My EMT w Chpt 35

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Which of the following is the dosage of subcutaneous epinephrine in a pediatric patient?

0.15 mg

Which of the following is the adult dosage of subcutaneous epinephrine in anaphylaxis?

0.3 mg

What is the usual dosage of activated charcoal?

1 gram/kg

1) Which of the methods listed below is best described as moving a patient from the floor to a stretcher by having two or more rescuers kneel, curl the patient to their chests, stand, and then reverse the process to place the patient on the stretcher? A) Direct carry B) Direct ground lift C) Power lift D) Draw-sheet method Answer:

You will frequently be called upon to deal with internal bleeding. Blunt trauma is the leading cause of internal injuries and bleeding. Which of the following are mechanisms of blunt trauma that may cause internal bleeding? 1. Falls 2. Motor vehicle or motorcycle crashes 3. Auto-pedestrian collisions 4. Blast injuries

1, 2, 3, 4

40) You are treating an unconscious patient who does not have a possibility of spinal injury and who is breathing adequately. Which of the following is the BEST position for transporting the patient? A) Supine B) Fowler position C) Semi-Fowler position D) Recovery position Answer:

41) Which of the following is used to immobilize a patient with a suspected spinal injury? A) Portable stretcher B) Long backboard C) Basket stretcher D) Scoop stretcher Answer:

Although many of the signs and symptoms of shock are the same no matter what the cause, the symptoms follow a logical progression as shock develops and worsens. Arrange the following signs and symptoms in the likely order that they will appear. 1) Altered mental status 2) Dropping blood pressure 3) Nausea and vomiting 4) Pale, cool, and clammy skin 5) Increased pulse 6) Increased respirations

1, 4, 3, 6, 5, 2

In the average adult, the sudden loss of ___________ cc of blood is considered serious. Answer 150 500 1,000 750

1,000

You are assessing a patient that has been involved in a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following questions would be the most important to ask him? A) How fast was the vehicle going? B) Why were you in such a hurry? C) How much fuel is in your car? D) Have you been in a crash before?

A) How fast was the vehicle going?

Which of the following may cause a patient to exhibit abnormal behavior? A) Hypoxia B) Allergic reaction C) Gastroenteritis D) Snakebites

A) Hypoxia

Which of the following describes skepticism about one thing causing another? A) Illusory correlation B) Confirmation bias C) Representativeness D) Availability

A) Illusory correlation

Which of the following is one advantage of using heuristics? A) It speeds up the process of diagnosis. B) It provides a more accurate diagnosis. C) It allows you to treat the patient during diagnosis. D) It slows the process of diagnosis.

A) It speeds up the process of diagnosis.

A drug's form refers to which of the following? A) Its physical state, such as powder, liquid, or gas B) The mandatory paperwork that must be completed when giving any drug C) The type of container it comes in D) The way in which it is administered

A) Its physical state, such as powder, liquid, or gas

Of the following, which would most likely give the best information regarding your patient's mental status? A) List of medications B) Pulse and respiratory rate C) List of allergies D) Last oral intake

A) List of medications

When assessing a 14-year-old male patient that has been involved in a bicycle accident, you notice that he has a small amount of blood coming from his left forearm. This observation is known as which of the following? A) Sign B) Symptom C) Indication D) Clue

A) Sign

During reassessment you notice that your patient is making gurgling sounds. Which of the following should you do immediately? A) Suction the airway. B) Assist ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device. C) Place the patient in the recovery position. D) Increase the amount of oxygen being delivered to the patient.

A) Suction the airway.

Your patient was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during a bar fight. A crackling or crunching sensation that is felt when air escapes from its normal passageways and is trapped under the skin is called: A) subcutaneous emphysema. B) friction rub. C) crepitus. D) infiltration.

A) subcutaneous emphysema.

All of the following are elements of adult high performance CPR, except: A. compressing the patient's chest about 1 inch in depth before allowing full relaxation. B. taking no more than 1 second to deliver each ventilation. C. spending half of each compression on the downstroke and half on the upstroke. D. compression rate of at least 100 per minute.

A. compressing the patient's chest about 1 inch in depth before allowing full relaxation.

The meatus is: A. an orifice of the urethra. B. in a male, the area between the scrotum and the anus. C. the canal through which urine is discharged from the bladder to the exterior of the body. D. the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder.

A. an orifice of the urethra.

According to the rule of nines for infants and young children, the patient's head and neck account for what percentage of the total body surface area? A. 18% B. 14% C. 9% D. 13.5%

A. 18%

A respiratory rate of less than _______ in infants is a significant finding and indicates a critical patient, who should be immediately transported to a trauma center if secondary to trauma. a. 20 b. 25 c. 18 d. 30

According to CDC guidelines, a systolic blood pressure of less than _______ indicates a patient should be transported to a trauma center. a. 90 b. 100 c. 110 d. 80

All of the following are common techniques for measuring blood pressure, except: A. Rhythm method B. Auscultation C. Palpation D. Blood pressure monitor

As an EMT, you will be called on frequently to treat diabetic emergencies. Diabetic emergencies are usually caused by: a. poor management of the patient's diabetes. b. falls. c. hypoxia. d. pancreatitis.

As you approach the scene of a motorcycle accident, you see an EMR trying to stop the bleeding on the patient's left arm. You notice that the EMR has blood covering the front of his shirt and running down his arms. What Standard Precautions are needed? A. Gloves, gown, and face mask with eye shield are needed. B. There is no need for Standard Precautions because you have no open injuries. C. Gloves, gown, eye protection, and an N-95 or HEPA respirator are needed. D. Gloves and gown only are needed.

When considering the potential for injury from a fall, which of the following is LEAST important? A. Patient's weight B. Type of surface onto which the patient fell C. Height of the fall D. Whether the patient struck anything with his body on the way down

When should the EMT evaluate the need for Standard Precautions? A. An evaluation should be made throughout the call. B. An evaluation should be made before arrival on-scene. C. No evaluation is ever needed, since the precautions are the same for every call. D. An evaluation should be made once a general impression of the patient has been formed.

When submerged in water, biological death may be delayed if the water temperature is below ______ __ °F. a. 70 b. 98.6 c. 50 d. 32

When the gallbladder is diseased, the pain is not only felt in the right upper quadrant (RUQ) but also in the right shoulder. This is known as: A. referred pain. B. parietal pain. C. tearing pain. D. visceral pain.

Which abdominal quadrant contains the appendix? A. Right lower B. Right upper C. Left upper D. Left lower

Which of the following BEST describes a localized cold injury with a clear line of demarcation of its limits? a. Early frostnip b. Late frostbite c. Immersion foot d. Deep frostnip

Which of the following BEST describes inadequate breathing? A. The minute volume is less than normal. B. The respiratory rate is faster than normal. C. The respiratory rate is slower than normal. D. The minute volume is greater than normal.

Which of the following are the vital signs that need to be recorded? A. Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature and condition, pupils, and blood pressure B. Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature, pupils, and blood pressure C. Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature and condition D. Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature and condition, pupils, blood pressure, and bowel sounds

Which of the following blood glucose levels is considered normal for an adult? a. 80 mg/dL b. 40 mg/dL c. 180 mg/dL d. 150 mg/dL

Which of the following blood vessels cannot stop bleeding by constricting? A. Capillaries B. Vena cava C. Arterioles D. Arteries

Which of the following conditions may be mimicked by hypoglycemia? a. Intoxication b. Respiratory distress c. Heart attack d. All of the above

Which of the following could worsen the effects of a snake bite? a. Application of ice b. Cutting and suctioning out the venom c. Constricting bands above and below the bite d. All of the above

Which of the following describes the chief complaint? A. Reason why the patient summoned EMS B. Events immediately preceding the call for EMS C. Overall impression of the patient's condition D. All of the above

Which of the following describes the condition of having an abnormally high body temperature? a. Hyperthermia b. Septic shock c. Hyperdynamic state d. Heat shock

Which of the following differences should be expected when assessing a pediatric patient, as compared to the adult patient? A. The normal respiratory rate is faster. B. An adult's tongue is proportionally larger than that of a child and should always be considered as a potential airway obstruction. C. The normal pulse rate is slower. D. Capillary refill is not as reliable an indicator of circulatory status.

Which of the following does NOT make infants and children more prone to hypothermia? a. Inefficient metabolism b. Large body surface area c. Small muscle mass d. Little body fat

Which of the following is NOT a cause of parietal pain? A. Muscle spasm B. Bleeding into the abdominal cavity C. Inflammation D. Infection

Which of the following is NOT a classification of localized cold injury? a. Hypothermia b. Frostbite c. Frostnip d. All of the above are localized cold injuries

Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom of stroke? a. Chest pain b. Vomiting c. Sudden impairment of vision d. Seizure

Which of the following is NOT assessed during the "Breathing" phase of the primary assessment? A. Obtaining a pulse oximetry reading B. Determining the presence of respirations C. Counting the respiratory rate D. Determining the depth of respiration

Which of the following is NOT part of the circulatory system? A. Brain B. Blood C. Blood vessels D. Heart

Which of the following is a characteristic of referred pain? A. It is felt in a location other than the organ causing it. B. It is usually described as "crampy" or "colicky." C. It is only felt in hollow organs. D. It is caused by psychological stress.

Which of the following is a classification of the severity of shock? A. Compensated B. Consumption C. Non-compensated D. Uncompensated

Which of the following is acceptable for maintaining a seal between an oxygen cylinder and regulator? A. Gasket B. Medical grade adhesive tape C. Grease plug D. Pop-off valve

Which of the following is another name for describing the condition of shock? A. Hypoperfusion B. Hypotension C. Internal bleeding D. Hemorrhage

Which of the following is most characteristic of parietal abdominal pain? A. Is lying on the floor very still and quiet with his knees drawn up to his chest. B. Is rolling about on the floor complaining of pain. C. Walks out to the ambulance informing you he has the worst "belly ache." D. Is sitting upright in a chair, moaning in pain, and drinking antacid.

Which of the following is one of the most common characteristics of a stroke? a. Weakness on one side of the body b. Projectile vomiting c. Sudden onset of bizarre behavior d. Sudden, severe headache

Which of the following is recommended in situations in which a tourniquet must be used? A. Use a material that is wide and thick. B. Apply a bulky dressing and bandage over the tourniquet. C. Remove the tourniquet as soon as bleeding is controlled to minimize further damage to the limb. D. Apply the tourniquet over the elbow or knee.

Which of the following is the BEST way to assess a patient's skin temperature? A. Place the back of your hand against the patient's forehead. B. Place the back of your hand against the patient's abdomen. C. Place your cheek against the patient's forehead. D. Place your cheek against the patient's abdomen.

Which of the following is the most common cause of seizures in adults? a. Failure to take prescribed medication b. Withdrawal from alcohol c. Fever d. Head trauma

Which of the following is the most critical piece of equipment to have immediately available for the seizure patient who has just stopped convulsing? a. Suction b. A cervical collar c. A glucometer d. A bite block

Which of the following is the process in which heat is lost from the body as wind passes over it? a. Convection b. Hydrodynamic cooling c. Exposure d. Condensation

Which of the following is the purpose of the primary assessment? A. To detect and treat immediately life-threatening problems B. To find all of the patient's signs and symptoms C. To discover trends of improvement or deterioration in the patient's condition D. To detect dangers to the patient and/or EMS crew

Which of the following is true concerning parietal pain? A. It is generally localized to a particular area. B. It is often described as "crampy" or "colicky." C. It is usually intermittent in nature. D. It arises from solid organs.

Which of the following is true concerning scene size-up? A. The need for additional resources must be determined on both medical and trauma calls. B. Information from bystanders is not important on trauma calls. C. Determining the number of patients is not important on a medical call. D. Scene size-up does not play a role in determining the nature of the illness.

Which of the following is true concerning the potential for violence at the scene of an EMS call? A. An unusual lack of activity at the scene may signal impending violence against the EMT. B. Signs of impending violence are obvious if you know what to look for. C. The chance for violence is very low at emergency scenes. D. You do not need to worry about violence at an emergency scene once the police have secured it.

Which of the following is true regarding a patient who has a mental status of less than "alert"? A. His brain may not be getting enough oxygen. B. His condition does not indicate the need for oxygen. C. He is likely in a state of REM sleep. D. He has adequate circulation.

Which of the following medications does NOT interfere with the blood-clotting process? A. Omeprazole B. Warfarin C. Heparin D. Clopidogrel

Which of the following organs is located in the retroperitoneal space? A. Kidneys B. Uterus C. Stomach D. Liver

Which of the following presentations would be considered normal during the "Breathing" phase of the primary assessment? A. Respiratory rate of 12 with adequate depth B. Respiratory rate of 28 with adequate depth C. Respiratory rate of 6 with shallow depth D. Respiratory rate of 16 with altered mental status

Which of the following questions will most likely illicit your patient's chief complaint? A. What made you call 911 this evening? B. Do you have any medical problems? C. How have you been feeling lately? D. Have you been drinking today?

Which of the following situations requires additional action by the EMT during scene size-up? A. The sound of a barking and growling dog upon approaching the door to a residence. B. A vehicle collision where bystanders are recording video on their phones. C. A bystander who is smoking a cigarette at the scene of an assault at a local park. D. A news media helicopter arrives and hovers overhead at the scene of a vehicle collision.

Which of the following spiders can cause a characteristic wound with a bite that is often painless? a. Brown recluse spider b. Sheet web spider c. Argiope spider d. Black widow spider

Which of the following vessels contain blood under the highest amount of pressure? A. Arteries B. Veins C. Venules D. Capillaries

Which of the following would you expect to see in a patient with severe hypothermia? a. Irrational behavior b. Loss of muscle tone c. Rapid respirations d. Tachycardia

Which of the items below is not part of the Cincinnati Stroke Test? a. Test for equal grip strength. b. Ask the patient to smile. c. Have the patient repeat a simple sentence. d. Test the patient for arm droop or lack of movement.

Which of these patients would require a tracheostomy mask for supplemental oxygen administration? A. A patient with a stoma B. A patient with quadriplegia C. A patient with chronic bronchitis D. A patient with upper airway inflammation

Which one of the following is incorrect in the application of a tourniquet? A. If possible, the tourniquet should be placed on a joint. B. The tourniquet should be 2 to 4 inches wide. C. A blood pressure cuff can be used as a tourniquet. D. The tourniquet should be placed approximately 2 inches above the bleeding.

Which patient is the most unstable? a. An unresponsive patient with hypotension b. A patient who only responds to verbal stimuli c. An unresponsive patient with tachycardia d. A patient responsive to painful stimuli only

Which trauma patient is the most critical? a. The patient with decerebrate posturing b. The patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale of 7 c. The patient with decorticate posturing d. The patient who withdraws to painful stimuli

Who is the most susceptible to hypothermia? a. A 21-year-old near-drowning patient on a warm spring day b. A 55-year-old male patient who sprained his knee snow skiing c. A 76-year-old male patient involved in a vehicle accident on icy roads d. An 80-year-old male patient on the ground who slipped and has a hip fracture

Why is inhalation described as an active process? A. It requires chest muscles to contract and use energy to move, creating a negative pressure. B. It uses oxygen to assist chest muscles to contract, creating a negative pressure. C. It requires the diaphragm to relax and use energy to move, creating a positive pressure. D. It requires chest muscles to relax and use energy to move, creating a positive pressure.

3) It can sometimes be difficult to determine whether someone who is showing unusual behavior is having a psychological emergency or showing an altered level of consciousness due to a physical issue. Which of the following statements is true?1. Consider patients who are exhibiting crisis or unusual behavior to be having an altered mental status from a nonpsychiatric cause until proven otherwise.2. Many medical and traumatic conditions are likely to alter a patient's behavior.3. Lack of oxygen may cause restlessness and confusion, cyanosis (blue or gray skin), and altered mental status.4. Stroke or inadequate blood to the brain may cause confusion or dizziness and what appears to be erratic behavior.

A) 1,3,4 B) 1,2,3,4 C) 1,2 D) 1,2,3

A major tornado has hit the neighboring town, knocking down power lines and injuring several people. What will provide the best chance to give your patient report to the receiving facility?

Ambulance portable radio

Which of the following devices is used by patients with respiratory problems to assist with the delivery of medication from an inhaler to the lungs? A Pulmo-Aide A small-volume nebulizer An AeroChamber An oxygen-powered nebulizer

An AeroChamber

C. Anxiety, pallor, sweatiness

An EMT develops a suspicion that a patient is in shock while developing a general impression of the patient. What signs has the EMT likely seen? A. Lethargy, swollen extremities B. In the tripod position, gasping breaths C. Anxiety, pallor, sweatiness D. Flushed and dry skin, confusion

seek help from a trained mental health professional.

An EMT involved in an especially difficult call, such as one in which a coworker was killed, should be urged to:

Alarm reaction stage

An EMT is confronted by an armed gunman who is threatening to kill the EMT and his partner. An elevation in the EMT's heart rate and blood pressure occurs in which stage of the body's response to stress?

A patient who is actively coughing

An EMT should consider wearing protective eyewear when caring for which of these patients?

You are called to a farmhouse on a sunny spring afternoon. Upon arrival, a frantic mother tells you that her 3-year-old daughter was playing in the yard, accidentally stepped on a hornets' nest, and was stung repeatedly. The patient is alert, screaming and crying, and can follow her mother's commands. Her arms and legs are swollen and show the marks of several stings. Her body is covered in hives. Her vital signs are blood pressure 90/40, pulse 110, respiratory rate 24, and oxygen saturation 99 percent. Her lung sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. Her mother states she put "nox-a sting" on the bites but the bites only seemed to get worse. What condition is the patient suffering from?

An allergic reaction from the hornet's stings

Although it can be difficult to definitively determine hip dislocation in the field, certain signs and symptoms are usually there. Which of the following statements is false?

An anterior hip dislocation would probably present with the entire lower limb rotated inward

Regarding activated charcoal, which of the following is NOT true?

An antidote too many poisons

An artery is a blood vessel that only: A. carries deoxygenated blood. B. returns blood to the heart. C. carries blood away from the heart. D. carries oxygenated blood.

An infection of the brain is called: A. multiple sclerosis. B. encephalitis. C. meningitis. D. rhinitis.

You are called to a residence for a 60-year-old male complaining of chest pain. You find the patient seated in bed. His past medical history includes hypertension and high cholesterol. The patient presents with hives over the chest, stridor, a swollen tongue, and wheezing in the upper fields. He denies any shortness of breath or respiratory distress. What condition do you suspect?

Anaphylaxis

Which of the following is NOT recommended when controlling epistaxis? A. Pinching the nostrils together B. Having the patient tilt the head backward to elevate the nose C. Placing the unconscious patient in the recovery position D. Keeping the patient calm and quiet

Which of the following is a characteristic of arterial bleeding? A. Steady flow B. Spurting under pressure C. Dark red color D. Both B and C

Which of the following is a good indication of an occluded airway? A. The patient is crying loudly. B. The patient has snoring respirations. C. The patient is alert. D. The patient is speaking clearly.

Which of the following is a typical cause of seizures in children 6 months to 3 years of age? a. Administration of glucose to a hyperglycemic patient b. Fever c. Asthma d. Chest pain

Which of the following is an action of insulin? a. It increases the transfer of sugar from the stomach and small intestine to the bloodstream. b. It increases the movement of sugar from the bloodstream to the cell. c. It increases the circulating level of glucose in the blood. d. It blocks the uptake of sugar by the body's cells.

Which of the following is characteristic of a patient with hyperglycemia? a. Use of excessive amounts of insulin or lack of adequate food intake b. Flushed, hot, dry skin and a "fruity" odor of the breath c. Cool, moist skin, agitated behavior, and increased heart rate d. Sudden onset of altered mental status

Which of the following is necessary to deliver oxygen to patients at a safe pressure? A. Flowmeter B. Regulator C. Float ball D. Filter

Which of the following is not a sign of a hypoglycemic diabetic emergency? a. Combativeness b. Slow heart rate c. Anxiety d. Cold, clammy skin

Which of the following is of greatest concern for the EMT in the prehospital care of a woman with vaginal bleeding? A. Obtaining a thorough gynecological history B. Monitoring for hypovolemic shock C. Preventing infection D. Finding out if the patient is currently sexually active

Which of the following is the LEAST effective method of controlling bleeding? A. Hemostatic agent B. Elevation C. Direct pressure D. Tourniquet

Which of the following is the best device to deliver high-concentration oxygen to a breathing patient? A. Simple face mask B. Nonrebreather mask C. Oropharyngeal airway D. Nasal cannula

Which of the following is the leading cause of internal bleeding? A. Penetrating trauma B. Blunt trauma C. Aortic aneurysm D. Crush injury

Which of the following is the most significant way in which the body cools itself? a. Respiration b. Perspiration c. Radiation d. Vasoconstriction

Which of the following is the role of glucose in the body? a. It assists the pancreas in the manufacture of insulin. b. It provides energy for brain cells and other cells in the body. c. It allows the body to use insulin. d. It is an essential building block for body tissues, such as muscle and bone.

Which of the following is within the EMT's scope of practice for the treatment of the diabetic patient? a. Assisting the patient with the administration of his insulin b. Administration of oral glucose c. Rectal administration of glucose d. Both A and B

Which of the following must be kept in mind when considering the severity of external bleeding? A. A younger person can tolerate more blood loss than an adult. B. Signs of shock do not appear until a large amount of blood has been lost. C. The amount of blood loss is easily estimated by the amount of blood visible on the ground. D. All of the above

Which of the following oxygen cylinders would normally run out after 50 minutes when flowing at 10 liters per minute? A. D tank B. E tank C. M tank D. G tank

Which of the following pathologies make patients at high risk for acute renal failure? A. Polycystic kidney disease B. Shock C. Uncontrolled diabetes D. Hypertension

Which of the following patients does NOT require the administration of supplemental oxygen? A. A 31-year-old male who is unresponsive due to an overdose of narcotics B. A 24-year-old woman who is breathing 28 times per minute after being in an argument with her husband C. A 60-year-old woman with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who can speak two or three words at a time without a breath D. A 6-year-old male with a history of asthma whose breath sounds are silent and who is drowsy

Which of the following signs would you NOT expect to see in a patient suffering from severe hypothermia? a. Numbness b. Shivering c. Drowsiness d. Skin cool to touch

Which of the following statements BEST describes the exchange of gas in the alveoli? A. Air moves into the airway, blood arrives via the pulmonary veins, and osmosis occurs. B. Air moves into the alveoli, blood is transported by the pulmonary capillaries, and diffusion occurs. C. Blood moves by way of the pulmonary capillaries, air arrives at the alveoli, and osmosis occurs. D. Blood moves from the left heart to the lungs, air arrives in the alveoli sacks, and diffusion occurs.

Which patient is experiencing visceral pain? A. 24yearold male complaining of severe left flank pain B. 19yearold female complaining of severe cramps in the lower abdominal quadrants C. 45yearold female complaining of abdominal pain "all over" D. 28yearold male with rebound tenderness

Which patient is the highest priority? a. A patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale of 15 b. A patient with a Revised Trauma Score of 12 c. A patient with a penetrating chest injury d. A patient with a broken femur

You are approaching an adult female lying supine on the ground with snoring respirations. You should FIRST: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway. B. ventilate with a bag-valve mask. C. open her airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver. D. insert a nasopharyngeal airway.

You respond to a 32-year-old female who is having a seizure. You arrive on the scene to find the patient drowsy, confused, and complaining of a headache. This patient is demonstrating the: a. aura phase. b. clonic phase. c. postictal phase. d. tonic phase.

At which of the following points should you begin your scene size-up? A. When you arrive on the scene, but before exiting the ambulance B. When the patient or family member opens the door to the residence C. After exiting the ambulance, but before making patient contact D. As you approach the scene in the ambulance

A ________ is not typically used in the prehospital setting for oxygen administration. A. tracheostomy mask B. nasal cannula C. regulator D. partial rebreather mask

Based on the following presentations of patient injuries, which one would be considered MOST severe, justifying immediate transportation to a trauma center? a. Midline cervical spine pain b. An open (compound) midshaft femur fracture c. Closed head d. Flail chest

There are two types of seizures; if your patient is having a seizure that affects only one body part and does not cause her to lose consciousness, it is called a: a. tonic-clonic seizure. b. generalized seizure. c. postictal seizure. d. partial seizure.

To calculate the minute volume, you need to multiply what two measurements? A. Tidal volume and dead space air B. Alveolar ventilation and respiratory rate C. Respiratory rate and bronchial dilation D. Tidal volume and respiratory rate

Which of the following findings is generally NOT used to assess an adult's circulation? A. Evaluation for bleeding B. Patient's skin color, temperature, and condition C. Patient's distal pulse rate D. Patient's capillary refill time

Which of the following indicates a possible circulatory problem? A. Weak, thready pulse that is normal in rate B. Slow pulse C. Rapid pulse D. All of the above

Which of the following is NOT a cause of abdominal pain? A. Diabetes B. Food poisoning C. Heart attack D. Stroke

Which of the following is NOT a consideration that should be used by the EMT in establishing the size of the danger zone? A. Presence of hazardous materials B. Wind direction C. Fire D. Amount of equipment needed

Which of the following is NOT determined in a scene size-up? A. Need for additional resources B. Potential hazards to the EMS crew C. Mechanism of injury D. Chief complaint

Which of the following is NOT part of the general impression? A. Position in which the patient is found B. Patient's age and race C. Patient's facial expression D. Patient's past medical history

Which of the following is NOT the purpose of making airway management the highest priority of patient care when managing the patient in shock? A. It allows for improved elimination of carbon dioxide. B. It minimizes the chances of aspiration of blood or vomit. C. It allows for oxygenation of the lungs. D. It allows the bronchoconstriction of the smaller airways to be reversed.

Which of the following is a cause of gynecological emergencies? A. Sexual assault B. Softtissue trauma to the external genitalia C. Disorders of the female reproductive organs D. All of the above

Which of the following is a characteristic of venous bleeding? A. It cannot lead to life-threatening amounts of blood loss. B. It commonly requires the use of pressure point compression. C. It often requires the use of a tourniquet. D. It can be profuse, but is generally easily controlled.

Which of the following is a concern when caring for the patient with abdominal pain? A. Patient comfort B. Shock C. Airway management D. All of the above

Which of the following is a known cause of inaccurate oxygen saturation readings? A. Jaundiced nail beds B. Fever C. Hypotension D. Carbon monoxide inhalation

Which of the following is a normal respiratory rate for an adult at rest? A. 24 breaths per minute B. 10 breaths per minute C. 22 breaths per minute D. 12 breaths per minute

Which of the following is acceptable when actively rewarming a hypothermic patient? a. Encouraging the patient to exercise b. Giving coffee or brandy to drink c. Warming the patient as quickly as possible d. Applying humidified oxygen

Which of the following is completed first during the primary assessment? A. Assessing mental status B. Opening the airway C. Determining transport priority D. Forming a general impression

Which of the following is often associated with water-related emergencies? a. Hypothermia b. Cardiac arrest c. Alcohol use d. All of the above

Which of the following is responsible for most of the signs and symptoms of early shock? A. Constriction of the peripheral blood vessels B. Dilation of the peripheral blood vessels C. Increased respirations of the patient D. The body's attempts at compensation for blood loss

Which of the following is the cause of most strokes? a. A spasm in an artery supplying part of the brain b. A ruptured cerebral artery due to an aneurysm c. A ruptured cerebral artery due to hypertension d. Blockage of an artery supplying part of the brain

Which of the following is the correct manner for checking for responsiveness in an apparently unresponsive infant? A. Shaking the child B. Rubbing the sternum with your knuckles C. Pinching the earlobe D. Flicking the soles of the feet

Which of the following is the correct position of transport for a stroke patient with left-sided paralysis, a decreased level of consciousness, and an inability to maintain his or her airway? a. Supine b. Lying on the right side c. Semi-sitting d. Lying on the left side

Which of the following is the major cause of shock that the EMT will encounter? A. Excessive sweating B. High blood pressure C. Vomiting D. Hemorrhage

Which of the following is the most important intervention the EMT can provide to the patient having a stroke? a. Assisting with administration of the patient's nitroglycerin tablets b. Conducting a detailed neurological exam c. Giving oral glucose to the patient d. Avoiding delay in transporting to the hospital

Which of the following is the most important reason for controlling external bleeding? A. To prevent the spread of infectious diseases B. To make clean-up of the ambulance and your equipment easier after the call C. To prevent the patient from becoming upset at the sight of blood D. To prevent hypoperfusion

Which of the following is the proper position for maintaining the airway in a child with a decreased level of consciousness? A. Using a cervical collar to keep the chin elevated B. Flexing the neck to place the chin on the chest C. Hyperextension of the neck D. Placing the head and neck in a neutral position

Which of the following is true concerning the primary assessment? A. Manual airway maneuvers must be performed on all patients. B. External bleeding will be obvious as you enter the room and initially see the patient. C. The EMT should perform a sternal rub on all patients to test for response to painful stimuli. D. The primary assessment begins by just observing the patient as you enter the room.

Which of the following may be a hazard at the scene of a vehicle collision? A. Electrocution B. Other emergency vehicles C. Hazardous materials D. All of the above

Which of the following may occur when there is bleeding from a large vein? A. Air embolism B. Hypoperfusion C. Transmission of bloodborne illnesses D. All of the above

Which of the following occurs when gases leave a damaged lung in a diving accident and enter the bloodstream? a. Arterial thrombosis b. Arterial blood gases c. Hyperbaric arterial injury d. Arterial gas embolism

Which of the following organs may seriously be damaged in sickle cell anemia, and often subsequently leads to severe infections? A. Lungs B. Kidneys C. Liver D. Spleen

Which of the following patients is a high priority for transport? A. Pediatric patient with abrasions to both knees from a fall B. High school student with dizziness after giving blood C. Adult female with knee pain D. Adult male with difficulty breathing

Which of the following questions is inappropriate when taking the history of a female patient with abdominal pain? A. Are you having vaginal bleeding or discharge now? B. Have you had sexual intercourse since your last menstrual period? C. If you are menstruating, is the flow normal? D. What is your sexual orientation?

Which of the following questions may help the EMT assess a patient with abdominal pain? A. Do you have any allergies to foods or medicines? B. What medications are you taking? C. Do you have any medical problems, such as diabetes or heart problems? D. All of the above

Which of the following refers to difficulty in speaking or understanding speech as a result of a stroke? a. Hemiparesis b. Ischemia c. Ataxia d. Aphasia

Which of the following should increase the EMT's suspicion of internal bleeding? A. Penetrating trauma to the chest or abdomen B. Fall from a height three or more times the patient's height C. High-speed motor vehicle collision D. All of the above

Which of the following should the EMT do during the treatment of localized cold injury? a. Encourage the patient to use the affected part. b. Rub the affected area with snow. c. Massage the affected area. d. Gradually warm the affected area

Which of the following situations will NOT require additional resources at the scene? A. A call for a sick person at home during which an odor of natural gas is detected B. A 300-pound woman complaining of back pain C. A call to a manufacturing plant where a worker has his hand caught in a machine D. A patient with emphysema who is on oxygen therapy at home

Which of the following techniques is used when formulating the general impression? A. Detecting odors B. Listening for unusual sounds C. Looking for visual clues D. All of the above

Which of the following terms describes the temperature of the surrounding air? a. Wind chill index b. Shell temperature c. Core temperature d. Ambient temperature

Which of the following trauma triage criteria would justify transportation to a trauma center based on mechanism of injury alone? a. Vehicle rollover b. Vehicle crash-generated telemetry data c. Intrusion into the occupant area greater than 8 inches d. Auto versus pedestrian

Which of the following types of bleeding is most serious? A. Arterial bleeding B. External bleeding C. Internal bleeding D. Massive bleeding of any type

Which of the following will worsen the condition of the patient in shock? A. Elevating the patient's legs 8 to 10 inches B. Transporting without first splinting all extremity fractures C. Applying high-concentration oxygen when it is not needed D. Conducting oneself in a manner that increases the patient's fear and anxiety

Which of the following would be an acceptable substitute for the administration of commercially prepared oral glucose solution? a. Having the patient drink a glass of milk b. Diet soda c. Having the patient eat something high in protein, such as a deli sandwich d. Cake icing

Which statement below is not true about seizures? a. A partial seizure affects one part, or one side, of the brain. b. A generalized seizure affects the entire brain. c. The most common seizure that EMTs are likely to be called on is a tonic-clonic seizure. d. Many seizures are followed by an aura.

Why are infants and young children more prone to hypothermia than adults? a. Their immune system is not fully developed. b. They are unable to recognize how cold they are. c. They shiver more than adults. d. They have less fat than adults

Why does a patient involved in an auto crash who has major internal abdominal bleeding require oxygen to maintain internal respiration? A. The red blood cells have a reduction of hemoglobin that reduces the amount of oxygen that can be transported. B. A lack of oxygen in the air decreases the oxygen diffused into the bloodstream, which creates an increase of carbon dioxide. C. The swelling of the abdominal space causes the diaphragm to be restricted, which will reduce the thorax space. D. A lack of circulating volume decreases the oxygen and carbon dioxide transport capability.`

With advances in clot-busting (thrombolytic) drugs, the patient has a window of _______ hours to receive treatment. a. 6 b. 4 c. 5 d. 3

You and your partner respond to a residence for a fall. You arrive to find a group of approximately 30 adults surrounding a middle-aged man who appears to be unconscious. A police car pulls in behind you. You should: A. leave the area and stage until the scene is cleared of people. B. have the police officer drag the victim over to the ambulance. C. enter the scene ahead of the police officer to provide care. D. wait for the police officer to assess the safety of the scene.

You are aggressively ventilating an adult patient with a bag-valve mask when you notice that his previously strong pulse is getting weaker. You should: A. reduce the concentration of oxygen. B. begin chest compressions. C. increase the concentration of oxygen. D. reduce the volume of the ventilations.

You are approaching a young adult male lying supine on the ground with his eyes closed. You should FIRST: A. expose his chest. B. feel for a pulse. C. open his airway. D. ask him if he is okay.

You are assessing a 55-year-old male complaining of chest pain and have determined that his radial pulse is barely palpable. You also determine that there were 20 pulsations over a span of 30 seconds. Based on this, how would you report this patient's pulse? A. Pulse 20 and weak B. Pulse 40, weak, and irregular C. Pulse 20, weak, and regular D. Pulse 40 and weak

You are transporting a 20-year-old soccer player who injured his ankle during a match. His injury appears to be isolated and he has no significant past medical history. How frequently should you perform a reassessment on this patient? A) 10 minutes B) 30 minutes C) 5 minutes D) 15 minutes

D) 15 minutes

For which of the following patients is a focused physical examination appropriate? A) A 30-year-old male with a history of diabetes and who is found unresponsive by his son B) A 19-year-old female with a history of epilepsy and who is found only responsive to painful stimuli by her roommate C) A 70-year-old male with dementia whose caretaker called because he "didn't seem like himself today" D) A 25-year-old female with a history of asthma and who is complaining of difficulty breathing

D) A 25-year-old female with a history of asthma and who is complaining of difficulty breathing

Concerning behavioral emergencies, which of the following statements is true? A) Only a licensed psychiatrist can apply crisis management techniques with a patient having a behavioral emergency. B) A diabetic problem never mimics signs of a behavioral emergency. C) It is relatively easy to determine if the underlying cause of a behavioral emergency is related to drug abuse. D) A patient who does not respond to crisis management techniques may be restrained for transport to a psychiatric facility.

D) A patient who does not respond to crisis management techniques may be restrained for transport to a psychiatric facility.

Which of the following communication strategies should be used in dealing with a patient with a behavioral emergency? A) Stay 2 to 3 inches from the patient at all times to make him feel secure. B) Interrupt the patient if he appears to be going off on a tangent about something not concerning the immediate situation. C) Show deep sympathy for the patient's predicament and let him know he can't control the things that are happening to him. D) Acknowledge the patient's feelings

D) Acknowledge the patient's feelings

You are on the scene of a 44-year-old female patient who has attempted suicide by taking all 30 pills of her antidepressant medication at once. You are ordered by medical control to administer activated charcoal. How will activated charcoal reduce the effects of the medication? A) Activated charcoal will cause the patient to vomit the medication. B) Activated charcoal will inactivate the patient's stomach acid. C) Activated charcoal will coat the intestines, preventing absorption. D) Activated charcoal will bind to the medication, reducing absorption.

D) Activated charcoal will bind to the medication, reducing absorption.

Neurotransmitters are chemicals within the body that transmit the message from the distal end of one neuron (presynaptic neuron) to the proximal end of the next neuron (postsynaptic neuron). While it sounds like a complicated process, it takes only milliseconds. Which one of the following sentences is false? A) Neurotransmitters are released from a neuron, then travel across the synapse to the next neuron. B) The receptors on the postsynaptic neuron receive the neurotransmitter. C) This is the mechanism by which the impulse is moved along the nervous system. D) After the impulse is transmitted, the neurotransmitter goes through a process called reuptake, in which the neurotransmitter is returned to the postsynaptic neuron.

D) After the impulse is transmitted, the neurotransmitter goes through a process called reuptake, in which the neurotransmitter is returned to the postsynaptic neuron.

Albuterol and epinephrine both have bronchodilation properties that improve the amount of oxygen that a person can inhale and absorb. However, Albuterol is administered only for asthma, whereas epinephrine is administered for both asthma and anaphylaxis. Why is epinephrine, and not Albuterol, the first choice for anaphylaxis? A) Albuterol makes the heart rate increase too much. B) Albuterol slows down the heart rate too much. C) Albuterol drops the blood pressure too low. D) Albuterol is not a vasoconstrictor.

D) Albuterol is not a vasoconstrictor.

Where might you find a patient's medical alert identification jewelry? A) Ankle bracelet B) Necklace C) Bracelet D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Which of the following factors suggest that a patient is at risk for suicide? A) Recent emotional trauma B) Sudden improvement in depression C) Alcohol and drug abuse D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Which of the following may be a symptom of a problem with the heart? A. Severe, crushing pain in the chest B. Nausea, with or without vomiting C. Mild chest discomfort D. All of the above

D) All of the above

Which of the following medical conditions may be the underlying cause of an apparent behavioral emergency? A) Mental illness B) Stroke C) Hypoglycemia D) All of the above

D) All of the above

On which of the following patients should a reassessment be performed? A) Patient with a gunshot wound B) Patient having difficulty breathing C) Patient with chest pain D) All patients should be reassessed

D) All patients should be reassessed

While assessing the past medical history of a 68-year-old male patient involved in a fall from a 4-foot stepladder, you use the acronym SAMPLE. What does the A refer to? A) Amputations B) Assessment C) Acuity D) Allergies

D) Allergies

Mrs. Butler is a 66-year-old woman who is complaining of chest pain. Which of the following questions would be best in helping you determine if the pain is radiating? A) Are you having pain in your arm? B) Are you experiencing any other symptoms? C) Does anything make the pain better or worse? D) Are you having pain anywhere besides your chest?

D) Are you having pain anywhere besides your chest?

Which of the following injuries requires the use of an occlusive dressing? A. Open wound to the neck B. Open wound to the abdomen from which a loop of intestine is protruding C. Open wound to the chest D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following is a consideration in determining a burn's severity? A. Other illnesses or injuries the patient may have B. Body surface area (BSA) involved in the burn C. The type of agent that caused the burn D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following is of concern with a puncture wound? A. Strong possibility of contamination B. Hidden internal bleeding with minimal external bleeding C. An object that remains impaled in the body D. All of the above

D. All of the above

There are general rules that apply to all types of splinting. Which of the following is not a general rule of splinting?

In order to avoid loss of use of a limb, it is important to splint before moving, even if the patient is unstable.

In relation to anatomy, the term topography means: A. blood pressure fluctuations. B. the study of the skin. C. external landmarks of body structures. D. key elements of the central nervous system.

In the normal drive to breathe, chemoreceptors are stimulated by: A. high carbon dioxide. B. low carbon dioxide. C. high oxygen. D. diffusion.

A. Taking a blood pressure reading

In the primary assessment, which of the following is NOT an acceptable method of assessing the patient's circulatory status? A. Taking a blood pressure reading B. Assessing the patient's skin color C. Checking a radial pulse D. Looking for serious bleeding

Sharing information about a patient's medical history with your neighbor after you hear a call on a radio scanner would constitute which of the following? A. Negligence B. Breach of confidentiality C. Slander D. Libel

Shock occurs as a result of which of the following? A. Inadequate perfusion B. Adequate perfusion C. C/Q match D. V/Q match

Your patient is a conscious 4-year-old female who has ingested a medication prescribed for her grandfather. To determine appropriate treatment, which of the following information is NOT necessary to provide to medical control?

The grandfather's name and the name of the physician who prescribed the medication

B) stridor.

The high-pitched sound caused by an upper airway obstruction is known as: A) gurgling. B) stridor. C) rhonchi. D) rales.

The human body is made up of ________ % water. A. 60 B. 17.5 C. 75 D. 7.5

A) recommended

The jaw-thrust maneuver is the only ________ airway procedure for an unconscious patient with possible head, neck, or spine injury or unknown mechanism of injury. A) recommended B) required C) prohibited D) forbidden

Your patient is in late stages of liver failure and has requested to be transported to the emergency department. You take your body substance isolation and move him to your cot and notice his skin is warm and dry with a yellow color. Your radio report to the hospital should state your patient is: A. flushed. B. mottled. C. jaundiced. D. cyanotic.

Your patient was diagnosed with cholecystitis (gallbladder inflammation) three days ago. The patient now presents with nausea, vomiting, and pain in the right shoulder. The pain in the shoulder can be classified as: A. somatic pain. B. pancreatic pain. C. referred pain. D. visceral pain.

The layer of covering that protects the nervous system is called the: A. skull. B. cerebrospinal fluid. C. meninges. D. spinal column.

While performing a detailed physical exam on a patient involved in a fall from 30 feet, the patient (who had previously been responding to your questions) stops responding. What should you do next? A) Call medical control for orders. B) Continue the detailed physical assessment. C) Repeat the primary assessment. D) Start CPR.

C) Repeat the primary assessment.

An unconscious trauma patient should always be assumed to have which of the following types of injury? A) Abdominal B) Skull C) Spine D) Cardiac

C) Spine

Expert clinicians may use different approaches of thinking through problems, but which of the following will they have in common? A) Organization of data in their head B) Dislike of ambiguity C) Strong foundation of knowledge D) Knowledge that one strategy works for everyone

C) Strong foundation of knowledge

Which of the following describes the sublingual route of medication administration? A) The medication is injected under the skin. B) The medication is breathed into the lungs, such as from an inhaler. C) The medication is placed under the tongue. D) The medication is swallowed whole, not chewed.

C) The medication is placed under the tongue.

A patient whose mental status can be described as "verbal" is able to: A. talk spontaneously and respond to the EMT's questions. B. respond only to a stimulus such as the EMT rubbing his sternum with his knuckles. C. tell you his or her name, his or her location, and what day it is. D. respond to speaking or shouting by opening the eyes.

A patient with a pulse rate of 120 beats per minute is considered which of the following? A. Bradycardic B. Dyscardic C. Normocardic D. Tachycardic

An oxygen saturation of 97% is considered which of the following? A. Hypoxia B. Severe hypoxia C. Significant hypoxia D. Normal

Approximately how many Americans are currently on some type of dialysis? A. 200,000 B. 50,000 C. 100,000 D. 350,000

Which of the following should NOT be included in documentation of an incident involving a patient with a behavioral or psychiatric emergency? A) Description of the patient's behavior B) Whether or not you think the patient is mentally ill C) Your observations of the patient's surroundings at the scene D) Your actions

B) Whether or not you think the patient is mentally ill

An approximate normal systolic blood pressure can be calculated for infants and children by using which of the following formulas? A. 120 minus 2 times the age in years B. 80 times 2 plus the age in years C. 80 plus 2 times the age in years D. 120 plus 2 times the age in years

As an EMT, your BEST clue indicating the possibility of internal bleeding may be the presence of: A. bruising, swelling, or pain over vital organs. B. painful, swollen, or deformed extremities. C. mechanism of injury. D. the absence of a tender, rigid, or distended abdomen.

At the scene of a vehicle collision in which there are no apparent hazards, which of the following guidelines should be followed for establishing a danger zone? A. The danger zone should be 15 feet in all directions. B. The danger zone should be 150 feet in all directions. C. The danger zone should be 50 feet in all directions. D. There is no need to establish a danger zone when there are no apparent hazards.

For which of the following patients would capillary refill be a reliable sign of circulatory status? A. 92-year-old man complaining of weakness on his right side B. 24-year-old homeless man who has spent the night outside in the rain C. 3-year-old child with a fever and cough D. 50-year-old woman complaining of chest pain

Heat stroke is caused by which of the following mechanisms? a. Blockage of blood flow to the brain b. Extreme dilation of all the blood vessels c. Failure of temperature regulation mechanisms d. Heat-induced swelling of brain tissue

How frequently does the majority of peritoneal dialysis require treatment? A. Three to five times a week B. Once a day C. Multiple treatments a day D. Once a week

In which of the following situations should the EMT consult the Emergency Response Guidebook? A. Downed power lines at the scene of a vehicle collision B. Patient with a suspected infectious disease C. Chlorine gas leak at a public swimming pool D. Domestic disturbance with the potential for violence

In which of the following ways does the body produce heat in response to being cold? a. Excreting more urine b. Burning fewer calories c. Shivering d. Increasing the respiratory rate

Localized cold injury occurs due to vasoconstriction and: a. chemical imbalance in the tissues. b. blood clots. c. ice crystal formation in the tissues. d. loss of calcium.

