Multiple choice GENE 3200
After processing of precursor mRNAs (pre-mRNAs) in eukaryotes, which of the following is present in the mature mRNAs? (a) Exons (b) Introns (c) Promoter (d) 3' cap (e) All of the above
(a) Exons
The list of events below describes intron removal and splicing during pre-mRNA processing. 1. Cleavage at the 3′ splice site 2. Cleavage at the 5' splice site 3. Splicing together of exons 4. Covalent bond formation at the adenine of the branch point sequence 5. Release of lariat structure Which of these choices is the correct order of events? (a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (b) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3 (c) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3 (d) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3 (e) None of these choices
(b) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
If 5'-CGAAGCATGCCTACGTTAG-3' is part of an origin of replication and 5'-GCATGC-3' is the first 6 nucleotides of newly synthesized DNA, which of the following sequences could be the primer used to initiate DNA synthesis? (a) 5'-GAUGCA-3' (b) 3'-GAUGCA-5' (c) 5'-GAUUGC-3' (d) 3'-GCUUCG-5' (e) None of the above
(b) 3'-GAUGCA-5'
For the tryptophan (trp) operon in E. coli, which of the following statements is TRUE? (a) A mutation in the trp operator will cause the operon to be expressed only when tryptophan is present in the media. (b) A mutation in the trp operator will cause the operon to be expressed constitutively. (c) A mutation in the trp repressor will cause the operon to be expressed only when tryptophan is present the media. (d) A mutation in the trp operator will prevent binding of tryptophan to the trp repressor. (e) None of these choices.
(b) A mutation in the trp operator will cause the operon to be expressed constitutively.
In DNA replication in prokaryotes, which of these enzymes removes the RNA primer used to initiate replication? (a) DNA primase (b) DNA helicase (c) DNA polymerase I (d) DNA polymerase II (e) DNA polymerase III
(c) DNA polymerase I
In eukaryotes, which RNA polymerase transcribes the genes for transfer RNAs (tRNAs)? (a) RNA polymerase I (b) RNA polymerase II (c) RNA polymerase III (d) Either (a) or (b) (e) Either (b) or (c)
(c) RNA polymerase III
Rho-independent transcription termination in prokaryotes depends on a secondary structure formed in which of the following? (a) The RNA polymerase that is transcribing the gene (b) The DNA template strand (c) The RNA that is being transcribed (d) A protein factor that binds to RNA polymerase (e) A protein factor that binds to the RNA that is being transcribed
(c) The RNA that is being transcribed
Which statement is NOT true of replication licensing in eukaryotic cells? (a) It ensures that DNA is replicated only once at each origin per cell cycle. (b) Replication licensing factors have helicase activity. (c) Replication licensing factors bind to each origin during G1 and are removed during S phase. (d) Replication licensing factors bind to each origin during S phase and are removed during G2 phase. (e) Replication licensing factors are active only after the cell has completed mitosis.
(d) Replication licensing factors bind to each origin during S phase and are removed during G2 phase.
For the genotype of a partial diploid at the lac operon of E. coli shown below, which of the following statements is TRUE of the expected expression of beta-galactosidase and permease? lacI+ lacP— lacOC lacZ— lacY+/ lacI— lacP+ lacO+ lacZ+ lacY— (a) Both will have inducible expression. (b) Both will have constitutive expression. (c) Expression of beta-galactosidase will be inducible and expression of permease will be constitutive. (d) Expression of beta-galactosidase will be constitutive and expression of permease will be inducible. (e) Expression of beta-galactosidase will be inducible but there will be no expression of permease in the presence or absence of inducer. (f) There will be no expression of beta-galactosidase in the presence or absence of inducer and expression of permease will be inducible. (g) There will be no expression of either enzyme in the presence or absence of inducer
(e) Expression of beta-galactosidase will be inducible but there will be no expression of permease in the presence or absence of inducer
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding TFIID of eukaryotes? (a) It contains a TATA binding protein. (b) It is required for in initiation of transcription. (c) It binds to the core promoter. (d) It binds to the TATA box. (e) It is a transcriptional activator protein
(e) It is a transcriptional activator protein
Which of these is the consensus sequence at the -10 region in strong promoters in E. coli? (a) 5'-TTTAAA-3' (b) 5'-TAAAAT-3' (c) 5'-TTAATT-3' (d) 5'-AATAAT-3' (e) None of the above
(e) None of the above
For the tryptophan (trp) operon in E. coli, which of the following statements is TRUE? (a) The trp operon WILL be expressed when tryptophan is present in the media but will NOT be expressed when tryptophan is not present in the media. (b) A mutation in the gene encoding tryptophan will cause constitutive expression of the trp operon. (c) Regulation of this operon occurs through a negative inducible system. (d) A mutation in the trp operator will prevent binding of tryptophan to the trp repressor. (e) None of these choices.
