.
Which form of RAID is known as striping? a) RAID 0 b) RAID 1 c) RAID 5 d) RAID 0+1
a) RAID 0 Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Introducing Redundant Arrays of Independent Disks Explanation: RAID 0 stripes data across all drives. With striping, all available hard drives are combined into a single large virtual file system, with the file system's blocks arrayed so that they are spread evenly across all the drives.
What is considered the short-term memory used by the computer that is erased when the computer is shut down or rebooted? a) RAM b) flash memory c) hard drive d) CMOS memory
a) RAM Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: RAM Explanation: Random-access memory (RAM) is the computer's short-term or temporary memory. It stores instructions and data that the processor accesses directly. More RAM means you can load more instructions and data from the disks. When you cut power to RAM, like when you shut off your PC, RAM's contents disappear. This is why you use disks rather than RAM for long-term storage.
What program is used to fix a system that no longer boots running Windows Server 2003 R2? a) Recovery console b) Repair Center c) bcdedit d) DISM
a) Recovery console Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Performing Server Repair Explanation: For computers running Windows Server 2003, you can use the Recovery console, a command-line tool that you can use to repair Windows if the computer does not start correctly. You start the Recovery console from the Windows Server 2003 CD, or at startup through the startup menu if you previously installed the Recovery console on the computer.
What program is usually used to connect to a computer remotely? a) Remote Desktop b) Remote Assistance c) Control Panel d) SysInfo
a) Remote Desktop Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Configuring Remote Settings Explanation: Remote Desktop allows a user running the Remote Desktop program to access a server remotely. By default, Windows Server 2008 R2 supports two remote desktop connections—three if you also count the console mode, which is the active connection as if you were actually sitting in front of the server keyboard and monitor.
What boot option starts Windows with a minimal set of drivers and services? a) Safe mode b) Last Known Good Configuration c) Directory Services Restore Mode d) Debugging Mode
a) Safe mode Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Understanding Advanced Boot Menu Explanation: Safe mode starts Windows with a minimal set of drivers and services. If you make a change to the system and Windows no longer boots, you can try safe mode.
Where would you find the Disk Management MMC? a) Server Manager b) DiskFt Console c) DiskPart Console d) MBR-GPT Console
a) Server Manager Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Using Disk Management Tools Explanation: Disk Management is a system utility for managing hard disks and the volumes or partitions they contain. With Disk Management, you can initialize disks, create volumes, and format volumes with the FAT16, FAT32, or NTFS file systems.
Which Control Panel applet allows you to change the name of a computer or add the computer to a domain? a) System b) Reset c) Domain d) Computer
a) System Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Introducing System Settings Explanation: Some of the most important configuration settings for a server administrator are the system settings within the Control Panel. These include gathering generation information about your system, changing the computer name, adding the computer to a domain, accessing the device manager, configuring remote settings, configuring startup and recovery options, and configuring overall performance settings.
What program allows you to view processor and memory utilization quickly? a) Task Manager b) Performance Monitor c) System Information d) Configuration Manager
a) Task Manager Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Understanding Performance Explanation: Task Manager is one of the handiest programs you can use to take a quick glance at performance to see which programs are using the most system resources on your computer. You can see the status of running programs and programs that have stopped responding, and you can stop a program running in memory by using Task Manager.
You are viewing the Device Manager on a computer running Windows Server 2008. What does a black exclamation point on a yellow field indicate? a) The device is down and having problems. b) The device is disabled. c) The device is a generic driver. d) The device is not connected.
a) The device is down and having problems. Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Using Device Manager Explanation: A black exclamation point (!) on a yellow field indicates the device is in a problem state.
How do you install IIS on a computer running Windows Server 2008 R2? a) Use Server Manager. b) Use Computer Management c) Use Programs and Features within the Control Panel d) Run IIS.MSI at the command prompt.
a) Use Server Manager. Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Managing Roles and Features Explanation: To add roles (which IIS is), open Server Manager, click Roles in the left pane, and click Add Roles. You can add roles in the Initial Configuration Tasks window.
What technology allows you to perform network-based unattended installation of Windows operating systems, including Windows Server 2008 R2? a) WDS b) RIS c) SMB d) HTTP
a) WDS Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Using Windows Deployment Services Explanation: Windows Deployment Services (WDS) is a Microsoft technology for network-based installation of Windows operating systems, including Windows XP, Windows Vista, Windows Server 2003, and Windows Server 2008. You can fully automate and customize the deployment of Windows through the use of unattended installation scripting files.