Most of the diabetic emergencies that you will be called to deal with will be related to hypoglycemia. However, occasionally you will experience an instance of hyperglycemia. In the list below, which item is not likely to be a sign or symptom of hyperglycemia? a. Chronic thirst b. Excessive urination c. A reduced rate of breathing d. Nausea

Once you encounter uncontrolled bleeding from an AV fistula, which of the following methods would you consider using to control bleeding in addition to direct pressure and elevation? A. Internal wound management B. Tourniquet C. Hemostatic dressings D. Pressure points

Pain that originates in an organ, such as the intestines, is called ________ pain. A. referred B. acute C. visceral D. parietal

Which of the following is NOT indicated in the management of a patient in shock? A. Delaying a detailed exam until en route to the hospital B. On-scene spinal precautions, if indicated C. High-speed ambulance transportation D. Minimizing on-scene time

Which of the following is NOT performed during the "Airway" phase of the primary assessment? A. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway B. Head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver C. Obtaining the respiratory rate D. Suctioning

Which of the following is NOT true concerning abdominal pain in geriatric patients? A. Medications may mask signs of shock associated with an abdominal complaint. B. The elderly person may not be able to give a specific description of the pain. C. The causes of abdominal pain in the elderly are rarely serious. D. The elderly have a decreased ability to perceive pain.

Which of the following is a standardized test to evaluate a conscious patient for possible stroke? a. Michigan TIA Assessment b. The Numbness-Aphasia-Paralysis (NAP) Test c. Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale d. The Functional Analysis Stroke Test

Which of the following is acceptable in the management of a patient stung by a honey bee? a. Soak the affected area in warm water. b. Pull the stinger out using tweezers. c. Remove jewelry from any affected limbs. d. Elevate the affected site above the level of the heart to reduce swelling.

Which of the following is caused by trapped nitrogen gas in the tissues due to a rapid ascent from a scuba dive? a. "Squeeze" injuries of the ear and sinuses b. Pulmonary embolism c. Decompression sickness d. Nitrogen narcosis

Which of the following is part of the body's compensatory response to blood loss? A. Blood vessels dilate and the heart rate increases. B. Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate decreases. C. Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate increases. D. Blood vessels dilate and the heart rate decreases.

Which of the following is the LEAST important question in obtaining the history of a seizure patient in the prehospital setting? a. How did the patient behave during the seizure? b. Did the patient lose control of his bladder? c. Does the patient have a family history of seizures? d. What was the patient doing before the seizure?

Which of the following is the MOST effective way of controlling external bleeding? A. Running cold water over the wound B. Using an ice pack C. Using direct pressure with a dressing D. Elevating the affected part

Which of the following is the MOST sensitive indicator of hypoperfusion? A. Dilation of the pupils B. Increased heart rate C. Altered mental status D. Delayed capillary refill

Which of the following is the main focus of the EMT's assessment and history taking of the patient with abdominal pain? A. Determining the possible need for immediate surgery B. Determining if the patient meets criteria to refuse treatment and transport C. Determining the presence of shock D. Determining the cause of the pain

Which of the following is the most reliable means of determining whether a patient has any immediately life-threatening conditions? A. Obtaining a detailed medical history B. Use of intuition C. Systematic approach to assessment D. Thorough scene size-up

Which of the following is the most significant mechanism of injury for a driver in a vehicle accident? a. Spidering of the windshield b. Encroachment greater than 12 inches of the driver's compartment c. Death of a passenger in the same vehicle d. Rear-end collision

Which of the following may result in hypoglycemia in the diabetic patient? a. Failure to take insulin or oral diabetes medications b. Lack of exercise c. Vomiting after eating a meal d. Overeating

Which of the following signifies a failure in the patient's compensatory response to blood loss? A. Pale, cool skin B. Tachypnea C. Hypotension D. Tachycardia

Which of the following types of snake is NOT a pit viper? a. Water moccasin b. Rattlesnake c. Coral snake d. Copperhead

Which of the following types of vessels have valves to maintain one-way blood flow? A. Arterioles B. Arteries C. Veins D. Capillaries

Which of the following will deliver a medium velocity impact? A. Ice pick B. Bullet from an assault rifle C. Bullet from a handgun D. Butcher knife

Which one of the following is NOT a key decision for the EMT when faced with a multisystem or multiple trauma patient? a. Should I transport to a trauma center? b. Do I need to minimize on-scene time? c. Should I allow police to interview the patient on-scene? d. Is the patient seriously injured?

Which one of the following patients would justify the need to directly transport to a trauma center based on special patient considerations? a. An end-stage renal disease patient who tripped and fell and is complaining of shoulder pain on the same side as his shunt b. An unlicensed teenage driver who has a pulse rate of 120 after a MVC and a 4 minute EMS response c. A pregnant female in the third trimester who is spotting (showing small amounts of vaginal bleeding) following a low mechanism of injury MVC d. An elderly patient on anticoagulants who slipped out of her wheelchair and is complaining of pelvic pain

Which of the following is the most proper dose of inhaled medication the EMT can assist the patient with administering? As needed until respiratory status improves Two sprays The number of sprays directed by medical control One spray

The number of sprays directed by medical control

When giving a radio report to the hospital, which of the following should be stated first?

The patient is a 55-year-old male.

Which of the following is the most important reason for controlling external bleeding? Answer To prevent hypoperfusion To prevent the spread of infectious diseases To make clean up of the ambulance and your equipment easier after the call To prevent the patient from becoming upset at the sight of blood

To prevent hypoperfusion

C) It may be tolerated by many patients with a gag reflex.

Which of the following is an advantage of using a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)? A) It eliminates the need for manual positioning of the patient's head to keep the airway open. B) It is ideal for patients with a suspected skull fracture. C) It may be tolerated by many patients with a gag reflex. D) All of the above

Which of the following is an indicator that a patient's nervous system has been impaired? A. General weakness B. Changes in pupil dilation C. Hearing disturbances D. All of the above

C. Forming a general impression

Which of the following is completed first during the primary assessment? A. Opening the airway B. Assessing mental status C. Forming a general impression D. Determining transport priority

Which of the following is directly related to the endocrine system? A. Brain B. Kidneys C. Liver D. Pancreas

B) Insert the catheter or tip to the desired depth prior to applying suction.

Which of the following is the correct method of suctioning? A) Suction intermittently, both while inserting and withdrawing the suction tip or catheter. B) Insert the catheter or tip to the desired depth prior to applying suction. C) Begin suctioning as you insert the suction tip or catheter into the mouth. D) Suction continuously, both while inserting and withdrawing the suction tip or catheter.

B. The patient has snoring respirations.

Which of the following is a good indication of an occluded airway? A. The patient is speaking clearly. B. The patient has snoring respirations. C. The patient is crying loudly. D. The patient is alert.

Strong communication

Which of the following is a personal trait an EMT should demonstrate?

Control personal habits

Which of the following is a personality trait required of EMTs?

ability to speak clearly

Which of the following is a physical trait necessary for performing the duties of an EMT?

Bleeding gastric ulcers

Which of the following is a physiologic effect of the stress triad as described by the physician Hans Selye

Writing complete patient reports

Which of the following is a role of the EMT in the quality improvement process?

B) Nasal flaring

Which of the following is a sign of an inadequate airway? A) Regular chest movements B) Nasal flaring C) Equal expansion of both sides of the chest when patient inhales D) Typical skin coloratio

A tuberculin skin test can detect TB exposure.

Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding tuberculosis (TB)?

B. What made you call 911 this evening?

Which of the following questions will MOST likely elicit your patient's chief complaint? A. Have you been drinking today? B. What made you call 911 this evening? C. Do you have any medical problems? D. How have you been feeling lately?

Quality improvement

Which of the following refers to a program or process for evaluating and improving the effectiveness of an EMS system?

Which of the following refers to the care that would be expected to be provided by an EMT with similar training when caring for a patient in a similar situation? A. Standard of care B. Professional standards C. Protocols and standing orders D. Scope of practice

Which of the following refers to the set of regulations that defines the legal actions expected and limitations placed on the EMT? A. Protocols and standing orders B. Scope of practice C. Legal standards of practice D. Professional standards

Which of the following requires training, policies, and procedures related to storing, accessing, and sharing patient information? A. HIPAA B. COBRA C. HIAPA D. EMTALA

Which of the following respiratory processes requires the active use of muscles? A. Exhalation B. Inhalation C. Gas exchange D. Bifurcation

When should the EMT most likely expect to hear wheezes in a patient complaining of shortness of breath secondary to an asthma attack?0/1 pts While breathing in In between breaths While breathing out All of the above

While breathing out

A 和D有什么区别呢

While documenting a call, you add a false statement that was made about a local doctor. This could constitute which of the following? A. Libel B. Degradation of character C. Slander D. HIPAA violation

Bargaining

While transporting a patient to the hospital who has a history of terminal brain cancer, the patient says, "I know I'm going to die, but first I want to see my grandson graduate from high school." What stage of death and dying describes this patient's current condition?

While treating a patient involved in a shooting at the patient's vacation home, which of the following actions may interfere with the investigation of a crime scene? A. Moving the patient B. Using the bathroom C. Using the patient's phone D. All of the above

EMT

Who assumes the ultimate responsibility for patient care rendered by the EMT?

Your patient is a conscious 16-year-old female who has ingested an unknown number of sleeping pills. Which of the following questions is LEAST pertinent to the care of this patient?Answer

Who do these sleeping pills belong to?

All crew members

Who is responsible for on-scene safety of EMS providers?

Your patient is a 7-year-old male who ate an unknown type of mushroom on a dare by his friends. You should ask all of the following questions EXCEPT which one?

Why did you eat the mushroom?

To identify problems and develop a plan to prevent their recurrence

Why is it important for EMTs to participate in quality improvement programs?

Research in medical journals is original and peer reviewed.

Why is research published in a medical journal more authoritative than the information in a typical article published in an EMS magazine?

Chapter 5 Review DO NOT RELY ON THESE! USE YOUR NOTES! 12. When discussing left and right in terms of anatomic locations, what do they refer to? A. Left and right from the patient's perspective B. Whoever is speaking about the anatomic location determines left and right orientation. C. Anatomic left and right refer to the provider's left and right orientation when facing a patient in the anatomic position. D. What left and right refer to anatomically is dependent on the patient's positioning when care is provided.

When you hear wheezes While auscultating your patient's breath sounds, which of the following is most likely the cause? There is an upper airway obstruction. There is mucus in the air passages. There is fluid in the lungs. The lower air passages in the lungs are narrowed.

The lower air passages in the lungs are narrowed.

The lower jaw bone is also known as the: A. mandible. B. maxillae. C. orbit. D. manubrium.

The metabolism that creates large amounts of carbon dioxide and lactic acid but generates little energy is called: A. anaerobic. B. homeostatic. C. hyperoxic. D. aerobic.

The most vulnerable part of the cell is the: A. DNA. B. membrane. C. nucleus. D. mitochondria.

The movement of ions across the cell membrane is needed to accomplish repolarization. What cell structure is used to prepare for depolarization? A. Mitochondria B. Nucleus C. Sodium potassium pump D. Endoplasmic reticulum

The net result of respiratory challenges is low oxygen, also called ________, within the body. A. anoxia B. hypoglycemia C. anorexia D. hypoxia

What is the body's most rapid and initial response to stop bleeding?

clumping of platelets

The strong white fibrous material called the periosteum:

covers the bones

The sound or feeling of the ends of broken bones rubbing together is called:

crepitus

Which of the following is one of the most common inhaled poisons associated with fire

cyanide

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of an allergic reaction involving the skin?

cyanosis

Hyperventilation of a patient with a severe brain injury means that bag-valve-mask ventilations are provided at a rate of ________ per minute. a. 20 b. 24 c. 30 d. 34

a. 20

How many cervical vertebrae are there? a. 7 b. 12 c. 5 d. 4

a. 7

For which of the following patients would the use of a short spine immobilization device be appropriate? a. A 52-year-old female who crashed her vehicle into the front of a convenience store and who is awake, oriented, and complaining of neck pain b. An unresponsive driver who was found in the driver's seat of a pickup truck that crashed into a tree c. A 15-year-old male who struck a curb with his motorized scooter and flipped over the handlebars d. A 77-year-old female who fell down a flight of stairs and is in an awkward position lying on her side on the landing

a. A 52-year-old female who crashed her vehicle into the front of a convenience store and who is awake, oriented, and complaining of neck pain

Which of the following BEST describes an evisceration? a. An open wound of the abdomen from which organs protrude b. A flap of skin that is partially or completely torn away from the underlying tissue c. An accumulation of blood beneath the skin, resulting in swelling d. The epidermis that is scraped away by a rough surface

a. An open wound of the abdomen from which organs protrude

You respond to a patient who was hit in the face with a chair. Upon arrival, you notice a patient leaning in the corner and bleeding profusely from the mouth and nose. Your first action should be which of the following? a. Assure scene safety. b. Suction the airway and have the patient lean back. c. Take c-spine precautions. d. Place the patient on a nonrebreather mask at 15 lpm.

a. Assure scene safety.

Your patient is a 10-year-old male whose jacket hood caught on a branch as he jumped out of a tree. He was momentarily suspended about 12 inches off the ground but was immediately lowered to the ground by his brothers. Which of the following injuries should you suspect? a. Cervical spine injury b. Lumbar spine injury c. Soft-tissue injury of the neck only d. Thoracic spine injury

a. Cervical spine injury

You are called for a young man who was diving head first off a dock into a lake. Bystanders say he struck his head on the bottom because the water was too shallow. They said he was not breathing when they pulled him from the water and they have been performing rescue breathing for him. He is awake, but he is unable to breathe on his own. What type of damage or injury does this indicate? a. Damage to C-3, C-4, or C5 b. Damage to his thoracic spine c. A closed head injury d. An open head injury

a. Damage to C-3, C-4, or C5

Which of the following is NOT a common field finding in spinal injuries? a. Deformity b. Impaired breathing c. Tenderness d. Pain

a. Deformity

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a neurological assessment that looks at which of the following? a. Eye opening, verbal response, and motor response b. Grip strength, verbal response, and eye opening c. Verbal response, motor response, and AVPU d. Motor response, arm movement, and speech

a. Eye opening, verbal response, and motor response

What is the difference between acute and chronic renal failure?

acute is sudden and can possibly recover normal renal function over time Chronic is over time and don't recover

Anemia can be acute or chronic, what is the difference?

acute is sudden and chronic occurs over time

Activated charcoal is given to patients who have ingested a poison or overdose because it

adsorbs or binds to many substances

When a poison attaches to the chemical structure of activated charcoal, which of the following BEST describes this mechanism of action?

adsortion

When documenting the administration of an epinephrine auto-injector, which of the following should be included?

all of the above

Which of the following is a general term for a substance to which the body may have an anaphylactic reaction?

allergen

The part of the skeleton that includes the skull and spinal column is called the:

axial skeleton

Which of the following statements concerning a concussion is true? a. It is a bruising of the brain tissue. b. The patient may not have any symptoms of the injury. c. It is accompanied by recurrent episodes of unconsciousness. d. All of the above

b. The patient may not have any symptoms of the injury.

Which of the following is required in the management of all open soft-tissue injuries? a. Provision of high-concentration oxygen to the patient b. The use of Standard Precautions by the EMT c. Cervical spine precautions d. Application of a disinfectant solution during clean-up

b. The use of Standard Precautions by the EMT

Which of the following observations may the EMT use to rule out a spinal injury in a trauma patient? a. Patient is able to walk at the scene. b. There is a lack of mechanism of injury. c. There is a lack of numbness and paralysis of the extremities. d. Patient denies pain in his spine.

b. There is a lack of mechanism of injury.

The maxillae form which of the following structures? a. Lower jaw b. Upper jaw c. Cheek bones d. Forehead

b. Upper jaw

Common signs and symptoms following an injury to a hollow abdominal organ include: a. increasing intrathoracic pressures. b. irritation and peritonitis. c. massive hemorrhage. d. absence of unilateral pulses.

b.irritation and peritonitis.

Not all poisons are toxins. Toxins are poisons that are:

produced by living organisms

Clotting factors are a group of _________ that are produced in the ________ and released into the ____________.

proteins liver bloodstream

Which of the following is NOT a way in which poisons can access the body?

radiation

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of withdrawal from alcohol?

seizures, sweating, hallucinations.

Which of the following bones is found in the chest?

sternum

Which of the following is a muscle injury caused by overstretching or overexertion of the muscle?

strain

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of withdrawal from alcohol?

substance abuse.

Activated charcoal is manufactured to have more ____ than ordinary charcoal

surface area

Which of the following groups is the most susceptible to the effects of a poison?

the elderly

By definition, a systemic poison causes harm to which of the following?

the entire body

What are the kidneys responsible for?

the filtration of blood and the removal of certain waste products, excessive salts, and excessive fluid from the body. During dehydration, they help the body retain needed fluid

Someone tells you they have the "sickle cell trait"?

they carry the gene not the disease

At which of the following sites should the EMT administer an epinephrine auto-injector?

thigh

Which of the following describes any substance produced by a living organism that is poisonous to human beings?

toxin

Approximately how many Americans are being treated for ESRD and how many are on chronic dialysis?

treated - 900,00 on chronic dialysis - 400,000

How many dose(s) of medication does the Twinject epinephrine auto-injector contain?

two

Which of the following is an action caused by epinephrine in anaphylaxis?

vasoconstriction

A substance that provides an initial "rush" followed by a depressant effect on the nervous system is a

volatile chemical

Which of the following causes worsening of the damage in a brain injury? a. Allowing seepage of cerebrospinal fluid from the ears or nose b. Administration of 100 percent oxygen c. Failure to keep the patient awake and talking d. Improper management of airway and ventilation

d. Improper management of airway and ventilation

Which of the following is NOT appropriate in caring for a patient with closed soft-tissue injuries and a significant mechanism of injury? a. Treat for shock if you think there are internal injuries even if the patient's vital signs are normal. b. Anticipate vomiting. c. Splint any swollen, deformed extremities. d. All of the answer choices are appropriate

d.All of the answer choices are appropriate.

Which of the following injuries does NOT produce distended neck veins? a. Traumatic asphyxia b. Tension pneumothorax c. Cardiac tamponade d. All of the answer choices may cause distended neck veins.

d.All of the answer choices may cause distended neck veins.

Some drawbacks to using sterile aluminum foil as an occlusive dressing include: a. sterility cannot be ensured unless the materials were autoclaved. b. a flutter valve is difficult to create. c. foil cannot create an airtight seal. d. skin lacerations may occur from the sharp edges.

d. skin lacerations may occur from the sharp edges.

A 17-year-old girl was injured when her car was struck from behind while she was stopped at a red light. She is complaining of a headache with neck and back pain. You suspect she has sustained a(n): a. distraction injury. b. compression fracture. c. extension injury. d. whiplash injury.

d. whiplash injury.

Which of the following injuries requires the use of an occlusive dressing? a. An open wound to the chest b. An open wound to the neck c. An open wound to the abdomen from which a loop of intestine is protruding d. All of the above

d.All of the above

Which of the following is of concern with a puncture wound? a. The object that remains impaled in the body b. The strong possibility of contamination c. Hidden internal bleeding with minimal external bleeding d. All of the above

d.All of the above

Which of the following is true concerning lacerations? a. They may be caused by blunt trauma. b. They may be caused by penetrating trauma. c. They may indicate deeper underlying tissue damage. d. All of the above

d.All of the above

Which of the following would you expect to hear when auscultating the lungs of a patient having an anaphylactic reaction?

wheezing

Which of the following occurs to blood vessels during an anaphylactic reaction?

dilation

Which of the following is not a mechanism of musculoskeletal injury?

extensive force

Your patient is a 3-year-old girl who is unable to move her elbow after her mother picked her up by the forearm. Proper splinting of this injury would be to immobilize from the ________ to the ________.

forearm; humerus

Where could you find the phalange bones?

hands and feet

Oftentimes an EMT is called upon to treat a nose bleed (epistaxis). All of the following are correct ways to treat a nose bleed exceptAnswer

have the patient sit down and lean backwards

What are the 2 general types of dialysis?

hemodialysis (90%) peritoneal dialysis (8%)

The most common form of a hemostatic agent is: Answer hemostatic granular. hemostatic dressings. hemostatic tourniquet. hemostatic powder.

hemostatic dressings.

The "Opiate Triad" includes all of the following EXCEPT:

hypertension.

The most commonly injected poisons include snake and insect venom and:

illicit drugs

Your patient is a 12-year-old female who fell onto her outstretched hands while rollerblading. She has a deformity of her forearm, about 2 inches proximal to her wrist. This injury is a result of which of the following mechanisms?

indirect force

Cloudy urine tell us what?

infections

Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs by which of the following routes?

inhalation

A pillow is frequently used to splint an ankle or foot injury. It is effective, rapid, and can be used for most patients. Its main weakness is:

you are not immobilizing the knee and the joint adjacent to the ankle

Normally, respiratory drive is triggered by changing levels of: A. oxygen. B. glucose. C. carbon dioxide. D. pH.

think and solve problems

One's "cognitive ability" refers to his or her ability to do which of the following?

________ blood returns to the right side of the heart. A. Red B. Anemic C. Oxygenated D. Deoxygenated

Volatile chemicals are agents that are able to change easily from a ________ form to a ________ form.

liqiud, gas

The epinephrine contained in an auto-injector is in which of the following forms?

liquid

Cirrhosis is a disease of the _________.

liver

Smoke inhalation can result in all of the following EXCEPT:

lung contusion.

As an EMT, your best clue indicating the possibility of internal bleeding may be the presence of:

mechanism of injury

You are unsure if a patient's condition requires the administration of an epinephrine auto-injector. Which of the following actions is most appropriate?

none of the above

Most epinephrine auto-injectors, except the Twinject, contain how many doses of epinephrine?

one

Blood at the meatus of the penis (opening of the urethra) is a sign of:

pelvic trauma/fracture

The adequate circulation of blood throughout the body, which fills the capillaries and supplies the cells and tissues with oxygen and nutrients, is called

perfusion

What are 2 major components within the blood that are responsible for clotting?

platelets and clotting factors

You are treating a patient with a possible fractured ankle. The patient appears to be in a lot of pain and is uneasy. As you are getting ready to splint the patient's leg, he asks you if it is going to hurt. Which of the following is the BEST response?

"I will do my best, but it may hurt while we put the splint on."

Most organs of the abdomen are enclosed within the: A. peritoneum. B. midline. C. retroperitoneal. D. extraperitoneal.

Which of the following is MOST likely to be a complaint of a patient suffering from anaphylaxis?

"My throat feels like it is closing."

You have received the following order from medical control: "Administer one tablet of nitroglycerin under the patient's tongue." Which of the following is the BEST response?

"Order received. One nitroglycerin tablet under the patient's tongue."

You are on the scene of an adult male in cardiac arrest. The patient's wife is upset and is asking you if her husband is going to be okay. How should you answer the patient's wife?

"Your husband's heart has stopped. We're doing everything we can."

The drug Ecstasy is classified as what type of drug?

Hallucinogen.

The condition in which there is an insufficient amount of sugar in the blood is called: a. diabetic coma. b. hypoglycemia. c. hyperglycemia. d. diabetic ketoacidosis

When a substance enters the body through unbroken skin, it has entered the body by which of the following routes?

Absorption.

Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Middle adulthood does not begin at 35. B) INCORRECT. A person who is over 61-years-old is considered to be in the late adulthood stage. C) CORRECT. Middle adulthood is considered to be between 41 and 60 years. D) INCORRECT. 31-years-old is far too young to be considered middle adulthood. Page Ref: 183

) Middle adulthood is the stage of life from ________ to ________ years. A) 35; 55 B) 35; 65 C) 41; 60 D) 31; 60

exhaustion

According to Dr. Hans Selye, the third stage of the body's response to stress is known as the ________ stage.

Which of the following is a trade name for activated charcoal?

Actidose

What is the bloods' purpose?

*control of bleeding by clotting *delivery of oxygen to the cells *removal of carbon dioxide from the cells *removal and delivery of other waste products to organs that provide filtration and removal such as the kidneys and liver

What are the complications of sickle cell anemia?

*destruction of the spleen *sickle cell pain crisis - severe pain in the arms, legs, chest, abdomen *acute chest syndrome - SOB and CP associated with hypoxia *priapism - due to sludging *stroke - due to sludging *jaundice -liver becomes overwhelmed

Which of the following is NOT part of a medical radio report?

Address at which the patient was located

Which of the following is NOT part of the treatment for a 15-year-old female who has swallowed drain cleaner?

Administer activated charcoal

39) For a patient without a possibility of spinal injury, which of the following carries should be used to move him from a bed to a stretcher? A) Firefighter's carry B) Direct-ground lift C) Draw-sheet method D) Extremity lift Answer:

After activating the auto-injector, how long should it be held in place before removing it from the patient's thigh?

10 seconds

10) How far apart should your hands be when using a power grip? A) 24 inches B) 10 inches C) 6 inches D) 15 inches Answer:

11) Which of the following is another name for the squat-lift position? A) Power grip B) Power lift C) Weight-lifter technique D) Direct carry Answer:

How many parts does a standard medical radio report have as described in your textbook?

12) If the weight being pulled is below the level of the EMT's waist, he should be in a(n) ________ position. A) squatting B) kneeling C) feet-together D) overhead Answer:

13) Which of the following should you do when reaching for something? A) Keep your back in a locked-in position. B) Avoid twisting. C) Avoid reaching more than 15 to 20 inches in front of your body. D) All of the above Answer:

14) Which of the following best describes an urgent move? A) Moving a patient from a car directly to a long spine board B) Dragging a patient from a burning house using his shirt C) Using a sheet to move a patient from a bed to the stretcher D) Pulling a patient by her feet across a parking lot Answer:

Your patient is a 3-year-old female who has taken an unknown quantity of aspirin. She is conscious and alert. Which of the following orders is likely to be given by medical control?

Administer activated charcoal.

15) You respond to a call at a park where you find a 550-pound patient who has fallen down a slope near a creek. As you and your partner discuss the situation, you decide to call a second unit for lifting assistance. Once the patient is on a stretcher, how would the additional two personnel help in this lift? A) You place one person on each corner of the stretcher to balance the weight and share in the lifting. B) They would position themselves half way up the slope to take over when you and your partner get fatigued. C) You will place two persons at the foot, one at the head, and the other to act as a safety anchor with a rope. D) You will place two persons at the head of the stretcher, one at the foot, and one to act as a spotter. Answer:

Which of the following respiratory rates should be cause for alarm in a 2-month-old child? 28 breaths/min 40 breaths/min 16 breaths/min 32 breaths/min

16 breaths/min

16) When a stretcher with a patient secured to it is elevated, what occurs? A) The patient feels more comfortable being at near normal height. B) The center of gravity is raised and this causes a tip hazard. C) The stretcher is more stable and easily pushed. D) The EMTs lessen the possibility of injury from being bent over the patient. Answer:

17) Which of the following devices is best suited for maneuvering a patient through a narrow hallway? A) Long backboard B) Flexible stretcher C) Wheeled stretcher D) Basket stretcher Answer:

18) Which of the following is NOT correct when performing a log roll? A) Keep your back straight. B) Lean forward from the hips. C) Use your shoulder muscles. D) Place both feet flat on the ground. Answer:

19) What should you NOT do when using a stair chair? A) Lean forward from the hips. B) Keep your back straight. C) Lean forward from the waist. D) Flex your knees. Answer:

A severe allergic reaction will usually occur within what time period following exposure to the substance to which the patient is allergic?

2 to 4 minutes

2) When placing all fingers and the palm in contact with the object being lifted, you are using which of the following? A) Lock grip B) Power lift C) Power grip D) Vise grip Answer:

When ventilating a child with inadequate respirations, which of the following is the maximum rate at which artificial respirations should be delivered? 15 per minute 12 per minute 24 per minute 20 per minute

20 per minute

20) What is the preferred number of rescuers when using a stair chair? A) Two: one in front and one in back B) Only one with the track-like chair C) Four: one for each corner of the device D) Three: two lifting and one spotting Answer:

21) You have responded to a nursing home and find an elderly patient in his bed in cardiac arrest. Which type of move would you perform to get the patient to a hard surface so you can perform chest compressions? A) Non-urgent move B) Clothing drag C) Urgent move D) Emergency move Answer:

22) You have responded to a multiple casualty incident involving an overturned bus. Patients have been thrown around the interior of the bus and several are piled on top of each other. What type of move would you perform to gain access to the most critically injured patients? A) Non-urgent move B) Extremity lift C) Urgent move D) Emergency move Answer:

23) Which of the following devices should be used to carry a patient down the stairs whenever possible? A) Stair chair B) Scoop stretcher C) Basket stretcher D) Wheeled ambulance stretcher Answer:

24) What is the main benefit of using a stair chair with a track-like system over a traditional stair chair? A) A stair chair with a track-like system can be manipulated to lift into an ambulance using a hydraulic system. B) A stair chair with a track-like system prevents the patient from having to be lifted down stairs. C) There is no benefit of a track-like stair chair over a traditional stair chair. D) Only one EMT is required to operate a stair chair with a track-like system. Answer:

25) Which of the following patients should NOT be transported in a stair chair? A) Patient with difficulty breathing B) Patient who is nauseated C) Patient with a suspected spinal injury D) Patient found lying in bed Answer:

4) The term body mechanics describes the proper use of your body to lift without injury. What are the three considerations to review before any lift? A) Equipment, patient injury, and communication B) The object, patient injury, and communication C) The object, your limitations, and communication D) Environment, physical limitations, and communication Answer:

Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Patients in late adulthood (61 years and older) can experience a number of physical changes. For example, the cardiovascular system may become less efficient with an overall decrease in blood volume. B) CORRECT. Changes in the endocrine system result in decreased metabolism. C) INCORRECT. Sleep-wake cycles are often disrupted at this age, causing sleep problems. D) INCORRECT. The respiratory systems of those in late adulthood can decline, making them more susceptible to respiratory disorders. Page Ref: 184

25) Your 89-year-old male patient has called for help because he almost passed out after bringing in his garbage cans from the curb. The patient lives alone and says that he became panicked when he started feeling so lightheaded and dizzy. Patients in this age group often undergo all of the following changes to their health, except: A) blood volume decreases. B) increased metabolism. C) sleep-wake cycle disrupted. D) deterioration of respiratory system.

26) How many pounds are most battery-powered hydraulic systems rated to safely lift? A) 300 B) 500 C) 700 D) 200 Answer:

27) What is the likely impact of power stretchers on EMS? A) There is no likely impact of power stretchers on EMS. B) There will be a decrease in the number of injuries among EMTs. C) Insurance reimbursement will increase for ambulance services. D) There will be an increase in the number of home health transfers. Answer:

28) Stretchers that are designed to carry obese patients weighing up to 800 pounds (or more) are called: A) battery-powered stretchers. B) wheeled stretchers. C) hydraulic stretchers. D) bariatric stretchers. Answer:

29) During an emergency move, which of the following techniques should be used, whenever possible, to minimize the possibility of further aggravating a possible spinal injury? A) Move the patient in the direction of the long axis of the body. B) Pull the patient from the feet, not the shoulders. C) Roll the patient over. D) Move the patient sideways, alternating between moving the shoulders, then the hips. Answer:

3) Which of the following best describes body mechanics? A) Proper use of the body to protect patient safety B) Proper use of the body to facilitate lifting and moving objects C) Equipment designed to minimize stress on the user's body D) Both B and C Answer:

While caring for a 3-year-old child, you should be concerned if his respiratory rate exceeds ________ breaths per minute. 16 t20 24 30

30) Urgent moves are required when: A) an emergency move is not possible. B) rapid transport is necessary. C) performed for treatment of life threats along with precautions for spinal injuries. D) there are no life threats and conditions are stable. Answer:

31) Which urgent move should be performed for a patient seated in a vehicle? A) Rapid immobilization B) Rapid extrication C) Rapid takedown D) Rapid takeout Answer:

32) Which of the following is another name for an ambulance cot? A) Stair chair B) Reeve's stretcher C) Scoop stretcher D) Wheeled ambulance stretcher Answer:

33) What type of move should the EMT use to move a patient who is in a car that has started to burn? A) Non-urgent move B) Emergency move C) No attempt to move D) Urgent move Answer:

34) You and your partner arrive on the scene of a 400-pound patient lying in bed. He complains of nausea and vomiting for the past 3 days. When he tries to sit up, he gets very dizzy and has a syncopal episode. Realizing that he cannot assist you in getting on the stretcher, you decide to do which of the following? A) Use the patient's sheets to slide him over to the stretcher. B) Place the patient on a backboard to provide better gripping points to move the patient. C) Use the power lift technique to carefully and safely lift the patient to the stretcher. D) Call for additional manpower to move the patient. Answer:

35) You respond to a 48-year-old morbidly obese female patient. Her adult daughter called you because she has not gotten up from her oversized recliner chair in over a week. She has tried to help her out of the chair but states that each time her mother screams in agony. The foul odor presence of urine and feces is strong around the patient. Her feet do not touch the ground, and any attempt to lift the patient by her arms or scoot her down to the end of the chair results in severe pain to the patient. You are finding it nearly impossible to get a good grip on the patient. How will you get her out of the chair? A) Soft stretcher B) Long spine board C) Lie the chair back and use a scoop stretcher D) Vest-type extrication device Answer:

36) Which of the following should you use when you want to move a patient from a wheelchair to a stretcher? A) Ground transfer B) Extremity lift C) Clothing lift D) Modified direct lift Answer:

37) What is the contraindication for the use of a scoop or orthopedic stretcher? A) Internal injuries B) Hip fracture C) Pelvic injury D) Spinal injury Answer:

38) You are called to the scene of a patient who fell approximately 5 feet off a stepladder to the floor of a third-story attic of a very old building. He is complaining of severe neck and back pain, and he has an obvious fractured ankle. You cannot get your stretcher past the first-floor stairs and your long spine board is not practical with the winding spiral staircase and the small attic access. What is the best device to safely get the patient out of the attic where he can be properly immobilized? A) Scoop stretcher B) Stair chair C) Flexible stretcher D) Vest-type extrication device Answer:

42) You respond to the scene of a two-vehicle T-bone vehicle collision. The driver's side door is smashed shut and will not open. The front passenger door will open. The front passenger is stable and complaining of severe head and neck pain. You suspect that he has a potential spinal injury. The driver is unresponsive, in critical condition, and has gurgling respirations. You should extricate the passenger by which technique? A) Carefully move the patient using full c-spine precautions. B) Take extra care to protect the passenger's neck with a KED board or short spine board because of the injury. C) Move the patient out of the car as quickly as possible, in the direction of the long axis of the body. D) Move the patient as quickly as possible so he can get to a hospital before paralysis sets in. Answer:

43) You are moving an elderly patient down the stairs using a stair chair. The patient is alert and very anxious. What should you do prior to moving the patient to prevent her from grabbing the railing and causing you to fall? A) Explain to the patient what you are doing and advise her to hold her hands together and not let go until you are finished moving her. B) Gently tie the patient's hands together until you are downstairs to prevent her from unconsciously grabbing the railing. C) Use a strap to safely secure the patient's arms to the chair without causing any loss of circulation to the patient's extremities. D) Place the patient on oxygen during the move to calm her down. Answer:

A patient to whom you have administered epinephrine should be reassessed every ________ minutes.

5) Which of the following factors should be considered before lifting any patient? A) The weight of the patient B) Your physical limitations C) Communications D) All of the above Answer:

6) When lifting a patient, a basic principle is to: A) lift with your lower back. B) extend your arms to maximize your lift. C) rush your lift to minimize your lift time. D) know your lifting limits. Answer:

7) Which of the following is the correct position of an EMT's feet when lifting? A) Shoulder-width apart B) As close together as possible C) As wide apart as possible D) Two feet apart Answer:

Which of the following respiratory rates is considered an abnormal respiratory rate for an adult? 20 breaths/min 12 breaths/min 16 breaths/min 8 breaths/min

8 breaths/min

Peritoneal dialysis?

8% every day multiple treatments per day at home abdomen 2types: CAPD and CCPD 4 to 6 hrs

8) Which of the following statements regarding body mechanics is true? A) Use your back to lift. B) Use your legs to lift. C) Twist your torso while lifting. D) Position your feet close together. Answer:

9) Where should you position the weight of the object being lifted? A) As far from the body as possible B) An arm's length away from the body C) To one side or the other D) As close to the body as possible Answer:

As you are assessing a 32-year-old asthmatic woman who has called EMS due to difficulty breathing, her husband enters the home through a back door and shouts, "Get your hands off her; she doesn't need your help. She needs to be taught a lesson about her smart mouth." Which of the following is the best course of action? A. Request police backup immediately and consider leaving the scene. B. Attempt to remove the patient from the home and continue treatment en route to the hospital. C. Let the husband know that his behavior is inappropriate, and if it continues you will call for the police. D. Continue assessment and respond that the patient is sick and needs medical attention.

As you arrive at the scene of a house fire, a very upset man screams at you to help his young son, who is trapped under a piece of burning wood on the ground. Which of the following should you do first? A. Size-up the scene before acting. B. Perform an initial assessment on the patient. C. With the father's help, grab the boy by the arms and pull him from underneath the wood. D. Use a blanket to put out the fire on the piece of wood.

A 16-year-old patient presents with labored breathing and increased respiratory rate, increased heart rate, and leaning forward with his hands on his knees. His skin is pink and his accurate pulse oximetry is 96. This patient is suffering from respiratory: A. distress. B. arrest. C. failure. D. hypoxia.

Because of abnormally shaped hemoglobin, sickle cell anemia patients may occasionally experience _________, causing a blockage of small blood vessels. A. sludging B. aggregation C. clotting D. clumping

Before applying a nonrebreather mask, the EMT should take what action? A. Inflate the reservoir bag and make sure the bag does not deflate during inspiration. B. Make sure the oxygen supply has greater than 2,000 psi in the tank. C. Insert a properly sized oropharyngeal airway. D. Connect the mask to a humidified oxygen source and wait for the patient's heart rate to slow.

Dialysis patients who have missed an appointment may present with signs of _________, which is a similar presentation to _________. A. pulmonary edema; congestive heart failure B. shortness of breath; pneumonia C. chest pain; acute myocardial infarction D. neurological disturbances; stroke

During the primary assessment of an unresponsive two-month old infant, which pulse should be palpated? A. Brachial B. Radial C. Umbilical D. Carotid

During your primary assessment you find your patient has an altered mental status. This could indicate which of the following? a. Failing respiratory system b. Problems with the RAS due to hypertension c. The need for suctioning of the airway d. The need to complete a secondary assessment

External bleeding may be classified according to types. Which one of the following is one of those types? A. Capillary bleeding B. Liver bleeding C. Brain bleeding D. Cardiac bleeding

For the EMT, which of the following is the most important question to ask of a diabetic patient or his family members? a. When was the last time you had something to eat? b. Do you have a fruity taste in your mouth? c. Do you have a family history of diabetes? d. What kind of insulin do you take?

If capillary refill is assessed in a child patient, how long should it take the normal pink color to return to the nail bed? A. 2 seconds or less B. 5 seconds or less C. 4 seconds or less D. 3 seconds or less

If the blood sugar level is very high, which of the following may result? a. Excessive urination, excessive thirst, and excessive hunger b. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, and hyperactivity c. Excessive insulin, excessive glucose, and excessive urination d. Hyperactivity, excessive thirst, and polyuria

In a blood pressure reading of 120/80, the 120 is measuring what body process? A. Systolic blood pressure; when the left ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the arteries B. Systolic blood pressure; when the right ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the veins C. Diastolic blood pressure; when the left ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the arteries D. Systolic blood pressure; when the left ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the veins

In a conscious adult patient, which of the following pulses should be assessed initially? A. Radial B. Brachial C. Pedal D. Carotid

In a patient with extreme hypothermia who appears to be in cardiac arrest, you should assess the pulse for how long? a. 30 to 45 seconds b. 20 to 30 seconds c. 5 to 10 seconds d. 15 to 20 seconds

In assessing a patient's breathing, what is your first question? A. Is he breathing? B. Is he big sick or little sick? C. Is his breathing adequate or inadequate? D. Is he alive or dead?

In which of the following situations would a person lose heat by conduction? a. Sitting on cold metal bleachers at a football game b. Wearing wet clothing in windy weather c. Breathing d. Going outside without a coat during a cold but calm day

In which of the following vessels does the vital exchange take place and also has the thinnest walls through which oxygen, nutrients, and wastes can pass? A. Capillaries B. Veins C. Microvenules D. Arterioles

In EMS, which of the following BEST describes the term intervention? A. Taking steps to correct a problem B. Determining if there is a problem C. Decreasing the EMT's liability for negligence D. Creating a permanent record of patient care

Many stroke patients are candidates for thrombolytic drugs. One of the most important things that an EMT can do to optimize the care of a stroke patient who is a candidate for the drugs is: a. determine the exact time of onset of symptoms. b. transport the patient to a Level I Trauma Center. c. do a thorough physical exam of the patient. d. transport to the closest hospital since the patient must go to the operating room as soon as possible.

Multiple trauma and multisystem trauma patients are situations in which the EMT is expected to perform which of the following? a. Anticipate and treat problems with a greater level of complexity than usual. b. Provide the best quality care possible, including definitive care on-scene. c. Respond above and beyond the call of duty. d. Practice outside the scope of practice in order to provide the greatest good.

Of the following venomous snakes, which one usually has the highest incidence of a "dry bite"? a. Coral snake b. Water moccasin c. Mississauga rattlesnake d. Copperhead

Patients who dialyze at home are at high risk for what type of infection? A. Peritonitis B. Decubitus ulcers C. Cellulitis D. Fistula infection

Platelets are actually fragments of larger cells that are crucial to the formation of clots. Clumping (called aggregation) of platelets is the body's most rapid response to stop bleeding from an injured site. However, in some situations the clumping of platelets is not desirable, such as when a plaque in a coronary artery ruptures. In this situation, the rapid clumping of platelets can cause a clot that then completely blocks the coronary artery and results in a heart attack (myocardial infarction). One of the most effective and widely available drugs to prevent the aggregation of platelets is: A. aspirin. B. plasma. C. hemoglobin. D. anemia.

Rough handling of a patient with severe hypothermia may result in which of the following? a. Ventricular fibrillation b. Seizures c. Heart attack d. Rewarming shock

Something that is idiopathic: a. occurs spontaneously, with an unknown cause. b. occurs only on psychopathic patients that have learning issues. c. has at least four reasons for occurring. d. is so simple that anyone can figure it out.

Status epilepticus is a condition when: a. the patient has two or more convulsive seizures lasting 2 to 3 minutes or more without regaining full consciousness. b. the patient has two or more convulsive seizures lasting 5 to 10 minutes or more without regaining full consciousness. c. the patient has three or more convulsive seizures lasting 5 to 10 minutes or more without regaining full consciousness. d. the patient has two or more convulsive seizures lasting 5 to 10 minutes or more but regains full consciousness between them.

The detection of a bulging mass through the belly button that is not pulsating should make the EMT suspicious that the patient may be suffering from which of the following? A. Hernia B. Ulcer C. Abdominal aortic aneurysm D. Gastroenteritis

The first set of vital sign measurements obtained are often referred to as which of the following? A. Baseline vital signs B. Normal vital signs C. Standard vital signs D. None of the above

The medical term for fainting is: a. syncope. b. altered RAS status. c. dehydration. d. vertigo.

The medications that transplant patients need to take for the rest of their lives to prevent organ rejection also often lead to high susceptibility of: A. infection. B. renal failure. C. ulcers. D. congestive heart failure.

The purpose of a constricting band after a venomous snake bite is to impede the flow of which of the following? a. Lymph b. Arterial blood c. Venom d. Both A and C

The term blanching, used to describe localized cold injury, means the tissue has turned to which of the following colors? a. White or lighter b. Blue or purple c. Red d. Black

There are many causes of seizures in adults. Some of them are listed below. Of those listed, what is the most common? a. Failure to take prescribed antiseizure medication b. Hypoxia c. Stroke d. Hypoglycemia

There are two main types of dialysis, hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis. The main difference between them is: A. hemodialysis is usually done at a special facility and peritoneal dialysis is usually done at home. B. hemodialysis is usually done at home and peritoneal dialysis is usually done at a special facility. C. hemodialysis filters the blood and peritoneal dialysis filters the urine. D. hemodialysis filters the urine and peritoneal dialysis filters the blood.