(e) None of these choices.
In eukaryotes, what is the function of general transcription factors? (a) They are DNA sequences to which RNA polymerase binds. (b) They direct nucleosome assembly. (c) They bind to sigma factor to increase the rate of transcription initiation. (d) They bind to enhancers to allow minimal levels of transcription. (e) They are a part of the basal transcription apparatus.
(e) They are a part of the basal transcription apparatus.
Assuming DNA replication has occurred without any errors, homologous chromosomes have identical DNA sequence. True or false.
False
During anaphase of mitosis, homologous chromosomes separate and migrate to opposite centrosomes. True or False
False
For a tRNA to become charged, a covalent bond is formed between the 3' end of the RNA and the amino (NH2) group of an amino acid. True or False
False
Genes located in euchromatin are generally transcriptionally inactive. True or False
False
In RNA interference (RNAi), Dicer is the protein complex that processes double- stranded RNA to generate single-stranded RNA that forms complementary base-pairs with a target mRNA. True or False
False
In eukaryotic chromatin, DNA is wrapped around nucleosome cores made of eight subunits of histone H1. True or False
False
The Kozak sequence is the optimal sequence for initiation of translation in prokaryotes. True or false.
False
The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is required for recognition of the initiation codon for translation in eukaryotes. True or false
False
The first level of compaction of DNA in the chromatin of eukaryotic cells is winding around nucleosomes to form the 30 nm fiber. True or False
False
Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases catalyze the formation of a covalent bond between the 3' end of the tRNA and the carboxy group of an amino acid. True or false
True
The presence of double-stranded RNA in cells triggers the RNA interference (RNAi) pathway. True or False
True
Which of the following is the correct term that describes microtubule organizing centers at the spindle poles of cells in mitosis? a) Centrosomes b) Kinetochores c) Centromeres d) Spindlesomes e) None of the above
a) Centrosomes
Which of these statements is TRUE of splicing of precursor mRNAs (pre-mRNAs) in eukaryotes? a) Exons are spliced to exons b) Exons are spliced to introns c) During the processing of splicing, the 5' end of the intron is attached to the 3' end of the intron. d) Introns are spliced to introns e) None of the above
a) Exons are spliced to exons
3. Which amino acid would be carried by a tRNA with the anticodon sequence 3'-GAC-5'? a) Leu b) Asp c) Gln d) Val e) None of these choices
a) Leu
Which of the following statements best describes heteroduplex DNA? a) Single-stranded DNA of one chromosome pairs with single-stranded DNA of another chromosome. b) Single-stranded DNA of one chromosome pairs with single-stranded RNA of another chromosome. c) DNA that consists of sequences from two different species that are brought together through homologous recombination. d) DNA that consists of an RNA primer and newly synthesized DNA on the lagging strand. e) DNA that is found in a heterozygous individual.
a) Single-stranded DNA of one chromosome pairs with single-stranded DNA of another chromosome.
Which of the following terms describes a distinct clump of prokaryotic DNA observed via electron microscopy? a) nucleoid b) nucleus c) nucleolus d) plasmid e) nucleosome
a) nucleoid
7. The proofreading function of DNA polymerases involves which of the following activities? a) 5' - 3' exonuclease activity b) 3' - 5'- exonuclease activity c) 5' - 3' telomerase activity d) 3' - 5' telomerase activity e) 5' - 3' gyrase activity
b) 3' - 5'- exonuclease activity
7. The sequence of a portion of the TEMPLATE strand of a gene is 5'-TCAAGTCACA-3'. What is the sequence of the RNA that would be transcribed from this sequence? a) 5'-AGUUCAGUGU-3' b) 3'-AGUUCAGUGU-5' c) 5'-UCAAGUCACA-3' d) 3'-UCAAGUCACA-5' e) None of these choices
b) 3'-AGUUCAGUGU-5'
Which of the following is not true of the proportions of bases in double stranded DNA? a) A/G = T/C b) A + T = G + C c) (C+A) / (G+T) = 1 d) A + G = G + T e) AxG = CxT
b) A + T = G + C
Based on the results of Meselson and Stahl experiments expected for the three possible models of replication, which of the following statements is TRUE? (a) After one generation of replication through a dispersive mechanism, bands H and L would be present and each band would have roughly the same amount of DNA. b) After two generations of replication through a conservative mechanism, bands H and L would be present and about 3/4 of the DNA would be in band L. (c) After one generation of replication through a semi-conservative mechanism, bands I and and L would be present and each band would have roughly the same amount of DNA. (d) None of the statements is true. (e) All of the statements are true
b) After two generations of replication through a conservative mechanism, bands H and L would be present and about 3/4 of the DNA would be in band L.