The best method to data recovery is __________. a) backup b) DFS c) RAID d) spare drives
a) backup Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Understanding Backups Explanation: A backup, or the process of backing up, refers to making copies of data so that these copies can be used to restore the original after a data-loss event. They can be used to restore entire systems following a disaster or to restore small file sets that were accidentally deleted or corrupted. The best method for data recovery is back up, back up, back up!
Which step in the troubleshooting methodology would you use to identify and document all symptoms of a problem? a) discover the problem b) evaluate system configuration c) execute a plan d) take a proactive approach
a) discover the problem Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Introducing Troubleshooting Methodology Explanation: Discover the problem is the step used to identify and document problem symptoms. You can search technical information resources, such as Microsoft Knowledge Base (KB) articles, to determine whether the problem is a known condition.
Which type of backup backs up only new and recently changed files since the last backup? a) full backup b) incremental backup c) differential backup d) copy backup
a) full backup Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Understanding Backups Explanation: Full backups with incremental backups start with a full backup followed by several incremental backups. For example, once a week, you would perform a full backup on Friday night, which shuts off the archive attribute indicating that the files were backed up. Then any new files or changed files would have the archive attribute turned on. You would then perform an incremental backup Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday night, which only backs up new and changed files and shuts off the archive attribute.
What file is used to translate host names to IP addresses? a) hosts file b) lmhosts file c) dns file d) wins file
a) hosts file Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Understanding HOSTS and LMHOSTS Files Explanation: Early TCP/IP networks used hosts (used with domain/hostnames associated with DNS) and lmhost (used with NetBIOS/computer names associated with WINS) files, which were text files that listed a name and its associated IP address.
What program is used to get a quick view of what hardware and software is loaded on a computer? a) msinfo32.exe b) sysconf.exe c) regedit.exe d) rdc.exe
a) msinfo32.exe Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: System Information Explanation: System Information (also known as msinfo32.exe) shows details about your computer's hardware configuration, components, and software, including drivers. It was originally included with Windows to assist Microsoft support people in determining what a particular machine contains, especially when talking to end users.
A ______________ is a primary duty that a server provides. a) server role b) server feature c) server task d) server objective
a) server role Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Introducing Server Roles Explanation: A server role is a primary duty that a server performs. A server can have multiple roles. Some of the more common include file services, print services, web services, remote access, application server, email server, and database server.
Servers often have _________ addresses. a) static b) dynamic c) rotating d) multiple
a) static Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Configuring IP Address Settings Explanation: Because servers provide services to multiple clients, the network addresses are manually assigned and don't change much.
What type of installation requires little interaction? a) unattended installation b) pre-build installation c) deployment installation d) hands-off installation
a) unattended installation Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Performing an Unattended Installation Explanation: An unattended installation requires little interaction to install. To perform an unattended installation of Windows, use an answer file, an XML file that stores the answers for a series of graphical user interface (GUI) dialog boxes.
To make sure that your computer is stable and secure, you should ________ Windows after a new installation. a) update b) activate c) consolidate d) flash
a) update Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Understanding Windows Updates Explanation: After installing Windows, check whether Microsoft has any Windows updates including fixes, patches, service packs, and device drivers, and apply them. By adding fixes and patches, you will keep Windows stable and secure. Many fixes or patches are released together as a service pack or a cumulative package.
What is the minimum amount of RAM needed to install Windows Server 2008 R2? a) 256 MB b) 512 MB c) 1 GB d) 2 GB
b) 512 MB Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Installing Windows Server 2008 R2 Explanation: Before installing Windows Server 2008 R2 software, look at the system requirements, which includes one 64-bit 1.4 GHz processor or better and 512 MB of RAM. Of course, for decent performance, you need much more than that.
Which resource record used in DNS translates host names to IP addresses? a) SOA b) A c) PTR d) MX
b) A Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Exploring DNS Explanation: A (host address) provides a hostname to an IPv4 address; AAA (host address) provides a hostname to an IPv6 address.
The primary program to configure the Windows environment is _______. a) Computer Management console b) Control Panel c) Server Manager d) Registry Editor
b) Control Panel Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Using the Control Panel Explanation: As with previous versions of Windows, the main graphical utility to configure the Windows environment and hardware devices is the Control Panel.
What partitioning style supports up to 18 EB and 128 partitions? a) MBR b) GPT c) Dynamic d) Basic
b) GPT Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Introducing Disk Partitioning Styles Explanation: GUID Partition Table (GPT) is a newer partitioning style that supports up to 18 exabtyes (EB) or 18 billion gigabytes and can store up to 128 partitions on each disk. This style is also more fault tolerant because it stores a duplicate set of partition tables.