What are some of the most important critical decisions an EMT can make on the scene of a serious trauma? a. Determining patient priority, amount of time on-scene, and hospital transport decision b. Whether to await ALS care on-scene or begin BLS transport c. Load and go versus stay and play d. Physiological determinants, anatomic criteria, and mechanism of injury

What are three elements of successful trauma care that field practitioners can use which will ultimately translate into greater rates of survival? a. Teamwork, timing, and transport b. Ground ambulances, air helicopters, and trauma centers c. Lights, sirens, and diesel d. Physiological determinants, anatomic criteria, and mechanism of injury

What is a cycle of filling and draining of the abdominal cavity during peritoneal dialysis called? A. Exchange B. Set C. Rotation D. Trade

What is epilepsy? a. A condition in which a person has multiple seizures usually controlled by medication. b. A condition in which a person has an aura followed by seizure usually controlled by medication. c. A condition caused by congenital brain abnormalities that causes seizures only twice a year. d. A condition in which a person has general seizures that start in childhood.

What is one of the most common diseases to affect the renal and urinary system? A. Urinary tract infections B. Acute renal failure C. End-stage renal disease D. Kidney stones

What is the definition of multiple trauma? a. A trauma in which the patient has more than one serious injury. b. A trauma in which there are multiple casualties. c. A trauma that requires the response of multiple agencies. d. Multiple injuries that affect more than one body system.

What is the definition of multisystem trauma? a. Multiple injuries that affect more than one body system. b. Trauma in which the patient has more than one serious injury. c. A trauma in which there are multiple casualties. d. A trauma that requires the response of multiple agencies.

What is the most important treatment for a patient who has inhaled a poison?

Administer high-concentration oxygen.

Why is it important to keep patients at rest when they are hypothermic? a. Since the blood is warmest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the warm blood and raises the core body temperature. b. Since the blood is coldest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the cold blood and drop the blood pressure. c. Since the blood is coldest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the cold blood and lower the core body temperature. d. None of the above

Why is it important to remove constricting items such as rings before thawing a frozen extremity? a. Because thawed areas often swell b. To prevent damage to the property such as rings and watches c. Because thawing leaves clots behind in the veins d. All of the above

Why might you consider contacting medical direction before applying a tourniquet in the case of uncontrollable bleeding from an AV fistula? A. Damage to the fistula may occur. B. The patient may be in danger of losing the limb. C. Medical direction should be contacted before any use of tourniquets. D. Hemodialysis anticoagulants may make bleeding more severe.

With the exception of the ________, most abdominal organs are not able to sense tearing sensations. A. aorta B. liver C. ovaries D. colon

You and your partner are en route to a motor vehicle crash involving a tanker truck on a rural road. Dispatch informs you that fluid is leaking from the truck, that there are several bystanders passed out on the ground near the cab of the truck, and that a caller has reported the code that appears on a placard attached to the tanker truck. You should: A. consult the Emergency Response Guidebook. B. remove the bystanders from the scene. C. park downwind from the tanker truck. D. park about 50 feet from the truck.

You are attempting to assess the blood pressure of a 35-year-old male at the scene of a multiple vehicle collision. The scene is very noisy and you are unable to clearly hear the patient's heartbeat. You should: A. obtain the blood pressure by palpation. B. use an automatic blood pressure machine. C. try using the patient's other arm. D. have your partner try auscultating the blood pressure.

You are attempting to replace the oxygen cylinder in your truck. After removing the regulator from the old cylinder, removing the old cylinder, and placing the new cylinder in the oxygen compartment, you attempt to connect the regulator. The new cylinder has a yellow stripe around it instead of a green one but was stored with the green cylinders. You are unable to get the regulator to seat properly and it will not turn. You should: A. remove the cylinder and get a green cylinder. B. replace the oxygen regulator with a new one. C. attempt to force the regulator onto the cylinder. D. put the old cylinder back on the truck.

You are called to a nursing home for an 85yearold patient complaining of abdominal pain. The patient has a history of dementia and cannot describe the pain to you. The nurse states the patient has been vomiting dark coffee ground emesis for about an hour. His blood pressure is 90/40, pulse 100, and respiratory rate of 24. Aside from the airway, what is your greatest concern? A. The patient will go into hypovolemic shock. B. The patient will have a stroke. C. The patient will become combative. D. The patient will have a myocardial infarction.

You are dispatched to a motor vehicle crash on a rural mountain highway. You have a patient who was unconscious on arrival, had a seizure, and is currently awake but combative. You suspect he may have a head injury. What is considered the BEST approach regarding transport of this patient? a. Dispatch and await the medical helicopter, which is 20 minutes away. b. Transport to a local community hospital approximately 15 minutes away via ground. c. Begin transport to the trauma center on the ground, which is 1.5 hours' driving time. d. Dispatch the medical helicopter to meet your unit at the community hospital.

You are on a stand-by at a local high school football game. One of the football players comes over to the ambulance and complains that his face feels numb and that he has a burning sensation in his fingers. You notice that the patient's cheeks and fingers are bright red. How should you treat the patient? a. Allow the patient to warm up inside the ambulance by passive rewarming measures. b. Place the patient inside the ambulance and begin active rewarming measures. c. Warm the affected areas with gentle rubbing. d. Tell the patient that his condition is superficial and allow him to return to the game.

You are transporting a patient to the hospital from a motor vehicle crash. Your patient's initial blood pressure was 88/52. You should reassess blood pressure: A. at least every 5 minutes. B. only if the patient gets worse. C. only if the pulse rate changes. D. at least every 15 minutes.

You find a teenage male lying supine in his bedroom. You hear gurgling sounds from the patient's mouth and see vomit with pill fragments on the floor. You should FIRST: A. suction the airway. B. ventilate with oxygen. C. perform chest thrusts. D. identify the pills.

You find a middle-aged unresponsive man lying prone on the ground near a ladder. You should FIRST: A. manually immobilize his head. B. move the ladder out of the way. C. pick him up with a scoop stretcher. D. roll him over to a supine position.

You have arrived at the scene of a call for a "man down." As you enter the residence you note that your patient is a male in his mid-60s who is awake but does not seem to acknowledge your presence. He is perspiring profusely, has cyanosis of his ears and lips, and has rapid, shallow respirations. Which of the following should you do first? A. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask and supplemental oxygen. B. Obtain the patient's medical history. C. Listen to his lung sounds. D. Check for a radial pulse.

You have a 38-year-old patient who has fainted. Following your local protocol you use a light wave device to determine the SpO2. As the EMT, you attach the device on the patient's finger, which gives you a reading of 91. What does that reading indicate? A. Mild hypoxia B. Significant hypoxia C. Severe hypoxia D. Normal results

Your patient is warm, dry, pink, and denies shortness of breath. Which of the following should the EMT expect to find when evaluating the patient's oxygen saturation? A. 98% B. 95% C. 102% D. 91%

The term poison is BEST described as any substance that can do which of the following?

Harm the body

You have responded to a local pool for a drowning patient. Lifeguards have pulled the patient out of the pool prior to your arrival. You find a 22-year-old male patient unresponsive with agonal respirations and a weak carotid pulse. Bystanders state the patient was not using the diving board and was found in the shallow end. Why are c-spine precautions necessary? a. The patient may have suffered a spinal injury by jumping in shallow water. b. The patient may have suffered a cervical spine injury when pulled out of the water. c. The patient may have been using the diving board after all and injured his cervical spine. d. The patient may have hit his head on the side wall while swimming laps.

You respond to a 32-year-old male who fell 20 feet off a ladder. He is responsive to painful stimuli. He has snoring respirations at 20 a minute with decent chest rise and fall. He has a broken femur, a broken wrist, and a lacerated radial artery that is bleeding profusely. Which of these injuries is the highest priority? a. The arterial bleed b. The snoring respirations c. The broken wrist d. The femur fracture

You respond to a 65yearold patient complaining of abdominal pain. Your physical exam reveals a nonpulsating mass in the lower left quadrant. You suspect: A. hernia. B. splenic rupture. C. appendicitis. D. aortic abdominal aneurysm.

You respond to a 75yearold female who is complaining of epigastric pain that feels like heartburn. The pain radiates to the right shoulder. Her vital signs are stable and she has a previous history of a myocardial infarction. She has prescription nitroglycerin tablets. She is most likely suffering from: A. cholecystitis. B. renal colic. C. Mittelschmerz. D. abdominal aortic aneurysm.

You respond to a 75yearold female who is complaining of epigastric pain that feels like heartburn and radiates to the right shoulder. Her vital signs are stable and she has a previous history of myocardial infarction. She has prescription nitroglycerine tablets. An ALS unit is en route. After performing a physical examination and applying oxygen by nasal cannula, you should: A. contact medical control regarding the administration of the patient's nitroglycerin. B. cancel the ALS unit: this is just gallstones and BLS can transport. C. transport the patient in the Trendelenburg position for shock. D. apply the AED and prepare for imminent cardiac arrest from a myocardial infarction.

You respond to a boat dock for a diving injury. You find a 22-year-old female patient unresponsive with frothy blood in the mouth and lung sounds absent on the right side. The patient is breathing 28 times a minute. The patient's friends state they were diving when she unexpectedly came out of the water complaining of chest pains and then collapsed. The nearest hospital is 25 minutes away and the nearest specialty resource center with a hyperbaric chamber is 30 minutes away. What is the best decision when determining transport? a. Transport the patient by ground to the specialty center. b. Transport by air medical to the specialty center. c. Transport to the nearest facility. d. Transport by air medical to the nearest facility.

You respond to a construction site on a very hot summer day for a person "not acting right." You find a 38-year-old male patient seated in a work vehicle with the air conditioner on maximum. Coworkers state the patient was working for the last 2 hours pouring concrete when he started " speaking gibberish" and nearly collapsed. The patient is responsive to verbal stimuli. Your initial vital signs are blood pressure 90/60, pulse 136, and respiratory rate 24. The patient's skin is cool to the touch and dry but his shirt is wet with visible salt rings. Which is the best treatment for the patient? a. Apply high-concentration oxygen and rapidly transport to the nearest medical facility. b. Have the patient slip water slowly to replace what he has lost. c. Cool the patient with tepid water. d. Have the patient drink at least 1 liter of water to replace what he has lost.

You respond to a landing zone to pick up a skier who was lost in the woods for 36 hours and found by the search and rescue helicopter. Your patient is a 19-year-old male patient. He is alert and oriented to time, person, place, and event. He is covered in blankets and shivering. He complains of not being able to feel his fingers. Physical exam reveals that the fingers of both extremities have a waxy appearance and feel "frozen" on the surface. After treating the patient for potential hypothermia and rapid transport, your next action is to: a. bandage the digits. b. actively rewarm the digits. c. gently warm the digits by slowly massaging them. d. keep the digits frozen on ice until they can be properly rewarmed at the hospital.

You respond to an abdominal pain call. Your partner suspects that the patient is having an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). What type of pain is the patient most likely experiencing? A. Tearing B. Referred C. Visceral D. Parietal

You respond to the scene of a 50yearold male complaining of severe abdominal pain. He has a history of alcohol and drug abuse. His vital signs are stable and he presents with epigastric pain that radiates to the back. He has guarding and point tenderness in the upper quadrants. You suspect: A. pancreatitis. B. cholecystitis. C. gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). D. myocardial infarction.

Your patient is a 70-year-old man whose wife called EMS because her husband began exhibiting unusual behavior. Upon your arrival you introduce yourself to the patient, who responds, "Not until nine o'clock." This phenomenon is BEST described as: a. receptive aphasia. b. disorientation to time. c. unresponsive to verbal stimuli. d. expressive aphasia.

Your patient is an unresponsive 30-year-old male wearing a Medic-Alert bracelet indicating that he is a diabetic. The patient's coworkers came by his house to check on him when he did not show up for work and did not call in sick. Your assessment does not clearly indicate to you whether the patient may be hypoglycemic or hyperglycemic. As you are completing your assessment, the patient's sister arrives at the scene. Which of the following should you do next? a. Apply oxygen and begin transport without taking further action. b. Use your glucometer to check his blood sugar level. c. Use the patient's glucometer to check his blood sugar level. d. Administer oral glucose, as it will not cause additional harm in hyperglycemia, but may prevent brain damage if the patient is hypoglycemic.

Your patient is a 33-year-old man who has been ejected from his vehicle during a high-speed collision. During your primary assessment it is discovered that he is not moving, does not appear to have adequate respirations, and has suffered moderate external bleeding. Which of the following should be done first? A. Open the airway. B. Control the bleeding with direct pressure. C. Begin bag-valve-mask ventilations. D. Check the patient's carotid pulse.

Your patient, a 29-year-old female, was the front seat passenger in a vehicle that was struck in the passenger's side door by another vehicle that ran a red light. Which of the following is most likely to have occurred? A. The patient's body was pushed forcefully out from under her head, causing injury to the cervical spine. B. The patient took the "down and under" pathway, causing trauma to her lower extremities. C. The patient took the "up and over" pathway, striking her head on the windshield. D. The patient impacted the steering wheel with her chest, causing a fracture of the sternum.

Explanation: A) CORRECT. A toddler (12 to 36 months) normally has a heart rate in the range of 80 to 130 per minute. Anything below 80 should be a concern and prompt further investigation of the patient's condition. B) INCORRECT. A heart rate of 64 is not too fast for a toddler. C) INCORRECT. For a healthy toddler, a pulse rate of 64 would not fall into the normal range. D) INCORRECT. When taken appropriately, the pulse of a toddler should be considered reliable enough to investigate his condition further if the rate is not within normal range. Page Ref: 179

A 26-month-old toddler is reported to have fallen and lacerated his chin. His mother did not witness the fall. As you proceed through your assessment, your partner reports that she's concerned about his heart rate, which she measures as 64. She's checked it twice. Your knowledge of normal vital signs for a patient this age suggests that his pulse rate is: A) too slow. B) too fast. C) within normal range. D) not reliable.

For which of the following shock patients would the use of PASG be contraindicated? Answer A 50-year-old man whose pelvis has been crushed by a forklift A 7-year-old male with massive soft-tissue loss of the left thigh from a shark bite A 70-year-old female who is vomiting blood and has crackles in her lungs A 23-year-old pregnant woman with obvious fractures of both femurs

A 70-year-old female who is vomiting blood and has crackles in her lungs

A clot cannot form without which of the following blood components? A. Platelets B. White blood cells C. Corpuscles D. Plasma

Which of the following statements is not true?

A comminuted break is when a bone is broken in only one place

A condition that is caused by a decreased number of red blood cells is called: A. erythrocythemia. B. polycythemia. C. leukemia. D. anemia.

Which of the following BEST describes a repeater?

A device that receives and amplifies a signal that must be carried over long distances

A disruption of the balance between oncotic pressure and hydrostatic pressure is critical to regulating: A. waste removal and urine. B. oxygenation and perfusion. C. perfusion and proper circulation to the tissues. D. blood pressure and cell hydration.

Denial

A family member who keeps pleading with a deceased loved one to "wake up" is experiencing which reaction to death and dying?

Perform a literature search to see what studies have been done on the special bandages and report the findings to the Medical Director.

A fellow EMT is talking with the Medical Director at a staff meeting. The EMT states that the neighboring ambulance service is carrying special clotting bandages for serious bleeding wounds. The special bandages cost five times as much as the regular bandages, but the EMT claims they work ten times better. The EMT wants the Medical Director to approve the bandages for use in their ambulances. The Medical Director responds to the EMT by saying he will not approve the bandages until he can prove they are worth the additional cost. How can the EMT best prove the worth of the special bandages?

A patient breathing in room air should be receiving ________ percent oxygen. A. 16 B. 5 C. 100 D. 21

A. a patient that responds to speaking or shouting by opening the eyes.

A patient whose mental status can be described as verbal is: A. a patient that responds to speaking or shouting by opening the eyes. B. a patient that responds to a pinched ear. C. a patient that cannot breath. D. an unconscious patient.

Which of the following patients does not necessarily have inadequate breathing? A patient with cyanosis A patient's whose breath sounds cannot be heard A patient with agonal respirations A patient with an irregular respiratory rhythm

A patient with an irregular respiratory rhythm

Which of the following best describes the compartment syndrome?

A serious condition caused by the bleeding and swelling from a fracture or crush injury that becomes so strong that the body can no longer perfuse the tissues against that pressure

Which of the following BEST describes a base station?

A two-way radio at a fixed site

Which of the following BEST describes a portable radio?

A two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip

Which of the following BEST describes a mobile radio?

A two-way radio that is mounted in a vehicle

quality improvement

After delivering a patient to the emergency department, you discuss with hospital staff the details of your care and ask for suggestions to improve your care. This is an example of your role in which of the following?

standing order.

A written authorization for an EMS provider to perform a particular skill in a specific situation is a(n):

injury of a coworker

A(n) ________ is a situation that may lead to an acute stress reaction.

Which of the following patients would be considered to be at the greatest risk for suicide? A) 22-year-old man who has lost his job and is getting divorced B) 35-year-old female who has a child with a serious illness C) Married, 30-year-old man who has just learned that his employer is transferring him to a different state D) 44-year-old woman who has just recovered from a serious illness

A) 22-year-old man who has lost his job and is getting divorced

In which of the following patients should you check for the possibility of spinal injury? A) An unresponsive diabetic who appears to have fallen down B) An unresponsive patient found in her bed with no obvious injury C) A responsive patient with no history of injury who is complaining of a headache and neck pain D) All of the above

A) An unresponsive diabetic who appears to have fallen down

How is activated charcoal, which is carried by some EMS systems, supplied for use in emergency situations? A) As a powder, which is mixed with water before administration B) As a gel or paste C) As tablets D) As a fine liquid spray for inhalation

A) As a powder, which is mixed with water before administration

Why should EMTs study pharmacology? A) As an EMT, you will be trusted to administer medications in emergency situations; many of these may be lifesaving, but there is potential to do harm. B) An EMT must know the manufacturer, sources, characteristics, and effects of every medication that has been prescribed to the patient. C) As an EMT, you will be trusted to administer medications in emergency situations, although many of these may do nothing but give the patient false hope. D) An EMT must know the sources, characteristics, and effects of each medication that the physician may prescribe.

A) As an EMT, you will be trusted to administer medications in emergency situations; many of these may be lifesaving, but there is potential to do harm.

When you begin interviewing your patient, he tells you that he has not felt well for several months, ever since he had his gallbladder removed. He goes on to tell you that he cannot get his wife to schedule a doctor's appointment for him and when she remembers to call, the office is always closed. Which of the following is the best way to proceed? A) Ask him why he decided to call 911 today. B) Ask him for a list of his medications. C) Begin your assessment of his vital signs. D) Try to call his doctor to schedule an appointment.

A) Ask him why he decided to call 911 today.

Your patient is a 22-year-old college student complaining of abdominal pain. She is alert and oriented, although somewhat uncomfortable. Which of the following should be your first action? A) Ask the patient to describe the pain and find out if she has other complaints. B) Perform a rapid head-to-toe physical examination. C) Palpate the patient's abdomen for tenderness and guarding. D) Take the patient's roommate aside and ask about the patient's medical history.

A) Ask the patient to describe the pain and find out if she has other complaints.

When dealing with a psychiatric emergency, which one of the following would generally be inappropriate behavior on your part? A) Be as hurried as you can. It is extremely important to resolve the call and get the patient to the hospital as soon as possible. B) Act in a calm manner, giving the patient time to gain control of his emotions. C) Let the patient know that you are listening to what he is saying, and explain things to the patient honestly. D) Stay alert for sudden changes in behavior.

A) Be as hurried as you can. It is extremely important to resolve the call and get the patient to the hospital as soon as possible.

Your patient is a 15-year-old female complaining of shortness of breath. Which of the following is NOT appropriate during the focused exam? A) Checking her pupils for reactivity to light B) Looking at the use of her neck muscles C) Listening to her breath sounds D) Looking at her nail beds

A) Checking her pupils for reactivity to light

What is a surgical opening in the wall of the abdomen with a plastic bag in place to collect digestive waste? A) Colostomy B) Gastric bypass C) Thoracotomy D) Fistula

A) Colostomy

Which of the following is a desired action of epinephrine delivered by auto-injector? A) Constriction of blood vessels B) Constriction of coronary arteries C) Dilation of coronary arteries D) Decrease in blood pressure

A) Constriction of blood vessels

Which of the following is a potential side effect of nitroglycerin? A) Decreased blood pressure B) Sudden increase in heart rate C) Difficulty breathing D) All of the above

A) Decreased blood pressure

Your patient is a 15-year-old female who has n diagnosed with a personality disorder. She has no history of violent behavior. The staff at her residential care facility wants her to be transported for evaluation of a possible urinary tract infection. Which of the following is the BEST way to handle this situation? A) Have a female EMT attend to the patient. B) Transport the patient, but do not speak to her or perform an assessment. C) Refuse to transport the patient without a police escort. D) Ask that the patient be given a tranquilizer injection prior to transport.

A) Have a female EMT attend to the patient.

Which of the following is NOT an acceptable method or adjunct in restraining a patient? A) Hog-tying the patient B) Placing a surgical mask over the patient's face to prevent spitting C) Restraining the patient face-up D) Securing all four limbs with leather restraints

A) Hog-tying the patient

A wound in which the epidermis is scraped away with minimal bleeding, such as commonly occurs when a child falls on his knees on a sidewalk, is called a(n): A. abrasion. B. contusion. C. avulsion. D. evisceration.

A. abrasion.

You have just administered nitroglycerin to a 68-year-old patient. Within a few minutes, she complains of feeling faint and lightheaded, but states that she is still having some chest pain. Which of the following would be the BEST sequence of actions? A) Lower the head of the stretcher and take the patient's blood pressure. B) Administer activated charcoal to prevent further absorption of the nitroglycerin and closely monitor the patient's blood pressure. C) Advise the patient that this is a normal occurrence and administer a second dose of nitroglycerin. D) Increase the amount of oxygen you are giving to the patient before administering a second dose of nitroglycerin.

A) Lower the head of the stretcher and take the patient's blood pressure.

Which of the following is acceptable when managing the patient with a behavioral or psychiatric emergency? A) Make supportive statements such as, "That must have been very hard for you." B) Sit as close to the patient as you can to reassure him that you will not abandon him. C) Allow family members to confront the patient about his behavior. D) Go along with the patient's hallucinations or false beliefs.

A) Make supportive statements such as, "That must have been very hard for you."

You have performed a rapid trauma assessment on a patient with multiple long-bone injuries. Your next assessment step should be which of the following? A) Obtain baseline vital signs and past medical history. B) Perform a detailed physical exam. C) Transport the patient to the hospital and perform a detailed physical exam. D) Call the ALS unit to determine their ETA before deciding your next step.

A) Obtain baseline vital signs and past medical history.

Immediately following a rapid physical exam on an unresponsive medical patient, which of the following should you do next? A) Obtain baseline vital signs. B) Find out who the patient's doctor is. C) Check the scene for medications. D) Perform a focused physical exam.

A) Obtain baseline vital signs.

Name the type of medical direction consisting of standing orders and protocols. A) Off-line B) Verbal C) On-line D) Written

A) Off-line

What is the first medication that should be administered to a patient experiencing chest pain with difficulty breathing? A) Oxygen B) Aspirin C) Nitroglycerin D) Albuterol

A) Oxygen

What medication is given when a patient suffers from a medical or traumatic condition called hypoxia? A) Oxygen B) Oral glucose C) Epinephrine D) Aspirin

A) Oxygen

You are on the scene of a 68-year-old patient with a history of COPD who is breathing 44 times per minute and has a diminished level of consciousness. His wife states he has an Albuterol inhaler and nitroglycerin tablets for angina. What is the most important drug you can administer to the patient? A) Oxygen by bag-valve mask B) Oxygen by nonrebreather mask C) Albuterol D) Nitroglycerin

A) Oxygen by bag-valve mask

The patient was a driver in a lateral impact motor vehicle collision. During the assessment of his chest, the EMT notes a segment of the chest wall moving in the opposite direction from the rest of the chest. Which of the following BEST describes this finding? A) Paradoxical movement B) Intercostal retractions C) Flutter segment D) Tension pneumothorax

A) Paradoxical movement

When responding to an attempted suicide, which of the following is the EMT's primary concern? A) Personal safety B) Determining whether the patient suffers from clinical depression C) Contacting law enforcement since suicide is illegal D) Managing the patient's airway

A) Personal safety

You are transporting a patient who has had her neck slashed from side to side. You and your partner are caring for the patient while a police officer drives you to the hospital, which is minutes away. You are focusing all of your efforts to maintain her airway and your partner is controlling her bleeding. Which of the following will you be unlikely to obtain? A) Reassessment results B) Patient's gender C) Primary assessment D) Pulse and respiratory rates

A) Reassessment results

________ are signs or symptoms that suggest the possibility of a particular problem that is very serious. A) Red flags B) Differentials C) Pertinent negatives D) All of the above

A) Red flags

"If it looks like a duck and quacks like a duck, it must be a duckNexcept when it isn't" is a way to summarize which of the following? A) Representativeness B) Illusory correlation C) Confirmation bias D) Overconfidence

A) Representativeness

You are dispatched to a psychiatric emergency for a 68-year-old male. Dispatch provides no other information and, when questioned by you, they do not have any more information. Although all steps are important in dealing with this situation, which step is the MOST important? A) Scene size-up B) Primary assessment C) Vital signs and SAMPLE history D) Secondary assessment

A) Scene size-up

As you arrive at the emergency department with an unresponsive trauma patient, the nurse asks for your trending assessment. Why is this information important to the nurse? A) She can evaluate whether or not the patient is improving. B) She can evaluate the quality of care you provided. C) She can determine if you understand the assessment process. D) She can critique your technique of taking vital signs.

A) She can evaluate whether or not the patient is improving.

You are called for a patient who is complaining of being weak and dizzy. He reports that he does not have enough money to pay for his medications so he has not gotten them refilled. Your service has an automatic blood pressure machine and you use it to measure the patient's blood pressure while you count his respirations. The blood pressure machine reports a blood pressure of 280/140. What should you do next? A) Take a manual blood pressure. B) Call immediately for ALS response. C) Begin transport immediately. D) Continue with vital sign assessment.

A) Take a manual blood pressure.

An EMT's assessment differs from an assessment made in the emergency department in which way? A) The EMT is working with limited resources. B) An EMT's focus is on life threats first. C) Time is available in the emergency department to make a diagnosis. D) The emergency physician is concerned with scene safety.

A) The EMT is working with limited resources.

Your patient's initial vital signs were a pulse of 120 per minute and weak, a blood pressure of 90/50 mmHg, and a respiratory rate of 24 per minute. Upon reassessment, you note that the patient now has a weak pulse of 100 per minute, a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, and a respiratory rate of 20 per minute. Which of the following can you conclude from this information? A) The patient's condition may be improving. B) The baseline vital signs were inaccurate. C) The patient will survive. D) You can transport the patient to a lower level trauma center.

A) The patient's condition may be improving.

Which of the following statements concerning people who have made prior suicide attempts is true? A) They are at an increased risk for a subsequent successful suicide. B) They do not require psychological counseling like a person who is truly depressed. C) They should be allowed to sign a release if their injuries are not serious. D) They are usually just making a cry for help but do not want to die.

A) They are at an increased risk for a subsequent successful suicide.

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of a rapid trauma assessment? A) To focus care on specific injuries B) To provide a basis for care during transport C) To detect injuries that may become life threatening D) To assess the extent of injuries

A) To focus care on specific injuries

Your patient is a 24-year-old male who is severely depressed. He tells you that he can't "handle the pressure" anymore and that he wants to die. He is refusing transport. Which of the following is the most appropriate decision regarding this patient's care? A) Transport the patient against his will with the assistance of law enforcement. B) Contact the patient's family to find out what their wishes are. C) Leave the scene and allow law enforcement to handle the situation. D) Respect the patient's wishes; he is alert, oriented, and capable of giving consent.

A) Transport the patient against his will with the assistance of law enforcement.

You are on the scene of a patient who is the victim of an assault. The scene is safe. You find a 22-year-old male patient responsive to painful stimuli only. His blood pressure is 180/80, pulse is 60, respirations are 12, and his oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. How would you classify this patient? A) Unstable. The patient is responsive to painful stimuli only. B) Unstable. The patient is hypertensive. C) Stable. The patient's pulse, respirations, and oxygen saturation are within normal limits. D) Stable. The patient does not have hypotension.

A) Unstable. The patient is responsive to painful stimuli only.

The term priapism means ________ and may be found in injuries of the ________. A) a persistent penile erection; spine B) abnormal pulsation; abdomen C) unequal pupils; brain D) a painful muscle spasm; spine

A) a persistent penile erection; spine

Choose the correct completion to this statement regarding IV administration: This route is used to administer medication into the body directly or through the bloodstream and is: A) beyond the scope of the EMT level. B) allowed in larger cities and more advanced EMS services. C) used in advanced life support only when the patient is intubated. D) only performed on advanced life support services.

A) beyond the scope of the EMT level.

Your patient is a 14-year-old male who was run over by a tractor and is now unresponsive. During the rapid assessment, you should look for clear drainage coming from the patient's ________ indicating a serious injury. A) ears B) mouth C) rectum D) eyes

A) ears

EMTs may come across a situation where a patient begins to act extremely agitated or psychotic. Elevated temperature and sometimes alcohol or drug intoxication may be present. The patient will soon cease struggling, and often within minutes the patient develops inadequate or absent respirations and subsequently dies. It is important for the EMT to be alert for this sequence of events in a patient who exhibits this behavior and monitor the patient constantly throughout the call. This condition is called: A) excited or agitated delirium. B) psychotic delirium. C) excited psychosis. D) bipolar disorder.

A) excited or agitated delirium.

When managing a patient who may hurt himself or others, you should do all of the following except: A) make sure only you and the patient are in the room. B) keep bystanders a safe distance away. C) watch for sudden changes in the patient's behavior. D) retreat if the patient becomes threatening.

A) make sure only you and the patient are in the room.

You are caring for a teenager who is having a severe allergic reaction. He has hives all over his stomach, is having respiratory distress, and is wheezing. After you administer oxygen, you get a set of vital signs. Medical direction has ordered you to assist with administration of his Epi-Pen®. You will monitor the success of your interventions during the: A) reassessment. B) focused exam. C) primary assessment. D) secondary assessment.

A) reassessment.

When you give patients nitroglycerin, they sometimes develop a headache. This would be called a(n): A) side effect. B) contraindication. C) untoward effect. D) indication.

A) side effect.

You are on the scene at a fancy hotel room for a 60-year-old male patient who calls 911 at 10 p.m. for chest pains. He states he was about to go to bed when he suddenly had chest pain that would not go away. He rates his pain as a 7 out of 10 and is diaphoretic. His vital signs are stable, and he takes medications for hypertension, high cholesterol, and erectile dysfunction. The patient is allergic to morphine. After placing the patient on oxygen, you contact medical control and request: A) to administer aspirin to the patient. B) to administer nitroglycerin to the patient. C) to administer both aspirin and nitroglycerin to the patient. D) no orders.

A) to administer aspirin to the patient.

You are called for a 58-year-old male who is concerned that his blood pressure is too high. He tells you that he has had a headache and is feeling a little dizzy. You notice that his skin is flushed and feels warm to the touch. As you finish taking his vital signs, you should: A) write down the patient's vital signs. B) begin your reassessment. C) move the patient to the ambulance for transport. D) assist the patient to take his blood pressure medication.

A) write down the patient's vital signs.

Which of the following individuals is likely in the incubation period of chickenpox? A. A patient who was exposed 6 days ago but does not yet have a fever or rash B. A patient with a fever and a rash on the abdomen and back that began 3 days ago C. A patient who was vaccinated last year, exposed 4 weeks ago, and shows no signs D. A patient whose rash and fever went away a week ago

A. A patient who was exposed 6 days ago but does not yet have a fever or rash

According to the signs of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), which of the following infection patients has an increased risk of sepsis? A. A patient with a temperature of 95.4°F and a respiratory rate of 28 B. A patient with respiratory rate of 19 and a heart rate of 112 C. A patient with a heart rate of 88 and a temperature of 99.6°F D. A patient with a systolic blood pressure of 75 mmHg and a respiratory rate of 18

A. A patient with a temperature of 95.4°F and a respiratory rate of 28

Which of the following is NOT appropriate in caring for a patient with closed soft-tissue injuries and a significant mechanism of injury? A. Allow the patient to have small sips of water. B. Anticipate vomiting. C. Treat for shock if you think there are internal injuries even if the patient's vital signs are normal. D. Splint any swollen, deformed extremities.

A. Allow the patient to have small sips of water.

Your patient is a 44-year-old female who has collapsed while jogging. She has been unresponsive for 4 to 5 minutes by the time you arrive. Her husband appears to be performing high-quality CPR. Which of the following should be your first action? A. Apply the AED. B. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and begin ventilations. C. Stop CPR and check for a pulse. D. Load the patient into the ambulance for further assessment.

A. Apply the AED.

Your patient is a 66-year-old female who has regained a pulse after a shock with an AED; however, she remains unresponsive and is not breathing adequately. Which of the following should be done next? A. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen and anticipate that the patient may go back into cardiac arrest. B. Deliver a fourth shock to improve the patient's respiratory status. C. Remove the AED and assist the patient's ventilations with a bag-valve mask and supplemental oxygen, and keep re-assessing the pulse. D. Apply a nonrebreather mask with high-concentration oxygen and keep reassessing the pulse.

A. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen and anticipate that the patient may go back into cardiac arrest.

Which of the following patients should have an automated external defibrillator applied? A. A 19-year-old college athlete who collapsed during football practice and is pulseless and apneic B. A 6-month-old in severe respiratory distress C. A 40-year-old female in cardiac arrest due to chest injuries sustained in a motor vehicle crash D. A 67-year-old man with severe, crushing chest pain that is not relieved by nitroglycerin

A. A 19-year-old college athlete who collapsed during football practice and is pulseless and apneic

Which of the following statements about bacteria is false? A. Bacteria need to be inside the body in order to reproduce. B. Some bacteria inside the body are good and necessary to survival. C. Over time, bacteria have developed resistance to some antibiotics. D. Sepsis is a serious and sometimes deadly complication of bacterial infection.

A. Bacteria need to be inside the body in order to reproduce.

In which of the following ways does cardiac arrest in children differ from cardiac arrest in adults? A. Cardiac arrest in children is more likely to be due to respiratory failure. B. Ventricular fibrillation is not common in adults. C. Ventricular fibrillation is common in children. D. Cardiac arrest in adults is more likely to be due to respiratory failure.

A. Cardiac arrest in children is more likely to be due to respiratory failure.

Which of the following should NOT be done during defibrillation? A. Continued ventilation during the analysis phase to prevent hypoxia B. Performing CPR while the AED is being attached C. Shaving the chest before placing the defibrillation pads to improve contact D. Pressing the defibrillation pads firmly to the chest to ensure good contact

A. Continued ventilation during the analysis phase to prevent hypoxia

Which of the following is the name of the condition in which fatty deposits form in the inner lining of the arteries of the heart? A. Coronary artery disease B. Aneurysm C. Arteriosclerosis D. Coronary thrombosis

A. Coronary artery disease

Which of the following is the outermost layer of the skin? A. Epidermis B. Dermis C. Adipose tissue D. Fascia

A. Epidermis

You are treating a male patient with chest pain caused by the complete occlusion of one of the coronary arteries. What would you most likely expect with this patient? A. His pain will not be alleviated by any of the medications administered by EMTs. B. His pain will be alleviated with nitroglycerin. C. His pain will be reduced with aspirin. D. His pain will go away with oxygen

A. His pain will not be alleviated by any of the medications administered by EMTs.

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of a continuous quality improvement program for AED? A. Improving patient outcomes in the community B. Taking disciplinary action for patient care errors C. Eliminating the need for medical direction D. Replacing continuing education

A. Improving patient outcomes in the community

While assessing a 78-year-old male patient who escaped an apartment fire with partial thickness burns to both arms, the EMT must be aware of which of the following? A. Medical conditions may be aggravated by the burn. B. The patient may need to be questioned by police and fire officials about the cause of the fire. C. Being involved in a crime makes the patient part of the chain of evidence, requiring a police officer to ride with you to the hospital. D. The burn is the most serious injury to the patient.

A. Medical conditions may be aggravated by the burn.

What is the most important thing you can do for a stable septic patient? A. Notify the emergency department that the patient is septic. B. Assess the patient using capnography. C. Attempt to lower the patient's temperature. D. Open and maintain the patient's airway.

A. Notify the emergency department that the patient is septic.

You are on-scene with a 48-year-old unresponsive male patient. Bystanders state he complained of chest pain and then suddenly collapsed. Vital signs are blood pressure 68/42, pulse 36, and respiratory rate 3. He is unresponsive to painful stimuli. After performing the primary assessment and treating all life threats, what is your next intervention? A. Package the patient for rapid transport. B. Administer high-concentration oxygen at 15 lpm by bag-valve mask. C. Insert an oral airway. D. Apply the AED.

A. Package the patient for rapid transport.

Which of the following BEST describes a fluttering sensation in the chest? A. Palpitations B. Dysrhythmia C. Pulseless electrical activity of the heart D. Tachycardia

A. Palpitations

Your patient is a 55-year-old male who was found in the parking lot behind a tavern. He states that he was assaulted and robbed by three individuals. He is complaining of being "hit in the face and kicked and punched in his ribs and stomach." Your examination reveals contusions and swelling around both eyes, bleeding from the nose, a laceration of his upper lip, and multiple contusions of the chest, abdomen, and flanks. Which of the following should cause the greatest concern regarding the prehospital care of this patient? A. Potential internal injuries B. The presence of any defensive wounds the patient may have sustained C. The swelling around his eyes, which may be reduced by applying a cold pack D. Getting a description of the assailants

A. Potential internal injuries

Which type of wound has a small opening into the skin, but may be quite deep, and is often caused by instruments such as nails, ice picks, or pencils? A. Puncture B. Avulsion C. Incision D. Laceration

A. Puncture

You are dispatched to an auto repair shop for an "accident." You arrive and are told by the owner that one of the workers apparently got his hand in the way while using a high-pressure grease gun and injected the grease into his hand. You find the patient seated in a chair with a coworker applying ice to the injured hand. Your examination reveals a minor round laceration in the hand. The patient is complaining of pain in the area but wants to let the wound take care of itself and go back to work. What should you do? A. Remove the ice from the wound, then elevate and splint the limb. Transport the patient high priority. B. The patient is correct. This type of wound will heal on its own and he can go back to work. C. Tell the patient that if it does not get better within the next few days he should consult his own doctor. D. Continue to apply cold, elevate and splint the limb, and transport the patient high priority.

A. Remove the ice from the wound, then elevate and splint the limb. Transport the patient high priority.

Which of the following is the beneficial action of a beta blocker medication? A. Slows the heart rate B. Increases the strength of myocardial contraction C. Increases the amount of oxygen needed by the myocardium D. Causes vasoconstriction, increasing the blood pressure

A. Slows the heart rate

You are dispatched to the local elementary school for an injured student. Upon arrival you find that two 7-year-olds got into a fight and one of them jabbed a pencil in the other's cheek. The pencil is still sticking out of the child's cheek. When you examine the patient, you cannot see the end of the pencil that went through the cheek, as it appears to be stuck in the palate. There is not significant bleeding, and the child is not having any difficulty breathing. The child is very upset and wants you to pull the pencil out. What should you do? A. Stabilize the object, but do not try to remove it. B. Remove the object and put a bandage on the outside of the cheek. C. Call the parents and see what they want you to do. D. Let the child carefully pull the object out.

A. Stabilize the object, but do not try to remove it.

Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of dressings used in the prehospital management of most open wounds? A. Sterile B. Occlusive C. Adherent D. Absorbent

A. Sterile

Which of the following layers of the skin is the MOST important in insulating the body against heat loss? A. Subcutaneous layer B. Subdural layer C. Epidermis D. Parietal layer

A. Subcutaneous layer

You are on the scene of a 68-year-old male patient complaining of severe chest pain for the last 20 minutes. He has a previous history of myocardial infarction and states it feels "just like the last time." You have applied oxygen and assisted him in administering aspirin and nitroglycerin with no reduction in the chest pain. Your nearest facility is 5 minutes away, a Level III Trauma Center is 10 minutes away, and a hospital with cardiac catheterization capabilities is 20 minutes away. The patient is requesting to be transported to his cardiologist's hospital, which is 30 minutes away. Which hospital is the best destination? A. The nearest hospital with cardiac catheterization B. The trauma center C. The hospital the patient requests D. The nearest facility

A. The nearest hospital with cardiac catheterization

Which of the following is required in the management of all open soft-tissue injuries? A. Use of Standard Precautions by the EMT B. Application of a disinfectant solution C. Provision of high-concentration oxygen D. Cervical spine precautions

A. Use of Standard Precautions by the EMT

Automatic defibrillation is NOT appropriate in most cases of infant cardiac arrest due to which of the following? A. Ventricular fibrillation is not the primary cause of cardiac arrest in the pediatric patient. B. AEDs cannot effectively determine rhythms on patients weighing less than 20 pounds. C. The energy delivered by the AED would not be effective on an infant. D. None of the above

A. Ventricular fibrillation is not the primary cause of cardiac arrest in the pediatric patient.

You are assessing a 30-year-old male patient who was accidentally injured by a high-pressure industrial sprayer. By the time you arrive he has been freed. The patient tells you that he does not understand why you were called, but as you inspect the injured limb you notice a small puncture wound. You should have a high index of suspicion of which of the following injuries? A. High-pressure injection B. Degloving injury C. Chemical burn D. Crush injury

A. High-pressure injection

Mechanical CPR devices are used by EMS agencies in order to provide ________. A. high-quality compressions B. more efficient breaths C. a faster response time to the scene D. a 100% success rate

A. high-quality compressions

You are transporting a 20-year-old soccer player who injured his ankle during a match. His injury appears to be isolated and he has no significant past medical history. How frequently should you perform a reassessment on this patient? A. 15 minutes B. 5 minutes C. 30 minutes D. 10 minutes

A. 15 minutes

Approximately how many Americans are currently on some type of dialysis? A. 400,000 B. 50,000 C. 100,000 D. 200,000

A. 400,000

How would you define anemia? A. A lack of a normal number of red blood cells in the circulation B. The loss of the kidneys' ability to filter the blood and remove toxins and excess fluid from the body C. An inherited disease in which a genetic defect in the hemoglobin results in abnormal structure of the red blood cells D. The process by which toxins and excess fluid are removed from the body by a medical system independent of the kidneys

A. A lack of a normal number of red blood cells in the circulation

Why is Lyme disease not considered a communicable disease? A. A person with the disease cannot pass it to other people. B. A person can only pass the disease to another via contact with blood. C. It is spread by an insect, not a bacteria, virus, or microbe. D. The condition is not fatal.

A. A person with the disease cannot pass it to other people.

On which of the following patients should a reassessment be performed? A. All patients should be reassessed B. Patient with chest pain C. Patient with a gunshot wound D. Patient having difficulty breathing

A. All patients should be reassessed

For which of the following patients is it essential to perform a reassessment every 5 minutes while en route? A. A 27-year-old bull rider who was trampled on the chest by a bull B. A 7-year-old patient with minor bleeding from a small cut that has been controlled C. A 7-month-old patient with a rash but normal vital signs D. A 17-year-old patient who fainted but is now alert

A. A 27-year-old bull rider who was trampled on the chest by a bull

You are treating a 15-year-old boy who apparently broke his right arm when he fell while skateboarding with his friends. You have completed your primary and secondary assessment including splinting his arm, but you found no other injuries or problems. Which of the following is the most important step to do during the reassessment? A. Check distal circulation on his right arm. B. Place the patient on oxygen via nasal cannula. C. Recheck his pupils. D. Visualize his chest for bruising.

A. Check distal circulation on his right arm.

You are on the scene of a 65-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. CPR is in progress and the AED has been applied. The AED advises shock. After defibrillating the patient, what is your next intervention? A. Continue CPR. B. Check for a pulse. C. Insert a Combitube. D. Place in the recovery position.

A. Continue CPR.

You are alone in the back of the ambulance where you are ventilating an apneic patient. Which of the following is the best way to manage the reassessment? A. Continue ventilating the patient during transport and skip the reassessment. B. Stay on the scene and request additional help so you will have someone to help you perform a reassessment. C. Stop ventilating the patient every 5 minutes so you can perform a reassessment. D. Have your partner stop the ambulance every 5 minutes to help you perform a reassessment.