In DNA replication, which of the following enzymes synthesizes the RNA primer? a) DNA polymerase I b) DNA primase c) DNA gyrase d) RNA polymerase e) None of the above
b) DNA primase
Which of the following statements is TRUE of the lac repressor of E. coli? a) It binds to the promoter of the lac operon and inhibits transcription of the structural genes. b) It binds to the operator of the lac operon and inhibits transcription of the structural genes. c) Transcription of the gene for the lac repressor is regulated by lactose. d) It is encoded by the lacY gene. e) None of these choices is true
b) It binds to the operator of the lac operon and inhibits transcription of the structural genes.
Which of the following statements is TRUE of the operator in the lac operon of E. coli? a) It is the DNA sequence that is bound by the positive regulator of the lac operon. b) It is the DNA sequence that is bound by the negative regulator of the lac operon. c) It is the gene that encodes lac repressor. d) It is the gene that encodes beta-galactosidase. e) It is located just upstream to the lac promoter.
b) It is the DNA sequence that is bound by the negative regulator of the lac operon.
Which of the following can be the direct consequence of a defect (e.g. absence of cap, absence of polyA tail, absence of splicing) in processing of a precursor mRNAs (pre-mRNAs) in eukaryotes? a) No transcription of the mRNA b) No translation of the mRNA c) No replication of the mRNA d) No recombination of the mRNA e) All of the above
b) No translation of the mRNA
Which of the following statements is TRUE of the lac operon of E. coli? a) A single precursor mRNA is transcribed and is alternatively spliced to produce three different mature mRNAs. b) Transcription of the structural genes is induced when lactose is added to the media. c) Transcription of the structural genes is induced when glucose is added to the media. d) Transcription of the structural genes is controlled through the binding of cAMP-CAP to the lac promoter. e) It is an example of negative repressible regulation.
b) Transcription of the structural genes is induced when lactose is added to the media.
Unwinding the double helix to separate the parental strands requires which of the following? a) Primase b) helicase c) DNA ligase d) Topoisomerase e) DNA polymerase f) telomerase
b) helicase
Which of the following statements is NOT true of the LAGGING strand of DNA replication? a) it is synthesized discontinuously b) it is synthesized in the 3'-to-5' direction c) It consists of a series of Okazaki fragments that were ligated together. d) It is the strand that could lose sequences at each round of replication if there were no telomeres. e) All of the above are true.
b) it is synthesized in the 3'-to-5' direction
Crossing over between homologous chromosomes occurs at which stage of meiosis? a) anaphase I b) prophase I c) prophase II d) metaphase I e) anaphase II
b) prophase I
The sequence of a portion of RNA is 5'-GCUUACCGAA-3'. What is the sequence of the TEMPLATE strand of DNA that this RNA was transcribed from? a) 5'-GCTTACCGAA-3' b) 3'-GCTTACCGAA-5' c) 3'-CGAATGGCTT-5' d) 5'-CGAATGGCTT-3' e) None of these choices
c) 3'-CGAATGGCTT-5'
In rabbits, normal cells in the G1 stage of the cell cycle have 44 chromosomes. Per cell, how many chromosomes and chromatids would be present when a cell is at the beginning of mitosis? a) 88 chromosomes and 88 chromatids b) 44 chromosomes and 44 chromatids c) 44 chromosomes and 88 chromatids d) 88 chromosomes and 44 chromatids
c) 44 chromosomes and 88 chromatids
5. If 5'-GATACTCGACCTGATTC-3' is part of an origin of replication and 5'-UCAGGU-3' is used to prime DNA synthesis from the above strand, which of the following sequences are the first six nucleotides of DNA that are synthesized? a) 5'-TCAGGT-3' b) 5'-GCTCAT-3' c) 5'-CGAGTA-3' d) 5'-GAATCA-3' e) None of these choices
c) 5'-CGAGTA-3'