What mode starts Windows with the last registry and driver configuration that worked successfully? a) Safe mode b) Last Known Good Configuration c) Directory Services Restore Mode d) Debugging Mode
b) Last Known Good Configuration Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Understanding Advanced Boot Menu Explanation: Last known good configuration starts Windows with the last registry and driver configuration that worked successfully, usually marked as the last successful logon.
Which type of RAID is known as disk mirroring? a) RAID 0 b) RAID 1 c) RAID 5 d) RAID 0+1
b) RAID 1 Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Introducing Redundant Arrays of Independent Disks Explanation: RAID 1 is another common form of RAID used in networked PCs and servers. RAID 1 is sometimes known as disk mirroring, which copies a disk or partition onto a second hard drive. Specifically, as information is written, it is written to both hard drives simultaneously.
What program allows you to view and interact with a user's sessions while a user is showing an error? a) Remote Desktop b) Remote Assistance c) Control Panel d) SysInfo
b) Remote Assistance Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Configuring Remote Settings Explanation: Remote Assistance is designed for support personnel to connect to an active logon session to assist or troubleshoot a problem. Unlike Remote Desktop, Remote Assistance allows the user to interact with the current session, including seeing the same computer screen.
What device contains many hard drives and is used by multiple servers as a central storage area? a) NAS b) SAN c) VOL d) Dynamic Drive
b) SAN Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Looking at Network Attached Storage and Storage Area Networks Explanation: A storage area network (SAN) is an architecture used for disk arrays, tape libraries, and optical jukeboxes to appear as locally attached drives on a server. A SAN always uses some form of RAID and other technology to make the system redundant against drive failure and to offer high performance.
You are viewing the Device Manager on a computer running Windows Server 2008. What does a down black arrow indicate? a) The device is having down and having problems. b) The device is disabled. c) The device is a generic driver. d) The device is not connected.
b) The device is disabled. Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Using Device Manager Explanation: A down black arrow indicates a disabled device. A disabled device is physically present in the computer and is consuming resources, but it does not have a driver loaded.
To protect against power fluctuations, every server should be protected by _______. a) RAID b) UPS c) Teamed NICs d) APM
b) UPS Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Introducing Fault-Tolerant Components Explanation: An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is an electrical device consisting of one or more batteries to provide backup power when a power outage occurs.
Which part of the disk contains NTLDR or BOOTMGR? a) MBR b) VBR c) partition table d) kernel volume
b) VBR Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Booting the System Explanation: A volume boot record (VBR), also known as a volume boot sector or a partition boot sector, is a type of boot sector—stored in a disk volume on a hard disk, floppy disk, or similar data storage device—that contains code for booting an operating system such as NTLDR and BOOTMGR.
What format are the Windows Server installation files stored in when using WDS? a) GHO b) WIM c) PXE d) RIS
b) WIM Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Using Windows Deployment Services Explanation: The Windows installation files are distributed within a Windows Imaging Format (WIM) file. WIM is the file-based imaging format that Windows Server uses for rapid installation on a new computer. WIM files store copies (known as images) of the operating systems.
What program would you use to format a volume? a) SysConf b) Windows Explorer c) DiskPart d) Group Policies
b) Windows Explorer Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Using Management Tools Explanation: Disk Management is a system utility for managing hard disks and the volumes or partitions they contain. With Disk Management, you can initialize disks, create volumes, and format volumes with the FAT16, FAT32, or NTFS file systems. Formatting is also done with Windows Explorer.
Which of the following cannot be upgraded to Windows Server 2008 R2 Enterprise Edition? a) Windows Server 2008 Standard Edition 64-bit b) Windows Server 2008 Enterprise Edition 32-bit c) Windows Server 2008 R2 Standard Edition d) Windows Server 2003 R2 Enterprise Edition 64-Bit
b) Windows Server 2008 Enterprise Edition 32-bit Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Performing an Upgrade Explanation: Sometimes you may want to upgrade from an older version of Windows to Windows Server 2008 R2. You can upgrade by using an upgrade installation. However, you cannot perform an in-place upgrade from 32-bit to 64-bit architecture because all editions of Windows Server 2008 R2 are 64-bit only. You also cannot upgrade from one language to another.
What logical unit of computers shares the same security database? a) workgroup b) domain c) conglomerate d) association
b) domain Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Changing Computer Name and Domain Settings Explanation: A domain is a logical unit of computers that define a security boundary, and it is usually associated with Microsoft's Active Directory. The security of the domain is generally centralized and controlled by Windows servers acting as domain controllers. As a result, you can manage the security much easier for multiple computers while providing better security.