A. Continue ventilating the patient during transport and skip the reassessment.

A patient who is lying on cold ground is losing the most amount of heat by what mechanism? a. Radiation b. Convection c. Conduction d. Shivering

Delivery of an electrical shock to restore a normal heart rhythm most directly affects which of the following? A. Electrical function in the heart B. Peripheral pulses C. Blood circulation D. Blood pressure

A. Electrical function in the heart

A seizure that occurs spontaneously from an unknown cause is called: a. toxinic. b. hypoxic. c. idiopathic. d. hypoglycemic

You have been called to the scene of a 19-year-old college student who is at his parents' house for the weekend. The patient complains of sensitivity to light and nausea. He also has a headache and is covered in what appears to be a red rash that does not blanch when pressed. Your partner asks the patient to sit up straight and then bring his chin down to his chest. For which of the following diseases is your partner assessing this patient? A. Meningitis B. Hepatitis C C. Shingles D. Tuberculosis

A. Meningitis

You are on the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a car has driven off the roadway and is resting at the bottom of an embankment. The driver is in severe respiratory distress and is unable to speak. His skin is flushed and he has hives. A Medic-Alert bracelet indicates an allergy to peanuts. You notice a candy bar wrapper on the floor of the car. Which of the following should you do first?

Administer high-concentration oxygen.

You are caring for a woman who sustained a head injury as a result of a domestic dispute. You suspect she has a closed head injury since she cannot remember what happened and one of her pupils is slightly larger than the other. You have been monitoring her vital signs every 5 minutes and you see that her blood pressure is rising and her pulse is dropping. This part of the assessment is called: A. trending. B. crisis management. C. modified secondary assessment. D. intervention check.

A. trending.

Under what circumstance should a reassessment not be performed? A. Ongoing lifesaving interventions are required. B. The patient does not receive a secondary assessment. C. The patient has life-threatening injuries. D. The patient is being transported to a hospital close to his home.

A. Ongoing lifesaving interventions are required.

You have been called to the scene of an 83-year-old woman with a high fever who reports chills and shortness of breath. She is tachypneic and showing signs of pain upon inspiration. You talk with her a bit and she seems confused and unaware of where she is, who she is, or who you are. Based on this presentation, the patient likely has: A. pneumonia. B. croup. C. tuberculosis. D. pertussis.

A. Pneumonia

While caring for a patient known to have hepatitis B, you are splattered across the face with blood. You were not wearing eye protection at the time and some of the blood got onto your eyeball. You have never received your hepatitis B vaccination. Which of the following postexposure actions would not lower your risk of developing hepatitis B? A. Taking antiviral medication B. Having the vaccination C. Washing your eye with water D. Receiving immune globulin

A. Taking antiviral medication

You are transporting a 50-year-old male patient whom you successfully defibrillated at the scene. You are 5 minutes away from the hospital when the patient goes back into cardiac arrest. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? A. Tell the driver to stop, analyze the cardiac rhythm, and deliver a shock as necessary. B. Tell the driver to stop and assist you with CPR, and request another unit for assistance. C. Initiate CPR and continue transporting. D. Analyze the cardiac rhythm and deliver shocks as necessary.

A. Tell the driver to stop, analyze the cardiac rhythm, and deliver a shock as necessary.

Which of the following statements about the AED is correct? A. The AED can encounter difficulty in analyzing a rhythm in a moving vehicle. B. Biphasic AEDs can analyze the rhythm in a moving vehicle. C. AEDs can analyze in a moving vehicle but cannot shock. D. The AED can always analyze the rhythm in a moving vehicle.

A. The AED can encounter difficulty in analyzing a rhythm in a moving vehicle.

A(n) ________ set of vital signs is important for critical decision making for the EMT. A. repeated B. complete C. accurate D. unbiased

You are called for a 58-year-old male who is concerned that his blood pressure is too high. He tells you that he has had a headache and is feeling a little dizzy. You notice that his skin is flushed and feels warm to the touch. As you finish taking his vital signs, you should: A. write down the patient's vital signs. B. begin your reassessment. C. assist the patient to take his blood pressure medication. D. move the patient to the ambulance for transport.

A. write down the patient's vital signs.

Your patient is a 66-year-old female who has regained a pulse after a shock with an AED; however, she remains unresponsive and is not breathing adequately. Which of the following should be done next? A. Ventilate the patient with high-concentration oxygen and transport immediately. B. Deliver a fourth shock to improve the patient's respiratory status. C. Apply a nonrebreather mask with high-concentration oxygen and keep reassessing the pulse. D. Remove the AED, assist the patient's ventilations with a bag-valve mask and supplemental oxygen, and keep reassessing the pulse.

A. Ventilate the patient with high-concentration oxygen and transport immediately.

To determine the stability of a patient, you would be LEAST likely to consider: A. past medical history. B. mechanism of injury. C. difficulty with airway, breathing, or circulation. D. mental status.

A. past medical history.

A. The nearest hospital with cardiac catheterization

Which of the following is a contraindication for use of the AED? A. The patient is in contact with metal. B. The patient has been down for over 10 minutes. C. The patient is under 8 years of age. D. The patient is hypothermic.

A. The patient is in contact with metal.

If you turn resuscitation efforts for a patient over to another rescuer, this person must be trained to which level of proficiency? A. The same level as or a greater level than you B. The level of an ALS provider C. The level of a physician D. The highest possible level

A. The same level as or a greater level than you

The method of taking blood pressure by using a stethoscope to listen to the characteristic sounds produced is called: A. articulation. B. pulsation. C. palpation. D. auscultation.

The most common form of a hemostatic agent is hemostatic: A. powders. B. tourniquet. C. granules. D. dressings.

The term poison is BEST described as any substance that can do which of the following?

Harm to the body.

You are treating your cardiac arrest patient when a "No Shock Indicated" message appears. You should next: A. continue CPR for 2 minutes. B. insert an oral airway. C. reanalyze. D. ventilate 20 times per minute.

A. continue CPR for 2 minutes.

ALS personnel have just placed an advanced airway in an adult cardiac arrest patient. You should: A. deliver positive pressure ventilations at 10-12 breaths per minute. B. deliver two breaths after every 30 compressions. C. ventilate the patient twice after every 15 compressions. D. ventilate the patient at 12-20 breaths per minute.

A. deliver positive pressure ventilations at 10-12 breaths per minute.

You are transporting a patient whom you are treating for chest pain. You have completed all of your assessments and are writing down some of his personal information such as his address and phone number. As the patient is speaking, you notice that he is having increasing difficulty breathing. You should: A. immediately repeat your primary assessment. B. get a quick set of vital signs. C. call for ALS backup. D. call the hospital and report the difficulty.

A. immediately repeat your primary assessment.

A 54-year-old male is found pulseless and apneic on the sofa. The scene is safe. You should first: A. start CPR and retrieve an AED. B. apply oxygen. C. call medical control. D. call for ALS.

A. start CPR and retrieve an AED.

You are called to a farmhouse on a sunny spring afternoon. Upon arrival, a frantic mother tells you that her 4-year-old daughter was playing in the yard and stung repeatedly by several bees. The patient is alert, screaming and crying, and can follow her mother's commands. Her arms and legs are swollen and show the marks of several stings. Her body is covered in hives. Her vital signs are blood pressure 90/40, pulse 110, respiratory rate 24, and oxygen saturation 99 percent. Her lung sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. You decide to administer oxygen. What is the best method?

Administer oxygen by blow-by

Your patient is experiencing signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction. Which of the following is a priority in this patient's care?

Administer oxygen by nonrebreather mask.

You are treating a 28-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant. She has a history of bee sting anaphylaxis and was stung by a bee while in the garden. She is having severe respiratory distress and her blood pressure is 72/50 mmHg. Which of the following is the BEST option for the EMT?

Administer the Epi-Pen® only on the advice of medical control.

You are called to a residence for a 50-year-old male complaining of difficulty breathing. He is alert and oriented to time, place, and person. The patient presents with hives over the chest, stridor, a swollen tongue, and wheezing in the upper fields. He is breathing 32 times per minute. He is speaking in two- to three-word sentences. What is the best treatment for the patient?

Administering epinephrine with consent from medical control

A patient who has shallow, slow, irregular gasping breaths is said to have ________ respirations. Kussmaul's Agonal Central neurologic Cheyne-Stokes

Agonal

Which of the following may be seen just prior to respiratory arrest? Breathing through the nose, not the mouth Very deep, rapid respirations Agonal respirations Accessory respirations

Agonal respirations

You are called to the residence of a 78-year-old widow who lives alone with no children. She was found by neighbors on the floor of the living room. She has fallen and fractured her left humerus. She is disoriented and responds to verbal stimuli only. She has a BP of 78/40 and pulse of 48. She has a history of high BP and takes medication for it. She also takes medication for high cholesterol and a medication to slow down a fast heart rate. Emergency Medical Responders find the medication bottles and they are empty. Your partner suspects that she accidentally overdose on her medications. Do you agree or disagree?

Agree. The vital signs agree with hypothesis.

Which of the following is a prescribed medication used in an inhaled form for the emergency treatment of respiratory problems? Furosemide Pronestyl Albuterol Primatene mist

Albuterol

For which of the following reasons is it NOT appropriate to give a patient's name over the radio?

All of the above

Under which of the following circumstances is it acceptable to use plain English, rather than medical terminology, in your patient care report?

All of the above

Which of the following BEST describes the importance of effective communication of patient information in the verbal report?

All of the above

Which of the following circumstances may result in hypoperfusion? Answer There is external bleeding. Blood vessels are dilated. The heart is damaged. All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following is a complication of bone fractures?

All of the above

Which of the following is a consequence of hypoperfusion? Answer Cellular waste products are not removed. Cells are not supplied with nutrients. Cells are not supplied with oxygen. All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following is a possible consequence of using medical terminology about which you are unsure of the meaning in your patient care report?

All of the above

Which of the following is the purpose of making airway management the highest priority of patient care when managing the patient in shock? Answer It allows for oxygenation of the lungs. It allows for improved elimination of carbon dioxide. It minimizes the chances of aspiration of blood or vomit. All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following may occur when there is bleeding from a large vein? Answer Transmission of bloodborne illnesses Air embolism Hypoperfusion All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following may vary from one ambulance service to another?

All of the above

Which of the following should increase the EMT's suspicion of internal bleeding? Answer Penetrating trauma to the chest or abdomen High-speed motor vehicle collision Fall from a height two or more times the patient's height All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following signs of inadequate breathing is more prominent in children than in adults? See-sawing of the chest and abdomen Grunting respirations Nasal flaring All of the above

All of the above

Your patient is a 70-year-old male whose tractor rolled over onto him. Your assessment makes you suspicious that the patient has a fractured pelvis. Which of the following signs and symptoms should you anticipate?

All of the above

Which of the following needs to be considered by the EMT before administering an epinephrine auto-injector?

All of the choices need to be considered

drinking caffeine instead of alcohol.

All of the following are ways that an EMT can increase both physical and mental well-being, except:

C) the tongue.

All of the following can result in airway obstructions, except: A) burns. B) infections. C) the tongue. D) facial trauma.

Which of the following is the most sensitive indicator of hypoperfusion? Answer Delayed capillary refill Dilation of the pupils Increased heart rate Altered mental status

Altered mental status

The movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide across the cell membranes from the capillaries is called: A. oxygenation. B. external respiration. C. dehydration. D. internal respiration.

You are called to a residence for a 58-year-old male complaining of chest pain. He has a history of a prior myocardial infarction. The patient presents with hives over the chest, stridor, a swollen tongue, and wheezing of the upper fields. He denies any shortness of breath. What should your next question be?

Are you allergic to anything?

Which of the following vessels contain blood under the highest amount of pressure? Answer Veins Arteries Venules Capillaries

Arteries

Which of the following vessels has the thickest muscular walls that allow constriction and dilation? Answer Arteries Capillaries Veins Lymphatic vessels

Arteries

The correct terminology used for patients whose kidneys are damaged to the point where they require dialysis to survive is: A. acute renal failure. B. end-stage renal disease. C. hepatic failure. D. terminal kidney disease

The term gangrene means tissue: a. damage. b. discoloration. c. infection. d. death.

The death of brain tissue due to deprivation of oxygen because of a blocked or ruptured artery in the brain is known as which of the following? a. Transient ischemic attack b. Stroke c. Aphasia d. Seizure

adaptation

The body's three-stage response to a stressful stimulation is known as general ________ syndrome.

The device that some EMS services use as a light wave device to measure oxygen saturation (SpO2) is called a(n): A. sphygmomanometer. B. pulse oximeter. C. capnography. D. end tidal CO2 meter.

The increase in the work of breathing is reported as: A. troubled breathing. B. labored breathing. C. noisy breathing. D. obstructed breathing.

The mnemonic AVPU is used to evaluate which of the following? A. Patient's transport priority B. Patient's level of responsiveness C. EMT's general impression of the patient's condition D. Patient's chief complaintQ

The most common medical emergency for the diabetic is hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar. Which one of the factors below is not a cause of hypoglycemia? a. Takes too much insulin b. Reduces sugar intake by eating too much c. Overexercises or overexerts himself d. Vomits a meal

The oxygen flow rate for a nasal cannula should not exceed ________ liters per minute. A. 2 B. 6 C. 8 D. 4

The technique for central rewarming requires the application of heat to which of the following areas of the patient's body? a. Chest, back, neck, and armpits b. Lateral chest, neck, armpits, and groin c. Head, neck, chest, and back d. Head, neck, chest, and groin

As you prepare to enter a patient's room in a nursing home, you see a sign posted on the door indicating that the patient has a latex allergy. Which of the following is the BEST way to care for the patient?

Ask the nursing facility staff to find synthetic exam gloves to wear for contact with this patient.

Which of the following is appropriate in the examination of a painful, swollen extremity of a conscious patient?

Asking the patient to see if he can bear weight on the extremity

The term cyanosis is used when the patient's skin color is noted to be which of the following characteristics? A. Yellow B. Blue-gray C. Very pale D. Flushed

To rescue someone who has fallen through the ice, which of the following is the safest device to use? a. A jet-ski b. A flat-bottomed aluminum boat c. A ladder d. A ring buoy

A 21-year-old patient presents with labored breathing and audible wheezes, heart rate of 124, respiration 36; he has significantly altered mentation. What is the best treatment for this patient? A. Give mouth-to-mouth breathing with a nasal cannula, providing the patient with an increase of oxygen. B. Ventilate with a bag-valve mask with high oxygen or FROPVD. C. Supplement the breaths with high-concentration oxygen through a nonrebreather mask. D. Use a pocket mask, which will provide adequate oxygen to improve the patient's condition.

Breathing sounds that should concern the EMT are: A. retractions, and diaphragmatic breathing. B. snoring, gurgling, wheezing, and crowing. C. snoring, gurgling, wheezing, crowing, and crowning. D. tachycardia, retractions, and diaphragmatic breathing.

Cleaning fluid, glue, and model cement are common examples of which of the following?

Volatile chemicals

Compared to hypoglycemia, which of the following is true of hyperglycemia? a. Its onset is more sudden. b. Its onset is more gradual. c. Its onset is preceded by an aura, such as hallucinations or detecting unusual odors. d. It is more easily treated in the prehospital environment than hypoglycemia.

Mumps infection is primarily spread through: A. airborne droplets and direct contact. B. all body fluids. C. blood and saliva. D. saliva and droplets.

Saliva and Droplets

Upon assessment of your patient, you notice that he has cool, sweaty skin. This finding is best described as which of the following? A. Symptom B. Sign C. Diagnosis D. Complaint

Which of the following abbreviations is not correct? A. SCA for sickle cell anemia B. RBC for red blood cells C. WBC for white blood cells D. CAPD for continuous acute peripheral disease

What is the inferior-most portion of the sternum? A. Manubrium B. Sternal notch C. Xiphoid process D. Body

Which of the following is NOT a consequence of hypoperfusion? A. Cells are not supplied with nutrients. B. Aerobic metabolism will continue in the cell. C. Cellular waste products are not removed. D. Cells are not supplied with oxygen.

Concerning the use of humidified oxygen, which of the following is true? A. The water reservoir should be changed on a weekly basis. B. It is not of great benefit during short transports but can make the patient more comfortable. C. The water in the reservoir should be treated with chlorine tablets to prevent the growth of bacteria. D. It should only be used when assisting ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device.

Heat cramps occur due to loss of which of the following substances? a. Water b. Salt c. Magnesium d. Water and potassium

How long does a typical hemodialysis treatment last? A. 7 to 8 hours B. 3 to 4 hours C. 1 to 2 hours D. 10 to 12 hours

How many times a week do the majority of American hemodialysis patients receive treatment? A. Five B. Three C. Seven D. One

You are on the scene of a person down. You arrive at the college dormitory and find a 21-year-old patient lying supine on the floor, unresponsive. The patient is guppy breathing at five times a minute, has a strong radial pulse at 110 beats per minute, and has emesis on himself. Friends state they went out to dinner and a party. They returned to change clothes for another party and he never came out of his dorm room. Your partner suctions the patient, inserts an oropharyngeal airway, and ventilates the patient with a bag-valve mask with high-concentration oxygen. You listen to lung sounds and there are coarse rhonchi bilaterally. What condition do you suspect? Aspiration Overdose Status asthmaticus Severe meningitis

Aspiration

What should you be most concerned with when treating a child who ingested a caustic chemical and is beginning to vomit

Aspiration of the chemical

Which of the following is included in the primary assessment of a conscious patient suffering from anaphylactic shock?

Assessing whether the patient is able to speak without difficulty

In what position should the patient complaining of severe abdominal pain be placed if there are no signs or symptoms of shock? A. Supine with feet elevated B. One of comfort C. Semi-Fowler with knees bent D. Left lateral recumbent

Your patient is a 15-year-old male with a history of multiple prior hospitalizations for asthma. Upon your arrival the patient responds only to painful stimuli and is making very weak respiratory effort. Which of the following should you do next? Contact medical control. Check the patient's oxygen saturation level. Assist the patient with his inhaler. Assist the patient's ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen.

Assist the patient's ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen.

Which of the following circumstances may result in hypoperfusion? A. Blood vessels are dilated. B. There is external bleeding. C. The heart is damaged. D. All of the above

Which of the following is NOT a reason for routine review of patient care reports in a quality improvement program?

Satisfy requirements of the shift supervisor

You are transporting a 41-year-old female suffering from severe anaphylaxis. Her respiratory rate is 42 per minute, she is cyanotic, and she has a decreased level of responsiveness. Which of the following is the highest priority of care for this patient?

Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask.

A. apparently lifeless.

At a glance when developing your general impression of a patient, you can see that a patient is: A. apparently lifeless. B. diabetic. C. schizophrenic. D. anorexic.

At which of the following locations could you palpate a malleolus? A. Elbow B. Spinal column C. Wrist D. Ankle

In EMS, what does mental status refer to? A. Any history of mental illness that the patient may have B. Patient's level of awareness of his surroundings C. Patient's general level of intelligence D. None of the above

Most radiant heat is lost through which part of the body? a. The hands and feet b. The head c. The buttocks d. The torso

Of the three types of oxygen flowmeters, which one can only be used upright? A. Constant flow selector valve B. Pressure-compensated flowmeter C. Hudson gauge flowmeter D. Bourdon gauge flowmeter

Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Children are usually toilet-trained before the beginning of the preschool stage. B) INCORRECT. Infants are not capable of being toilet-trained. C) CORRECT. The toddler stage is when toilet-training generally begins. D) INCORRECT. Children are usually toilet-trained long before school age. Page Ref: 179

At which of the following stages is toilet-training most likely to begin? A) Preschool age B) Infant C) Toddler D) School age

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate way of dealing with a patient who does not speak the same language as you do?

Avoid communicating with the patient so there is no misunderstanding of your intentions.

Which of the following is appropriate when communicating patient information to the hospital over the radio?

Avoid information that does not assist the emergency department in preparing to receive the patient.

A 12-year-old female patient is having an asthma attack after participating in some strenuous activity during recess at school. She's taken several doses of her own bronchodilator with little relief. Your partner immediately administers oxygen. Providing supplemental oxygen will increase the amount of oxygen molecules carried by the ________ in her blood, helping oxygenate critical organs like the brain. A. albumin B. white blood cells C. hemoglobin D. plasma

A 59-year-old male has suffered a severe laceration from a circular saw while cutting wood in his garage. Upon your arrival, you find the patient sitting on the floor in a pool of blood. He is extremely pale. Based on your knowledge of pathophysiology, you would expect his body to try to compensate for the blood loss in all of the following ways, except: A. increased respirations. B. sweaty skin. C. increased pulse. D. constricted pupils.

A child's ________ takes up proportionally more space in the pharynx than does an adult's. A. epiglottis B. cricoid cartilage C. tongue D. trachea

Which of the following is not a contraindication for the use of a traction splint?

Severe swelling and redness at a midshaft femur

D. the reason EMS was summoned.

A patient's chief complaint is: A. d. the patient's critique of an EMT's performance. B. determined by the EMT's general impression of the patient. C. the patient's symptoms. D. the reason EMS was summoned.

C. status

A patient's level of responsiveness is that patient's mental: A. illness. B. health. C. status. D. capacity.

One of the more serious diseases of the body is called renal failure. Renal failure occurs: A. when the adrenal glands stop working. B. when the kidneys fail to function as required. C. when the liver fails to function properly. D. when the pancreas stops working.

Peritoneal dialysis allows patients to dialyze at home through: A. a dialysis machine. B. the abdomen. C. an AV fistula. D. the urethra.

A 14-year-old female is found unconscious in the bathroom just before lunch. Several girls say they saw her shoot up earlier in the day and the school resource officer has found a syringe in her backpack. The patient has cool and clammy skin, snoring respirations, and she vomited before she slumped to the floor. What might be the cause of her altered mental status? a. Fainting spell b. Hypoglycemia c. Hypotension due to pregnancy d. Injectable illegal drugs

A blood pressure in an adult patient of 134/84 mm Hg would be considered: A. hypertension. B. prehypertension. C. hypotension. D. normotension.

A patient with a medical history of sickle cell anemia is complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. The patient is breathing 26 times a minute in short, shallow respirations. However, the patient's oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry is 100 percent on room air. The best approach regarding supplemental oxygen is to: A. do nothing; no supplemental oxygen is necessary. B. place the patient on a nonrebreather mask. C. place the patient on a nasal cannula. D. place the patient on a simple face mask.

A patient with renal disease who is currently on dialysis and missed an appointment may present with dangerously high levels of the electrolyte: A. phosphorous. B. potassium. C. sodium. D. calcium.

A respiratory rate of less than _______ and greater than _______ in cases of trauma are criteria for immediate transportation to a trauma center according to the CDC physiologic guidelines. a. 8; 32 b. 10; 29 c. 12; 20 d. 5; 45

Allowing a patient's body temperature to increase by preventing further heat loss is referred to as which of the following? a. Core rewarming b. Passive rewarming c. Active rewarming d. Natural rewarming

An injury caused by an object that passes through the skin or other body tissue is known as which of the following? A. Cavitating trauma B. Penetrating trauma C. Impaling trauma D. Puncturing trauma

Applying an external source of heat to the patient's body to rewarm him is called ________ rewarming. a. central b. active c. endogenous d. peripheral

An off-duty EMT is driving down the road when she sees a major vehicle accident. There are no Emergency Medical Responders on the scene yet. There are only Good Samaritans. The EMT is late for a doctor's appointment so she decides that she will not stop and help. The driver of the vehicle dies before help arrives. One of the Good Samaritans notices her EMT license plates and writes them down as she passes by. The Good Samaritan is angry that the EMT did not stop and help and tries to get the EMT fired for not helping. Which of the following statements is true? A. The EMT is negligent for not stopping and helping. B. The EMT is negligent because the patient died. C. The EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to act. D. The EMT is not negligent because she had a doctor's appointment.

What is the large, wing-shaped bone on either side of the pelvis? A. Ischium B. Acetabulum C. Ilium D. Pubis

You are called to a residence for a 60-year-old male complaining of chest pain. He is alert and oriented to time, place, and person. His past medical history includes hypertension and high cholesterol. The patient presents with hives over the chest, stridor, a swollen tongue, and wheezing in the upper fields. He is breathing 24 times per minute and speaking in complete sentences. He denies any shortness of breath or respiratory distress. What should be your first action?

Apply oxygen by nonrebreather mask.

Approximately what percentage of United States dialysis patients treat themselves at home? A. 50 percent B. 8 percent C. 25 percent D. 85 percent

At what point is the scene size-up complete? A. Upon stabilization of the c-spine B. At the end of the call C. When the number of patients has been determined D. When crashed vehicles have been stabilized

The abbreviation mm Hg indicates that the blood pressure is measured by which of the following comparisons? A. Millimeters of water B. Millimeters of mercury C. Atmospheric pressure D. Minimum heart rate

You are responding to a 54-year-old female patient in respiratory distress. The patient is on home oxygen by nasal cannula at 1 lpm. The patient has diminished lung sounds bilaterally with wheezes. She appears malnourished and has a barrel chest. The patient is alert and oriented to time, place, and person. Her vital signs are blood pressure of 150/70, pulse of 90, respiratory rate of 24, and oxygen saturation of 92 percent. The patient is on several medications including an Albuterol inhaler. After you perform your primary assessment, what should be your next step? Provide oxygen by bag-valve mask. Provide oxygen by nonrebreather mask. Apply oxygen, contact medical control, and request permission to assist the patient with her Albuterol. Provide supportive care and transport.

Apply oxygen, contact medical control, and request permission to assist the patient with her Albuterol.

Which of the following is a substance that will neutralize a poison or its effects?

Antidotes

Which of the following does NOT need to be documented regarding a patient refusal of treatment?

Any insulting remarks the patient made to you

What are the signs of hypoxia? A. Warm dry skin, with difficulty in breathing, and hypertension B. Commonly seen as blue or gray skin, deterioration of patient's mental status like confusion or restlessness C. Shock caused from the lack of blood flowing to the vital organs like the brain and heart that is irreversible D. Disease process that robs the patient of adequate breathing and perfusion

What is a normal capillary refill time in a pediatric patient? A. 1 minute B. less than 2 seconds C. 3 seconds D. 5 seconds

What is the Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) measurement of altered mental status, which according to CDC guidelines necessitates transport to a trauma center? a. 12 b. 13 c. 8 d. 14

What is the normal response of the pupils when exposed to bright light? A. Fluttering B. Constriction C. Dilation D. No effect

What is the pressure remaining in the arteries after the pulse wave has passed through? A. Venous pressure B. Diastolic blood pressure C. Resting blood pressure D. Systolic blood pressure

What law of physics explains why a patient's liver can be injured from the impact of his car with a tree? A. Law of kinetic energy B. Law of inertia C. Second law of motion D. Newton's law of moving energy

What signs and symptoms would indicate inadequate breathing in a patient? A. Decreased depth of respiration, decreased rate of breathing, hot clammy skin, normal mental status B. Increased effort to breathe, cyanosis, cool clammy skin, altered mental status C. Increased effort to breathe, increased depth of respiration, pink dry skin, normal mental status D. Rapid breathing, pale skin, and a normal mental status

What trauma triage guidelines did the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention release in order to guide the most injured patients into trauma centers? a. Teamwork, timing, and transport b. Physiological determinants, anatomic criteria, and mechanism of injury c. Determining patient priority, amount of time on-scene, and hospital transport decision d. Lights, sirens, and diesel

What type of trauma triage criteria regarding transport would a finger amputation receive? a. Any hospital, as long as on-line medical direction approves the facility's capabilities b. Any hospital with surgical facilities c. Trauma center d. The patient's choice of destination

When actively rewarming a frostbitten extremity in warm water, you should change the water when the temperature falls below ________ °F. a. 115-120 b. 100-105 c. 85-95 d. 80-90

When deciding where to transport a patient who is in hypovolemic shock or who has the potential for developing hypovolemic shock, which of the following is the MOST important service to be provided by the receiving hospital? A. Rehabilitation services B. Immediate surgical capabilities C. Availability of a chaplain D. Critical-care nursing

When determining possible injuries suffered from a gunshot wound, which of the following is true? A. Bullets pass in a straight line through the body from the point of entry to the exit wound. B. The EMT must be aware that bullets cause damage in more than one way. C. The EMT must ask the patient or bystanders exactly where the shooter was standing. D. The EMT must determine the caliber of ammunition involved.

When pupils are dilated they are: A. elliptical or elongated in shape. B. larger than normal. C. irregularly shaped. D. smaller than normal.

When taking blood pressure, the cuff should be inflated to what point? A. Until the patient says it hurts B. 30 mmHg beyond the point where the pulse disappears C. Until the Velcro starts to crackle D. Until the gauge reads 200 mmHg

When the EMT checks the pupils he or she is checking for what three things? A. Movement, gaze, and equality B. Size, equality, and reactivity C. Reactivity, gaze, and equality D. Color, equality, and reactivity

When the heart contracts and forces blood into the arteries, the pressure created is known as the: A. diastolic blood pressure. B. systolic blood pressure. C. pulse pressure. D. central venous pressure.

When treating a patient with acute abdominal pain, you should do which of the following? A. Have him drink milk to coat the stomach and reduce the pain B. Have the patient lie still and assume a position of comfort C. Administer sips of water if patient complains of thirst D. Have him take antacids in an attempt to decrease the pain

Which of the following BEST describes the proper placement of the blood pressure cuff? A. Midway between the elbow and shoulder B. Covering two-thirds of the upper arm C. One inch below the armpit D. Covering the patient's elbow

Which of the following BEST describes blunt-force trauma? A. The object is not sharp, but it penetrates the body when enough force is used. B. An object strikes the body, but it does not penetrate the body tissues. C. The object penetrates soft tissue, but it cannot penetrate bone. D. A rounded object impacts the body tissues.

Which of the following choices is NOT a justifiable reason for delaying transport of a critical trauma patient? a. Suctioning the airway b. Awaiting arrival of the patient's parents on-scene c. Ventilating a patient in respiratory distress d. Immobilizing the patient to a long spine board

Which of the following colors identifies an oxygen cylinder? A. Blue and yellow B. Green and white C. Orange and red D. Black and tan

Which of the following increases a scuba diver's risk of decompression sickness? a. Taking cold or sinus medications before a dive b. Flying within several hours after a dive c. Diving on a full stomach d. Breathing 100 percent oxygen before a dive

Which of the following is LEAST important for the patient who has stopped seizing before the EMT's arrival at the scene? a. Checking for mechanism of injury b. Requesting advanced life support c. Suctioning d. Administering oxygen

Paramedic

What level of emergency medical training provides the most advanced pre-hospital care?

Which of the following statements is NOT true when you are on-scene and treating a patient that appears to be in shock? A. Airway management is of top priority. B. It is important to spend on-scene time to be sure you have corrected and dealt with any of the causes of the shock so that it does not get worse. This is more important than rapid transport. C. Prompt transportation is a very high priority. D. The patient should be promptly put on high-concentration oxygen.

Which of the following statements is true when talking about neurogenic shock? A. Neurogenic shock is very common in the field. B. Neurogenic shock is sometimes caused by spinal injuries. C. Neurogenic shock is caused by the blood vessels overfilling with blood, causing leaking into the nerves. D. Neurogenic shock is the result of the blood vessels decreasing in size.

Which of the following structures is (are) NOT located in the abdominal cavity? A. Liver B. Kidneys C. Stomach D. Spleen

Which of the following vessels has the thickest muscular walls that allow constriction and dilation? A. Capillaries B. Arteries C. Lymphatic vessels D. Veins

You and your EMT partner are preparing to ventilate an elderly non-trauma patient who has a stoma. Your partner performs the head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver and you ask him to return the patient's head to a neutral position. "Why? This is not a pediatric patient!" your partner protests. What would you say? A. Stoma breathers should only have their airways positioned after placement of the ventilation device. B. It is not necessary to position the airway of a stoma breather when providing ventilations. C. Using the head-tilt, chin-lift prior to clearing any mucus plugs from the stoma can cause airway occlusion. D. Elderly patients should never have their heads tilted back because spinal curvatures are common and can prevent airway positioning.

You are about to apply a blood pressure cuff to an unconscious patient when you notice that she appears to have a tube underneath the skin of her arm. The tube feels like it has fluid going through it. You should: A. continue to take her blood pressure in the arm. B. find another site to measure her blood pressure. C. use an automatic blood pressure cuff instead. D. move the cuff down to the forearm and inflate.

You are approaching a 16-year-old male with bright red spurting blood coming from his leg. He is screaming, and he begs you to help him. You should FIRST: A. assess his airway. B. control the bleeding. C. apply oxygen. D. ask him to calm down.

You are at the scene where a 19-year-old female college student has been drinking large quantities of alcohol throughout the evening. On your arrival, the patient is lying on her back with no signs of trauma, has vomited, and has slow, wet sounding respirations. Which of the following should you do next? A. Check for carotid and radial pulses. B. Open the patient's airway using a head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver. C. Assist respirations with a bag-valve-mask device. D. Determine the respiratory rate.

You are attending to an end-stage renal disease (ESRD) patient who has missed dialysis. Which of the following statements is most accurate? A. Patients who have missed dialysis and who become unresponsive and pulseless respond very well to the use of an AED. B. Patients who have missed dialysis and who become unresponsive and pulseless do not respond very well to the use of an AED. C. Calling for ALS would not be very helpful since they cannot really do anything that an EMT cannot do in these situations. D. You should delay transport if necessary to wait for ALS.

You are called to a motor vehicle collision where the car is on fire. You should ensure safety by: A. using your fire extinguisher to put out the fire. B. remaining a safe distance from the car until the fire is out. C. borrowing turnout gear from the fire department. D. putting your unit back in service and leaving the scene.

You are called to a residence for a 48yearold male patient. He is lying in bed, groaning in pain and curled into a fetal position. His blood pressure is 88/50, pulse 136, and respiratory rate of 32. His wife states that he complained of lower right abdominal pain for several days that got progressively worse, until about an hour ago when it became suddenly unbearable. The wife states the husband had been refusing to see a doctor, but she finally called 911. You suspect appendicitis and are concerned about the subsequent onset of: A. toxic shock. B. peritonitis. C. splenic rupture. D. renal colic.

You are called to a 72-year-old patient with weakness and headache with an initial blood pressure of 140/92. Her repeat blood pressure at 5 minutes is unchanged. Her condition is called: A. stroke. B. hypertension. C. prehypertension. D. hypotension.

You are called to the scene of a patient with abdominal pain. Upon arrival, you find a 38yearold Asian man on the floor next to his desk writhing in pain. He is complaining of severe rightsided flank pain. His blood pressure is 140/90, pulse 100, and his skin is ashen and diaphoretic. You suspect: A. Mittelschmerz. B. renal colic. C. cholecystitis. D. myocardial infarction.

You are dispatched to a motorcycle crash with one patient involved. What is the most important intervention to perform first? a. Begin chest compressions b. Manually stabilize the cervical spine c. Suction the vomit and secretions from the airway d. Stabilize the pelvis to a long spine board

You are dispatched to an unconscious hemodialysis patient. On arrival to the dialysis clinic, the patient is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You secure the ABCs, begin ventilation, and initiate chest compressions. However, the patient's cardiac arrest rhythm is continuously unresponsive to defibrillations with your AED. The best approach is to: A. call online medical control to terminate the code. The probability of survival is too low to continue resuscitation efforts. B. begin transporting and contact an ALS intercept. The patient's dysrhythmia may be related to kidney failure. C. run a "no-electricity" code in which compressions and ventilation are continued. No additional defibrillations are necessary. D. continue defibrillating as the monitor recommends. The myocardium becomes increasingly responsive to successive defibrillations

In which of the following circumstances is manual stabilization of the cervical spine ALWAYS necessary? A) Trauma to the lower extremities B) Trauma above the level of the clavicles C) Blunt trauma D) Penetrating trauma

B) Trauma above the level of the clavicles

You are responding to a 52yearold male patient complaining of heartburn with epigastric pain. The patient's vital signs are stable and he does not have any pain upon palpation. He has a history of reflux disease and is on several medications for heartburn and acid reflux. What is your greatest concern with this patient? A. He will develop peritonitis. B. He is suffering from a myocardial infarction. C. He will aspirate on vomit. D. His appendix will rupture.

You are transporting a stable patient who was involved in a minor fall from a ladder at a height of about 10 feet to a local community hospital. You assumed full spinal precautions not only because the patient has midline back pain in the sacrum, but also because he was knocked unconscious. While transporting, the patient begins to become increasingly confused, develop an irregular respiratory rate, and experience a drop in heart rate with an increase in blood pressure. You just called in a radio report and are about 7 minutes from the hospital. A trauma center is about 10 minutes away. Which of the following is the BEST transport decision? a. Call medical control for advice from the trauma center. b. Divert to the trauma center because the patient is becoming symptomatic. c. Continue transporting to the local hospital because you've already given report and they accepted the patient. d. Continue transporting to the local hospital since it's the closest facility.

You are transporting a 44-year-old female with chest pain and sudden respiratory distress. She is agitated, anxious, and refuses to have a nonrebreather mask applied. Which of the following is the best option? A. Consult with medical control about restraining the patient. B. Use a nasal cannula instead. C. Have her breathe into a paper bag to control her hyperventilation. D. Do not make further attempts to administer oxygen as it will only agitate the patient further.

You are ventilating an adult patient with a bag-valve mask when you notice that his abdomen is getting bigger. You should: A. decrease the flow of oxygen. B. reduce the force and volume of ventilations. C. apply pressure to the abdomen. D. suction the airway.

You care caring for a patient that looks at you as you approach. Which of the following represents the correct order of assessment for the EMT during the primary assessment from start to end? A. Patient priority, general impression, mental status, airway, breathing, circulation B. General impression, mental status, airway, breathing, circulation, patient priority C. Mental status, general impression, airway, breathing, circulation, patient priority D. None of the above

You encounter a patient who has been having diffuse abdominal pain for one week. The patient has a pulse rate of 86, a blood pressure of 140/90, and a respiratory rate of 20. However, the patient appears pale, and complains of generalized weakness and shortness of breath during everyday activities. You suspect the patient is experiencing: A. anxiety disorder. B. chronic anemia. C. sickle cell anemia. D. acute anemia.

You enter a room to find a 16-year-old female sitting upright in a chair with her back straight, leaning forward, and her arms supporting her. She is having a hard time talking to you. You should suspect: A. abdominal pain. B. respiratory distress. C. allergic reaction. D. chest discomfort.

You have arrived on the scene at a high school football field where a 17-year-old male is lying on the ground. He is unresponsive and cyanotic, and he is making obvious respiratory effort without moving adequate amounts of air. Which of the following should be done first? A. Insert a nasopharyngeal or oropharyngeal airway. B. Open the patient's airway using a manual maneuver. C. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen. D. Apply high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask.

You respond to a cafeteria to find an unconscious person with gurgling sounds upon exhalation and inhalation. What is the probable cause of the respiratory sounds? A. Tongue blocking the airway B. Fluids in the airway C. Cardiac arrest D. Complete airway obstruction

You respond to a childcare center for a report of an injured 4-year-old. Her pulse is 130 beats per minute. Which of the following BEST describes this finding? A. Normal for the child's age B. Tachycardic C. Unable to determine without knowing the family history D. Bradycardic

You respond to a 30-month-old patient who has passed out. Is the patient's blood pressure important to your treatment and why? A. Yes, blood pressure must be taken on everyone because without it we cannot impact the patient's field management. B. No, blood pressure taken on children younger than age 3 is difficult and has little impact on the patient's field management. C. Yes, blood pressure can be taken on children because it is the only way we can understand the patient's condition. D. No, blood pressure taken on children younger than age 3 can cause damage to the tender tissues of the arm that could lead to hypertension in later life.

You should have a keen awareness that there may be injuries based on your scene size-up. This is known as which of the following? A. Nature of illness B. Index of suspicion C. Mechanism of injury D. Law of inertia

You suspect a patient who has been having a difficult time controlling the bleeding following a small laceration to the foot may have a history of: A. sickle cell anemia. B. taking blood thinners. C. high blood pressure. D. poorly controlled diabetes.

Your patient fell out of a tree while putting the roof on a tree house. A 15-foot ladder is required to enter the tree house and there is enough room for an adult to stand up inside. Your patient should be transported to: A. an urgent care center. B. a trauma center. C. the closest hospital. D. a neurosurgery center.

Your patient has attempted suicide by slitting his wrists. You notice that he has run the knife across his wrist, perpendicular to the arm, and that the wound is not deep. Which of the following statements is true regarding the likelihood for serious blood loss? A. You should expect severe blood loss. B. Blood loss is probably not life-threatening. C. There is most likely tremendous internal blood loss. D. A tourniquet will probably be necessary.

Which of the following findings would be helpful in differentiating between a closed head injury and a behavioral emergency? A) Irrational behavior B) Unequal pupils C) Confusion D) Combativeness

B) Unequal pupils

Your patient is a 17yearold with a history of asthma. She is complaining of pain in her lower abdomen. Assessment reveals that her breath sounds are clear and equal, she has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute, a heart rate of 96 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 112/74 mmHg. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step? A. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway in the patient's nose. B. Transport the patient for further evaluation. C. Have the patient breathe into a paper bag to rebreathe some of her carbon dioxide. D. Assist the patient in the administration of her metereddose inhaler.

Your patient is a 21-year-old female with a history of epilepsy. She is having a convulsion upon your arrival. Which of the following should you do? a. Insert a bite block, cloth, wallet, or similar item between the patient's teeth to prevent her from biting her tongue. b. Move furniture and other objects away from the patient to prevent injury. c. Restrain the patient's extremities to prevent injury from flailing of the arms and legs. d. Place a tongue depressor or spoon in the back of the mouth to prevent the patient from swallowing her tongue.

Your patient is a 35yearold female with abdominal pain. Which of the following findings CANNOT be attributed to the patient experiencing pain? A. Shallow respirations B. Decreased level of consciousness C. Increased heart rate D. Slight increase in blood pressure

Your patient is a 60yearold male who is complaining of severe epigastric abdominal pain and difficulty breathing. He is pale, sweaty, and pleads with you, "Don't let me die, I think I'm going to die." Which of the following measures is NOT part of your initial treatment of this patient? A. Giving 15 lpm of oxygen by nonrebreather mask B. Applying the defibrillator pads to his chest C. Determining whether you should assist the patient in taking nitroglycerin D. Placing the patient in a position of comfort

Your patient is a 12-year-old boy who ran his arm through a glass window and has an 8-inch laceration on his anterior forearm. You have applied a pressure dressing and bandage, but these have become saturated due to continued bleeding. Which of the following should you do now? A. Apply additional dressing material, bandage it in place, and apply pressure to the brachial artery. B. Elevate that arm and prepare to apply a tourniquet or consider administering a hemostatic agent. C. Remove the pressure dressing and bandage, apply direct pressure with your gloved hand, and elevate the arm. D. Remove the pressure dressing and bandage, apply an ice pack to the wound, and bandage it in place with an elastic bandage.

Your patient is a 28-year-old male who cut his thigh with a chain saw. Bleeding is significant and difficult to control. Which of the following is NOT part of the proper management of this patient? A. Use of a tourniquet B. Replacement of fluid level by giving the patient adequate amounts of water C. Using direct pressure to control the bleeding D. Administering oxygen

Your patient is a 33-year-old man who has a gunshot wound to his right leg and has active, steady, dark red bleeding. He is awake, pale, and diaphoretic. He has a strong radial pulse of 112 per minute, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 122/82 mmHg. He has no other injuries or complaints. Which of the following is the BEST sequence of steps in the management of this patient? A. High-concentration oxygen, elevation of the extremity, and application of ice B. Direct pressure, high-concentration oxygen, and splinting the leg C. Cervical spine immobilization, high-concentration oxygen, direct pressure, and pressure point compression D. High-concentration oxygen, tourniquet, PASG, and elevation of the extremity

Your patient is a 55-year-old man with a history of chronic bronchitis. You have been called to his home today because of an increase in his level of respiratory distress. The patient is on 2 liters per minute of oxygen by nasal cannula at home. Your assessment reveals difficulty speaking due to shortness of breath, leaning forward to breathe, a productive cough, and a respiratory rate of 32 per minute. Which of the following is true concerning the best course of action for this patient? A. You should increase the patient's oxygen flow rate until his respiratory rate decreases and then resume oxygen administration at 2 liters per minute. B. You should increase the patient's oxygen flow rate to deliver adequate amounts of oxygen to his tissues. If his respiratory rate decreases, you can assist him with a bag-valve-mask device. C. Because increased blood levels of carbon dioxide are the primary stimulus to breathe, you should encourage the patient to rebreathe his exhaled air from a paper bag. D. You should not increase the patient's oxygen flow rate because of his likely dependence on a hypoxic drive to stimulate breathing.

Your patient is a 65-year-old male with a history of COPD. He is sitting up and complaining of a severe shortness of breath. You should: A. administer 4 lpm of oxygen via nasal cannula. B. apply a nonrebreather mask giving 15 lpm of oxygen. C. insert a nasal airway and ventilate. D. suction the airway with a rigid suction catheter.

_________ patients are at high risk for acquiring the inherited disorder called sickle cell anemia. A. Native American B. African American C. Eastern European D. Hispanic

Which of the following cardiac dysrhythmias cannot produce a pulse? A. Ventricular dysrhythmia B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Bradycardia D. Tachycardia

B. Ventricular fibrillation

An injury in which the epidermis remains intact, but blood vessels and cells in the dermis are injured, is called a(n): A. abrasion. B. contusion. C. avulsion. D. concussion.