In sheep, normal cells in the G1 stage of the cell cycle have 54 chromosomes. Per cell, how many chromosomes and chromatids would be present when a cell is at the beginning of mitosis? a) 108 chromosomes and 108 chromatids b) 54 chromosomes and 54 chromatids c) 54 chromosomes and 108 chromatids d) 108 chromosomes and 54 chromatids
c) 54 chromosomes and 108 chromatids
Listed below are some of the key steps, listed in random order, in the double strand break model of recombination. A. Two Holliday junctions are formed. B. Double-strand break of one chromatid C. Invasion of the unbroken chromatid by the 3' end of the broken strand. D. Enzymatic removal of the 5' ends of the broken strands. E. DNA synthesis occurs at the 3' end of each broken strand. (cont) Which of these is the correct order of events that should take place, starting with the first event and ending in the last event? a) C, B, A, E, D b) C, D, A, E, B c) B, D, C, E, A d) B, E, D, A, C e) None of these choices
c) B, D, C, E, A
4. Which of these processes is involved in the processing of precursors of siRNAs and miRNAs? a) Cleavage of RISC by endonucleases. b) Formation of a complex between siRNAs and miRNAs. c) Cleavage of double-stranded RNA by Dicer. d) Cleavage of double-stranded RNA by snRNA. e) All of the above are involved.
c) Cleavage of double-stranded RNA by Dicer.
Which of the following statements is NOT true of the mechanism of sex determination in Drosophila? a) Only females, and not males, transcribe the sex-lethal (Sxl) gene and produce Sxl protein. b) Splicing of the transformer (tra) gene is controlled so that Tra protein is produced only in females and not in males. c) Double-sex (Dsx) proteins produced in males and females control the expression of the same genes. d) All of these choices are true. e) None of these choices is true
c) Double-sex (Dsx) proteins produced in males and females control the expression of the same genes.
A centromere is an example of which type of DNA sequence in eukaryotes? a) Moderately repetitive DNA b) Short interspersed elements c) Highly repetitive DNA d) Long interspersed elements e) Unique-sequence DNA
c) Highly repetitive DNA
Which of the following processes occurs during anaphase of meiosis I? a) Crossing over between non-sister chromatids. b) Homologous chromosomes align along the middle of the cell. c) Homologous chromosomes separate but sister chromatids remain joined at their centromeres. d) Sister chromatids separate from each other and migrate to opposite ends of the cell. e) The nuclear membrane begins to form around haploid sets of chromosomes.
c) Homologous chromosomes separate but sister chromatids remain joined at their centromeres.
Which of the following is the correct term that describes the structure to which spindle fibers attach during mitosis? a) Chromatid b) Centrosome c) Kinetochore d) Metaphase plate e) Centromere
c) Kinetochore
3. When Meselson and Stahl performed their experiments on DNA replication, they grew cultures of E. coli in a heavy isotope of nitrogen (15N), then transferred cultures to a light isotope of nitrogen (14N) and allowed the cultures to grow in the latter for one or two generations. If replication occurred through a dispersive mechanism, which of the following results would they have obtained? a) The 1st generation and 2nd generation would have heavy DNA and light DNA but no intermediate density DNA would occur in either generation. b) The 1st generation would have intermediate density (hybrid) DNA only, and the 2nd generation would have both intermediate and light density DNA. c) The 1st generation would have intermediate density (hybrid) DNA only, and the 2nd generation would have intermediate DNA only but no light density DNA. d) The 1st generation would have heavy DNA only, and the 2nd generation would have both heavy and light DNA but no intermediate density DNA. e) None of the above
c) The 1st generation would have intermediate density (hybrid) DNA only, and the 2nd generation would have intermediate DNA only but no light density DNA.