Which step do you need to check if any changes have been made to your system? a) discover the problem b) evaluate system configuration c) execute a plan d) take a proactive approach
b) evaluate system configuration Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Introducing Troubleshooting Methodology Explanation: During the evaluate system configuration step, you ask the client or customer and check the system's documentation to determine whether any hardware, software, or network changes have been made, including any new additions. Also check any available logs, including the Event Viewer.
What tool do you use to help isolate a program that is giving you problems during boot-up? a) sysinfo b) msconfig c) regedit d) evtvwr
b) msconfig Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Using the System Configuration Tool Explanation: The System Configuration (msconfig.exe) tool can help you identify problems that might prevent Windows from starting correctly. When a problem occurs, assuming you can successfully start and log on to Windows, you can open System Configuration and disable certain startup programs or services.
In server management, which approach tries to prevent problems before they occur? a) reactive b) proactive c) rolling d) dynamic
b) proactive Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Managing Information Technology Explanation: When managing your servers, you can take one of two approaches: proactive or reactive. Being proactive means that you are looking ahead and anticipating problems before they disable or degrade your server, service, or application.
What is the maximum amount of RAM supported by Windows Server 2008 R2 Standard Edition? a) 4 GB b) 8 GB c) 32 GB d) 64 GB
c) 32 GB Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Installing Windows Server 2008 R2 Explanation: Whereas the Foundation Edition of Windows Server 2008 R2 supports up to 8 GB, the Windows Server 2008 R2 Web and Standard editions supports up to 32 GB.
What is the default port used by iSCSI? a) 8080 b) 3128 c) 3260 d) 9000
c) 3260 Difficulty: Hard Section Reference: Introducing iSCSI Explanation: Internet Small Computing System Interface (iSCSI) is an Internet Protocol (IP)-based storage networking standard for linking data storage facilities. iSCSI allows clients to send SCSI commands over a TCP/IP network using TCP port 3260.
How many connectors does an RJ-45 connector have? a) 4 b) 5 c) 8 d) 9
c) 8 Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Ports Explanation: The RJ-45 connector, also known as an Ethernet connector, is used to connect a 10Base-T/100Base-T/1000Base-T network cable. It includes eight wires and contacts.
What program would you use to install printers in Windows Server 2008 R2? a) Device Manager b) Computer Management console c) Devices and Printers d) Print Manager
c) Devices and Printers Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Using Devices and Printers Explanation: The Devices and Printers folder gives you a quick view of devices connected to your computer that you can connect to or disconnect from your computer through a port or network connection. It also allows you to add printers.
Which is the preferred file system used in Windows Server 2008 R2? a) FAT16 b) FAT32 c) NTFS d) EFS
c) NTFS Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Introducing File Systems Explanation: New Technology File System (NTFS) is the preferred file system, largely because it supports both a much larger hard disk (up to 16 exabytes) and long file names. NTFS is also more fault tolerant than previous file systems used in Windows because it uses journaling to ensure that disk transactions are written properly before they can be recognized. Lastly, NTFS offers better security through permissions and encryption.
In Windows Server, what main part of Windows is responsible for various system services and process and memory management? a) WINLoad b) HAL.DLL c) NTOSKRNL.EXE d) BOOTMGR
c) NTOSKRNL.EXE Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Booting the System Explanation: NTOSKRNL.EXE is the main part of Windows known as the kernel. It is responsible for various system services and process and memory management.
Which type of RAID is striping with parity? a) RAID 0 b) RAID 1 c) RAID 5 d) RAID 0+1
c) RAID 5 Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Introducing Redundant Arrays of Independent Disks Explanation: RAID 5 is similar to striping, except the space equivalent to one of the hard drives is used for parity (error correction) to provide fault tolerance. To increase performance, the error-correction function is spread across all hard drives in the array to avoid having one drive doing all the work in calculating the parity bits.
What program or component is helps prevent unauthorized changes to Windows? a) SysConf b) SysInfo c) UAC d) Security Monitor
c) UAC Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Understanding User Account Control Explanation: User Account Control (UAC)—a feature that started with Windows Vista and is included with Windows Server 2008—helps prevent unauthorized changes to your computer. If you are logged in as an administrator, UAC asks you for permission, and if you are logged in as a standard user, UAC asks for an administrator password before performing actions that can potentially affect your computer's operation or that change settings that affect other users.
In Windows Server 2008, what would you use instead of Recovery console? a) Windows Backups b) Shadow copies c) Windows PE d) Windows Fix tool
c) Windows PE Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Performing Server Repair Explanation: For Windows Server 2008, you would use the WinPE disk instead of the Recovery console. Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) 3.0 is a minimal Win32 operating system with limited services, built on the Windows 7 kernel.