B. contusion.

Concerning attempted suicide, which of the following statements is true? A) Truly suicidal patients nearly always leave a note. B) All suicide attempts must be taken seriously, even if the method seems insincere. C) There is always an indication that a suicide attempt is imminent. D) Attempted suicide is a matter for law enforcement, not EMS.

B) All suicide attempts must be taken seriously, even if the method seems insincere.

According to coworkers, your 25-year-old female patient suddenly began acting aggressively and being verbally abusive. She tells you she is "starving" and you notice that she is pale and diaphoretic. Which of the following would be an appropriate general impression? A) Alcoholic intoxication B) An underlying physical illness C) Sudden onset of schizophrenia D) Alcohol withdrawal

B) An underlying physical illness

Your elderly patient reports having stomach cramps for several hours. He denies any trauma and he hasn't eaten for several hours. Which of the following is more important to your assessment of this patient? A) Determining if he has been taking his medications as prescribed B) Asking if he has been having regular bowel movements C) Finding out if he has any chest pain D) Asking him if he is able to walk

B) Asking if he has been having regular bowel movements

What is the most important medication that should be administered to a patient experiencing chest pain with difficulty breathing? A) Oxygen B) Aspirin C) Nitroglycerin D) Albuterol

B) Aspirin

You are treating a 15-year-old boy who apparently broke his right arm when he fell while skateboarding with his friends. You have completed your primary and secondary assessment including splinting his arm, but you found no other injuries or problems. Which of the following is the most important step to do during the reassessment? A) Visualize his chest for bruising. B) Check distal circulation on his right arm. C) Recheck his pupils. D) Place the patient on oxygen via nasal cannula

B) Check distal circulation on his right arm.

Nitroglycerin is indicated for which of the following chief complaints? A) Decreased level of consciousness B) Chest pain C) Headache D) Difficulty breathing

B) Chest pain

Which of the following does NOT indicate that a patient may be about to become violent? A) Tense body posture or clenched fists B) Crying C) Profane language D) Loud voice and rapid pacing

B) Crying

You are dispatched for a patient with chest pain. Your patient tells you that she has had shortness of breath and chest pain for about 20 minutes. Which of the following will give you the best information regarding your patient's chest pain symptoms? A) Do you have a history of chest pain? B) Describe how the pain feels. C) Is the pain in your chest a sharp pain? D) Have you taken your medications correctly?

B) Describe how the pain feels.

What is the first step in giving aerosol medications? A) Contact medical control to receive permission to give the medication. B) Determine that the inhaler actually belongs to the patient. C) Make sure the patient is suffering from asthma, emphysema, or bronchitis. D) Complete the primary assessment and take vital signs.

B) Determine that the inhaler actually belongs to the patient.

The EMT, after administering any medication, must do which of the following? A) Reconsider the five rights, reassess the patient, and contact medical control. B) Document the administration, reassess the patient, and report to the receiving facility. C) Wait 5 minutes, repeat the medication if needed, and reassess the patient's vitals. D) Document the route, dose, and time; reassess the patient; and re-administer the medication.

B) Document the administration, reassess the patient, and report to the receiving facility

Your patient has been hit in the arm with a baseball during practice. He is alert and oriented, complaining of pain to his left arm with obvious black discoloration of the skin. What type of assessment is called for in this situation? A) Rapid trauma exam B) Focused exam C) Area exam D) Detailed physical exam

B) Focused exam

Your patient is a 16-year-old female who is reporting abdominal pain and nausea. She says it came on when she woke up this morning. Her mother says that her daughter has been tired and cranky lately and has not been eating well for a couple of weeks. In fact, every time you ask a question, the patient's mother answers. What should you do next? A) Ignore the mother and continue to try to talk to the patient. B) Have your partner interview the mother in the next room. C) Ask the mother to please be quiet. D) Tell the mother to leave the room.

B) Have your partner interview the mother in the next room.

It is often difficult to distinguish a true medical emergency from a psychiatric emergency. You are confronted with a patient experiencing personality changes ranging from irritability to irrational behavior, altered mental status, amnesia or confusion, irregular respirations, elevated blood pressure, and decreasing pulse. It appears to be a psychiatric emergency. What else could also likely cause this behavior? A) Low blood sugar B) Head injury C) Lack of oxygen D) Stroke

B) Head injury

Which of the following must be treated by the EMT if present in a patient with an apparent behavioral emergency? A) Acute alcohol intoxication B) Hypoglycemia C) Suicidal ideology D) Severe clinical depression

B) Hypoglycemia

Which of the following instructions should you give to a patient whom you are about to assist with administering epinephrine? A) Insert the mouthpiece and inhale deeply as you depress the canister. B) I am going to inject medication into your thigh. C) Open your mouth and lift your tongue so I can spray this medication under your tongue. D) This is not pleasant tasting, but it is important that you drink all of it.

B) I am going to inject medication into your thigh.

How does nitroglycerin decrease the level of chest pain that a patient experiences? A) It constricts the blood vessels, forcing more blood into the heart muscle. B) It dilates the blood vessels, allowing more blood to enter the heart muscle. C) It constricts the blood vessels, forcing the toxic lactic acid out of the heart. D) It dilates the blood vessels, allowing more blood flow to wash away the toxic lactic acid.

B) It dilates the blood vessels, allowing more blood to enter the heart muscle.

Why is it important to gather a detailed medical history when dealing with a psychiatric emergency? A) It is not. You want to get the call resolved as quickly as possible and this will just delay it. B) It will alert you to past issues as well as medication. C) It will help you to determine if the police are needed. D) It will help you to determine if you need to restrain the patient.

B) It will alert you to past issues as well as medication.

Which of the following statements regarding behavioral emergencies is NOT true? A) Patients experiencing a behavioral emergency are not always dangerous to themselves or others. B) It would be unusual to find a person with schizophrenia outside a mental health facility. C) Differences in culture may initially appear to be abnormal behaviors to the EMT. D) Apparent behavioral emergencies may be due to an underlying medical cause.

B) It would be unusual to find a person with schizophrenia outside a mental health facility.

You have a patient who is unresponsive on the floor. What is the best way to rule in or rule out trauma as a cause of the patient's unresponsiveness? A) Look for a Glasgow Coma Scale score that is less than 8. B) Look for bystanders and ask them if they witnessed the incident. C) Examine the patient for signs of trauma. D) Check the patient's blood sugar to rule out hypoglycemia.

B) Look for bystanders and ask them if they witnessed the incident.

Your patient is a 24-year-old female who swallowed a handful of pills of unknown type. Although she was initially alert and oriented with no complaints, you note that she is now beginning to slur her words and is becoming progressively lethargic. What is the highest priority in dealing with this patient? A) Finding out exactly what she took B) Maintaining an open airway C) Notifying the receiving facility of the change in mental status D) Checking the patient's pupil size and reactivity to light

B) Maintaining an open airway

Which of the following is often prescribed for a patient with a heart condition? A) Ventolin B) Nitroglycerin C) Epinephrine auto-injector D) Non-aspirin pain relievers such as Tylenol

B) Nitroglycerin

Which of the following is an example of a medication's trade name? A) Epinephrine B) Nitrostat C) 4 dihydroxyphenyl acetate D) Oxygen

B) Nitrostat

Your patient is the 18-year-old male driver of a vehicle that struck a tree. He is conscious and complaining of neck pain. The passenger is obviously dead. You have performed your primary assessment. Which of the following is the next step? A) Immobilize the patient on a long backboard and perform a detailed examination in the ambulance. B) Perform a rapid trauma assessment. C) Perform a tertiary assessment. D) Rule out the possibility of cervical spine injury before moving the patient.

B) Perform a rapid trauma assessment.

You are responding to an unresponsive 65-year-old male patient. The patient has snoring respirations, a scalp laceration, and an obvious fracture of the left ankle. What is the best initial course of action? A) Bandage the scalp wound. B) Place an oral airway in the patient. C) Splint the ankle to avoid lacerating any nerves or arteries. D) Perform a complete primary and secondary assessment to make sure you know exactly what is wrong before treating the patient.

B) Place an oral airway in the patient.

You are dispatched to a local fast-food restaurant for a "nature unknown" call. You arrive on-scene and find a 47-year-old male in front of the counter repeatedly singing "Happy Birthday" to himself. Police are on-scene and the scene is safe. Which of the following would be considered appropriate care? A) Quickly approach the patient and take charge. Tell him he has to come with you to be evaluated. B) Quietly and carefully evaluate the situation and keep your emotions under control. Be as unhurried as you can. C) Have the police take charge, restrain the patient, and have him brought into your ambulance. D) Have your partner join you in approaching the patient and explain to him that he has to stop singing or you will have him arrested.

B) Quietly and carefully evaluate the situation and keep your emotions under control. Be as unhurried as you can.

Which of the following actions is the MOST appropriate for the EMT to take when managing a patient with a behavioral emergency? A) Find out if the patient's insurance covers psychiatric treatment. B) Remain calm and reassure the patient. C) Establish control of the situation by a show of force. D) Quickly perform a head-to-toe exam and transport without delay.

B) Remain calm and reassure the patient.

You are on the scene of a possible overdose. You find a 30-year-old man pacing about his living room. There is evidence of illicit drug use and the apartment is in disarray. The patient seems agitated and nervous. Attempts at calming the patient should include which of the following? A) Speak quickly to give the patient all of the important information without delay. B) Repeat part of what the patient is saying to show that you are listening to him. C) Stand still with your arms crossed to instill a sense of control and authority. D) Sit close to him with your arm around his shoulders to show that you are truly concerned.

B) Repeat part of what the patient is saying to show that you are listening to him.

You are called to assist a 25-year-old female patient who is in profound respiratory distress. The patient has a history of asthma and severe allergies to peanuts. She has a prescribed albuterol inhaler and an epinephrine auto-injector. The patient states she was working in her garden when she accidentally stirred up a hornets' nest and was stung multiple times. The patient has wheezing in all fields, and is breathing at 28 times per minute. She states that she triggered her asthma by running across the yard to the safety of her home. As you apply oxygen, you notice that she is now speaking in two- to three-word sentences, her skin has splotches, and her tongue and neck appear to be swelling. Your next action is to call medical control and then do what? A) Request to assist the patient with her Albuterol inhaler for her asthma. B) Request to assist the patient with her epinephrine pen for anaphylaxis. C) Request to assist the patient with her Albuterol for anaphylaxis. D) Do not request to give epinephrine. It was prescribed for a peanut reaction, not for asthma.

B) Request to assist the patient with her epinephrine pen for anaphylaxis.

You are assessing a 76-year-old male patient that has been involved in a fall from a standing position. You have completed the scene size-up and primary assessment. What should you do next? A) Focused history assessment B) Secondary assessment C) Ongoing assessment D) Reassessment

B) Secondary assessment

Epinephrine delivered by auto-injector may be indicated for patients with which of the following conditions? A) Drug overdose B) Severe allergies to peanut, shellfish, penicillin, or bee stings C) Chest pain D) Chronic pulmonary diseases

B) Severe allergies to peanut, shellfish, penicillin, or bee stings

When assessing a patient who has been stabbed. Which of the following information should the EMT gain first? A) Make and model of the knife B) Size and type of the knife C) Owner of the knife D) Angle at which the knife entered the patient

B) Size and type of the knife

While transporting a patient to the hospital, the EMT repeats his reassessment including vital signs every 15 minutes until he arrives at the emergency department. According to this information, which of the following BEST describes your patient's current status? A) Unstable B) Stable C) Poor D) Not enough information was given to answer this question.

B) Stable

When a patient or bystander at the scene of an emergency displays fear, anger, or grief, this is best described as which of the following? A) Neurosis B) Stress reaction C) Post-traumatic stress disorder D) Catharsis

B) Stress reaction

You and another EMT are discussing a call he previously ran. The EMT said the patient had classic chest pain symptoms and he treated it as a possible heart attack, but he later found out the patient just had indigestion and was discharged 2 hours later. The EMT was concerned that his patient assessment skills were not as good as they should be, and that the ED physician will no longer trust his judgment. How should you respond to his concerns? A) Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a common EMT mistake caused by illusionary correlation. B) Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a result of limited information. C) Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a result of confirmation bias. D) Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a result of anchoring.

B) Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a result of limited information.

While an EMT forms a field diagnosis on the scene of an emergency, how do the steps differ from the traditional approach to diagnosis? A) Due to the limited time spent with the patient, the EMT must rely on a differential diagnosis. B) The EMT must rule in or out the most serious conditions associated with the patient's presentation. C) The EMT does not have time to form a differential diagnosis and must rely on prior experience when treating a patient. D) The EMT forms a field diagnosis within the first few minutes of the call to formulate treatment as quickly as possible

B) The EMT must rule in or out the most serious conditions associated with the patient's presentation

What term describes a surgical incision in the neck that is held open by a metal or plastic tube through which a patient can breathe or be placed on a ventilator? A) Tracheopharyngeal fistula B) Tracheostomy C) Cricothyrotomy D) Stoma

B) Tracheostomy

You respond to a medical call for a 59-year-old female complaining of tightness in her chest. You place her on a high concentration of oxygen and prepare for a short 5-minute transport to the hospital. The patient tells you she is on nitroglycerin, which she has not taken. Your partner tells you that you can give aspirin per protocol. Should you delay the patient transport to give the medication and why? A) No, any delay will cause the patient more heart damage; each delay weakens the myocardium. B) Yes, the nitroglycerin will cause the blood vessels to dilate and restore some blood flow, and the aspirin will slow the clotting process. C) Yes, the nitroglycerin will cause the heart to beat stronger and restore some blood flow, and the aspirin will ease the pain. D) No, any delay will cause the patient more stress; she needs to be in a definitive care facility.

B) Yes, the nitroglycerin will cause the blood vessels to dilate and restore some blood flow, and the aspirin will slow the clotting process.

You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle crash to find a middle-aged man on a long spine board being cared for by first responding firefighters. He appears to be bleeding from his head and he is unconscious. You should check the car for: A) insurance information or identification. B) a bent steering wheel or starred windshield. C) personal items too valuable to leave on-scene. D) a deployed passenger-side air bag.

B) a bent steering wheel or starred windshield.

You are assessing a 21-year-old female who was assaulted by an unknown person. She is complaining of abdominal pain. As you perform a rapid assessment of her abdomen, you should check for all of the following except: A) contusions. B) bowel sounds. C) distention. D) firmness.

B) bowel sounds.

Your patient is exhibiting bizarre and aggressive behavior; he starts shouting and becomes violent. He has extra strength and appears insensitive to pain. Drug paraphernalia is visible on-scene. This behavior is known as: A) chemical delirium. B) excited delirium. C) sensory excitement. D) intoxication reaction.

B) excited delirium.

The symptoms or circumstances for which a medication is given are called: A) contraindications. B) indications. C) side effects. D) untoward effects.

B) indications.

The study of the effects of medications on the body in relation to age and weight is called: A) pharmacology. B) pharmacodynamics. C) measurement and documentation. D) pharmacokinetics.

B) pharmacodynamics.

As an EMT, it is important that you be able to do all of the following except: A) control your own emotions when dealing with patients who say upsetting things to you. B) provide counseling and advice to patients with personal problems. C) ensure your safety and that of others at the scene. D) deal with a wide variety of emotions and behaviors.

B) provide counseling and advice to patients with personal problems.

Management of the suicidal patient includes all of the following except: A) a physical examination. B) psychoanalysis of the patient by the EMT. C) a SAMPLE history. D) communication.

B) psychoanalysis of the patient by the EMT.

You have a long transport of a patient who may have sustained a spinal injury. The patient has been stable throughout your transport. During one of your reassessments, your patient tells you that he is losing the feeling in his feet and toes and his fingers are tingling. At this point you should: A) remove him from the long spine board. B) reassess him every 5 minutes. C) call medical direction for orders. D) spinal immobilize him.

B) reassess him every 5 minutes.

You are treating a 57-year-old male for chest pain. You have gathered all pertinent history of present illness, completed two sets of vital signs, talked with medical direction, and assisted the patient with two doses of his nitroglycerin. Determination of whether or not the nitroglycerin was effective is assessed during the: A) secondary assessment. B) reassessment. C) primary and secondary assessment. D) primary assessment.

B) reassessment.

You are caring for a woman who sustained a head injury as a result of a domestic dispute. You suspect she has a closed head injury since she cannot remember what happened and one of her pupils is slightly larger than the other. You have been monitoring her vital signs every 5 minutes and you see that her blood pressure is rising and her pulse is dropping. This part of the assessment is called: A) crisis management. B) trending. C) intervention check. D) modified secondary assessment

B) trending.

Assuming your protocol allows the administration of nitroglycerin when certain conditions exist, what is the maximum number of tablets to be administered in the prehospital setting? A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 2

B. 3

Your patient is a 35-year-old female who spilled a cup of hot coffee on herself. She has an area about twice the size of the palm of her hand on her right thigh that is red and painful, but without blisters. When caring for this injury in the prehospital setting, which of the following is appropriate? A. Apply an antibiotic ointment. B. Apply a dry sterile dressing. C. Apply a lotion containing a topical anesthetic and aloe vera. D. Apply a plastic bag full of ice to the skin.

B. Apply a dry sterile dressing.

When managing an electrical burn, the EMT should: A. always attempt to remove the patient from the electrical source. B. ensure the scene is safe before entering. C. never attempt CPR unless it is within 4 minutes of contact. D. quickly check the pulse, even if the patient is still in contact with the electrical source.

B. ensure the scene is safe before entering.

Your patient is a 14-year-old male who crashed his bicycle, landing prone and sliding along a gravel trail. He has deep abrasions to his hands, arms, chest, and knees. The patient has small pieces of gravel, twigs, and dirt embedded in the abrasions. Which of the following is the best way to manage this situation after taking cervical spine immobilization? A. Use a tongue depressor to scrape large pieces of debris out of the wounds, place the patient on high-concentration oxygen, and transport. B. Assess for additional injuries, flush away large pieces of debris with a sterile dressing, place dressings on the abrasions, bandage them in place, and transport. C. Use your fingers to pick embedded debris from the wound, bandage with moist saline dressings in place, and transport. D. Do not attempt to remove any debris, apply pressure dressings over the embedded material if necessary, apply high-concentration oxygen, and transport.

B. Assess for additional injuries, flush away large pieces of debris with a sterile dressing, place dressings on the abrasions, bandage them in place, and transport.

Which of the following patients is at the lowest risk of developing sepsis? A. An elderly patient who is recovering from abdominal surgery B. A college-aged patient who breaks his arm in a skateboard crash C. A patient with a compromised immune system who has a permanent gastrostomy tube D. A pediatric patient who has developed pneumonia in both lungs

B. A college-aged patient who breaks his arm in a skateboard crash

Which of the following is the general term used to refer to a problem with the heart? A. Myocardial infarction B. Cardiac compromise C. Congestive heart failure D. Cardiac dysrhythmia

B. Cardiac compromise

Which of the following is NOT considered soft tissue? A. Membranes B. Cartilage C. The skin D. Muscles

B. Cartilage

You suspect that your patient is suffering from angina pectoris. What signs or symptoms would you expect to see with this condition? A. Chest pain that radiates to the leg B. Chest pain that is relieved with nitroglycerin C. Chest pain that is not relieved with nitroglycerin D. Chest pain that is not relieved with rest

B. Chest pain that is relieved with nitroglycerin

You respond to the scene of a 56-year-old obese female complaining of respiratory distress. She states that she has been feeling weak and a "little sick" for the past two days but the respiratory distress has been getting progressively worse for the past several hours. She states she has "heart problems," suffers from high blood pressure, and takes a "water pill." She is afebrile and has coarse crackles (rales) bilaterally. What is most likely the cause of her respiratory distress? A. Influenza B. Congestive heart failure C. Pneumonia D. Aortic aneurysm

B. Congestive heart failure

You are on the scene of a 65-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. CPR is in progress and the AED has been applied. The AED does not advise shock. What is your next intervention? A. Insert a Combitube. B. Continue CPR. C. Replace the malfunctioning AED. D. Stop CPR and place the patient in the recovery position.

B. Continue CPR.

Which of the following is NOT an open tissue injury? A. Evisceration B. Contusion C. Avulsion D. Abrasion

B. Contusion

Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries should initially be controlled with which one of the following techniques? A. Elevation of the injured part B. Direct pressure C. Application of an ice pack or chemical cold pack D. Running cold water over the wound

B. Direct pressure

Which of the following BEST describes the EMT's intended role in the ideal provision of emergency cardiac care? A. Early notification B. Early defibrillation C. Early CPR D. Early advanced cardiac life support

B. Early defibrillation

Which of the following is the result of a portion of the heart muscle dying due to a lack of oxygen? A. Cardiac arrest B. Myocardial infarction C. Angina pectoris D. Heart failure

B. Myocardial infarction

Which of the following BEST describes the continued need for prehospital advanced cardiac life support, even when EMTs in the community carry AEDs? A. The patient may need medications to support his cardiac rhythm and blood pressure prior to attempting defibrillation. B. Not all cardiac arrests are due to problems that respond to defibrillation. C. In cases of refractory or recurrent ventricular fibrillation, the use of medications may decrease the chances of defibrillating successfully. D. All of the above

B. Not all cardiac arrests are due to problems that respond to defibrillation.

You are treating a patient with signs and symptoms of a myocardial infarction (MI). What is the most important drug you should administer? A. Epinephrine auto-injector (Epi-Pen®®) B. Oxygen C. Albuterol D. Aspirin

B. Oxygen

Burns pose a greater risk to infants and children for which of the following reasons? A. Pediatric patients have a greater risk of heart problems associated with the burn. B. Pediatric patients have a greater risk of shock from the burn. C. Infants and children have a greater risk of infection from the burn. D. None of the above

B. Pediatric patients have a greater risk of shock from the burn

You are dispatched to the local high school for a "person struck with a baseball." You arrive on the scene and find a 16-year-old male sitting on the bench. Apparently he was the pitcher and was struck in the abdominal area by a line drive ball that was hit very hard. He states that nothing is hurting except he has some mild pain in the area where he was struck. He is upset that the ambulance was called and wants to go back into the game and continue pitching. Your exam reveals nothing remarkable except mild pain when you palpate the injured area. Vital signs are normal. What is the next step? A. Tell the coach the patient is okay and he can go back into the ball game. B. Take appropriate Standard Precautions, apply high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask, and transport the patient ASAP, carefully monitoring the patient during transport. C. Have the coach apply cold to the area and let the pitcher back in the game if he does not get worse in the next 15 minutes. D. Have the patient walk to the ambulance and take him to the ED. No other care needs to be provided, as there is really no significant sign of any injury.

B. Take appropriate Standard Precautions, apply high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask, and transport the patient ASAP, carefully monitoring the patient during transport.

You are treating a 5-year-old for extensive burns. You know that burns pose a greater risk to infants and children. The reason for this is: A. the parents' interference with your assessment and treatment can delay your response. B. their body surface area is greater in relation to their total body size. C. the child will likely be upset and crying and therefore hard to evaluate. D. child abuse is usually the reason for the burns.

B. their body surface area is greater in relation to their total body size.

Which of the following patients has the greatest likelihood of being cared for in a burn center? A. 16-year-old female who came into contact with a motorcycle exhaust pipe and has a full thickness burn on her leg about 2 inches in diameter B. 30-year-old woman who has deep partial thickness burns on her hand and arm as a result of spilling hot cooking oil on herself C. 45-year-old man who has a full thickness burn about 3 inches long by one half 1 2 inch wide on his posterior arm from backing into a barbecue grill D. 12-year-old male with a superficial partial thickness burn involving his forearm as a result of making a torch by lighting aerosol from a can of hairspray

B. 30-year-old woman who has deep partial thickness burns on her hand and arm as a result of spilling hot cooking oil on herself

Which of the following is of concern in a patient who received burns to his hand when he grabbed a live electrical wire? A. The burning will continue for hours, perhaps days. B. The extent of tissue damage may be much greater than it appears on the surface. C. The patient remains an electrocution hazard to rescuers for several minutes after being removed from the source of electricity. D. Toxic gases were inhaled.

B. The extent of tissue damage may be much greater than it appears on the surface.

Which of the following medications does NOT interfere with the blood-clotting process? A. Aspirin B. Acetaminophen C. Clopidogrel D. Warfarin

B. Acetaminophen

Your patient is a 44-year-old female who has collapsed while jogging. She has been unresponsive for 4 to 5 minutes by the time you arrive. Her husband appears to be performing high-quality CPR. Which of the following should be your FIRST action? A. Load the patient into the ambulance for further assessment. B. Apply the AED. C. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and begin ventilations. D. Stop CPR and check for a pulse.

B. Apply the AED.

Your 76-year-old female patient is having trouble breathing. When you auscultate her lungs, you hear crackles (rales), and you are concerned that she may have pulmonary edema. Her oxygen saturation is 92%, so you place her on 100% oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. Her breathing gets a little easier with the oxygen. You decide to expedite transport since she is anxious about her condition. Later, as you are completing your reassessment, you see that her respirations have slowed to 8 times per minute and she is barely staying awake. What should you do next? A. Assist her with using her metered-dose inhaler. B. Begin ventilating her with a bag-valve mask. C. Shake her to keep her awake. D. Ask your partner to pull over and wait for ALS backup.

B. Begin ventilating her with a bag-valve mask.

Which of the following types of defibrillators sends the shock first in one direction and then the other? A. Triphasic defibrillator B. Biphasic AED C. Monophasic AED D. Implanted defibrillator

B. Biphasic AED

You assess a 35-year-old female patient with a chemical burn to her right forearm and hand. As you assess the burn, you notice a white powder on the burn. What should be your next step? A. Flush the arm and hand with copious amounts of water. B. Brush the powder off the patient's arm and hand, and then flush with copious amounts of water. C. Transport the patient immediately to the closest burn center. D. Brush off the powder, bandage the arm, and transport the patient to the closest trauma center.

B. Brush the powder off the patient's arm and hand, and then flush with copious amounts of water.

Which of the following might be discovered in the reassessment of a patient? A. Patient's allergies B. Change in respiratory rate and quality C. Initial blood pressure of 120/80 D. List of patient's medications

B. Change in respiratory rate and quality

Mechanical CPR devices are used by EMS agencies in order to provide: A. a faster response time to the scene. B. high-quality compressions. C. a 100% success rate. D. better quality of care with less training.

B. high-quality compressions.

Two chronic medical conditions that dialysis patients frequently have in addition to kidney failure are ______ and _______. A. heart failure; stroke B. hypertension; diabetes C. blood clots; COPD D. high cholesterol; cerebral aneurysms

B. hypertension; diabetes

You are transporting a victim of domestic violence, a 25-year-old female, who was struck on the head several times with a baseball bat. On the scene, she was responsive to verbal stimuli and was bleeding profusely from an open head wound. During transport, the patient becomes unresponsive. Which of the following should you do next? A. Vital signs and SAMPLE history B. Primary assessment C. Detailed physical exam D. Secondary assessment

B. Primary assessment

Which of the following is the cause of the black residue found in a patient's mouth and nose following smoke inhalation?

Brush off the powder and flush the patient's skin with copious amounts of water.

Which of the following is not one of the links in the chain of survival? A. Immediate high-quality CPR B. Rehabilitation C. Rapid defibrillation D. Immediate recognition and activation of the emergency response system

B. Rehabilitation

A 22-year-old female was found severely hyperventilating and was visibly upset. Her initial vital signs were P 130, R 40, BP 190/100. With coaching and compassionate care, she has calmed down. Her repeat vital signs are P 100, R 28, BP 160/88. Which of the following would best describe this trend in vital signs? A. Unchanged B. Returning to normal C. Unable to determine D. Deteriorating

B. Returning to normal

As you arrive at the emergency department with an unresponsive trauma patient, the nurse asks for your trending assessment. Why is this information important to the nurse? A. She can determine if you understand the assessment process. B. She can evaluate whether or not the patient is improving. C. She can evaluate the quality of care you provided. D. She can critique your technique of taking vital signs.

B. She can evaluate whether or not the patient is improving.

Which of the following preventive measures is useful against all communicable diseases? A. Covering sneezes and coughs B. Standard Precautions C. Vaccination D. Hand washing

B. Standard Precautions

During reassessment, you notice that your patient is making gurgling sounds. Which of the following should you do immediately? A. Place the patient in the recovery position. B. Suction the airway. C. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device. D. Increase the amount of oxygen being delivered to the patient.

B. Suction the airway.

A fall is considered severe anytime an adult patient has fallen more than ________ feet. A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 8

A hormone called insulin is secreted by the: a. Islets of Langerhans in the liver. b. gallbladder found in the pancreas. c. Islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. d. None of the above

________ is reassessing and recording findings of the reassessment so they can be compared to earlier findings. A. Averaging B. Trending C. Critical thinking D. Analysis

B. Trending

5 Trending for the EMT is primarily a tool for: A. conducting in-field research. B. assessing treatment. C. practicing documentation skills. D. partners to compare notes.

B. assessing treatment.

Which component of blood is responsible for forming clotting factors to stop bleeding? A. White blood cells B. Red blood cells C. Platelets D. Plasma

Which layer of the skin is exposed to the environment? A. Adipose tissue B. Dermis C. Subcutaneous tissue D. Epidermis

As you arrive for a patient in cardiac arrest, bystanders are analyzing the patient with an AED. You should: A. turn off the AED and check for a pulse. B. allow the AED to shock before you take over care. C. stay back until bystanders transfer care to you. D. remove the AED and apply your own.

B. allow the AED to shock before you take over care.

There are two main types of dialysis, hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis. The main difference between them is hemodialysis: A. filters the blood and peritoneal dialysis filters the urine B. is usually done at a special facility and peritoneal dialysis is usually done at home C. is usually done at home and peritoneal dialysis is usually done at a special facility D. filters the urine and peritoneal dialysis filters the blood

B. is usually done at a special facility and peritoneal dialysis is usually done at home

Dialysis patients who have missed an appointment may present with signs of _____, which is a similar presentation to _____? A. neruological disturbances; stroke B. pulmonary edema; congestive heart failure C. shortness of breath; pneumonia D. chest pain; acute myocardial infarction

B. pulmonary edema; congestive heart failure

You have a long transport of a patient who may have sustained a spinal injury. The patient has been stable throughout your transport. During one of your reassessments, your patient tells you that he is losing the feeling in his feet and toes and his fingers are tingling. At this point you should: A. call medical direction for orders. B. reassess him every 5 minutes. C. remove him from the long spine board. D. spinal immobilize him.

B. reassess him every 5 minutes.

You are caring for a teenager who is having a severe allergic reaction. He has hives all over his stomach, is having respiratory distress, and is wheezing. After you administer oxygen, you get a set of vital signs. Medical direction has ordered you to assist with administration of his EpiPen®. You will monitor the success of your interventions during the: A. primary assessment. B. reassessment. C. focused exam. D. secondary assessment.

B. reassessment.

You are treating a 57-year-old male for chest pain. You have gathered all pertinent history of the present illness, completed two sets of vital signs, talked with medical direction, and assisted the patient with two doses of his nitroglycerin. Determination of whether or not the nitroglycerin was effective is assessed during the: A. primary and secondary assessment. B. reassessment. C. primary assessment. D. secondary assessment.

B. reassessment.

Prehospital management of all the urinary system problems of the kidney transplant patient by the EMT can be characterized by: A. very invasive techniques B. supportive care C. varied pharmacological interventions D. intensive lab testing

B. supportive care

If there are ALS providers on the scene, they may receive a termination order from their medical direction if: A. bystanders have already attempted to use an AED on the patient. B. the patient has failed to respond to BLS and ALS interventions. C. EMTs improperly positioned an advanced airway before the arrival of ALS. D. EMTs have arrived on scene and are ready to take over.

B. the patient has failed to respond to BLS and ALS interventions.

critical incident stress

Because EMS personnel are often exposed to both acute and chronic stressors, ________ management may be helpful to cope with on-the-job experiences.

Which of the following inhalers would NOT be used to reverse an asthma attack? Proventil Ventol in Beclomethasone Albuterol

Beclomethasone

A patient who demonstrates any one of the three symptoms from the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale has a ______ percent chance of having an acute stroke. a. 50 b. 60 c. 70 d. 80

Your patient is a 24-year-old woman with asthma who is struggling to breathe and is very agitated. She has cyanosis of her lips and nail beds, and is cool and clammy to the touch. When you attempt to assist her ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device, she becomes combative and repeatedly pushes the mask away from her face. Which of the following is the BEST option? Use a nasal cannula to administer supplemental oxygen. Have your partner restrain the patient's hands so you can ventilate her. Begin transport immediately and contact medical control for advice. Wait for the patient's level of consciousness to decrease so that she can no longer resist your attempts to ventilate.

Begin transport immediately and contact medical control for advice.

An objective statement made in a prehospital patient care report meets all of the following criteria EXCEPT which one?

Biased

If you do not have a commercial tourniquet available, what common device found on the ambulance can be used as a substitute? Answer Air or vacuum splint Blood pressure cuff Ice packs tied in place with triangle bandage Use a rope tie-down to make a tourniquet

Blood pressure cuff

Which of the following is part of the body's compensatory response to blood loss? Answer Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate increases. Blood vessels dilate and the heart rate increases. Blood vessels dilate and the heart rate decreases. Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate decreases.

Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate increases.

Which of the following describes an open extremity injury?

Both A (A gunshot wound has penetrated the skin and then fractured the bone.) and B (Bone ends have lacerated the soft tissues and skin from the inside)

Where should the details of a refusal of treatment be recorded?

Both A and B

Which of the following is not part of the circulatory system?

Brain

Which of the following BEST defines inadequate breathing? Wheezing noises when breathing Breathing that is insufficient to sustain life Breathing slower than normal Breathing faster than normal

Breathing that is insufficient to sustain life

Regarding drowning in adults, which of the following statements is true? a. Colder water improves survival chances in saltwater drowning but not in freshwater drowning. b. Water temperature makes no difference in the chances of survival in either saltwater or freshwater drowning. c. The colder the water, the better the chances of survival in either saltwater or freshwater drowning. d. The warmer the water, the better the chances of survival in saltwater drowning.

Shock is the circulatory system's failure to provide sufficient blood and oxygen to all the body's tissues. Which of the answers is NOT a major type of shock? A. Hemorrhagic B. Cardiogenic C. Hypervolemic D. Hypovolemic

Slight movement of the chest during respiration is usually indicative of which of the following? A. Normal breathing B. Labored breathing C. Shallow breathing D. Noisy breathing

The most frequently transplanted organ is the: A. liver. B. heart. C. kidney. D. pancreas.

The movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and circulating blood is called: A. osmosis. B. internal respiration. C. pulmonary (external) respiration. D. cellular respiration.

The normal stimulus to breathe is stimulated by the chemoreceptors that measure the change of what two gases? A. Low hydrogen and high carbon monoxide B. High hydrogen and low carbon dioxide C. High carbon dioxide and low oxygen D. High carbon monoxide and low oxygen

The process of air moving in and out of the chest is called: A. tidal volume. B. inhalation. C. ventilation. D. respiration.

The range of normal blood glucose level is from a low of 60 to 80 mg/dL to a high of: A. 90 to 100. B. 110 to 130. C. 120 to 140. D. 100 to 120.

The safe residual for an oxygen cylinder is ________ psi. A. 1,000 B. 300 C. 200 D. 500

The sensation felt when palpating an arterial-venous fistula or shunt is known as a: A. bruit. B. frill. C. thrill. D. fluttering.

The signs and symptoms of a transient ischemic attack may last up to: a. 1 hour. b. 30 minutes. c. 24 hours. d. 6 hours.

To assess skin temperature for a possibly hypothermic patient, the EMT should place the back of his hand against which part of the patient's body? a. Forehead b. Cheek c. Abdomen d. Inner wrist

Treatment of someone with a seizure disorder includes all of the following except a. place the patient on the floor or ground. b. loosen restrictive clothing. c. place a bite block in the patient's mouth so he does not bite his tongue. d. remove objects that might harm the patient.

Venturi masks are designed to mix oxygen with: A. nitrogen. B. humidified air. C. inhaled air. D. carbon monoxide.

Vital signs should be reassessed every ________ minutes for a stable patient. A. 5 B. 20 C. 15 D. 10

What are the three elements of the Revised Trauma Score? a. GCS, pulse rate, and respiratory rate b. GCS, systolic blood pressure, and pulse rate c. GCS, systolic blood pressure, and respiratory rate d. Level of consciousness, systolic blood pressure, and pulse rate

What are the three ways to take blood pressure? A. Auscultation, palpation, and osculation B. Sphygmomanometer, blood pressure monitor, and heart monitor C. Palpation, auscultation, and blood pressure monitor D. Sphygmomanometer, auscultation, and blood pressure monitor

What device is used to perform mouth-to-mask ventilation? A. Bag-valve mask B. Automatic transport ventilator C. Pocket face mask D. Stoma

What is NOT one of the basic parts of a bag-valve-mask system? A. Be nonrebreathing B. Non-jam valve C. 15/25 respiratory fitting D. Self-refilling shell

What is the height from which an adult fall would meet trauma triage criteria set forth by the CDC? a. 10 feet b. 25 feet c. 20 feet d. 15 feet

When assessing a patient for a possible stroke, which of the following three functions should be tested by the EMT? a. Memory, ability to speak, and ability to track movement with the eyes b. Ability to walk, control of facial muscles, and balance c. Control of facial muscles, ability to speak, and ability to hold both arms in an extended position for 10 seconds d. Ability to walk, ability to hold both arms in an extended position for 10 seconds, and ability to name common objects

Where should a constricting band be placed to reduce lymphatic flow after a venomous snake bite? a. Two inches above the bite b. Two inches below the bite c. Two inches above and two inches below the bite d. None of the above; constricting bands should not be used.

Which of the following BEST explains the reason for minimizing scene-time for the trauma patient with significant hemorrhage or the potential for significant hemorrhage? A. The clock for the "golden hour" of trauma begins at the time of your arrival. B. There is nothing the EMT can do for a patient in shock. C. Studies have indicated that trauma patients who receive surgery within 1 hour of injury have better chances of survival. D. It gives the EMT less opportunity to make mistakes in the patient's care.

Which of the following describes why fast respiration may decrease minute volume? A. The rate causes turbulence in the trachea that increases the friction and decreases the amount of air movement. B. It is due to the delay in the movement of the intercostal muscles and the pleural space. C. The lungs may not have the time to fill and exchange gas. D. The rate does not decrease minute volume; it actually increases.

Which of the following distinguishes decompensated shock from compensated stage of shock? A. Tachycardia B. Delayed capillary refill time C. Low blood pressure D. Altered mental status

Which of the following is NOT a cause of unequal pupils? A. Artificial eye B. Eye injury C. Fright D. Stroke

You are assessing an 82-year-old female that has been lost in the woods behind her nursing home for several hours on a crisp fall evening. Your pulse oximeter shows her oxygen saturation to be 82% even though she appears to be breathing adequately. In order to ensure an accurate reading you should: A. try a different pulse oximeter. B. place the probe on the patient's earlobe. C. warm the patient's hands and try again. D. place the probe on the patient's toe.

You are assessing a 48-year-old male who is unconscious. The scene is safe and you hear the patient gurgling. What is your next action? A. Quickly check the pulse. B. Insert an airway adjunct. C. Suction the airway. D. Apply supplemental oxygen.

You are called to a 25 year old male complaining of right lower quadrant (RLQ) pain. His other symptoms are nausea and vomiting, fever, and decreasing pain in the umbilicus area. As an EMT, you feel this patient might have: A. cholecystitis. B. pancreatitis. C. appendicitis. D. peritonitis.

You are called to a nursing home for an 85yearold patient complaining of abdominal pain. The patient has a history of dementia and cannot describe the pain to you. The nurse states the patient has been vomiting dark coffee ground emesis for about an hour. His blood pressure is 90/40, pulse 100, and respiratory rate of 24. In what position should you transport the patient? A. Supine with knees bent B. Trendelenburg C. SemiFowler's D. Supine

You are called to a residential neighborhood at 12:30 A.M. Your patient has just finished eating a supersized meal of deep fried fish. He is now complaining of a "crampy" pain in the right upper quadrant and has had two episodes of nausea and vomiting with a green emesis. What condition do you suspect that your patient is experiencing? A. Peptic ulcer B. Intestinal obstruction C. Cholecystitis D. Appendicitis

You are called to the scene of a 16yearold female patient complaining of severe lower quadrant abdominal pain. The patient states she is sexually active. Upon palpation, you observe rebound tenderness in the right lower quadrant. You suspect: A. ectopic pregnancy. B. renal colic. C. appendicitis. D. cholecystitis.

You are dispatched to a private residence for a sick person. When you arrive, you are told by the patient that due to the snow storm yesterday he missed his scheduled appointment at the dialysis center and is not feeling well. Your assessment does not reveal anything remarkable outside of the fact that he has missed his dialysis. Which of the steps below would not be part of your care? A. Assess the ABCs B. When you obtain vital signs, obtain a blood pressure on an arm that does not have a fistula C. Place the patient in a supine position D. Administer oxygen at 15 lpm by nonrebreather mask

You are dispatched to a sick call. The patient was just extricated from a bathtub where he was trapped under the shower door for 2 weeks. This 72-year-old male had limited access to water from the bathtub faucet. The patient is complaining of disorientation, nausea, and vomiting. What do you think is the underlying cause for the illness? A. Chronic renal failure B. End-stage renal disease C. Acute renal failure D. Gastrointestinal infection

You are examining a 24yearold female patient with lower quadrant abdominal pain. What is the MOST LETHAL possibility? A. Pelvic inflammatory disease B. Mittelschmerz C. Ectopic pregnancy D. Cholecystitis

You are getting ready to transport an unresponsive 25-year-old female patient. She was hit by a vehicle while crossing the street. She is 26 weeks pregnant. You are 10 minutes away from the nearest facility, 15 minutes away from a Level I Trauma Center, and 15 minutes away from a hospital that specializes in high-risk obstetrics. You should transport the patient to which hospital? a. The nearest facility: She is unresponsive and unstable. b. The trauma center: The fetus will need specialized neonatology surgeons. c. The trauma center: The patient will need specialized trauma surgeons. d. The high-risk obstetric hospital: The fetus will need specialized neonatology surgeons.

You are on the scene of an explosion at a suspected methamphetamine manufacturing operation. You and your partner are the first to arrive and note two middle-aged men and a woman on the front lawn with burns and cuts on their faces and arms. The fire department is en route. Which of the following resources should be the LEAST important to be requested by the EMT during the scene size-up? A. Law enforcement B. One or two additional ambulances C. Hazardous material clean-up crew D. Gas company

You are transporting a patient down a bumpy road. Your patient's blood pressure has just been measured by the monitor to be 190/110. The patient's blood pressure on scene was 130/80. You should: A. ignore the blood pressure reading. B. apply the automatic cuff to the other arm. C. re-measure the blood pressure manually. D. have the driver increase truck speed.

You are treating a 38yearold female patient with abdominal distress. The patient's vital signs are stable and you are getting ready to transport. What is the BEST position to transport the patient? A. Trendelenburg B. Right lateral C. On side with knees bent D. Left lateral

You are unable to find a radial pulse on a patient from a motor vehicle crash. You should: A. begin chest compressions. B. listen for heart sounds. C. attempt to find the carotid pulse. D. apply the pulse oximeter.

You arrive on the scene to find a scuba diver on board a boat slumped over in the captain's chair with frothy blood in his mouth. The captain states that the diver was down no more than 15 feet when he ascended rapidly and called for help. Which of the following is most likely? a. Decompression sickness b. The bends c. Air embolism d. Caisson's disease

You respond to a 22-year-old male patient who fell while exiting the local bar. Bystanders state he drank at least 10 beers and could not keep his balance. Physical exam reveals that the patient is alert to verbal stimuli only. He has a Glasgow Coma Scale of 3, 4, 6; slurred speech; and an obvious scalp laceration to the back of his head. He is refusing treatment and transport and wants his friends to drive him home. The nearest hospital is 5 minutes away, a Level II Trauma Center is 10 minutes away, and a Level I Full Service Trauma Center is 30 minutes away. Which of these is the most appropriate facility for the patient? a. The nearest facility b. The Level I Trauma Center c. The Level II Trauma Center d. Nowhere, since the patient is an adult and refusing; as such, you cannot take him

You respond to a boat dock for a diving injury. You find a 24-year-old male patient unresponsive with frothy blood in the mouth and lung sounds absent on the right side. The patient's friends state they were diving when he came out of the water complaining of chest pains and then collapsed. What condition do you suspect? a. Myocardial infarction b. Decompression sickness c. Air embolism d. Near drowning

You respond to a construction site on a very hot summer day for a person "not acting right." You find a 44-year-old male patient seated in a work vehicle with the air conditioner on maximum. Coworkers state the patient was working for the last 2 hours pouring concrete when he started " speaking gibberish" and nearly collapsed. The patient is responsive to verbal stimuli. Your initial vital signs are blood pressure 90/60, pulse 136, and respiratory rate 24. The patient's skin is cool to the touch and dry, but his shirt is wet with visible salt rings. You suspect: a. heat cramps. b. hypernatremia. c. heat exhaustion. d. myocardial infarction

You respond to a professional volleyball tournament for a potential heatstroke. Upon arrival you find a 28-year-old male patient seated inside the air-conditioned first aid trailer. He is alert and in obvious distress. He is complaining of severe cramping of his arms and legs. His vital signs are stable. What is the most likely cause of the cramping? a. Heat exhaustion b. Drinking too many sports drinks c. Sweating too much d. Cooling off too quickly

You respond to the scene of a 14-year-old patient. He is unresponsive and hypothermic. Emergency Medical Responders have moved the patient inside and secured the airway prior to your arrival. What is your next action? a. Vigorously rub the patient to increase the body temperature. b. Actively rewarm the patient. c. Passively rewarm the patient. d. Assess for signs of frostbite and treat immediately.