Where on the Christmas tree model of RNA molecules transcribed from DNA would you expect to find the promoter for this gene? a) Within the sequences of the shorter RNAs to the right, with the promoter located closest to the DNA b) Within the sequences of the longer RNAs to the left, with the promoter located closest to the DNA c) Within the sequences of the DNA to the right d) Within the sequences of the DNA to the left
c) Within the sequences of the DNA to the right
The ________ theory states that the ancestors of mitochondria and chloroplasts were free- living bacteria? a) phylogenetic b) cytoplasmic inheritance c) endosymbiotic d) chromosome e) old world
c) endosymbiotic
A centromere is an example of which type of DNA sequence in eukaryotes? a) moderately repetitive DNA b) short interspersed elements c) highly repetitive DNA d) Long interspersed elements e) Unique-sequence DNA
c) highly repetitive DNA
In partial diploids that have two wild-type lac operators (lacO+), why are lacI+ mutations recessive to lacIS mutations? a) lacIS encodes a repressor that inhibits binding of inducer to wild-type repressor b) lacI+ encodes a repressor that is degraded in the presence of repressor encoded by lacIS c) lacI S encodes a repressor that will bind to both operators even in the presence of inducer d) lacIS encodes a super inducer e) None of these choices
c) lacI S encodes a repressor that will bind to both operators even in the presence of inducer
During RNA interference (RNAi), which of these processes is affected by miRNAs? a) Histone modifications. b) DNA methylation. c) mRNA stability and translation. d) Nucleosome remodeling. e) Alternative splicing.
c) mRNA stability and translation.
5. A segment of a polypeptide is Arg Pro Asp Ser Glu (reading from N- to C-terminus). Which of the following sequences is the template strand for the gene encoding this polypeptide? a) 5'-AGACCAGACTCGGAA-3' b) 3'-AGACCAGACTCGGAA-5' c) 5'-TCTGGTCTGAGCCTT-3' d) 3'-TCTGGTCTGAGCCTT-5' e) None of the above
d) 3'-TCTGGTCTGAGCCTT-5'
A segment of a polypeptide chain is Thr Ile Asp Tyr Asp (reading from N- to C-terminus). Which of the following sequences is the TEMPLATE strand for the gene encoding this polypeptide? a) 5'-ACGATCGACTACGAT-3' b) 3'-ACGATCGACTACGAT-5' c) 5'-TGCTAGCTGATGCTA-3' d) 3'-TGCTAGCTGATGCTA-5' e) None of these sequences are correct.
d) 3'-TGCTAGCTGATGCTA-5'
6. The sequence 5'-ACCTGAGATACTCGATTC-3' is part of an origin of replication and the sequence 5'-CGAGUA-3' is used to prime DNA synthesis from this strand. Which of the following sequences are the first six nucleotides of newly synthesized DNA? a) 5'-GAATCG-3' b) 5'-TACTCG-3' c) 5'-GCTCAT-3' d) 5'-TCTCAG-3' e) None of the above
d) 5'-TCTCAG-3'
2. Which of the following processes is NOT true of the double-strand break model of recombination during meiosis? a) The 3' end of one strand of the broken DNA invades a non-sister chromatid. b) A double-strand break is made in one chromatid. c) DNA synthesis occurs from the 3' end of the strand of DNA that invades the non-sister chromatid. d) Crossing over of flanking genes occurs if the two Holiday junctions are resolved in the same plane. e) All of these statements are true.
d) Crossing over of flanking genes occurs if the two Holiday junctions are resolved in the same plane.
Which of these statements is TRUE of glucose regulation of the lac operon (assume all components of the lac operon have wildtype functions)? a) High levels of lac structural gene transcription will occur when cAMP-CAP is bound to lacO. b) High levels of lac structural gene transcription will occur when cAMP-CAP is bound to lacI. c) High levels of lac structural gene transcription will occur when cAMP levels are low. d) High levels of lac structural gene transcription will occur when cAMP levels are high. e) All of these choices are true
d) High levels of lac structural gene transcription will occur when cAMP levels are high.
Which of these is NOT involved in processing of precursor mRNAs (pre-mRNAs) in eukaryotes? a) Polyadenylation of the 3' end b) Capping of the 5' end c) Splicing d) Initiation of transcription e) All of these are involved in processing
d) Initiation of transcription
Which of the following statements is NOT true of heterochromatin? a) It is involved in X-inactivation in mammals. b) It can be facultative or constitutive. c) It is usually found at telomeres. d) It is usually associated with transcriptionally active genes. e) It is present in eukaryotes but is not present in prokaryotes.
d) It is usually associated with transcriptionally active genes.
Which of these statements is NOT true of the endosymbiotic theory? a) It explains the evolutionary origin of mitochondria and chloroplasts. b) It states that during evolution, free living bacteria were engulfed by ancestral eukaryotic cells and developed stable endosymbiotic relationships. c) It explains why chloroplasts contain circular DNA similar to that of bacteria. d) It states that during evolution, ancestral eukaryotic cells first acquired the predecessor of chloroplasts before acquiring the predecessor of mitochondria. e) It states that during evolution, an endocytosis of an aerobic bacterium by an ancestral eukaryotic cell led to both plant and animal cells
d) It states that during evolution, ancestral eukaryotic cells first acquired the predecessor of chloroplasts before acquiring the predecessor of mitochondria.