Which file displays a boot menu displaying which operating system to boot on a server running Windows XP or Windows Server 2003? a) NTOSKRNL.EXE b) ntdetect.com c) boot.ini d) WINLoad
c) boot.ini Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Understanding Boot.ini Explanation: The Windows XP and Windows Server 2003 NTLDR will read the boot.ini file to determine which operating system to load, even if your system only has one operating system. If your system has multiple operating systems, the boot.ini file can display a boot menu so that you can choose which operating system to load and automatically select a default operating system if one is not selected during boot-up.
Where would you find the instructions that a server users to boot and includes POST and finding a drive to complete the boot process? a) hard drive b) RAM c) firmware d) USB flash drive
c) firmware Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: The Motherboard Explanation: Firmware is found on the motherboard and expansion cards. Firmware is software contained in read-only memory (ROM) chips. Unlike RAM, ROM instructions are permanent and can't be changed or erased except with special software. The System ROM BIOS contains instructions that control most of the computer's input/output functions, including communicating with disks, RAM, and the monitor. These chips are also known as the BIOS (basic input/output system).
What program should you run if you decide to clone a hard drive of Windows Server 2008 R2? a) sysinfo b) sysconf c) sysprep d) format
c) sysprep Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Disk Cloning and System Preparation Tool Explanation: If you create a cloned copy of Windows and apply it to multiple computers, each copy cloned to a target computer using the same image has the same parameters, including computer name and security identifier (SID). To overcome this problem, run the system preparation tool (sysprep), which removes the security identifiers and all other user-specific or computer-specific information from the computer before you run the disk-cloning software to make the cloned disk image.
What should be the maximum consistent processor utilization? a) 40% b) 50% c) 60% d) 80%
d) 80% Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Understanding Performance Explanation: Processor Time measures how busy the processor is. Although the processor may jump to 100% processor usage, the processor should not be above 80% most of the time. If it isn't, you should upgrade the processor (using a faster processor or additional processors) or move some of the services to other systems.
What stores the boot-time configuration data for Windows 7 and Windows Server 2008? a) NTOSKRNL b) ntdetect c) boot.ini d) BCD
d) BCD Difficulty: Hard Section Reference: Understanding BCDEdit Explanation: Boot Configuration Data (BCD) is a firmware-independent database for boot-time configuration data used by Microsoft's Windows Boot Manager found with Windows Vista, Windows 7, and Windows Server 2008. To edit the Boot Configuration, you typically use Bcdedit.exe.
What program do you use to view the Windows logs? a) rdc.exe b) sysconf.exe c) regedit.exe d) Event Viewer
d) Event Viewer Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Using the Event Viewer Explanation: One of the most useful troubleshooting tools is the Event Viewer MMC snap-in, which is essentially a log viewer. Whenever you have problems, look in the Event Viewer to see any errors or warning that may reveal what a problem is.
What type of server provides a minimal environment with no Windows Explorer shell and no Start button? a) striped computer b) MinWin computer c) Windows BareBone d) Server Core
d) Server Core Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Comparing Full Version and Server Core Explanation: Server Core installation provides a minimal environment with no Windows Explorer shell for running specific server roles and no Start button. Just about the only thing that you can see is a command-prompt window. Because the system has a minimal environment, it runs more efficiently, focusing on what it needs to provide rather than processing fancy graphics for you to manage the system.
Where would you not find the Event Viewer? a) Administrative Tools b) Computer Management console c) Server Manager d) SysInfo
d) SysInfo Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Using Microsoft Management Console and Administrative Tools Explanation: The Administrative Tools folder is found in Control Panel. The Event Viewer can be found as its own console, alongside the Computer Management and Server Manager consoles, all located within Administrative Tools.
You just installed a new server and are unsuccessfully trying to visit an Internet web server. You have verified that you are using the correct DNS servers and can ping all the internal servers. What is most likely the problem? a) You need to configure your computer as a public address. b) You need to configure your computer as a static address. c) You need to configure NAT. d) You need to configure the proxy settings in IE.
d) You need to configure the proxy settings in IE. Difficulty: Hard Section Reference: Configuring IP Address Settings Explanation: Usually when you go to the Internet within a corporation, you need to specify the address and port of the proxy server. If not, although you may be able to access internal resources, you can't access resources on the Internet.
What type of driver is tested and includes a digital certificate? a) published b) certified c) compliant d) signed
d) signed Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Understanding Signed Drivers Explanation: A signed device driver includes a digital signature, which is an electronic security mark that can indicate the software publisher and information that can show whether a driver has been altered. When Microsoft signs it, the driver has been thoroughly tested to ensure that it will not cause problems with the system's reliability or cause a security problem.