You respond to the scene of a local campground. Your patient is a 15-year-old female patient who was stung in the arm by a bee. The patient is anxious and hyperventilating at 28 times a minute. The patient is alert and oriented to time, place, person, and event. Lung sounds are clear bilaterally. The left arm is swollen and the stinger is not present. Blood pressure is 118/72 and pulse is 110. The patient's mother states she is allergic to bee stings and has an epinephrine autoinjector. She called 911 because she was afraid the patient would stop breathing. Select the best treatment plan. a. Place a constricting band around the arm to minimize the spread of the venom. b. Assist the patient in administering her epinephrine auto-injector. c. Monitor the patient for shock and transport. d. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position

Your patient is a 19-year-old female who is 7 months pregnant. She has just experienced a seizure, although she has no previous history of seizures other than hypertension associated with the pregnancy. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the seizure? a. Trauma b. Hypoglycemia c. Eclampsia d. Any of the above

Your patient is a 24-year-old man who smoked a cigarette dipped in formaldehyde and then went outside with no shoes on and walked in the snow for about an hour. He has deep local cold injuries to both feet. Which of the following should be included in your management of this patient? a. Break blisters before wrapping both feet in sterile dressings. b. Have the patient sit with his feet lower than the rest of his body. c. Gradually rewarm both feet. d. Massage the feet briskly.

Your patient is a 25-year-old female with a history of diabetes. She is confused, agitated, and verbally abusive to you, and she is very sweaty. Although she refuses to give a history of the present illness, you should suspect which of the following as the likely cause of the patient's presentation? a. Failure to take her insulin b. A nondiabetic-related problem, such as a head injury or mental illness c. Failure to intake sufficient sugar d. Excessive intake of foods high in sugar, such as soda or candy

Your patient is a 40yearold female who has been experiencing abdominal pain and vomiting for 2 days. She is now responsive to verbal stimulus; has cool, dry skin; a heart rate of 116; respirations of 24; and a blood pressure of 100/70. Which of the following is the BEST position for transporting this patient? A. Sitting up at a 90degree angle B. Supine with the knees bent C. Left lateral recumbent with the legs bent D. Sitting up at a 45 degree angle

Your patient is a 59-year-old female with a sudden onset of slurred speech and weakness on her right side. Which of the following measures is appropriate? a. Test the patient's sensation with a series of pinpricks, beginning at the feet and working upward. b. Keep the patient in a supine position. c. Immediately transport the patient to a hospital with specialized treatment for stroke patients. d. Administer oral glucose and then assess the patient's blood sugar

Your patient is a motorcyclist who was ejected after striking a guard rail. The patient is unresponsive to painful stimuli and is breathing shallowly six to eight times per minute. Which of the following should you do first? A. Apply a nonrebreather mask with an oxygen flow rate of 15 lpm. B. Perform a rapid trauma assessment. C. Use a bag-valve mask with supplemental oxygen. D. Apply a cervical collar.

Your patient is a 42-year-old woman who fell two feet from a ladder and is complaining of pain in her ankle. Which of the following are you unable to determine from the information given? A. Airway status B. Chief complaint C. Transport priority D. General impression

Your patient is a 6-year-old child who has fallen down while running on a sidewalk. She has abrasions on both knees and the palms of both hands, which are oozing blood. This is an example of bleeding from which of the following types of vessels? A. Lymphatic vessels B. Arteries C. Capillaries D. Veins

Your patient is a 72-year-old female who has "twisted her ankle" coming down some steps. She is alert and complaining of pain in her right ankle, but she jokes about her "clumsiness." Which of the following should you do next? A. Administer high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask. B. Determine the presence of a carotid pulse. C. Ask if the patient has pain anywhere besides her ankle. D. Take immediate manual control of the patient's cervical spine.

Your patient is a middle-aged man who appears to be in distress and is clutching his chest. These observations lead you to suspect which type of problem? A. Anaphylaxis B. Choking C. Cardiac D. Digestive

Which of the following BEST describes a contraindication to a medication? A) An unintended action of the drug B) The way in which a drug causes its effects C) A reason why you should a never giving a medication to a patient D) A reason why you should give a medication to a patient

C) A reason why you should a never giving a medication to a patient

When using the memory aid SAMPLE, which of the following would you do to determine L? A) Look at the patient's pupils. B) Ask, "When was the last time you took your medicine?" C) Ask, "When was the last time you had anything to eat or drink?" D) Listen to the patient's lung sounds

C) Ask, "When was the last time you had anything to eat or drink?"

Why would an EMT give aspirin to a patient? A) Aspirin reduces the heart's ability to beat fast and works to prevent rapid heart rate. B) Aspirin reduces the pain level in patients who are in pain. C) Aspirin reduces the blood's ability to clot and works to prevent further clot formation in patients suffering chest pain. D) It is given to calm the patient by reducing the pain because stress is the real killer.

C) Aspirin reduces the blood's ability to clot and works to prevent further clot formation in patients suffering chest pain.

Once you have established with reasonable certainty that your patient is suffering from a behavioral emergency, which of the following is the best course of action? A) Establish the best way to restrain the patient before he has the opportunity to become violent. B) Begin intense individual counseling with the patient. C) Attempt to determine if there is a possible physical cause for the patient's behavior. D) There is no need to assess for medical conditions if the patient does not have a history of past medical problems.

C) Attempt to determine if there is a possible physical cause for the patient's behavior.

Your 76-year-old female patient is having trouble breathing. When you auscultate her lungs, you hear crackles (rales) and you are concerned that she may have pulmonary edema. Her oxygen saturation is 92%, so you place her on 100% oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. Her breathing gets a little easier with the oxygen. You decide to expedite transport since she is anxious about her condition. Later, as you are completing your reassessment, you see that her respirations have slowed to 8 times per minute and she is barely staying awake. What should you do next? A) Shake her to keep her awake. B) Assist her with using her metered-dose inhaler. C) Begin ventilating her with a bag-valve mask. D) Ask your partner to pull over and wait for ALS backup.

C) Begin ventilating her with a bag-valve mask.

When a person acts in a manner that is unacceptable to himself or those around him, this would be considered which of the following? A) Mental illness B) Psychotic episode C) Behavioral emergency D) Psychosomatic reaction

C) Behavioral emergency

You are called for a patient who was discovered unconscious in his bed this morning. You immediately complete a primary assessment and determine that he is breathing and has a good pulse. What should you do next? A) Ask the family what happened. B) Begin transport immediately. C) Complete a rapid physical exam. D) Try to locate all of his medications.

C) Complete a rapid physical exam.

In medical terms, bruises are known as which of the following? A) Abrasion B) Blemish C) Contusion D) Discoloration

C) Contusion

What is the sound or feel of broken bones rubbing against each other called? A) Decapitation B) Osteomyelitis C) Crepitation D) Emesis

C) Crepitation

Your patient is a 45-year-old female who complains of "twisting her ankle" when she slipped on a patch of ice. Which of the following is NOT appropriate? A) Secondary assessment B) Providing emotional support, if necessary C) Detailed physical exam D) Questioning about any other complaints or areas of pain

C) Detailed physical exam

You have responded to a call about a "psychiatric patient" to find a 24-year-old woman talking to herself in her home. She is rocking back and forth and you can see from a distance that she is perspiring profusely. You also see an empty medication bottle on the floor. She does not acknowledge your presence. When you attempt to speak to her, she continues to talk to herself as if you were not there. Which of the following should be included in your actions at the scene? A) Distract her so your partner can look around the house. B) Look through the house with your partner to try to find some clues to the patient's problem. C) Ensure that law enforcement is responding and wait for their arrival. D) Shake the patient's shoulder to check for responsiveness to physical stimuli.

C) Ensure that law enforcement is responding and wait for their arrival.

You are transporting a 30-year-old male who has been shot in the chest. He is suffering from a sucking chest wound and has a decreased level of consciousness. How often should you perform a reassessment? A) Every 15 minutes B) Every 30 minutes C) Every 5 minutes D) Every 10 minutes

C) Every 5 minutes

Which of the following is false regarding the purpose of immediately documenting vital signs once they are obtained? A) You will be able to report the vital signs accurately when contacting the receiving facility. B) It may be difficult to recall the vital signs accurately later on. C) Failure to record the vital signs immediately is considered falsifying the medical record. D) You will be able to comp

C) Failure to record the vital signs immediately is considered falsifying the medical record.

Which of the following methods should be used to have a patient rate the amount of pain he is having? A) Ask the patient to state whether the pain is mild, moderate, severe, or unbearable. B) Use the memory aid AVPU. C) Have the patient rate the pain on a scale of 1 (least) to 10 (worst). D) Use the memory aid DCAP.

C) Have the patient rate the pain on a scale of 1 (least) to 10 (worst).

When a patient describes how he feels, he is telling you which of the following? A) His diagnosis B) His signs C) His symptoms D) His syndrome

C) His symptoms

What is the reason for giving an epinephrine auto-injector in a life-threatening allergic reaction? A) It will help raise the patient's blood pressure and slow the heart rate. B) It will constrict the patient's airway passages and blood vessels. C) It will help constrict the patient's blood vessels and relax the airway passages. D) It will help dilate the patient's blood vessels and relax the airway passages.

C) It will help constrict the patient's blood vessels and relax the airway passages.

What does distention refer to when describing your patient's abdomen? A) Softer than normal B) Having a sunken-in appearance C) Larger than normal D) Harder than normal

C) Larger than normal

There are general rules when dealing with psychiatric emergencies. Which of the following is NOT one of those rules and would be considered inappropriate? A) Identify yourself and your role. B) Speak slowly and clearly, using a calm and reassuring tone. C) Never make eye contact with the patient, as it will just increase his nervousness. D) Listen to the patient. You can show you are listening by repeating part of what the patient says back to him.

C) Never make eye contact with the patient, as it will just increase his nervousness.

Which of the following techniques of physical examination must an EMT master? A) Visualization, percussion, and auscultation B) Auscultation, observation, and percussion C) Observation, palpation, and auscultation D) Percussion, inspection, and palpation

C) Observation, palpation, and auscultation

If a patient complains of abdominal pain localized to a specific area of the abdomen, which of the following techniques should be used to assess the abdomen? A) Palpate the area at the beginning and end of the exam. B) Do not palpate the painful area. C) Palpate the painful area last. D) Palpate the painful area first.

C) Palpate the painful area last.

When restraining a patient, which of the following is NOT a consideration? A) Number of people available to carry out the required actions B) Patient's size and strength C) Patient's informed consent D) How to position the patient

C) Patient's informed consent

In the assessment of a responsive medical patient, which of the following will provide you with the most important information? A) Focused physical exam B) Detailed physical exam C) Patient's medical history D) Baseline vital signs

C) Patient's medical history

Your patient is a 59-year-old woman with a history of emphysema. Per protocol, you have assisted the patient in using her medication inhaler. Which of the following must be documented? A) Chemical name of the medication B) Expiration date of the medication C) Patient's response to the medication D) All of the above

C) Patient's response to the medication

Nitroglycerin (Nitro) is used for patients with recurrent chest pain or a history of heart attack. Nitro is most commonly supplied in what two forms? A) Pills and injectable B) Aerosol and spray C) Pills and spray D) Ointment and pills

C) Pills and spray

It is important that, as an EMS provider, you avoid creating a situation where positional asphyxia could occur. Which of the following is positional asphyxia? A) Positional asphyxia is the position the person is seated in when you approach him. B) Positional asphyxia is a birth defect that causes psychiatric issues and is initiated because of the way the fetus was positioned in the uterus. C) Positional asphyxia is inadequate breathing or respiratory arrest caused by a body position that restricts breathing. D) Positional asphyxia is the name for the position someone assumes after she has been hit with a taser.

C) Positional asphyxia is inadequate breathing or respiratory arrest caused by a body position that restricts breathing.

What is the first step in the reassessment process? A) Vital signs B) Secondary assessment C) Primary assessment D) Focused history and physical exam

C) Primary assessment

Which of the following is the BEST defense for an EMT when facing allegations of misconduct from a mentally ill patient? A) Hiring a background investigator to discredit the accuser B) Having a clean employment record and lack of a criminal background C) Providing accurate and complete documentation, supported by a third-party witness D) Making sure you and your partner get your stories straight before talking to anyone

C) Providing accurate and complete documentation, supported by a third-party witness

Which of the following situations generally allows the EMT to transport a patient with a behavioral emergency against his or her wishes? A) The patient's personal physician gives you permission. B) A family member gives consent and is willing to accompany the patient. C) The patient is a threat to himself or others. D) The patient's insurance company agrees to pay, even though the patient has not given consent.

C) The patient is a threat to himself or others.

What condition must be present before you give oral glucose? A) The patient must not have a history of diabetes. B) The patient, if conscious, must be able to swallow; if unconscious, you can apply the gel to a tongue depressor and place it between the cheek and gum or under the tongue. C) The patient must be conscious and able to swallow with an altered mental status and history of diabetes. D) The patient must be unconscious and have a history of diabetes.

C) The patient must be conscious and able to swallow with an altered mental status and history of diabetes.

You are on the scene of a 16-year-old patient in respiratory distress. The patient has a history of asthma. After placing the patient on oxygen and performing the primary and secondary assessments, you are confident that the patient is indeed having an asthma attack. How can you be sure your field diagnosis is accurate? A) Keep your EMT textbook with you on the ambulance and review it to confirm your diagnosis. B) Ask your partner her opinion; if she also agrees that it is asthma, the diagnosis is correct. C) Think of all possible causes of respiratory distress and rule them in or out as potential diagnoses based on your clinical findings. D) Constantly reassess the patient to make sure you are correct.

C) Think of all possible causes of respiratory distress and rule them in or out as potential diagnoses based on your clinical findings.

What are the names given to each medication listed in the U.S. Pharmacopoeia? A) Official, chemical, and generic B) Manufacturers, general, and governmental C) Trade, chemical, and generic D) Trade, brand, and generic

C) Trade, chemical, and generic

________ is reassessing and recording findings of the reassessment so they can be compared to earlier findings. A) Analysis B) Averaging C) Trending D) CQI

C) Trending

A serious negative interaction for giving Nitrostat is a drug interaction with what medications? A) Nitroglycerin, Ventolin, and epinephrine B) Sildenafil, vardenafil, and epinephrine C) Viagra, Levitra, or medication for erectile dysfunction D) Oral glucose, Viagra, and aspirin

C) Viagra, Levitra, or medication for erectile dysfunction

Your patient called 911 because he was having chest pain. He states that his pain is a 7 on a 10-point scale. As part of your care, you assist him with taking his nitroglycerin per medical direction. After waiting a few minutes for the medication to take effect, you should: A) call medical direction to administer another dose. B) administer another dose of nitroglycerin. C) ask him what his pain is like now. D) lay the head of the stretcher down.

C) ask him what his pain is like now.

Your patient is an 18-year-old female whom you believe may have had a miscarriage and is bleeding heavily. You have completed your primary and secondary assessments and now you need to reassess her to see if the bleeding has stopped. You should: A) wait and let the hospital staff reassess the bleeding. B) take another set of vital signs to see if her blood pressure has dropped. C) in a reassuring tone, explain what you need to do. D) ask her to check herself to see if she is still bleeding.

C) in a reassuring tone, explain what you need to do.

Nitroglycerin is given via the ________ route. A) parenteral B) lingual C) sublingual D) enteral

C) sublingual

You have responded for a patient with shortness of breath. He reports that his breathing problems began this morning and have gotten worse over the last few hours. You ask if he has taken anything to help his symptoms and he tells you that he has used his inhaler several times in the last hour. The information you have just gathered can be classified as: A) part of the SAMPLE history. B) relevant past medical history. C) the history of present illness. D) results of a rapid physical exam.

C) the history of present illness.

Which of the following is NOT a role of the EMT in providing emergency cardiac care? A. Airway management B. Early defibrillation C. Administration of epinephrine D. CPR

C. Administration of epinephrine

You are called to the scene of a patient with influenza. She tells you her symptoms started about 5 days ago and that she began taking antiviral medication 2 days ago. Her symptoms have not improved since taking the medication. What is the most likely reason the medication has been ineffective? A. Antiviral medication is often ineffective because the flu virus is capable of rapidly mutating inside the body. B. Antiviral medications are not effective against the flu because it is caused by bacteria rather than a virus. C. Antiviral medications for the flu must be started within 2 days of symptom onset to be effective. D. Antiviral medications for the flu work against the strains of the virus that are expected to be prevalent that year, and the medication isn't effective against the strain this patient has.

C. Antiviral medications for the flu must be started within 2 days of symptom onset to be effective.

A 37-year-old male was hit by a trolley and his foot was almost severed. It is only connected by some skin and crushed bone. What should you do? A. Because of the seriousness of the injury, wait for ALS before providing any care. B. Complete the amputation. It will make the injury much easier to handle. C. Apply a pressure dressing to control bleeding, stabilize the foot by splinting, apply oxygen, and transport as a priority patient. D. Immediately apply a tourniquet to control bleeding.

C. Apply a pressure dressing to control bleeding, stabilize the foot by splinting, apply oxygen, and transport as a priority patient.

Your patient is a 40-year-old male who has been exposed to a dry chemical powder and is complaining of severe pain on both of his hands, the site of the contact. He is working in an illegal chemical manufacturing plant and there is no decontamination shower on site. Which of the following would be the BEST way to manage this situation? A. Brush away the powder and bandage the hands in a position of function. B. Brush away as much powder as possible and then pour a bottle of sterile saline solution over his hands. C. Brush away as much of the powder as possible and then have the patient hold his hands under running water from a faucet or regular garden hose. D. Have the fire department connect to a hydrant and spray down the patient from head to toe.

C. Brush away as much of the powder as possible and then have the patient hold his hands under running water from a faucet or regular garden hose.

You are dispatched to an industrial plant for a burn. You arrive and find a 60-year-old male who came in contact with a broken steam line and appears to have partial thickness burns on both hands and arms. He is lying on the ground and coworkers are gently spraying him with water from a nearby hose. What should you do? A. Call for air transport and continue to pour water on the burns until transport arrives. B. Because of his age, immediately put him in your ambulance and transport him to a burn center. C. Care for the burn and do a complete patient assessment, including cervical spine precautions. D. Before doing treatment, call the local burn center for instruction.

C. Care for the burn and do a complete patient assessment, including cervical spine precautions

Which intervention is proven to be the most effective is obtaining a return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) in a cardiac arrest patient? A. Combitube B. Early CPR C. Early defibrillation D. High-concentration oxygen by bag-valve mask

C. Early defibrillation

Which of the following BEST describes an avulsion? A. Accumulation of blood beneath the skin, resulting in swelling B. An injury caused by a sharp, pointed object C. Flap of skin that is partially or completely torn away from the underlying tissue D. Epidermis that is scraped away by a rough surface

C. Flap of skin that is partially or completely torn away from the underlying tissue

Which of the following is the most important thing you can do when treating patients during a public crisis related to a newly recognized infectious disease? A. Gather data about patient signs and symptoms and report them to the local health department. B. Tell patients not to worry because new reports exaggerate the severity of these diseases. C. Follow the recommendations of the CDC and your local health department. D. Share information with patients about the prevalence of the disease.

C. Follow the recommendations of the CDC and your local health department.

A burn extending into the subcutaneous fat would be classified as which type of burn? A. Deep partial thickness B. Superficial C. Full thickness D. Superficial partial thickness

C. Full thickness

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding an electrical injury? A. Patients with electrical burns may be treated with the automated external defibrillator (AED) and CPR. B. Treatment of a source burn is the same as for other thermal burns. C. Injury is usually limited to the area around the source and ground burns. D. Patients with burns that appear insignificant are treated as having critical injuries.

C. Injury is usually limited to the area around the source and ground burns.

Which of the following is the beneficial action of nitroglycerin in some cardiac emergencies? A. It constricts the coronary arteries. B. It increases the strength with which the ventricles contract. C. It relaxes blood vessels throughout the body. D. It slows down the heart.

C. It relaxes blood vessels throughout the body.

Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning the proper transport of an avulsed ear? A. It should not be immersed in cooled water or saline. B. It should be kept as cool as possible. C. It should be in a dry sterile dressing. D. It should be labeled with the patient's name, as well as the date and time it was bagged.

C. It should be in a dry sterile dressing.

You arrive on-scene of a 56-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. What is the first airway you should administer? A. Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) B. Combitube C. Oropharyngeal airway D. Pharyngeal-Tracheal Lumen airway

C. Oropharyngeal airway

Which of the following terms refers to swelling of the lower extremities seen in many cardiac patients? A. Presacral swelling B. Congestive heart failure C. Pedal edema D. Crackles

C. Pedal edema

Defibrillation is indicated for which of the following situations? A. Asystole B. Pulseless electrical activity C. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia D. Pulseless bradycardia

C. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia

Which of the following best describes a difference between the systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and the quick sepsis-related organ failure assessment (qSOFA)? A. SIRS relies on the measurement of exhaled carbon dioxide to detect sepsis, whereas qSOFA uses a variety of measures. B. SIRS creates a score based on the number of abnormal findings, whereas qSOFA uses the presence of two or more specific criteria. C. SIRS is used to predict the likelihood a patient will develop sepsis, whereas qSOFA is used to predict the likelihood of patient death from sepsis. D. SIRS is more commonly used in the intensive care setting, whereas qSOFA is more commonly used in field assessments.

C. SIRS is used to predict the likelihood a patient will develop sepsis, whereas qSOFA is used to predict the likelihood of patient death from sepsis.

Which of the following is recommended when caring for an amputated part? A. Rinse away debris with saline solution and place the part in a container of ice. B. Always transport the amputated part with the patient. C. Seal the part in a plastic bag and place it in a pan of water cooled by an ice pack. D. Wrap the part in aluminum foil to preserve body temperature.

C. Seal the part in a plastic bag and place it in a pan of water cooled by an ice pack.

While transporting a patient to the hospital, the EMT repeats his reassessment including vital signs every 15 minutes until he arrives at the emergency department. According to this information, which of the following best describes your patient's current status? A. Not enough information was given to answer this question. B. Unstable C. Stable D. Poor

C. Stable

You have been called to the scene of a single vehicle crash. The victim lost control of the vehicle on an icy road and hit a tree. He shows signs of facial injury with bleeding, but is conscious and aware of his surroundings. Before you begin providing care to him, he tells you that he has HIV and is currently taking medication that has helped suppress his viral load. Based on this information, which of the following actions should you take? A. Provide care without using precautions because his viral load is suppressed. B. Call medical direction and ask how you should proceed. C. Take Standard Precautions while providing care for the patient. D. Avoid direct contact with the patient but provide him with dressings he can apply himself.

C. Take Standard Precautions while providing care for the patient.

Which of the following statements about sepsis is true? A. Treatment of sepsis has changed and improved over time, but the definition of the condition has remained relatively unchanged. B. Patients who use urinary catheters are at a decreased risk of sepsis because catheter use makes it harder for microbes to enter the urinary tract. C. The exact pathway for the development of sepsis remains unclear, and most cases do not have a clearly defined source. D. Infections of the lungs commonly lead to sepsis, but sepsis is not typically associated with cases of pneumonia.

C. The exact pathway for the development of sepsis remains unclear, and most cases do not have a clearly defined source.

Which of the following statements concerning heart attacks and cardiac arrest is NOT true? A. Many patients may mistake their symptoms for other causes such as indigestion. B. Some patients who have heart attacks live active and healthy lifestyles. C. The most common initial rhythm in sudden cardiac death is asystole. D. Heart attacks present differently among women and men.

C. The most common initial rhythm in sudden cardiac death is asystole.

You are examining a 48-year-old patient who has been burned. You decide to use the rule of palm to measure the extent of the burn. What does this mean? A. The palm of the patient's hand equals 9% of the body's surface area. B. You can only use the rule of palm for children, so you would use the rule of nines instead. C. The palm of the patient's hand equals about 1% of the body's surface area. D. The palm of your hand represents 1% of the body's surface area.

C. The palm of the patient's hand equals about 1% of the body's surface area.

In which of the following situations would the administration of aspirin to a cardiac patient be prohibited? A. The patient feels dizzy. B. The patient does not currently take aspirin. C. The patient has a history of asthma. D. The patient has a diastolic blood pressure greater than 90 mmHg.

C. The patient has a history of asthma.

Which of the following is NOT a reason that an AED may indicate that there is "no shock advised?" A. The patient has organized electrical activity in the heart but no pulse. B. The patient's heart has no electrical activity; he is "flat line," or in asystole. C. The patient is in ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. D. The patient's heart rhythm is normal.

C. The patient is in ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia.

Which of the following is the EMT's role in caring for a patient with chest pain? A. Make an interpretation of the patient's cardiac rhythm. B. Provide automatic external defibrillation. C. Treat the patient as though he were having a heart attack. D. Determine the cause of the patient's chest pain.

C. Treat the patient as though he were having a heart attack.

You are caring for a 23-year-old female who fell off of a bicycle and sustained a severe laceration on the inside of her upper thigh. Her slacks are torn, and you can see most of the wound. What is the next step? A. You need to make sure the wound is very clean before trying to control bleeding by exposing the wound completely and cleaning it with alcohol. B. You can treat the wound without total exposure as exposing a wound in that area of the body could be embarrassing. C. You need to expose the wound completely, control bleeding, clean the surface by simply removing large pieces of foreign matter if any, and dress and bandage the wound. D. You need to expose the wound completely because you need to clear away any embedded particles and debris from the wound.

C. You need to expose the wound completely, control bleeding, clean the surface by simply removing large pieces of foreign matter if any, and dress and bandage the wound.

You are called to an injured person to find a 27-year-old male with a laceration on his anterior forearm. Bleeding is dark red, steady, and fast. You should FIRST: A. remove the saturated dressings and apply a large trauma dressing. B. apply an ice pack over the original dressing. C. apply additional dressing material over the top of the original dressing and bandage it in place. D. apply a tourniquet.

C. apply additional dressing material over the top of the original dressing and bandage it in place.

When using the rule of palm to estimate the approximate body surface area burned, the patient's palm equals about what percentage of the body's surface area (BSA)? A. 5% B. 3% C. 1% D. 2%

C. 1%

Which of the following BEST describes an appropriate shock sequence for the patient in pulseless VT? A. Shock, pulse check, shock, pulse check, shock, pulse check B. Shock, shock, shock, shock C. Shock, 2 minutes of CPR, analyze, shock again D. Shock, shock, shock, pulse check, 2 minutes of CPR, shock, shock, shock

C. Shock, 2 minutes of CPR, analyze, shock again

EMTs arrive at the scene of a cardiac arrest to see a police officer beginning to defibrillate the patient. At what point should the EMTs take over? A. Only if the EMTs feel the police office is incompetent to administer the AED correctly B. After a "no shock indicated" message is received but otherwise not until the patient is resuscitated C. After the shock is delivered or a "no shock indicated" message is received D. Immediately, even if interrupting the police office in the middle of shocking the patient

C. After the shock is delivered or a "no shock indicated" message is received

Which of the following issues is considered a mechanical failure of the heart that may lead to cardiac arrest? A. Asystole B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Aortic valve stenosis D. Agonal breathing

C. Aortic valve stenosis

You are the first on the scene of a 72-year-old patient in cardiac arrest. You have your medical supply kit, oxygen, and an AED. At least 4 to 5 minutes of high-quality CPR has been provided by the police officer who arrived before you. You have confirmed an open airway, apnea, and pulselessness. Which of the following should you do next? A. Perform bag-valve mask ventilations with supplemental oxygen for 30 seconds before applying the defibrillator pads. B. Perform one-rescuer CPR until additional personnel arrive. C. Apply the defibrillator pads and shock as indicated. D. Contact medical direction before taking any action.

C. Apply the defibrillator pads and shock as indicated.

Which of the following would not be corrected by defibrillation? A. Ventricular fibrillation B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Asystole D. Dysrhythmia

C. Asystole

Which of the following patients should have an automated external defibrillator applied? A. A 6-month-old in severe respiratory distress B. A 67-year-old man with severe, crushing chest pain that is not relieved by nitroglycerin C. A 19-year-old college athlete who collapsed during football practice and is pulseless and apneic D. A 40-year-old female in cardiac arrest due to chest injuries sustained in a motor vehicle crash

C. A 19-year-old college athlete who collapsed during football practice and is pulseless and apneic

You are on the scene of a 65-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. CPR is in progress and the AED has been applied. The AED does not advise shock. What is your next intervention? A. Replace the malfunctioning AED. B. Stop CPR and place the patient in the recovery position. C. Continue CPR. D. Insert a Combitube.

C. Continue CPR.

Your patient is a 23-year-old male with a stab wound to the abdomen. You have bandaged the wound and are transporting the patient to a trauma center. During your reassessment, you note that the bandage has become soaked with blood. What should your priority be with this patient? A. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position. B. Notify the receiving facility that the patient has developed arterial bleeding. C. Control the bleeding. D. Check the patient's blood pressure.

C. Control the bleeding.

You encounter a patient who has been having diffuse abdominal pain for one week. The patient has a pulse rate of 86, a blood pressure of 140/90, and a respiratory rate of 20. However, the patient appears pale, and complains of generalized weakness and shortness of breath during everyday activities. You suspect the patient is experiencing: A. acute anemia B. sickle cell anemia C. chronic anemia D. anxiety disorder

C. chronic anemia

When using an AED, which of the following people is responsible for calling to "clear" the patient before delivering a shock? A. EMT managing the airway B. EMT supervising bystanders C. EMT operating the defibrillator D. EMT doing chest compressions

C. EMT operating the defibrillator

What of the following is the single most important factor in determining survival from cardiac arrest? A. Rapid transport B. Immediate recognition C. Early CPR D. Effective ALS

C. Early CPR

Which of the following will provide a cardiac arrest patient the greatest chance of survival? A. Advanced airway management B. Early advanced cardiac life support C. Early defibrillation D. Rapid transport

C. Early defibrillation

Which of the following would not be considered an element of post-arrest care? A. Ensuring proper airway positioning B. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG C. Early defibrillation D. Maintaining adequate oxygenation

C. Early defibrillation

You are transporting a 30-year-old male who has been shot in the chest. He is suffering from a sucking chest wound and has a decreased level of consciousness. How often should you perform a reassessment? A. Every 15 minutes B. Every 30 minutes C. Every 5 minutes D. Every 10 minutes

C. Every 5 minutes

What determines which authorities may issue a valid "cease resuscitation" order? A. Medical direction B. Your standard of care C. Local protocols D. Federal law

C. Local protocols

All of the following are elements of adult high-performance CPR, EXCEPT: A. maintaining a 2:30 ratio of ventilations to compressions. B. placing the heel of one hand on the center of the victim's chest. C. compressing the patient's chest to no more than 1 inch in depth before allowing full relaxation. D. compression rate of at least 100 per minute.

C. compressing the patient's chest to no more than 1 inch in depth before allowing full relaxation.

You are called to the scene of a 13-year-old male with a fever and cough. Upon assessment, you note a red blotch rash on the face and trunk, and small bluish-white spots on the inside of the cheeks. Based on this presentation, the patient likely has: A. shingles. B. chickenpox. C. measles. D. hepatitis A.

C. Measles.

Which of the following should be placed in quotes in the patient care report?

Chief complaint

Which of the following BEST describes the continued need for prehospital advanced cardiac life support, even when EMTs in the community carry AEDs? A. The patient may need medications to support his cardiac rhythm and blood pressure prior to attempting defibrillation. B. Before attempting defibrillation, it may be necessary to obtain a 12-lead ECG on the patient. C. Not all cardiac arrests are due to problems that respond to defibrillation. D. All of the above

C. Not all cardiac arrests are due to problems that respond to defibrillation.

What does ventricular fibrillation do? A. Forces the heartbeat to become quite rapid B. Initiates commotio cordis C. Prevents the heart muscle from contracting normally D. Causes asphyxial cardiac arrest

C. Prevents the heart muscle from contracting normally

Certain drugs are commonly referred as "blood thinners" or drugs that inhibit clotting. Which of the following would NOT be considered such a drug? A. Lovenox (enoxaparin) B. Aspirin C. Prilosec D. Coumadin (warfarin)

C. Prilosec

Which of the following pathologies make patients at high risk for acute renal failure? A. Uncontrolled diabetes B. Polycystic kidney disease C. Shock D. Hypertension

C. Shock

Which of the following BEST describes an appropriate shock sequence for the patient in ventricular tachycardia? A. Shock, shock, shock, shock B. Shock, pulse check, shock, pulse check, shock, pulse check C. Shock, 2 minutes of CPR, reanalyze, shock again if indicated D. Shock, shock, shock, pulse check, 2 minutes of CPR, shock, shock, shock

C. Shock, 2 minutes of CPR, reanalyze, shock again if indicated

Once an EMT has begun resuscitative efforts, when may the EMT cease those efforts? A. The EMT's partner gives the order to cease. B. No other rescuer is available to relieve the EMT. C. Spontaneous circulation and breathing occur. D. The patient has no pulse after 1 minute.

C. Spontaneous circulation and breathing occur.

Which of the following is NOT a reason that an AED may indicate that there is "no shock advised"? A. The patient's heart has no electrical activity; he is "flat line," or in asystole. B. The patient's heart rhythm is normal. C. The patient is in ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia. D. The patient has organized electrical activity in the heart but no pulse.

C. The patient is in ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia.

You are responding to a 54-year-old female patient in respiratory distress. The patient is on home oxygen by nasal cannula at 1 lpm. The patient has diminished lung sounds bilaterally with wheezes. She appears malnourished and has a barrel chest. What condition do you suspect? Bronchitis Asthma Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease Congestive heart failure

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Which of the following is the primary cause of COPD? Air pollution Congenital diseases Infection Cigarette smoking

Cigarette smoking

Your patient's initial vital signs were a pulse of 120 per minute and weak, a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 24 per minute. Upon reassessment, you note that the patient now has a weak pulse of 100 per minute, a blood pressure of 110/60 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 20 per minute. Which of the following can you conclude from this information? A. You can transport the patient to a lower level trauma center. B. The baseline vital signs were inaccurate. C. The patient's condition may be improving. D. The patient will survive.

C. The patient's condition may be improving.

In which of the following dysrhythmias would it be most important to apply and engage an automatic external defibrillator? A. Pulseless electrical activity B. Asystole C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Atrial tachycardia

C. Ventricular tachycardia

You are preparing a patient in cardiac arrest for an AED when you palpate a small lump below the patient's right clavicle. How should this modify your placement of the AED? A. Place the AED pads over the patient's abdomen. B. Place the AED as you would for any patient. C. While placing the pads in the general area you need them, keep them several inches away from the lump. D. Do not place the AED but transport the patient immediately.

C. While placing the pads in the general area you need them, keep them several inches away from the lump.

Your patient called 911 because he was having chest pain. He states that his pain is a 7 on a 10-point scale. As part of your care, you assist him with taking his nitroglycerin per medical direction. After waiting a few minutes for the medication to take effect, you should: A. call medical direction to administer another dose. B. lay the head of the stretcher down. C. ask him what his pain is like now. D. administer another dose of nitroglycerin.

C. ask him what his pain is like now.

For both the Lucas and Zoll AutoPulse CPR devices, you would take Standard Precautions and: A. close the Lifeband over the patient's chest. B. apply the stabilization strap. C. ensure CPR is in progress and effective. D. position the pressure pad so that it touches the chest.

C. ensure CPR is in progress and effective.

Determining a patient's stability: A. is entirely dependent on taking the patient's vital signs. B. is primarily a question of determining the mechanism of injury. C. helps indicate the frequency with which the patient must be reassessed. D. is unnecessary for responsive patients.

C. helps indicate the frequency with which the patient must be reassessed.

Your patient is an 18-year-old female whom you believe may have had a miscarriage and is bleeding heavily. You have completed your primary and secondary assessments and now you need to reassess her to see if the bleeding has stopped. You should: A. take another set of vital signs to see if her blood pressure has dropped. B. wait and let the hospital staff reassess the bleeding. C. in a reassuring tone, explain what you need to do. D. ask her to check herself to see if she is still bleeding.

C. in a reassuring tone, explain what you need to do.

You have just used an AED to deliver a shock to your cardiac arrest patient. You should immediately: A. begin artificial ventilations. B. reanalyze with the AED. C. resume chest compressions. D. check a carotid pulse.

C. resume chest compressions.

You are dispatched to a private residence for a 52-year-old African American male sitting in his living room complaining of chest pain. During your assessment, he discloses that he has the sickle cell trait. Because of this you should: A. be prepared to treat for shock if he also has a high fever B. monitor for signs of inadequate respiration C. treat the patient as any other 52-year-old with chest pain D. administer high-concentration oxygen

C. treat the patient as any other 52-year-old with chest pain

You are on the scene of a 5-year-old patient who is in respiratory distress. The mother states that the patient has been making a "seal bark"-sounding cough for the past 24 hours. The child is very scared. The patient has stable vital signs. He is leaning forward in the tripod position and is drooling profusely. After performing your primary assessment, what is your best treatment option? Provide high-concentration oxygen and have the parent hold it to the patient's face. Provide oxygen by nasal cannula. Use a tongue depressor to examine the patient's mouth to determine whether the patient has strep throat or croup. Calm the child as much as possible and provide oxygen by blow-by.

Calm the child as much as possible and provide oxygen by blow-by.

A patient being transported by ambulance to the hospital can have his blood pressure measured by which of the following methods? A. Palpation B. Auscultation C. Blood pressure monitor D. Any of the above

In which of the following vessels does the vital exchange take place and also has the thinnest walls through which oxygen, nutrients, and wastes can pass? Answer Capillaries Microvenules Arterioles Veins

Capillaries

Which of the following is the result of histamine and other chemicals in the body during anaphylaxis?

Capillaries become leaky, bronchoconstriction occurs, and swelling appears in areas around the vocal cords.

External bleeding may be classified according to types. Which one of the following is one of those types?

Capillary bleeding

Carbon dioxide is transported back to the lungs in two ways: via the red blood cells and: A. white blood cells. B. plasma. C. oncotic pressure. D. hydrostatic pressure.

It is a chilly fall morning and you are called to an RV campground for three patients who are complaining of headache, dizziness, and nausea. Your primary assessment reveals that they are cyanotic and have an altered mental status. You suspect:

Carbon monoxide poisoning.

Which of the following is the cause of the black residue found in a patient's mouth and nose following smoke inhalation?

Carbon.

Which of the following does NOT commonly lead to anaphylaxis?

Cat dander

Which of the following distinguishes irreversible shock from other stages of shock? Answer Cell damage and death in the vital organs Altered mental status Delayed capillary refill time Low blood pressure

Cell damage and death in the vital organs

Which of the following is true regarding cell phones and their use in an EMS system?

Cell phones do not always provide dependable coverage areas for EMS systems.

Cells make up tissues, tissues make up organs, and organs make up: A. systems. B. organelles. C. groups. D. sections.

Which of the following is the immediate toxic effect of alcohol?

Central nervous system depression

resource management

Centralized coordination of emergency medical access, transportation, and care most refers to which of the following?

Certain blood vessels that contain specialized sensors that detect the level of internal pressure and transmit messages to the nervous system, which then triggers the smooth muscle in the vessel walls to make any needed size adjustments, are called: A. pressure receptors. B. volume receptors. C. chemoreceptors. D. stretch receptors.

A painter falls from his ladder and tells you he has dislocated his shoulder again. When you attempt to splint the shoulder, it "pops back into place." What should your next step be?

Check distal CSM, apply a sling and swathe, and transport the patient.

Your patient is an 11-year-old male who has a swollen, painful, and angulated right lower arm after falling from his bicycle onto his hands. Which of the following should be considered in the immobilization of his injured extremity?

Check pulse, movement, and sensation distal to the injury before and after splinting

Which of the following is LEAST often seen in carbon monoxide poisoning?

Cherry red lips

Which of the following information on a patient care report is NOT considered run data?

Chief complaint

One of the more serious conditions that EMTs are confronted with would occur as follows: A fracture or crush injury causes bleeding and swelling within the extremity. Pressure and swelling caused by the bleeding within the muscle compartment become so great that the body can no longer perfuse the tissues against the pressure. Cellular damage occurs and causes additional swelling. Blood flow to the area is lost. The limb itself may be lost if the pressure is not relieved. What is this condition called?

Compartment syndrome

Which of the following will worsen the condition of the patient in shock? Answer Applying high-concentration oxygen when it is not needed Elevating the patient's legs 8 to 10 inches Conducting oneself in a manner that increases the patient's fear and anxiety Transporting without first splinting all extremity fractures

Conducting oneself in a manner that increases the patient's fear and anxiety

You are on the scene of a 30-year-old male patient who is unresponsive. You suspect the patient is suffering from a severe anaphylactic reaction. The patient is unresponsive with agonal respirations at 6 per minute. You insert an oral airway and administer oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask. You notice that it is difficult to bag the patient. Your partner listens to lung sounds and states they are diminished in the upper fields and absent in the lower fields. After administering epinephrine per medical control via an auto-injector, your partner reassesses the lung sounds. He tells you that she is now wheezing loudly in all fields. What is the next action you should perform?

Contact medical control and request to administer another dose of epinephrine.

Your patient is a 45-year-old female who is allergic to sesame seeds, which she accidentally ingested when she ate a deli sandwich. She is having difficulty breathing, and she has hives, watery eyes, a weak pulse of 120 per minute, and swelling of the face and tongue. Which of the following is the BEST course of immediate action?

Contact medical control for orders to administer the patient's epinephrine auto-injector.

Your patient has a history of severe anaphylaxis and carries several auto-injectors. You have administered one of the auto-injectors, but the patient's condition continues to worsen. Which of the following is the next best course of action?

Contact medical control.

Your patient is a 17-year-old male who is spitting and coughing after swallowing some gasoline while siphoning from a gas tank. Which of the following should you do first?

Contact medical control.

You are managing a patient who has been stung by a bee and has had an allergic reaction to bee stings in the past. The patient has some localized redness and swelling in the area of the bee sting but is not having difficulty breathing. Of the following, which would be performed first for this patient?

Continue the focused assessment.

Drugs that are "blood thinners" (inhibit certain clotting factors)?

Coumadin (warfarin) Pradaxa (dabigatran) Eliquis (apixaban) Xareltro (rivaroxaban) Lovenox (enoxaparin

are now less common than they once were.

Critical Incident Stress Debriefings (CISDs):

Which of the following is NOT a sign of difficulty breathing? Inability to speak full sentences Coughing Decreased level of consciousness Curling up in the fetal position

Curling up in the fetal position

A nonrebreather mask at 12 to 15 liters per minute will generally provide the patient what percentage of oxygen? A. 16-21 B. 90-100 C. 24-44 D. 80-100

Cold is sometimes used to help control bleeding. When using cold, the following guidelines and statements are true except: A. it will reduce pain. B. it should not be used alone but rather in conjunction with other manual techniques. C. it should not be left in place for more than 20 minutes. D. it should be applied directly to the skin; it will not be effective if anything is between the cold agent and the wound.