Which statement about the organization of DNA in cells is NOT true? a) Supercoiling of cellular DNA is controlled by topoisomerase. b) Supercoiling makes the separation of the two strands of DNA easier for replication and transcription. c) DNA exists in the cells as very long, tightly packed molecules. d) Most cellular DNA is positively supercoiled. e) Supercoiling occurs in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA.
d) Most cellular DNA is positively supercoiled.
Which of these is NOT involved in transcription termination in prokaryotes? a) rut site b) rho protein c) intramolecular hydrogen bonding d) RNA polymerase holoenzyme e) All of these choices
d) RNA polymerase holoenzyme
During the elongation phase of translation, after peptide bond formation but before movement of the ribosome, which statement is true of the tRNAs in the P and A sites? a) The P site has a polypeptide that is one amino acid longer than the polypeptide in the A site. b) The P site has a polypeptide that is one amino acid shorter than the polypeptide in the A site. c) The P site has a tRNA with a polypeptide and the A site has an uncharged tRNA. d) The P site has an uncharged tRNA and the A site has a tRNA with a polypeptide. e) None of the above
d) The P site has an uncharged tRNA and the A site has a tRNA with a polypeptide.
Which of the following is the correct term for a strong covalent bond between adjacent nucleotides in a nucleic acid? a) ionic bond b) Hydrogen bond c) glycosidic bond d) phosphodiester bond e) phosphate bond
d) phosphodiester bond
The process of splicing of precursor mRNAs (pre-mRNAs) in eukaryotes involves which of these components? a) TATA box b) Terminator sequence c) polyA tail d) TFIID e) Branch point sequence
e) Branch point sequence
Which of the following statements is NOT true of translation? a) In prokaryotes but not in eukaryotes, the small ribosomal subunit binds to mRNA before the large ribosomal subunit. b) In prokaryotes but not in eukaryotes, formylated methionine (f-Met) is the first amino acid of each polypeptide. c) In prokaryotes but not in eukaryotes, translation of an mRNA can occur before transcription of that mRNA has terminated. d) In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, the large ribosomal subunit has peptidyl transferase activity. e) In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, the Kozak sequence determines the optimal AUG for translation initiation
e) In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, the Kozak sequence determines the optimal AUG for translation initiation
During the elongation phase of translation, but before peptide bond formation, which statement is true of the tRNAs in the P and A sites? a) The P site has a polypeptide that is one amino acid longer than the polypeptide in the A site. b) The P site has a polypeptide that is one amino acid shorter than the polypeptide in the A site. c) The P site has a tRNA with a polypeptide and the A site has an uncharged tRNA. d) The P site has an uncharged tRNA and the A site has a tRNA with a polypeptide. e) None of the above
e) None of the above
Which of the following statements is/are true of polyadenylation of RNAs in eukaryotes? a) It occurs 5' to the AAUAAA consensus sequence. b) It occurs in the cytoplasm. c) It is essential to the initiation of transcription. d) It occurs on tRNAs, rRNAs, and mRNAs. e) None of the above.
e) None of the above.
Which of the following statements is TRUE of translation? a) In prokaryotes, sigma factor interacts with the Shine-Dalgarno sequence to initiate transcription. b) In eukaryotes, TFIID activates translation by binding to small ribosomal subunit. c) In eukaryotes, an AAUAAA sequence in pre-mRNAs is located ~ 30 nt upstream to the site of translation termination. d) In prokaryotes, translation termination occurs when a specific terminator tRNA recognizes a stop codon. e) None of these choice is true
e) None of these choice is true
Which of the statements is TRUE of DNA and/or RNA? a) The covalent bond between each base and a sugar involves the C3 position of the sugar. b) A-, B-, and Z-forms of DNA are all right-handed helixes. c) There are three hydrogen bonds between A-T pairs. ( d) All of these statements are true e) None of these statements is true
e) None of these statements is true
In prokaryotic RNA polymerases, which of the following proteins joins with the core enzyme to form the holoenzyme? a) Rho factor b) TFIID c) TBP d) Omega subunit e) Sigma factor
e) Sigma factor