During the primary assessment of a responsive adult patient, where should the pulse be checked? A. At the brachial artery B. At the femoral artery C. At the carotid artery D. At the radial artery

For the reticular activating system to work correctly, what three substances are needed? a. Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, insulin to nourish brain tissue, and sodium to keep the brain hydrated b. Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, insulin to nourish brain tissue, and water to keep the brain hydrated c. Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, glucose to nourish brain tissue, and sodium to keep the brain hydrated d. Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, glucose to nourish brain tissue, and water to keep the brain hydrated

For which of the following reasons are newborns, infants, and the elderly more readily affected by the heat than other age groups? a. Faster metabolism b. Increased body mass c. Inadequate salt intake d. Poor ability to regulate body temperature

Hemodialysis is used to help the kidneys filter ________ and remove excess ________. A. electrolytes; hormones B. urine; poisons C. blood; cholesterol D. toxins; fluids

How often should a patient's vital signs be reassessed during transport to the hospital after he has had his pulse restored with CPR and the use of an AED? A. Every 10 minutes B. Every 2 minutes C. Every 15 minutes D. Every 5 minutes

If you do not have a commercial tourniquet available, what common device found on the ambulance can be used as a substitute? A. Ice packs tied in place with triangle bandage B. Use a rope tie-down to make a tourniquet C. Air or vacuum splint D. Blood pressure cuff

In a hypothermic patient the coldest blood is found in what part of the patient's body? a. Intestines b. Heart and lungs c. Head d. Extremities

In cases of extreme hypothermia, you will find the patient unconscious, with no discernible vital signs, and skin cold to your touch with stiff joints as if they appear dead. What is the emergency care for these patients? a. Contact medical control for input into the best treatment for this patient. b. Call the coroner as indications are the patient is cold and deceased, which is a definitive sign of death. c. Check distal CSM, apply warming packs to the extremities, and transport the patient. d. Assess the carotid pulse for 30 to 45 seconds; if there is no pulse, start CPR immediately and prepare to apply the AED

Limiting time spent at a scene can be especially important if the mechanism of injury suggests that the patient could go into shock. In order to keep the time at the scene to a minimum, which of the following assessments or treatments should not be performed on the scene? A. Rapid trauma exam B. Immobilization C. ABCs with spinal precautions D. Splinting swollen extremities

Looking at the list below, which of the items does not correctly compare the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia? a. Hyperglycemia usually has a slower onset than hypoglycemia. b. Hyperglycemic patients often have warm, red, dry skin, whereas hypoglycemic patients have cold, pale, moist, or clammy skin. c. The hyperglycemic patient often has acetone breath, whereas the hypoglycemic patient does not. d. The hypoglycemic patient is usually complaining of a headache, whereas the hyperglycemic patient is not.

Many diabetics today have an insulin pump. Which of the following statements about insulin pumps is not true? a. They are about the size of an MP3 player or a pager. b. They are usually worn on the belt. c. They have a catheter that enters into the abdomen. d. They are usually worn around the ankle.

Normal consciousness is regulated by a series of neurologic circuits in the brain that comprise the reticular activating system (RAS). The RAS has simple requirements to function properly. Which one of the items below is not one of those requirements? a. Oxygen b. Glucose c. Water d. Blood

Organs of the right upper quadrant include: A. small intestine, stomach, and spleen. B. pancreas, spleen, and part of the liver. C. most of the liver, spleen, and gallbladder. D. most of the liver, gallbladder, and part of the large intestine.

Pain felt in the epigastric region of the abdomen is of concern because of the possibility of which of the following? A. Kidney stones B. Extreme diarrhea with dehydration C. Influenza D. Myocardial infarction

Pain that the patient feels in a body part or area of the body that has nothing to do with a diseased organ is termed: A. abdominal pain. B. retroperitoneal pain. C. epigastric pain. D. referred pain.

Patients with a history of chronic anemia may present with which of the following signs and symptoms? A. Bluish discoloration of the skin and shortness of breath B. Yellowing of the skin and dyspnea on exertion C. Flushed appearance and shortness of breath D. Pale appearance and dyspnea on exertion

Recording and documenting your patient's first set of vital signs is very important because, when combined with reassessments, it allows you to do which of the following? A. Make an accurate diagnosis of the patient's illness. B. Compare your patient's condition with other patients' conditions. C. Fill in all of the blanks on the patient care report form. D. Discover trends and changes in the patient's condition.

Reducing the pain of a marine animal sting can be accomplished by rinsing the affected area with which of the following? a. Sterile saline solution b. Gasoline or kerosene c. Cold water d. Vinegar

The blood has many functions critical to a patient's health. Which one of the listed items below is not a function of the blood? A. Control of bleeding by clotting B. Delivery of oxygen to the cells C. Removal and delivery of other waste products to organs that provide filtration and removal, such as the kidneys and liver D. Removal of carbon monoxide from the cells

To determine blood pressure, the EMT should position the cuff over the upper arm and place the stethoscope over the brachial artery. Next, she should inflate the cuff, then slowly deflate the cuff, listening for clicks or tapping sounds while remembering the number at the first sound. What is the next step in taking a blood pressure? A. Re-inflate the cuff on the patient's arm and repeat the process to verify the reading. B. Dump all the pressure and record the number as the diastolic pressure. C. Remove the cuff from the patient's arm, place it on the opposite arm, and repeat the process to verify the reading. D. Continue releasing pressure until the clicks or tapping stop, and record both numbers. These are the blood pressure.

Two chronic medical conditions that dialysis patients frequently have in addition to kidney failure are _________ and _________. A. blood clots; COPD B. high cholesterol; cerebral aneurysms C. heart failure; stroke D. hypertension; diabetes

What BEST defines the immediate sense of the patient's degree of distress, formulated from the patient's immediate environment, appearance, and chief complaint? A. Scene size-up B. Secondary assessment C. Primary assessment D. General impression

What are the three items that make up the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale? a. Ask the patient to smile, hold his arms out straight in front of him with his eyes closed, and ask him to say the alphabet backward. b. Ask the patient to look up, hold his arms straight out by his side with his eyes closed, and ask him to repeat a sentence to see if he can remember it. c. Ask the patient to smile. tilt his head back with his eyes closed, and ask him to say a sentence such as, " The sky is blue in Cincinnati." to see if he can say Cincinnati. d. Ask the patient to smile, hold his arms straight out in front of him with his eyes closed, and ask him to say a sentence to see if it is clear.

What criteria based on the CDC guidelines allows a discretionary approach to trauma triage? For example, a patient not meeting ordinary trauma triage criteria may be transported to a trauma center based on what consideration? a. Review of morbidity and mortality b. The CDC "No-protocol Protocol" c. "Golden Hour" criteria d. EMS provider judgment

What is the BEST option an EMT has when encountering poor BVM compliance when attempting to ventilate a patient? a. Begin chest compressions. b. Place the patient on supplemental oxygen. c. Address ventilation en route to the hospital or ALS intercept. d. Involve two people in the procedure

What is the most important intervention an EMT can perform for an unstable multisystem trauma patient? a. Oxygen b. Airway management c. Cervical spine precautions d. Rapid transport

What is the percentage of oxygen provided by connecting a high flow of oxygen to the oxygen inlet found on a pocket mask? A. 21% B. 16% C. 100% D. 50%

What is the relatively rare condition that can cause respiratory depression? A. Lungs can react unfavorably to oxygen when the concentration is too high for a long period of time and this can depress breathing. B. High concentration of oxygen can depress breathing when the patient has an allergic reaction from the oxygen. C. The eyes can develop scar tissue on the retina from a high concentration of oxygen. D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has changed the stimulus to breathe to the hypoxic drive and high concentration can depress breathing.

When does respiratory distress change to respiratory failure? A. When the compensatory mechanism is no longer needed and the patient goes into arrest. B. When the respiratory challenge continues, the systems fail with the demand for oxygen, pupils dilate, and the skin becomes hot and dry. C. When the patient who is short of breath, with noisy respiration, presents in the tripod position but then suddenly has the condition clear up and return to normal. D. When the respiratory challenge continues, the systems cannot keep up with the demand, and skin color and mental status change.

When resuscitating a hypothermic patient in cardiac arrest, resuscitation attempts must continue until the patient has: a. been ventilated for at least 30 minutes with an oropharyngeal airway in place. b. developed rigor mortis. c. been defibrillated a total of nine times. d. been rewarmed.

When someone is experiencing hypoglycemia, the body attempts to compensate by using the fight-orflight mechanism of the autonomic nervous system. Which one of the statements below is not one of the fight-or-flight responses? a. Blood vessels constrict. b. The heart pumps faster. c. Breathing accelerates. d. The skin is hot and dry.

When the body is in water, how many times faster does it lose heat than when it is in still air? a. 2 b. 100 c. 10 d. 25

Where do baseline vital signs fit into the sequence of patient assessment? A. Ongoing assessment B. At the patient's side C. At primary assessment D. At secondary assessment

Where should the EMT assess for injury when caring for a patient who had a two-story fall and landed square on his feet? A. Patient's lower back B. Patient's femur C. Patient's ankles D. All of the above

Which of the following BEST describes an EMS provider's "sixth sense"? A. Scene safety B. Diagnostic ability C. General impression D. Clinical judgment

Which of the following BEST describes status epilepticus? a. A seizure involving convulsions on only one side of the body b. A seizure that occurs without a known cause c. A period of drowsiness following tonic-clonic seizures d. Two or more seizures with tonic-clonic activity without an intervening period of consciousness

Which of the following BEST describes the delivery of oxygen and nutrients at the body's cellular level? A. Osmosis B. Hydrostatic pressure C. Circulation D. Perfusion

Which of the following BEST describes the function of blood? A. It clots, flows, transports, protects, and excretes on a daily basis. B. It is a life-giving liquid that supports all the body's functions to maintain hypoperfusion. C. It flows from the heart with the vital gases and nutrients to maintain lack of perfusion. D. It transports gases along with nutrients, aids in excretion, and provides protection and regulation.

You are called to a nursing home for an 85yearold patient complaining of abdominal pain. The patient has a history of dementia and cannot describe the pain to you. The nurse states the patient has been vomiting dark coffee ground emesis for about an hour. His blood pressure is 90/40, pulse 100, and respiratory rate of 24. Why should the EMT use an oxygen mask with caution? A. The patient may hyperventilate. B. The oxygen will cause the patient to start vomiting again. C. The patient may go unresponsive. D. The patient cannot clear any additional emesis.

You are called to care for a child who has fallen out of a third-story window. You arrive to find the child in his mother's arms. As you approach, you notice the child's skin is pale with dark spots of cyanosis. You would report this uncommon condition of blotchy skin as: A. flushed. B. jaundiced. C. cyanotic. D. mottling.

You are dispatched to a local bar for the report of an unresponsive female patient found in the bathroom. As you approach the scene, you notice a large crowd outside the front door holding beer bottles. The group has pulled the patient outside. As you approach the scene, people from the group start yelling, "Do something! She's not breathing." What concerns you the most about this scene? A. The crowd stating the patient is not breathing B. The fact that the patient has been moved from where she was found C. The possibility that the patient may be intoxicated D. The large crowd that has been drinking and is now yelling at you

You are dispatched to a multiple vehicle collision on a busy Interstate highway. Your crew identifies a critical patient entrapped in a small sedan with significant intrusion into the occupant area on the front and left side. One of your crew members, dressed in fully protective gear, volunteers to enter the vehicle to begin assessment and treatment. Given that access to the patient is limited, you tell him to concentrate on assessing which of the following parts of the patient's body? a. Head, posterior torso, and lower extremities b. Head, chest, and upper extremities c. Torso, pelvis, and lower extremities d. Head, chest, and torso

You are dispatched to a private residence for a 52-year-old African American male sitting in his living room complaining of chest pain. During your assessment, he discloses that he has the sickle cell trait. Because of this you should: A. administer high-concentration oxygen B. monitor for signs of inadequate respiration C. be prepared to treat for shock if he also has a high fever D. treat the patient as any other 52-year-old with chest pain

You are enjoying some time at the beach on your day off when you hear a swimmer crying for help. As you spot the swimmer about 30 feet from shore, she cries out again but appears to be getting weaker. Although there is no lifeguard on duty, there is a rowboat and a ring buoy available. Assuming you do NOT know how to swim or consider yourself a poor swimmer, which of the following should you do first? a. Row the boat out to the swimmer. b. Use the buoy to float out to the swimmer. c. Find someone who can swim to try to swim out and save the swimmer. d. Call for help and try to throw the buoy to the swimmer

You are on the scene of a 50-year-old male who lacerated his arm on a sheet of plate glass. He is pale, diaphoretic, and mumbling incoherently. You have controlled an arterial bleed with direct pressure. His blood pressure is 76/p, pulse 120, and respiratory rate of 28. Which of the following signs is the most concerning? a. The tachycardia b. The altered mental status c. The respiratory rate d. The blood pressure

You are on the scene of a tanker truck versus passenger vehicle collision on a rural highway. The vehicles are just beyond a curve in the roadway and there is a distinct odor of diesel fuel. It is dark and there is little traffic. Which of the following should be used to alert oncoming traffic to the situation? A. Yellow crime scene tape B. Flares C. Flashing lights on the ambulance D. Reflective triangles

You are the first on the scene of a two-car vehicle collision. Your patient is a front passenger who is unresponsive inside the vehicle. The patient is trapped and the vehicle is on fire. The fire department is still en route. You should: a. perform an emergency move. b. perform an urgent move. c. use your fire extinguisher to put out the fire. d. have the fire department rescue the patient.

You arrive on the scene and find an unresponsive homeless man lying in the alleyway clutching a wine bottle. He is wearing a long-sleeved shirt, but does not have pants on. His skin feels cold to the touch. The week's temperatures have not been above 50°F. Which of the following should you do immediately after ensuring the patient has an adequate airway? a. Apply the AED. b. Provide manual stabilization of the cervical spine. c. Begin passive rewarming. d. Check the pulse.

You arrive on the scene to find an approximately 60 year old male patient writhing on the floor. He is complaining of a tearing pain radiating to his lower back. He has absent femoral pulses and has a pulsatile mass just superior to his umbilicus. You suspect which of the following conditions? A. Ruptured appendix B. Myocardial infarction C. Acute pancreatitis D. Abdominal aortic aneurysm

You encounter an accident on a busy intercity street while on duty. Calling into dispatch, you make note that the occupants of both vehicles are outside, and request additional units to proceed nonemergently. You approach an elderly male who is rubbing his back and left shoulder. During secondary assessment of past medical history, you make note of several important details: The patient is on high blood pressure medications, and has had a heart attack in the past. He is complaining of midline thoracic pain on palpation of his spine and left shoulder pain, which may have been from the seat belt, but is refusing care and transport. The patient did not lose consciousness. Based on this information, which transport decision would be most appropriate for this patient? a. Take the patient to a trauma center. b. Allow the patient to sign a refusal. c. Call for ALS intercept. d. Take the patient to a local community hospital.

You have arrived on the scene of a call for a possible stroke. On your arrival, the patient denies signs and symptoms, is alert and oriented, and moves all extremities well. Her husband states that before you arrived the patient could not move her right arm and the left side of her face seemed to be "slack." Which of the following has most likely occurred? a. The patient suffered a cerebral vascular accident. b. The patient is suffering from aphasia. c. The patient has had a subarachnoid hemorrhage. d. The patient suffered a transient ischemic attack.

You have just arrived on the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a compact car was struck from behind by a delivery truck. The driver of the delivery truck is standing outside his vehicle talking to police when you arrive, but the driver of the car is still seated in the driver's seat. You have noted moderate damage to the rear of the car. For which of the following injuries should you have the highest level of suspicion? A. Fractures of the lower extremities B. Chest injury C. Abdominal injuries D. Neck injury

You have responded to a local pool for a drowning patient. Lifeguards have pulled the patient out of the pool prior to your arrival. You find the 16-year-old patient unresponsive with agonal respirations and a weak carotid pulse. What is your first action? a. Apply high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask. b. Apply high-concentration oxygen by bag-valve mask. c. Insert a Combitube. d. Insert an oropharyngeal airway.

You respond to a 48yearold female having a syncopal episode in the bathroom. You find the patient sitting on the commode vomiting into the trash can. The vomitus appears to look like coffee grounds and has a foul smell. The patient is pale and has been weak for the past few days. She has: A. peritonitis. B. abdominal aortic aneurysm. C. hernia. D. GI bleeding.

You respond to a boat dock for a diving injury. You find a 24-year-old male patient unresponsive with frothy blood in the mouth and lung sounds absent on the right side. The patient is breathing 28 times a minute. The patient's friends state they were diving when he unexpectedly came out of the water complaining of chest pains and then collapsed. What is your first action? a. Insert an oropharyngeal airway. b. Place the patient on high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask. c. Place the patient on high-concentration oxygen by bag-valve mask. d. Suction the airway.

You respond to a farm for a possible snake bite. You find a 36-year-old male patient seated against a tree. Bystanders state the patient was bitten on the arm by a rattlesnake and is "really sick." As you approach, you notice that the patient appears in obvious distress, diaphoretic and holding his right wrist. What is your highest priority? a. Perform a primary assessment and identify any potential life threats. b. Confirm the type of snake and contact medical control for specific instructions. c. Immediately apply a constricting band to minimize the spread of the venom. d. Confirm the location and status of the snake.

Your partner is assessing a 55-year-old man who was found sitting on the tailgate of his truck after being involved in a motor vehicle collision. You should FIRST: A. lay the patient down in the truck bed. B. instruct the patient to stand up. C. assist the patient to the stretcher. D. manually immobilize the cervical spine.

Your patient has a heart rate of 82, a respiratory rate of 16, and a blood pressure of 120/80 and does not appear to be in any distress. You should repeat vital sign measurements at least every: A. 10 minutes. B. 5 minutes. C. 20 minutes. D. 15 minutes.

Your patient is a 34yearold male complaining of pain "in his right side." He is pale and diaphoretic with a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 132/80 mmHg. The patient is very agitated and anxious. Which approach is most appropriate? A. Insert an oropharyngeal airway. B. Try to determine the cause of his pain. C. Tell the patient that you cannot transport him unless he calms down and lies still. D. Reassure him that you will make him as comfortable as possible and get him to the hospital for additional care.

Your patient is a 44-year-old female with a history of alcoholism. She has been walking around at an outdoor fair on a hot, sunny day. She is disoriented to time; has hot, dry skin; and appears to be generally weak. Which of the following is the appropriate sequence of treatment for this patient? a. Have the patient drink an electrolyte solution or sports drink and apply cold packs to her neck, armpits, and groin. b. Get as much ice as possible from the food vendors at the fair, place the patient in a large container of ice, and apply oxygen by nonrebreather mask. c. Give oxygen by nonrebreather mask, have the patient sip a sports drink or electrolyte solution, remove heavy clothing, and place cold packs on her neck, armpits, and groin. d. Give oxygen by nonrebreather mask, remove heavy clothing, and place cold packs on her neck, armpits, and groin

Your patient is a 44-year-old male with a history of diabetes. He is lying on the living room floor, unresponsive to all stimuli. He has a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute, heart rate of 112 beats per minute, and is pale and sweaty. Which of the following should you do to treat this patient? a. Encourage the patient's family to administer his insulin. b. Apply oral glucose solution to a tongue depressor and insert it between the patient's cheek and gums. c. Place the patient in the recovery position to protect the airway and place oral glucose solution under the patient's tongue. d. Place the patient in the recovery position, administer oxygen, and monitor his airway status.

Your patient is waking up from a seizure; it was the patient's first seizure ever. When you ask what happened, the patient tells you she had the smell of fresh mown grass just before she seized. We call this sensation a(n): a. tonic phase. b. postictal phase. c. clonic phase. d. aura

Your trauma patient is anxious, tachycardic, pale, and hypotensive. Which of these signs indicates failure of the body's compensatory mechanisms? A. Anxiousness B. Pallor C. Tachycardia D. Hypotension

Which of the following is a commonly accepted list of medications an EMT can assist the patient in taking or administer under the direction of the Medical Director? A) Prescribed bronchodilator inhalers, prescribed nitroglycerin, and prescribed epinephrine auto-injectors B) Any over-the-counter medication, oral glucose, and oxygen C) Aspirin, acetaminophen, oral glucose, insulin, prescribed bronchodilator inhalers, nitroglycerin, and epinephrine auto-injectors D) Aspirin, oral glucose, oxygen, prescribed bronchodilator inhalers, nitroglycerin, and epinephrine auto-injectors

D) Aspirin, oral glucose, oxygen, prescribed bronchodilator inhalers, nitroglycerin, and epinephrine auto-injectors

The ambulance is called for an assaulted patient. While transporting the patient to the hospital, the EMT notes the patient's jugular veins are flat (nondistended). Which of these is most likely the cause of this finding? A) Blood collecting around the heart in the pericardial sac B) Closed head injury C) High blood pressure D) Blood loss

D) Blood loss

Which of the following is appropriate when assessing an emotionally disturbed patient? A) Establish eye and verbal contact. B) Avoid arguing with the patient. C) Make it clear that you are in control of the situation, not the patient. D) Both A and B

D) Both A and B

Mr. Hughes is a 49-year-old man complaining of chest pain. To find out about the quality of his chest pain, which of the following questions is most appropriate? A) Are you having pain anywhere besides your chest? B) Does anything make the pain worse? C) On a scale of 1 to 10, with 10 being the worst, how would you rate your level of pain? D) Can you describe how the pain in your chest feels?

D) Can you describe how the pain in your chest feels?

You are on the scene in the bad part of town for an unresponsive 18-year-old type 1 diabetic patient. His mother states that he is very noncompliant with his diabetes management and goes unresponsive often due to low blood sugar. After performing the primary assessment, you believe that this is the most likely cause of his unresponsiveness. However, after taking a capillary glucose reading you are surprised to see that the patient's sugar level is normal. How will you now determine the field impression? A) Recognize that the mother is probably trying to protect her son from jail. Tell her that it is critical that she tell you what drugs he actually took. B) You cannot make a correct diagnosis in the field because you cannot perform all the necessary tests with your limited scope of practice. C) Recognize that the mother was lying to you. The patient is not diabetic and you now must assume that everything she told you is wrong. D) Continue patient care by getting a complete SAMPLE history and perform a complete secondary assessment.

D) Continue patient care by getting a complete SAMPLE history and perform a complete secondary assessment.

You are alone in the back of the ambulance, where you are ventilating an apneic patient. Which of the following is the BEST way to manage the reassessment? A) Stop ventilating the patient every 5 minutes so you can perform a reassessment. B) Have your partner stop the ambulance every 5 minutes to help you perform a reassessment. C) Stay on the scene and request additional help so you will have someone to help you perform a reassessment. D) Continue ventilating the patient during transport and skip the reassessment.

D) Continue ventilating the patient during transport and skip the reassessment.

Your patient is a 23-year-old male with a stab wound to the abdomen. You have bandaged the wound and are transporting the patient to a trauma center. During your reassessment, you note that the bandage has become soaked with blood. What should your priority be with this patient? A) Check the patient's blood pressure. B) Notify the receiving facility that the patient has developed arterial bleeding. C) Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position. D) Control the bleeding.

D) Control the bleeding.

You are performing a rapid trauma assessment on an unresponsive 30-year-old male. As you evaluate his head, which of the following should you check for? A) Unequal facial muscles B) Function of the cranial nerves C) Whether the patient can follow your finger with his eyes D) Crepitation

D) Crepitation

A description of a patient's condition that assists a clinician in further evaluation and treatment is known as which of the following? A) Red flag B) Clinical decision C) Critical thinking D) Diagnosis

D) Diagnosis

A list of potential diagnoses compiled early in the patient's assessment is known as which of the following? A) Emergency medical diagnosis B) Assessment-based diagnosis C) Traditional diagnosis D) Differential diagnosis

D) Differential diagnosis

When using the memory aid OPQRST, which of the following questions would help you find out about P? A) Do you have any past medical history? B) What is your primary complaint? C) Are you having any pain? D) Does anything make the pain better or worse?

D) Does anything make the pain better or worse?

Mr. Green is complaining of severe difficulty breathing after being stung by a bee. His wife states he has had reactions to bee stings before, but not quite this severe. Which medications should you specifically ask him about? A) Inhaler B) Nitroglycerine tablets C) Antihistamines D) Epinephrine auto-injector

D) Epinephrine auto-injector

When assessing a patient's pertinent past history, you should ask which of the following questions? A) Are you currently taking any medications? B) Could you describe what happened? C) Have you ever had a reaction to a medication? D) Have you been having any medical problems?

D) Have you been having any medical problems?

Which of the following is another term for trauma? A) Illness B) Medical problem C) Suffering D) Injury

D) Injury

Which of the following traumatic conditions may account for signs and symptoms of a behavioral emergency? A) Fractured lumbar vertebra B) 10% BSA partial thickness burn C) Fractured tibia D) Internal hemorrhage

D) Internal hemorrhage

Which one of the following statements is NOT true? A) In any given year, 26.2% of adult Americans suffer from a diagnosable mental disorder. B) Almost 10% of the population of adult Americans has a mood disorder such as depression. C) Just over 20% of the population of adult Americans has anxiety or panic issues. D) It is very unusual for an EMT to be called for a psychiatric emergency.

D) It is very unusual for an EMT to be called for a psychiatric emergency.

Which of the following statements concerning behavioral emergencies is true? A) Emotional outbursts are considered behavioral emergencies. B) The person with a behavioral emergency requires prolonged institutionalization. C) A person with a behavioral emergency is mentally ill. D) It may be difficult to determine what behavior is abnormal for a given person in a given situation.

D) It may be difficult to determine what behavior is abnormal for a given person in a given situation.

How does aspirin actually reduce the chances that a patient suffering a heart attack will die? A) It reduces the amount of pain in the heart. B) It prevents a deadly fever from developing. C) It reduces the inflammation in the heart. D) It reduces the ability of the blood to form clots.

D) It reduces the ability of the blood to form clots.

You are dispatched to a suicide attempt. You arrive to find a 16-year-old, who is extremely agitated and pacing up and down in the living room of his house. Apparently, he had threatened to go out, get a gun, and shoot himself. The parents called it in as an attempted suicide. The scene is safe and there are apparently no weapons accessible to the patient. Which of the following would NOT be appropriate in caring for this patient? A) Do not take any action that may be considered threatening by the patient. To do so may bring about hostile behavior directed against you or others. B) Always be on the watch for weapons. C) Do not isolate yourself from your partner or other sources of help. D) Make certain the patient gets between you and the door. The patient should always feel he has an escape route.

D) Make certain the patient gets between you and the door. The patient should always feel he has an escape route.

You are called to the scene of an attempted suicide. You arrive to find a 25-year-old man sitting on the sofa who apparently cut his wrists. Family members have bandaged them, and there does not appear to be any bleeding risk at this time. The scene is secure. Which action would you NOT take in treating this patient? A) As soon as possible, perform a history and physical exam and provide emergency care on the wrist, if necessary. B) Perform a detailed physical exam only if it is safe and you suspect the patient may have an injury. C) Contact the receiving hospital and report on current mental status and other essential information. D) Make sure you take charge of the situation. Let the patient know that what he has done is wrong. Tell him he is coming with you whether he likes it or not. Do not worry about gaining the patient's confidence. Take charge. The patient must know that you are the boss.

D) Make sure you take charge of the situation. Let the patient know that what he has done is wrong. Tell him he is coming with you whether he likes it or not. Do not worry about gaining the patient's confidence. Take charge. The patient must know that you are the boss.

Which of the following statements is true concerning oxygen? A) Never give oxygen to a chronic obstructed pulmonary disease (COPD) patient. B) Always document the need for oxygen by pulse oximetry before giving it to the patient. C) Only withhold oxygen to anyone who is allergic to it. D) Never withhold oxygen to any patient who needs it.

D) Never withhold oxygen to any patient who needs it.

Under what circumstance should a reassessment NOT be performed? A) The patient is being transported to a hospital close to his home. B) The patient has life-threatening injuries. C) The patient does not receive a secondary assessment. D) Ongoing lifesaving interventions are required.

D) Ongoing lifesaving interventions are required.

Your patient is an unresponsive 40-year-old woman. Which of the following should you do first? A) Ask her husband if she has any known allergies. B) Immediately request advanced life support. C) Take her blood pressure. D) Perform a rapid physical exam

D) Perform a rapid physical exam

When providing emergency care to an aggressive or hostile patient, what is the highest priority? A) Checking the patient for possible physical causes of the behavior B) Finding out if the patient is oriented to person, time, and place C) Calming the patient down D) Performing a scene size-up

D) Performing a scene size-up

When checking breath sounds in a trauma patient, what should the EMT assess for first? A) Wheezing and stridor B) Amount of dead space air and residual air C) Rate and tidal volume D) Presence and equality

D) Presence and equality

You are transporting a victim of domestic violence, a 25-year-old female, who was struck on the head several times with a baseball bat. On the scene, she was responsive to verbal stimuli and was bleeding profusely from an open head wound. During transport the patient becomes unresponsive. Which of the following should you do next? A) Vital signs and SAMPLE history B) Secondary assessment C) Detailed physical exam D) Primary assessment

D) Primary assessment

You respond to a motor vehicle collision and find a patient with an altered mental status and angulated left femur; the other driver is deceased. Your closest trauma center is 45 minutes away. Which of the following would you do next? A) Transport the patient to a local medical clinic for evaluation by a physician. B) Perform a detailed physical exam. C) Apply a traction splint. D) Request ALS personnel.

D) Request ALS personnel.

Which of the following BEST describes the five rights? A) In date, right medication, right order, right dose, right time B) Right patient, right medication, in date, right dose, right route C) Right decision, right medication, right order, right dose, right place D) Right patient, right medication, right time, right dose, right route

D) Right patient, right medication, right time, right dose, right route

Which of the following situations is most likely to result in hidden or unsuspected injury? A) A vehicle without air bags B) Collisions that occur at night C) Deformity of the interior compartment of the vehicle D) Seat belt use by the vehicle occupants

D) Seat belt use by the vehicle occupants

Your patient is a 37-year-old male sitting on the kitchen floor. His wife is attempting to talk with him, but he does not look at her or answer. He is fidgeting and has apparently thrown some dishes against the wall. What should be your first consideration? A) Ask the wife to step outside with you so you can get information from her. B) Ask the wife to step into the other room so you can speak with the patient alone. C) Quickly check the patient's carotid pulse. D) Stay a safe distance away.

D) Stay a safe distance away.

What term describes a permanent surgical opening in the neck through which a patient breathes? A) Tracheostomy B) Cricothyrotomy C) Laryngectomy D) Stoma

D) Stoma

You are on the scene where a 23-year-old female has attempted suicide by cutting her forearms with a razor. She is sitting in the front yard and has lost a large amount of blood. She is conscious and holding a small razor blade, and tells you to get away from her. Which of the following should NOT be done? A) Use Body Substance Isolation (BSI). B) Keep bystanders away from the patient. C) Call law enforcement for assistance. D) Take the razor blade away from her by force.

D) Take the razor blade away from her by force.

You respond to the scene of a private residence for a patient who is a known insulin-dependant diabetic patient. The patient is combative and cursing as you approach. Should this patient be restrained? A) Yes, he likely has a medical condition that requires treatment. B) No, this patient is not likely experiencing a behavioral emergency. C) Yes, he is combative and all combative patients can be restrained. D) There is not enough information to answer this question.

D) There is not enough information to answer this question.

Which of the following statements concerning forcible restraint of patients is true? A) It is easily accomplished by two EMTs with a good plan. B) This is necessary only with mentally ill individuals. C) It causes irreparable emotional harm to most patients. D) This is normally considered to be within the jurisdiction of law enforcement.

D) This is normally considered to be within the jurisdiction of law enforcement.

You are called to an elementary school for an 8-year-old female patient who is experiencing respiratory distress. The school nurse states the patient has an epinephrine auto-injector for a possible anaphylactic reaction to bee stings. The patient also has an Albuterol inhaler for asthma. The patient is breathing 30 times a minute, is in the tripod position, and is speaking in two- to three-word sentences. The nurse states the patient was playing basketball in the gym when she started having difficulty breathing. The patient has wheezing in all lung fields. An ALS unit is en route but it is 10 minutes away. You are 20 minutes away from the nearest hospital. After placing the patient on oxygen, your next intervention should be to: A) contact medical control and request to assist the patient with her epinephrine. B) provide supportive care until the ALS unit arrives. C) cancel the ALS unit and call medical control to assist with the Albuterol administration while en route to the hospital. D) contact medical control and request to assist the patient with her Albuterol.

D) contact medical control and request to assist the patient with her Albuterol.

The process by which an EMT forms a field diagnosis is known as: A) diagnostic thinking. B) differential thinking. C) clinical thinking. D) critical thinking.

D) critical thinking.

You are transporting a patient whom you are treating for chest pain. You have completed all of your assessments and are writing down some of his personal information such as his address and phone number. As the patient is speaking, you notice that he is having increasing difficulty breathing. You should: A) call the hospital and report the difficulty. B) get a quick set of vital signs. C) call for ALS backup. D) immediately repeat your primary assessment

D) immediately repeat your primary assessment

Bronchodilator inhalers have several common side effects, which include: A) decreased blood pressure and increased heart rate. B) bronchodilation and decreased heart rate. C) vasoconstriction and increased heart rate. D) jitteriness and increased heart rate.

D) jitteriness and increased heart rate.

An EMT is on the scene of a 48-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. He has nitroglycerin prescribed and available. After performing the primary and secondary assessments, the EMT contacts medical control and is ordered to assist the patient in taking his nitroglycerin. Carefully, the EMT performs the "five rights" and checks the expiration before administering the medication. The patient states the medicine is not helping his pain. The patient also states he does not have a headache. Reassessment of the patient's vital signs shows no change in blood pressure. The EMT suspects the nitro is not working because the: A) medication is expired. B) medication is not nitroglycerin. C) EMT only gave one tablet instead of two. D) medication was somehow rendered inert.

D) medication was somehow rendered inert.

The epinephrine auto-injector is given via the ________ route. A) oral B) enteral C) digestive D) parenteral

D) parenteral

You are called for an alert patient with respiratory distress. As part of your primary assessment, you place the patient on oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute. You continue with the rest of your assessment including taking a set of vital signs. During your reassessment, you notice that the patient's respiratory rate has increased to 24 times per minute and he is having increasing trouble breathing. You should: A) assist the patient's breathing with a bag-valve mask. B) increase the flow rate of the nasal cannula to 4 liters per minute. C) call medical direction for orders to administer his inhaler. D) switch your patient to a nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute

D) switch your patient to a nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute

You are on the scene of a 48-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. He has nitroglycerin prescribed and available. After performing your physical examination, you contact medical control and are ordered to assist the patient in taking his nitroglycerin. Five minutes after taking his nitroglycerin, the patient complains of being dizzy and having a headache. You lie the patient down on the stretcher and reassess his vital signs. He is now hypotensive. The patient is suffering from: A) an allergic reaction to nitroglycerin. B) an anaphylactic reaction to nitroglycerin. C) an untoward reaction to nitroglycerin. D) the side effects of nitroglycerin.

D) the side effects of nitroglycerin.

You are called for a patient who reports a headache for several days. He tells you that he has started a new blood pressure medication and is finishing an antibiotic for a skin infection. During your history taking, you should: A) suspect an allergic reaction. B) suggest that he take some aspirin. C) get your patient to repeat his chief complaint. D) write down the pertinent facts.

D) write down the pertinent facts.

Which of the following is NOT a type of avulsion? A. The skin is stripped off the hand, like removing a glove. B. An ear is partially torn away from the head. C. The skin is partially torn away from the foot. D. A finger is cut off with a butcher's saw.

D. A finger is cut off with a butcher's saw.

While assessing a patient with partial thickness burns to his chest and neck, what should be your highest priority (even if there are no symptoms presently)? A. Hypothermia B. Blood pressure C. Bleeding D. Airway

D. Airway

Your patient is a 25-year-old man who picked up an iron skillet with a very hot handle. He has a reddened area with blisters across the palm of his hand. Which of the following must be avoided in the prehospital management of this wound? A. Keeping the site clean B. Application of a dry, sterile dressing C. Elevation of the wound above the level of the heart D. Application of antibiotic ointment

D. Application of antibiotic ointment

You are the first on the scene of a 72-year-old patient in cardiac arrest. You have your medical supply kit, oxygen, and an AED. At least 4 to 5 minutes of high-quality CPR has been provided by the police officer who arrived before you. You have confirmed an open airway, apnea, and pulselessness. Which of the following should you do next? A. Perform bag-valve-mask ventilations with supplemental oxygen for 30 seconds before applying the defibrillator pads. B. Perform one-rescuer CPR until additional personnel arrive. C. Contact medical direction before taking any action. D. Apply the defibrillator pads and shock as indicated.

D. Apply the defibrillator pads and shock as indicated.

You are on the scene of a 65-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. CPR is in progress and the AED has been applied. The AED advises shock. After defibrillating the patient, what is your next intervention? A. Insert a Combitube. B. Check for a pulse. C. Place in the recovery position. D. Continue CPR.

D. Continue CPR.

What is not a result of a mechanical malfunction of the heart? A. Cardiac arrest B. Shock C. Pulmonary edema D. Dysrhythmia

D. Dysrhythmia

When using an AED, which of the following people is responsible for calling to "clear" the patient before delivering a shock? A. EMT supervising bystanders B. EMT doing chest compressions C. EMT managing the airway D. EMT operating the defibrillator

D. EMT operating the defibrillator

What is not part of the cardiovascular system? A. Arteries B. Veins C. Venules D. Hormones

D. Hormones

Which of the following statements regarding angina pectoris is true? A. It results in death of a smaller portion of myocardium than does a heart attack. B. It generally lasts 30 to 60 minutes. C. It is generally relieved by over-the-counter medications. D. It can be brought on by exertion or stress.

D. It can be brought on by exertion or stress.

Your patient is a 32-year-old man with a fish hook that has perforated his hand between the thumb and index finger. Which of the following is the best way to manage the situation in the prehospital setting? A. Push the hook through the wound to avoid further damage from the barbed end. B. Apply a pressure dressing over the hook. C. Pull the hook out from the same direction in which it entered the hand. D. Leave the hook in place and try not to disturb it.

D. Leave the hook in place and try not to disturb it.

Which of the following is NOT a typical indication of congestive heart failure (CHF)? A. Increased heart rate B. Productive cough C. Wet sounding breath sounds D. Low blood pressure

D. Low blood pressure

Which of the following people is allowed to continue providing patient care when the patient is to be "cleared" for delivery of a shock via the defibrillator? A. The EMT performing bag-valve-mask ventilations B. The provider who is ventilating the patient, so long as the patient has been intubated by a paramedic so the provider does not directly touch the patient C. Anyone in contact with the patient below the level of the patient's knees D. None of the above

D. None of the above

Which of the following is typical of angina pectoris? A. Lasts 10 to 30 seconds B. Does not present following stress C. Does not respond to nitroglycerin D. Often subsides with rest

D. Often subsides with rest

Which of the following is the name given to the condition in which fluid accumulates in the lungs? A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) B. Pedal edema C. Dyspnea D. Pulmonary edema

D. Pulmonary edema

Which of the following is NOT a major function of the skin? A. Protection from the environment B. Excretion of wastes C. Temperature regulation D. Regulates the pH balance of the body

D. Regulates the pH balance of the body

You are transporting a 50-year-old male patient whom you successfully defibrillated at the scene. You are 5 minutes away from the hospital when the patient goes back into cardiac arrest. Which of the following is the best course of action? A. Initiate CPR and continue transporting. B. Analyze the cardiac rhythm and deliver shocks as necessary. C. Tell the driver to stop and assist you with CPR, and request another unit for assistance. D. Tell the driver to stop, analyze the cardiac rhythm, and deliver a shock as necessary.

D. Tell the driver to stop, analyze the cardiac rhythm, and deliver a shock as necessary.

Which of the following most accurately describes the pathophysiology of sepsis? A. More than one type of infectious agent invades the body, limiting the immune system's response to each agent. B. Vasoconstriction and internal fluid retention lead to shock that does not respond to intravenous fluids. C. An infectious agent in the body multiplies very rapidly, overwhelming the body's natural immune response. D. The body overreacts to an infection and secretes substances that hurt cells, tissues, and organs.

D. The body overreacts to an infection and secretes substances that hurt cells, tissues, and organs.

Which of the following statements regarding the administration of nitroglycerin tablets is true? A. It takes 20 to 30 minutes for nitroglycerin to have an effect. B. An increase in blood pressure should be expected. C. If a patient's pulse rate changes following nitroglycerin administration, it indicates an allergic reaction. D. The patient may complain of a headache following administration.

D. The patient may complain of a headache following administration.

If a shock is not indicated, how many cycles of CPR will you give before analyzing again? A. 10 B. 15 C. 2 D. 5

D. 5

You are caring for a cardiac arrest patient who has a body temperature of 84 deg F. You attempt defibrillation once with no success. At what core body temperature should you attempt defibrillation again? A. 90 deg F B. 88 deg F C. 85 deg F D. 86 deg F

D. 86 deg F

Which of the following is a function of the skin? A. Protection from the environment B. Regulation of body temperature C. Balancing water in the body D. All of the above

Which of the following is a description of the rule of nines for an adult? A. The rule of nines assigns 9% to the head and neck; 6% to each upper extremity; 12% to the chest and abdomen; 9% to the upper back, the lower back and buttocks, the front of each lower extremity, and the back of each lower extremity, then 1% to the genital region. B. The rule of nines assigns 9% to the head and neck, as well as each upper extremity; 10% to the chest, the abdomen, and the upper back; 8% to the lower back and buttocks, the front of each lower extremity, and the back of each lower extremity, then 1% to the genital region. C. The rule of nines assigns 9% to the head and neck, each upper extremity, the chest, the abdomen, the upper back, and the lower back and buttocks; 8% to the front of each lower extremity; and 10% for the back of each lower extremity, then 1% to the genital region. D. The rule of nines assigns 9% to the head and neck, each upper extremity, the chest, the abdomen, the upper back, the lower back and buttocks, the front of each lower extremity, and the back of each lower extremity, then 1% to the genital region.

D. The rule of nines assigns 9% to the head and neck, each upper extremity, the chest, the abdomen, the upper back, the lower back and buttocks, the front of each lower extremity, and the back of each lower extremity, then 1% to the genital region.

Which of the following BEST describes a partial thickness burn? A. The skin is charred or blackened and lacks sensation. B. The skin is red, but dry and painful. C. The skin is white and dry with no sensation of pain. D. The skin is red and moist with blister formation.

D. The skin is red and moist with blister formation.

What role do health care workers play in handling public crises related to newly recognized infectious diseases? A. They work closely with local health departments to determine the microbes responsible for the disease and how to treat them. B. They report information about the outbreaks to the public and share information about the prevalence and spread of the conditions. C. They disseminate information about diseases and their treatment to health care providers and institutions. D. They implement the steps outlined by the CDC and other agencies to reduce the number of people who become infected.

D. They implement the steps outlined by the CDC and other agencies to reduce the number of people who become infected.

Which of the following is NOT true concerning lacerations? A. They may be caused by blunt trauma. B. They may be caused by penetrating trauma. C. They may indicate deeper underlying tissue damage. D. They may be degloving injuries to the skin or tissue.

D. They may be degloving injuries to the skin or tissue.

You are dispatched to a local industrial plant for an "electrical injury." You arrive on-scene and find a 46-year-old male lying supine in front of an electrical panel. You are told he was attempting to make a repair and somehow received an electrical shock and was thrown to the ground. The scene is safe and the electricity is off. Your initial exam reveals a conscious person, breathing adequately. Vital signs are normal and there are no obvious signs of burns. Coworkers state that he was unconscious until your arrival. What is the next step? A. Stay with the patient awhile, and if he does not appear to be in distress, encourage him to refuse care. B. Load and go long dash —conduct any other care in the ambulance en route due to the potential seriousness of the burns. C. Put the patient on oxygen and help him into your ambulance. D. While on the scene, rapidly do a complete assessment, provide oxygen, provide care for potential spine injuries, and transport as soon as possible after the exam.

D. While on the scene, rapidly do a complete assessment, provide oxygen, provide care for potential spine injuries, and transport as soon as possible after the exam.

You are treating the amputation of three fingers on a 40-year-old male. The fingers were torn off while he was cleaning his snow blower. You have stopped the bleeding. What should you do with the amputated fingers? A. Place the fingers directly on ice or use cold packs, as they must be kept very cold. B. Because it is cold out, you merely need to wrap them in a 5 times × 9 dressing and give them to the staff at the ED. C. Fingers cannot be reattached so you can discard them in red bag trash. D. Wrap them in a sterile dressing, put them in a plastic bag, and keep them cool.

D. Wrap them in a sterile dressing, put them in a plastic bag, and keep them cool.

A weakened area of an artery that balloons out and may rupture, causing catastrophic bleeding, is called: A. asystole. B. angina. C. angioplasty. D. aneurysm.

D. aneurysm.

For which of the following patients should the EMT carefully continue to monitor the patient's ventilatory status throughout treatment and transport due to the greatest risk of respiratory failure? A. 34-year-old male who opened the radiator of his car and had hot fluid spray on his chest, resulting in redness and pain in an area about the size of the patient's hand B. 17-year-old male with a blistering sunburn on his face C. 28-year-old male who spilled a strong industrial acid on his legs D. 16-year-old male whose shirt caught on fire, resulting in circumferential burns of his chest

D. 16-year-old male whose shirt caught on fire, resulting in circumferential burns of his chest

Your patient is a 40-year-old man who was burned when he spilled gasoline on his pants as he was standing near the pilot light of his hot water heater. He has partial thickness burns from his feet to just above his knees, and circumferentially around both legs. Using the rule of nines, which of the following most accurately represents the extent of body surface area burned? A. 36% B. 9% C. 4.5% D. 18%

D. 18%

What is continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis? A. A type of dialysis that is performed while walking B. A mechanical process for peritoneal dialysis in which a machine fills and empties the abdominal cavity of dialysis solution C. A gravity exchange process for peritoneal dialysis in which a bag of dialysis fluid is lowered below the level of an abdominal catheter to fill the abdominal cavity and raised above the level of the abdominal catheter to drain the fluid out D. A gravity exchange process for peritoneal dialysis in which a bag of dialysis fluid is raised above the level of an abdominal catheter to fill the abdominal cavity and lowered below the level of the abdominal catheter to drain the fluid out

D. A gravity exchange process for peritoneal dialysis in which a bag of dialysis fluid is raised above the level of an abdominal catheter to fill the abdominal cavity and lowered below the level of the abdominal catheter to drain the fluid out

The kidney's major function(s) include(s): A. excreating urea B. balancing electrolytes C. maintaining blood volume D. All of the above

D. All of the above

If an EMT is tasked with managing the family of a patient who is deceased after termination of resuscitation, what is an effective care strategy? A. Minimize the family's time with the deceased patient. B. Tell the family the EMT knows how they feel. C. Prevent the family from seeing the deceased patient. D. Be straightforward and use direct language.

D. Be straightforward and use direct language.

In which of the following ways does cardiac arrest in children differ from cardiac arrest in adults? A. Ventricular fibrillation is common in children. B. Ventricular fibrillation is not common in adults. C. Cardiac arrest in adults is more likely to be due to respiratory failure. D. Cardiac arrest in children is more likely to be due to respiratory failure.

D. Cardiac arrest in children is more likely to be due to respiratory failure.

Which of the following should NOT be done during defibrillation? A. Pressing the defibrillation pads firmly to the chest to ensure good contact B. Shaving the chest before placing the defibrillation pads to improve contact C. Performing CPR while the AED is being attached D. Continued ventilation during the analysis phase to prevent hypoxia

D. Continued ventilation during the analysis phase to prevent hypoxia

What is the first step in the reassessment process? A. Focused history and physical exam B. Secondary assessment C. Vital signs D. Primary assessment

D. Primary assessment

While performing a detailed physical exam on a patient involved in a fall from 30 feet, the patient (who had previously been responding to your questions) stops responding. What should you do next? A. Start CPR. B. Continue the detailed physical assessment. C. Call medical control for orders. D. Repeat the primary assessment.

D. Repeat the primary assessment.

Which of the following is false regarding the purpose of immediately documenting vital signs once they are obtained? A. It may be difficult to recall the vital signs accurately later on. B. You will be able to compare each set of vital signs with the previous ones to detect trends in the patient's condition. C. You will be able to report the vital signs accurately when contacting the receiving facility. D. Failure to record the vital signs immediately is considered falsifying the medical record.

D. Failure to record the vital signs immediately is considered falsifying the medical record.

According to the systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) system, which of the following criteria would not contribute to a patient's likelihood of developing sepsis? A. Systolic blood pressure of 76 B. Respiratory rate of 32 C. Temperature of 95.3°F D. Heart rate of 87

D. Heart rate of 87

Which of the following describes the EMT's MOST important role in the ideal provision of emergency cardiac care? A. Recognition and activation of emergency response system B. Postarrest care following advanced life support C. Early advanced cardiac life support D. Immediate high-quality CPR and rapid defibrillation

D. Immediate high-quality CPR and rapid defibrillation

Your patient is a 3-year-old male with a stoma who has swallowed a household cleaner. Medical direction gives you an order for milk to dilute the stomach contents. Which of the following is the correct way of carrying out this order?

Have the patient drink one glass of milk.

Reflective outer clothing

Which of the following provides the greatest personal safety for an EMT working at a motor vehicle collision?

You are transporting a patient who has had her neck slashed from side to side. You and your partner are caring for the patient while a police officer drives you to the hospital, which is minutes away. You are focusing all of your efforts to maintain her airway and your partner is controlling her bleeding. Which of the following will you be unlikely to obtain? A. Patient's gender B. Primary assessment C. Pulse and respiratory rates D. Reassessment results

D. Reassessment results

Which of the following people is allowed to continue providing patient care when the patient is to be "cleared" for delivery of a shock via the defibrillator? A. Anyone in contact with the patient below the level of the patient's knees B. The EMT performing bag-valve mask ventilations C. The provider who is ventilating the patient, so long as the patient has been intubated by a paramedic so that the provider does not directly touch the patient D. None of the above

D. None of the above

Distinguishing between a knee dislocation and a patella dislocation can sometimes be difficult. Which of the following statements is not true?

In a patellar dislocation, the knee will be stuck in flexion but the knee cap will not be displaced.

Patients with a history of chronic sickle cell anemia (SCA) may present with which of the following signs and symptoms? A. Yellowing of the skin and dyspnea on exertion B. Flushed appearance and shortness of breath C. Bluish discoloration of the skin and shortness of breath D. Pale appearance and dyspnea on exertion

D. Pale appearance and dyspnea on exertion

In normal exhalation, the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax to contract the chest, which creates a positive pressure. This is what type of process? A. Passive B. Inspiration C. Active D. Respiration

When caring for a patient who has a ventricular assist device, you should remember that even if the device is working properly: A. the patient will have a higher-than-normal blood pressure. B. the patient will have a lower-than-normal respiratory rate. C. the patient will not have radial pulses but will have carotid pulses. D. the patient will not have a pulse or blood pressure.

D. the patient will not have a pulse or blood pressure.

If you are in doubt as to when or whether to terminate resuscitation efforts, seek the advice of: A. another EMT. B. a family member of the patient. C. an ALS provider. D. a physician.

D. a physician.

The Zoll AutoPulse device is designed: A. to be started automatically. B. to start only if bag-valve-mask ventilation is applied. C. to start only if an advanced airway is in place. D. to be started manually.

D. to be started manually.

Hemodialysis is used to help the kidneys filter ________ and remove excess ________. A. blood; cholesterol B. electrolytes; hormones C. urine; poisons D. toxins; fluids

D. toxins; fluids

Your patient was pulseless but had a return of spontaneous pulses after one shock from the AED. Before transport, you notice that the patient is again unresponsive. You should next: A. assess the blood pressure. B. transport the patient. C. continue ventilations. D. check the pulse.

D. check the pulse.

Blunt and penetrating injuries can damage chambers of the heart or cause conditions like: A. asphyxial cardiac arrest. B. ventricular tachycardia. C. ventricular fibrillation. D. pericardial tamponade.

D. pericardial tamponade.

While en route to the hospital, your 67-year-old male patient with chest pain breaks out in a sweat and becomes very pale. He clutches his chest. You should next: A. administer oxygen. B. administer the patient's nitroglycerin. C. call for ALS. D. reassess.

D. reassess.

You have taken several sets of vital signs for a patient, whose respiratory rate has changed from 24 with shallow breaths to 20 with full breaths, and whose skin has remained pale and dry. You would consider this patient's condition to be: A. undetermined. B. remaining unchanged. C. deteriorating. D. returning to normal.

D. returning to normal.

The Lucas CPR device involves: A. closing the Lifeband chest band over the patient's chest. B. providing bag-mask ventilation at a rate of 2 ventilations for every 30 compressions. C. removing the stabilization strap, if the patient must be moved. D. stopping CPR just long enough to put a base plate under the patient.

D. stopping CPR just long enough to put a base plate under the patient.

You are called for an alert patient with respiratory distress. As part of your primary assessment, you place the patient on oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute. You continue with the rest of your assessment including taking a set of vital signs. During your reassessment, you notice that the patient's respiratory rate has increased to 24 times per minute and he is having increasing trouble breathing. You should: A. assist the patient's breathing with a bag-valve mask. B. call medical direction for orders to administer his inhaler. C. increase the flow rate of the nasal cannula to 4 liters per minute. D. switch your patient to a nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute.

D. switch your patient to a nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute.

Daniel has been performing landscaping on a hot, humid summer day when he suddenly becomes dizzy and feels like he might faint. This disruption of fluid balance is most likely caused by: A. hyperthermia. B. hypotension. C. dehydration. D. tachycardia.

You are called to the scene of a 45-year-old nonsmoker male with a history of asthma in respiratory distress. You find him lying supine on the couch. The patient is lethargic but can answer all your questions appropriately. He is diaphoretic, and complains of being cold, coughing, and having difficulty breathing for the past 3 days. His vital signs are blood pressure of 110/70, heart rate of 116, respiratory rate of 24, oxygen saturation of 93 percent, and temperature of 100.6°F. You hear rhonchi in the left lobes and he is coughing up yellow-tinged sputum. In addition to his respiratory condition, what other clinical finding is highly possible? Silent myocardial infarction Dehydration Obstructive shock Meningitis

Dehydration

Gamma-hydroxybutyrate (GHB) is an example of which of the following types of drugs?

Depressant

Which of the following does NOT occur during inspiration? Intercostal muscles contract Chest cavity increases in size Diaphragm lowers Diaphragm relaxes

Diaphragm relaxes

What treatment is normally advised for patients who have ingested a mild poison that does not, according to on-line medical direction, warrant care at a medical facility

Dilution with water or milk

You are on the scene of a 3-year-old patient who is in respiratory distress. The mother states that the patient has been making a barking cough for the past 24 hours. The child is very scared and upset. He is crying inconsolably. The patient has tachypnea, but his vital signs are normal otherwise. He is leaning forward in the tripod position and is drooling profusely. What condition do you suspect? Epiglottitis Croup Child abuse Strep throat

Epiglottitis

Your patient is a 33-year-old man who has a gunshot wound to his right leg and has active, steady, dark red bleeding. He is awake, pale, and diaphoretic. He has a strong radial pulse of 112 per minute, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 122/82 mmHg. He has no other injuries or complaints. Which of the following is the BEST sequence of steps in the management of this patient? Answer High-concentration oxygen, elevation of the extremity, and application of ice Cervical spine immobilization, high-concentration oxygen, direct pressure, and pressure point compression High-concentration oxygen, tourniquet, PASG, and elevation of the extremity Direct pressure, high-concentration oxygen, and splinting the leg

Direct pressure, high-concentration oxygen, and splinting the leg

You suspect that a 6-year-old female patient with multiple bruises and a broken wrist was abused. The stepmother states the patient fell down the stairs. The patient is crying and sheepishly nods in agreement with the stepmother's statements. How should you document this situation in the patient report?

Document any pertinent information that was said by the stepmother and child exactly in quotations.

You are on the scene of an unresponsive adult female patient. You find an empty pill bottle lying next to her bed. You look up the medication in your field guide and discover the medication is a powerful sedative. The prescription on the bottle is for the patient's husband, who is not present to answer questions about the medication. What should you do?

Document the empty pill bottle. It may provide important clues to the patient's condition.

Glucose is a building block for what form of energy in the cell? A. Electrolytes B. Mitochondria C. Endoplasmic reticulum D. ATP

The QI manager calls your partner into his office after your shift. He pulls out his EMS report on a call he ran last month on a 45-year-old driver of a single-vehicle motor vehicle collision. There were several empty beer cans in the patient's vehicle and the EMT detected an odor of alcoholic beverages on the patient's breath. The QI manager, however, critiques your partner about calling the patient an alcoholic and giving opinions in the report. He tells your partner to never write opinions in the EMS report. Your partner is confused because he is sure the patient was drunk, and he was actually arrested for suspicion of driving while intoxicated. Your partner believes his assessment is supported by facts and not just his opinion. How can you help your partner understand the QI manager's concerns?

Documenting that the patient is an alcoholic gives an incorrect opinion of the patient that is not supported by facts, and could negatively influence other medical providers.

Which of the following is the correct manner for making a correction on a patient care report?

Draw a single line through the error and initial it.

heavy duty gloves

Due to the high risk of an unstable work environment, EMTs responding to a motor vehicle crash may consider using ________ in addition to standard PPE.

EMS is constantly evolving in response to evidence-based research.

During the new employee orientation, the training officer meets with the new EMTs and explains to them the monthly training schedule and the classes they must attend for EMT recertification. One of the new EMTs asks the training officer why they have to keep taking EMT courses if they already passed the EMT examination. What is the best answer?

C. At the radial artery

During the primary assessment of a responsive adult patient, where should the pulse be checked? A. At the carotid artery B. At the femoral artery C. At the radial artery D. At the brachial artery

D. Brachial

During the primary assessment of an unresponsive two-month old infant, which pulse should be palpated? A. Radial B. Umbilical C. Carotid D. Brachial

You are treating a 16-year-old skateboarder who has fallen at the skate park. She has an angulated left forearm that she has in a guarded position. When do you splint this injury?

During the secondary exam

Explanation: A) INCORRECT. When an individual is in preschool they are still growing and not in peak physical condition. B) INCORRECT. An adolescence undergoes a rapid growth spurt, but they are not in peak physical condition yet. C) CORRECT. During early adulthood an individual is in peak physical condition, specifically between nineteen and twenty-six years of age. D) INCORRECT. By middle adulthood the body has begun to slow down and is no longer in peak physical condition. Page Ref: 181

During which age group is the body in peak physical condition? A) Preschool B) Adolescent C) Early adult D) Middle adult

splinting a sprained ankle

During which of these situations would the EMT be least likely to experience a body substance exposure?

Your patient is a 12-year-old boy who ran his arm through a glass window and has an 8-inch laceration on his anterior forearm. You have applied a pressure dressing and bandage, but these have become saturated due to continued bleeding. Which of the following should you do now? Answer Remove the pressure dressing and bandage, apply an ice pack to the wound, and bandage it in place with an elastic bandage. Elevate that arm and prepare to apply a tourniquet or consider administering a hemostatic agent. Apply additional dressing material, bandage it in place, and apply pressure to the brachial artery. Remove the pressure dressing and bandage, apply direct pressure with your gloved hand, and elevate the arm.

Elevate that arm and prepare to apply a tourniquet or consider administering a hemostatic agent.

Which of the following is the least effective method of controlling bleeding?

Elevation

Which of the following is a trade name for an epinephrine auto-injector?

Epi-pen

The use of PASG is NOT advised for which of the following injuries? Answer External bleeding of the lower extremities Pelvic fracture Gunshot wound to the chest Internal bleeding to the lower extremities

Gunshot wound to the chest

Your patient is a 6-year-old male who appears very anxious, is using increased effort during expiration, and has a fever. He is wheezing and has a respiratory rate of 34. The patient's skin is very warm and dry. He does not have any cyanosis. The chi ld is drooling and his mother states that he complained of a sore throat and pain on swallowing earlier in the afternoon. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the patient's distress? COPD Epiglottitis Pertussis Pneumonia

Epiglottitis

Which of the following information does NOT need to be provided to the dispatcher?

Estimated time of arrival at the hospital

A patient who has abused "uppers" will display which of the following signs and symptoms?

Excessive talkativeness, dilated pupils, and dry mouth

A patient who has abused "Uppers" will display which of the following signs and symptoms?

Excessive talkativeness, dilated pupils, and dry mouth.

You are attempting to place a nonrebreather mask on a patient who is experiencing difficulty breathing. The patient is anxious and does not want the mask on his face. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Explain the importance of oxygen and ask the patient to at least try to leave the mask on, but that if he can't tolerate it you can try another method.

Your patient is a 60-year-old woman who stepped off a curb and injured her ankle. Your exam shows that her left ankle is swollen and painful. Which of the following should you do?

Explain to the patient that you cannot tell if her ankle is sprained or fractured until she is X-rayed at the emergency department, then splint the ankle.

Which of the following statements regarding eye contact with a patient is NOT true?

Eye contact is always appropriate.

Failure of the liver would result in which of the following? A. Inability to detoxify harmful substances in the bloodstream B. Inability to filter out old and damaged blood cells C. Inability to secrete insulin D. None of the above

You are treating a 68-year-old female with difficulty breathing and you want to apply CPAP. How many centimeters of water would you start your treatment with? 2-5 centimeters 5-10 centimeters Follow local protocol Minimum setting and titrate to effect

Follow local protocol

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate use of patient care report information?

For referral to Alcoholics Anonymous or similar social services

Which of the following pieces of legislation applies to use of information on a patient care report?

HIPAA

The drug Ecstasy is classified as what type of drug?

Hallucinogen

Your partner is suffering from a delayed stress reaction and you should recommend that he seek professional counseling.

For the last few days, your regular EMT partner has been having trouble sleeping, has been on edge, and has had trouble concentrating on his job during EMS calls. Luckily, your call volume has been low with no serious calls since the infant cardiac arrest you both worked last month. You ask him if anything is bothering him and he states he is fine in every way. He states that he has been going to the bars lately to relax and invites you to come along for some drinks after work. Choose the best answer for this situation.

A. 3-year-old child with a fever and cough

For which of the following patients would capillary refill be a reliable sign of circulatory status? A. 3-year-old child with a fever and cough B. 50-year-old woman complaining of chest pain C. 24-year-old homeless man who has spent the night outside in the rain D. 92-year-old man complaining of weakness on his right side

C. Patient with obvious head trauma

For which would you suspect an airway intervention is MOST likely to be necessary? A. Patient exhibiting Levine's sign B. Patient has a rapid pulse C. Patient with obvious head trauma D. Patient complaining loudly of discomfort

The PASG may be used as a splinting device for patients with which of the following suspected injuries?

Fractured pelvis

Which one of the following statements is not true concerning a knee injury?

Fractures can occur to the proximal femur.

Your patient is a 37-year-old man who tripped while walking down a hill and now has a painful, deformed right leg. Your assessment reveals that the foot is cold and mottled in appearance. You cannot detect a pulse in the foot or ankle. Which of the following is the best course of action?

Gently attempt to straighten the leg to regain a pulse before splinting

Which of the following is not a principle of splinting that must be considered by the EMT?

Gently replace protruding bone ends back beneath the skin to prevent further contamination.

Which of the following is proper when assisting a patient with the use of a prescribed inhaler? Have the patient hold the inhaled medication in his lungs as long as possible. Make sure that the inhaler has been kept in the refrigerator. Do not use the patient's inhaler, because you do not know how the medication has been stored. Have the patient inhale deeply before delivering the spray.

Have the patient hold the inhaled medication in his lungs as long as possible.

Which of the following is NOT recommended when controlling epistaxis? Answer Pinching the nostrils together Keeping the patient calm and quiet Having the patient tilt the head backward to elevate the nose Placing the unconscious patient in the recovery position

Having the patient tilt the head backward to elevate the nose

vaccine

Healthcare employers are required by law to make a hepatitis B ________ available to employees free of charge.

Which of the following is the major cause of shock that the EMT will encounter? Answer Vomiting High blood pressure Hemorrhage Excessive sweating

Hemorrhage

Your patient is a 23-year-old male who is unresponsive in the restroom of a bar. His respirations are slow and shallow, he has a heart rate of 50 beats per minute, he is sweating profusely, and he has constricted pupils. Which of the following substances is most likely responsible for the patient's condition?

Heroin

Which of the following is the most important means of managing a patient who has inhaled a poison, after the airway has been established?

High concentrations of oxygen

Which of the following is NOT indicated in the management of a patient in shock? Answer Minimizing on-scene time Delaying a detailed exam until en route to the hospital High-speed ambulance transportation On-scene spinal precautions, if indicated

High-speed ambulance transportation

Contraindications for the use of Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) include which of the following? Audible rhonchi History of pulmonary fibrosis History of obstructive sleep apnea Audible wheezing

History of pulmonary fibrosis

Which of the following does a physician NOT take into consideration when writing a prescription for a patient to obtain an epinephrine auto-injector?

How far the patient lives from medical attention

Shock is the circulatory system's failure to provide sufficient blood and oxygen to all the body's tissues. Which of the answers is not a major type of shock?

Hypervolemic

Which of the following is another way of describing the condition of shock? Answer Internal bleeding Hypotension Hypoperfusion Hemorrhage .

Hypoperfusion

Which of the following signifies a failure in the patient's compensatory response to blood loss? Answer Hypotension Tachycardia Tachypnea Pale, cool skin

Hypotension

If a hole is created in the chest wall, air could escape or be drawn in, or if bleeding develops within the chest, air and blood can accumulate in the pleural space. This would force the lung to: A. work harder with minimal problems. B. increase respirations. C. collapse. D. increase the minute volume.

Which one of the following is incorrect in the application of a tourniquet?

If possible, the tourniquet should be placed on a joint

If the EMT is in doubt as to whether a patient in cardiac arrest should be resuscitated, which of the following is the best decision? A. Consult with the patient's physician. B. Have the patient's family put their wishes in writing. C. Withhold resuscitative measures. D. Begin resuscitative measures.

Which of the following is NOT true concerning a patient's reaction to toxic gas exposure?

If the patient is treated immediately, there will be no long-term effects.

Which of the following hazards may arise from properly splinting an injured extremity?

Ignoring life-threatening problems while focusing on an extremity injury

When deciding where to transport a patient who is in hypovolemic shock or who has the potential for developing hypovolemic shock, which of the following is the most important service to be provided by the receiving hospital? Answer Critical-care nursing Immediate surgical capabilities Availability of a chaplain Rehabilitation services

Immediate surgical capabilities

Your patient states that he is having an allergic reaction to a bee sting. He denies difficulty breathing, has normal vital signs, and has no evidence of hives. He has no signs of distress. Which of the following should you do for this patient?

Immediately administer oxygen.

Your patient is a 28-year-old male who was ejected from his motorcycle after striking a parked vehicle. He has multiple deformities to his upper and lower extremities on both sides. Which of the following would be the best way to immobilize this patient's extremities prior to transport?

Immobilize the patient to a long backboard without splinting the extremities individually

U.S. Department of transportation

In 1966 the National Highway Safety Act charged which of the following agencies with the development of emergency medical service standards?

Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Infants do not suffer from less efficient cardiovascular systems or a reduction in blood volume. B) CORRECT. In the late adulthood stage, the cardiovascular system becomes less efficient and the volume of blood decreases. C) INCORRECT. Early adulthood is usually when a person is in optimal health, with all systems functioning efficiently. D) INCORRECT. Those in middle adulthood generally still have efficient cardiovascular systems. Page Ref: 184

In which age group do you anticipate seeing patients who have less efficient cardiovascular systems and a reduction of previous blood volume? A) Infancy B) Late adulthood C) Early adulthood D) Middle adulthood

In which of the following locations is the femoral pulse palpated? A. Behind the knee B. On the medial side of the upper arm C. At the groin D. On the medial side of the ankle, posterior to the tibia

In which of the following situations is it legal to share information about treatment you provided to a patient? A. The triage nurse at the emergency department asks about the care you provided to the patient. B. You are asked by a coworker who knows the patient. C. The patient gives verbal consent to release information to a friend. D. The patient's lawyer requests the information over the phone.

In which of the following situations should an EMT withhold resuscitative measures from a patient in cardiac arrest? A. Family members request that nothing be done. B. The patient's caregiver presents a DNR order signed by the patient and his physician. C. The EMT's religious beliefs permit withholding resuscitation, and the caregiver presents documentation of the patient's wishes. D. All of the above

Which of the following is NOT an indication that epinephrine is helping the anaphylaxis patient's condition?

Increased dyspnea

Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Infancy does not end at 9 months. B) INCORRECT. An 18-month-old is no longer considered to be in infancy. C) INCORRECT. A 15-month-old patient is considered a toddler. D) CORRECT. Infancy is the stage of life from birth to 12 months. Page Ref: 175

Infancy is defined as the stage of life from birth to: A) 9 months. B) 18 months. C) 15 months. D) 12 months.

Which of the following is the reason why infants rarely experience anaphylactic reactions?

Infants have not yet developed antibodies to allergens.

Injuries to the brain and spinal cord, sepsis, and severe allergic reactions can cause what similar cardiovascular problem? A. Loss of tone B. Increased SVR C. Permeability D. Hypertension

You are on the scene of a 40-year-old, 190-pound female patient in cardiac arrest. The husband states that the female has a history of asthma and is a one pack per day smoker. Her only medication is her Albuterol inhaler. She has no allergies. Her husband states she has been complaining of shortness of breath for 3 days. You and your partner have placed an oral airway, begun CPR, and have placed the AED on the patient. The patient's lung sounds are clear and you can auscultate them in all fields when your partner ventilates with a bag-valve mask. The AED says "no shock advised." An ALS unit is 25 minutes away. What is your next intervention? Administer the patient's Albuterol inhaler with medical control consent. Stop CPR and have the AED reanalyze the patient's rhythm. Insert a Combitube with medical control consent. Terminate efforts due to prolonged ALS arrival time.

Insert a Combitube with medical control consent.

Insert an oral airway and apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask.

B. Taking steps to correct a problem

In EMS, which of the following BEST describes the term intervention? A. Decreasing the EMT's liability for negligence B. Taking steps to correct a problem C. Creating a permanent record of patient care D. Determining if there is a problem

Your patient is a 2-year-old conscious male who has swallowed a small quantity of bleach. Which of the following findings should you evaluate the patient for?

Irritation in and around the mouth

Why is it important to notify medical control as soon as practical about your patient's condition?

It allows the receiving facility more time to prepare for your arrival.

Which of the following is a characteristic of venous bleeding? Answer It commonly requires the use of pressure point compression. It can be profuse, but is generally easily controlled. It cannot lead to life-threatening amounts of blood loss. It often requires the use of a tourniquet.

It can be profuse, but is generally easily controlled.

Why is it important to not give the name or Social Security number of your patient over the ambulance radio when contacting medical control?

It is illegal.

Which of the following statements is not true when you are on-scene and treating a patient that appears to be in shock?

It is important to spend on-scene time to be sure you have corrected and dealt with any of the causes of the shock so that it does not get worse. This is more important than rapid transport

Which of the following is not a benefit of splinting an injury to bones and connective tissues?

It restricts blood flow to the site of the injury to prevent swelling.

Which of the following statements is not true concerning a pelvic wrap?

It should not be used unless the patient shows signs of shock

Which of the following BEST describes the function of blood? Answer It is a life-giving liquid that supports all the body's functions to maintain hypoperfusion. It clots, flows, transports, protects, and excretes to fight disease and life. It transports gases along with nutrients, aids in excretion, and provides protection and regulation. It flows from the heart with the vital gases and nutrients to maintain lack of perfusion.

It transports gases along with nutrients, aids in excretion, and provides protection and regulation.

Janie is having difficulty breathing. Her current tidal volume is 350 mL, and she is breathing at 28 times per minute. What would be her minute volume? A. 378 mL B. 9,800 mL C. 12.5 mL D. 342 mL

An EMT who writes an untrue statement about a patient that damages that patient's reputation can be sued by the patient for:

Libel.

Which of the following structures connect bone ends and allow for a stable range of motion?

Ligaments

You have an urgent transmission you need to make to the dispatch center. Which of the following is the appropriate way to communicate this?

Listen to the frequency first to avoid stepping on another transmission.

What is the best way to determine that you are getting adequate ventilation with a bag-valve mask? Look for chest rise and fall. Push the full amount of the bag into the patient. Ensure the pulse oximeter reads 95 to 100 percent. Hyperventilate the patient until the oxygen saturation reaches 100 percent.

Look for chest rise and fall.

Which of the following changes commonly occurs in the cardiovascular system during anaphylaxis?

Low blood pressure due to vasodilation

You are treating a 32-year-old man who is deaf. You need to find out why he called for an ambulance. What is the BEST way to communicate with this patient?

Make sure the patient can see your lips when you speak.

What is a primary problem when treating musculoskeletal injuries?

Many musculoskeletal injuries have a grotesque appearance, and the EMT cannot be distracted from life-threatening conditions by a deformed limb

In which of the following circumstances is a fully documented patient care report NOT necessary?

Multiple patients come from an office building evacuation.

In which of the following circumstances is medical control necessary when assisting a patient with the use of a prescribed inhaler? Patient has already overused the inhaler before your arrival. Medical control is not necessary since assistance with inhaled medications is in the EMT scope of practice. The inhaler belongs to another family member, not the patient. Medical control is necessary in all situations in which an EMT assists with a prescribed inhaler.

Medical control is necessary in all situations in which an EMT assists with a prescribed inhaler.

Which of the following substances may be ordered by medical control to dilute a poison?

Milk or water

Your elderly male patient tells you his name is Joe Smith. Which of the following is the BEST way to address him?

Mr. Smith

In which of the following instances would PASG be an appropriate choice to control bleeding? Answer Multiple lacerations to the lower extremities A knife impaled in the abdomen A laceration of the large veins of the neck A gunshot wound to the chest

Multiple lacerations to the lower extremities

You are on the scene of a 60-year-old male patient in respiratory distress. The patient is flushed and seated in the tripod position. He states he woke up with respiratory distress that is provoked by lying down. He is breathing 28 times a minute. He is alert and oriented to time, place, and person. His lung sounds are coarse crackles (rales) in all fields, blood pressure is 150/90, heart rate is 130, temperature is 98.6°F, and his oxygen saturation level is 91 percent. The patient has a history of angina and has prescription nitroglycerin. However, he is not complaining of chest pain. In addition to pulmonary edema, what other medical condition should you suspect? Pneumonia Bronchitis Myocardial infarction Acute sepsis

Myocardial infarction

Which of the following is NOT appropriate for inclusion in the radio report to the receiving hospital?

Name of the patient's health insurance provider

OxyContin is an example of which of the following types of drugs?

Narcotic.

The portion of the patient care report in which the EMT writes his description of the patient's presentation, assessment findings, treatment, and transport information is called the:

Narrative.

Patient data includes all of the following EXCEPT the:

Nature of the dispatch.

You have just arrived on the scene of an agricultural business and see three men coming out of a building, choking and holding their heads. One of the men tells you there are two workers still inside. What should you do next?

Nausea and vomiting

Which of the following observations indicate that your patient may have overused his prescription inhaler? Decreased level of consciousness Nervousness Increased secretions from the airway Decreased heart rate

Nervousness

Which of the following statements is correct when talking about neurogenic shock?

Neurogenic shock is sometimes caused by spinal injuries

Your patient is a 60-year-old female with a sudden onset of severe difficulty breathing. She has no prior history of respiratory problems. Which of the following should be done before applying oxygen by nonrebreather mask? Listen to the patient's breath sounds. Check the patient's oxygen saturation level. Obtain a history of the present illness. None of the above

None of the above

Which of the following patients with difficulty breathing should NOT receive supplemental oxygen? A patient with a chronic lung disease who may have a hypoxic drive An infant whose eyes may be damaged by excessive oxygen administration A patient whose oxygen saturation level is 100 percent on room air None of these patients should have oxygen withheld.

None of these patients should have oxygen withheld.

Not all inspired air reaches the alveoli; 150 mL is stopped in the airway leading to the alveoli. This is called: A. dead air space. B. tidal volume. C. vital capacity. D. bronchial air

You are transporting a city councilman to the hospital after he injured his shoulder playing basketball at his gym. His left shoulder is swollen, deformed, and bruised. There is pain and tingling when the patient attempts to use his hand. He has a pulse of 92 per minute, a respiratory rate of 20 per minute, and a blood pressure of 132/88 mmHg. Which of the following should NOT be included in the radio report?

Notification that extra security is needed for a VIP

You are ventilating a 6-year-old child and note that his heart rate has decreased from 70 to 54. Which of the following is NOT appropriate? Notify medical control that the patient's condition has improved. Check the flow of oxygen reaching the bag-valve-mask device. Increase the force of ventilations. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and continue ventilating.

Notify medical control that the patient's condition has improved.

D) All of the above

On which of the following types of calls should you bring your portable suction unit to the patient's side upon arrival on the scene? A) Motor vehicle collision B) Cardiac arrest C) Seizure D) All of the above

Our blood transports oxygen from the lungs to the cells and returns with what byproduct of metabolism? A. Lactic acid B. Carbon monoxide C. Carbon dioxide D. Carbolic acid

When the EMT is assessing compromise to an extremity, perhaps due to an orthopedic injury, the EMT should initially check what "six Ps"?

Pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulses, paralysis, and pressure

A method of assessing compromise to an extremity when a musculoskeletal injury is suspected is to learn and follow the six Ps. Which of the items below is not one of the six Ps?

Parenthesis

Which of the following is the most common situation in which an EMT may be liable?

Patient refusal of treatment and transport

Which of the following is NOT an objective element of documented patient information?

Patient's complaint of nausea

During your radio report to the hospital, which of the following pieces of information should NOT be relayed?

Patient's name

Where is the most common place for a urinary catheter?

Patient's urethra

Which of the following MOST affects the extent of damage a poison does to the body?

Patients age wealth and health

Explanation: A) CORRECT. Patients in late adulthood may be concerned about their value to those around them, leading to questions of self-worth. B) INCORRECT. Hygiene is not necessarily a challenge for patients in late adulthood. C) INCORRECT. Tax burdens tend not to be related to a specific stage of life. D) INCORRECT. One of the answers provided is correct. Page Ref: 184-185

Patients in late adulthood are likely to face which of the following challenges? A) Self-worth B) Hygiene C) Tax burden D) All of the above

Explanation: A) INCORRECT. School-age children tend not to focus on body images. B) CORRECT. Body image is a great concern for adolescents. C) INCORRECT. Body image is far less important to those in middle adulthood. D) INCORRECT. Those in early adulthood move away from the focus on body image. Page Ref: 182

Patients in which age group tend to be very concerned with body image? A) School age B) Adolescence C) Middle adulthood D) Early adulthood

You are on the scene of a person down. You arrive on-scene and find a 45-year-old patient lying supine on the floor, unresponsive. The patient is breathing at four times a minute, and has a strong radial pulse at 118 beats per minute. Your partner suctions the patient, inserts an oropharyngeal airway, and ventilates the patient with a bag-valve mask with high-concentration oxygen. What is your next course of action? Insert a Combitube. Place the patient on a backboard. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway. Perform a rapid trauma assessment.

Perform a rapid trauma assessment.

Which of the following BEST describes the delivery of oxygen and nutrients at the body's cellular level? Answer Hydrostatic pressure Perfusion Osmosis Circulation

Perfusion

A) say "hello."

Perhaps the simplest way to determine if a patient has a patent airway is to: A) say "hello." B) check for adequate chest rise. C) determine a respiratory rate. D) auscultate for breath sounds.

Which of the following BEST describes not finding a sign or symptom that you would expect to find under the circumstances?

Pertinent negative

Physiology is the study of: A. exercise and nutrition. B. body structures. C. muscles and movement. D. body systems.

Which of the following is the proper method of disposing of a used epinephrine auto-injector?

Place the device in a rigid biohazardous sharps disposal container.

You are on the scene of a 64-year-old male patient in respiratory distress. The patient is flushed and seated in the tripod position. He states he woke up with respiratory distress that is provoked by lying down. He is breathing 28 times a minute. He is alert and oriented to time, place, and person. His lung sounds are coarse crackles (rales) in all fields, blood pressure of 160/90, heart rate is 128, and his oxygen saturation level is 92 percent. The patient has a history of angina and has prescription nitroglycerin. However, he is not complaining of chest pain. After performing the primary assessment and requesting an ALS unit, what should you do next? Place the patient on 15 lpm by nonrebreather mask. Place the patient on 15 lpm per minute by bag-valve mask. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position for shock. Administer nitroglycerin to the patient.

Place the patient on 15 lpm by nonrebreather mask.

You are on the scene of a 58-year-old male patient in respiratory distress. The patient is flushed and seated in the tripod position. He states he woke up with respiratory distress that is provoked by lying down. He is breathing 28 times a minute. His lung sounds are clear, blood pressure is 150/90, heart rate is 130, and his oxygen saturation level is 95 percent. The patient has a history of angina and has prescription nitroglycerin. However, he is not complaining of chest pain. After performing the primary assessment and requesting an ALS unit, what should you do next?1/1 pts Provide supportive care until ALS arrives. Place the patient on oxygen by nasal cannula. Place the patient on oxygen and contact medical control about administering the patient's nitroglycerin. Withhold oxygen because of the normal lung sounds and pulse oximeter reading, but call medical control about administering the patient's nitroglycerin.

Place the patient on oxygen and contact medical control about administering the patient's nitroglycerin.

You are responding to a nursing home for an 85-year-old patient complaining of difficulty breathing. How would you initiate contact with this patient?

Place yourself at eye-level, identify yourself, and ask the patient what she would like to be called.

A suspected musculoskeletal injury of the shoulder is best managed by which of the following techniques?

Placing the arm in a sling and using a triangular bandage to secure it to the body

Your patient is a 7-year-old girl who was prescribed an antibiotic for an ear infection. After 4 days on the antibiotic, the patient is experiencing hives and itching on her face, throat, and neck. Which of the following should you do?

Provide supportive care and monitor the patient's condition during transport to the hospital.

You are on the scene of a 22-year-old female patient with a history of asthma who is complaining of respiratory distress. She states she was arguing with her boyfriend, and that triggered her asthma. Vital signs are blood pressure 120/80, pulse 110, respiratory rate 32, and SpO2 99 percent on room air. Her lung sounds are clear in all fields and there are no other significant findings. Her medications include an Albuterol inhaler and Xanax® for "stress." After performing your primary assessment, what should you do next? Provide oxygen by bag-valve mask. Assist the patient with her Albuterol medication. Provide oxygen by nonrebreather mask. Provide supportive care and reassess her vital signs.

Provide supportive care and reassess her vital signs.

Plasma oncotic pressure is created by the movement of which of the following? A. Constriction of the vessels B. Large proteins C. Dilation of the vessels D. Contraction of the heart

You are called to the scene of a 45-year-old nonsmoker male with a history of asthma in respiratory distress. You find him lying supine on the couch. The patient is lethargic but can answer all your questions appropriately. He is diaphoretic, and complains of being cold, coughing, and having difficulty breathing for the past 3 days. His vital signs are blood pressure of 110/70, heart rate of 116, respiratory rate of 24, oxygen saturation of 93 percent, and temperature of 100.6°F. You hear rhonchi in the left lobes and he is coughing up yellow-tinged sputum. What condition do you suspect? Asthma Silent myocardial infarction COPD Pneumonia

Pneumonia

You have received an order from medical direction that you feel would be detrimental to your patient. Which of the following should you do?

Politely question the physician.

A traction splint may be used on which of the following musculoskeletal injuries?

Possible fracture of the femur

delayed stress reaction.

Posttraumatic stress disorder may be described as a(n):

By which of the following actions does carbon monoxide have its toxic effects?

Prevents red blood cells from carrying oxygen

By which of the following actions does carbon monoxide have its toxic effects?

Prevents red blood cells from carrying oxygen.

Which of the following is NOT an important part of the patient care documentation process?

Providing the media with information about the patient's condition

You are en route to the hospital with a 22-year-old male patient who has suffered a very embarrassing injury to his genitalia. Which method of contacting the receiving facility will afford the patient the most privacy?

Providing the receiving hospital with all information via a cell phone

Production of energy occurs in what part of the cell? A. Nucleus B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Potassium pump D. Mitochondria

Which of the following medications is indicated in the treatment of a 52-year-old male with difficulty breathing and a history of emphysema? Activated charcoal Nitroglycerin Proventil Oral glucose

Proventil

Which of the following is the best initial intervention for a patient who has inhaled a poison?

Provide a patent airway, ventilation, and high-concentration oxygen.

Your patient is a 20-year-old college student who has fallen from a third-level balcony onto a wooden deck below. The patient responds to verbal stimuli, is pale in color with moist skin, and has a very obvious deformity with protruding bone ends of his right forearm. Which of the following is the best sequence of intervention for this patient?

Provide manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine along with assessment of breathing, pulse, and the presence of significant hemorrhage; apply high-concentration oxygen; perform a rapid trauma exam; immobilize to a long backboard; transport; and splint the extremity en route if time and resources allow.

It is 02:45 a.m. You are on the scene of a 38-year-old, 200-pound female patient in cardiac arrest. The husband states that the female has a history of asthma and smokes one-half pack of cigarettes per day. Her only medications are her Albuterol inhaler and an oral contraceptive. She has no allergies. Her husband states that she has been complaining of shortness of breath for 3 days. She saw her doctor twice, who diagnosed her with asthma and gave her another Albuterol prescription. The husband said that he could not wake her up and called 911. The patient's lung sounds are clear and you can auscultate them in all fields when your partner ventilates with a bag-valve mask. You also notice the patient's skin is a dark purple color from the nipple line upwards. What condition do you suspect? Acute asthma attack Status asthmaticus Acute pulmonary edema Pulmonary embolism

Pulmonary embolism

Which of the following is a sign of adequate artificial ventilations in a pediatric patient? The breath is delivered easily. Pulse rate slows down. Pulse rate increases. You notice cyanosis developing around the mouth.

Pulse rate increases.

After the administration of a prescribed inhaler, which of the following should the EMT NOT reassess? Pupillary size and reaction Pulse Respirations Mental status

Pupillary size and reaction

Which of the following is NOT a way in which poison can access the body?

Radiation.

Which of the following should NOT be included in a patient care report?

Radio codes

After you give your radio report to the hospital, your patient becomes unresponsive. Which of the following should you do next?

Reassess the patient.

Your patient is a 38-year-old male who has taken an overdose of several different medications and has consumed some household cleaning agents as well. On your arrival, the patient only responds to painful stimuli, and has a heart rate of 90 beats per minute with a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute. Medical control orders you to give the patient two to three glasses of milk to drink to dilute the contents of the stomach. Which of the following actions should you do?

Refuse the order and explain why. .

What is the primary effect on the body when an EMT assists a patient with a prescribed inhaler if the patient is short of breath? Decreased heart rate Dissolved mucus in the airways Increased contraction of the diaphragm Relaxation of the bronchioles

Relaxation of the bronchioles

Which of the following is acceptable when documenting your time of arrival on the scene?

Rely on the dispatcher for the accurate time of arrival.

Your patient is a 30-year-old female who may have overdosed on antidepressant medications. On your arrival, she is lying supine on her bed with her head on a pillow. She is unresponsive to painful stimuli and is snoring. She appears to be pale and her skin is cool and clammy. What should you do first? Apply oxygen by nonrebreather mask. Insert an oropharyngeal airway. Check the patient's pulse. Remove the patient's pillow.

Remove the patient's pillow.

Medical direction has requested that you administer 70 grams of activated charcoal to an overdose patient. Which of the following should you do next?

Repeat the order back to the physician to make sure you understood correctly.

Your patient is a 28-year-old male who cut his thigh with a chain saw. It appears that he has lost about 600 cc of blood. Which of the following is NOT part of the proper management of this patient? Answer Use of a tourniquet Replacement of fluid level by giving the patient adequate amounts of water Using direct pressure to control the bleeding Administering oxygen

Replacement of fluid level by giving the patient adequate amounts of water

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) requires ambulance services to do all of the following EXCEPT:

Report child abuse.

You are on the scene of a 22-year-old female patient who is unresponsive. The patient's mother states that she is deathly allergic to peanuts and accidentally ate stir fry cooked in peanut oil. The patient is unresponsive with agonal respirations at 6 per minute. You insert an oral airway and administer oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask. You notice that it is difficult to bag the patient. Your partner listens to lung sounds and states they are very diminished in the upper fields and absent in the lower fields. What is the best action?

Request orders from medical control to administer epinephrine

Patients that have missed dialysis present with?

SOB and electrical disturbances of the heart (dysrhythmias)

If a patient was having a myocardial infarction, not an allergic reaction, and received an epinephrine auto-injection, which of the following would most likely occur?

Stronger and faster heartbeat

Which of the following must be kept in mind when considering the severity of external bleeding? Answer Signs of shock do not appear until a large amount of blood has been lost. The amount of blood loss is easily estimated by the amount of blood visible on the ground. A younger person can tolerate more blood loss than an older one. All of the above

Signs of shock do not appear until a large amount of blood has been lost.

What is the best way to communicate with a young pediatric patient?

Sit at the level of the child if possible, and always be honest.

Which of the following BEST describes the position you should take when dealing with a cooperative patient who is sitting in a chair?

Sit or kneel at the same level as the patient.

Which of the following is NOT considered a principle of proper radio usage in EMS?

Speak as quickly as possible.

Splinting swollen extremities

When the lung collapses without injury or any other cause, it is cal led which of the following? COPD Spontaneous pertussis Spontaneous pneumothorax Spontaneous pulmonary embolism

Spontaneous pneumothorax

Which of the following is a characteristic of arterial bleeding? Answer Steady flow Dark red color Spurting under pressure Both B and C

Spurting under pressure

You have responded to a call at a government office building. One of the office workers became very upset during a fire drill and experienced an episode of difficulty breathing. As your partner is speaking with the patient, who is not sure she wants to be transported, an individual wearing civilian clothes approaches you and states she is a security guard in the building. She asks you for the "yellow copy" of your patient care report. Which of the following should you do?

State that you are unable to comply with the request due to patient confidentiality.

Which breath sound is the EMT most likely to hear when caring for an adult male with a partial airway obstruction that occurred While eating steak? Rhonchi Stridor Wheezes Crackles

Stridor

Stroke volume depends on a series of factors: one is the force the myocardial muscle exerts to move the blood. This is known as: A. preload. B. automaticity. C. contractility. D. afterload.

Which of the following BEST explains the reason for minimizing scene-time for the trauma patient with significant hemorrhage or the potential for significant hemorrhage? Answer There is nothing the EMT can do for a patient in shock. It gives the EMT less opportunity to make mistakes in the patient's care. Studies have indicated that trauma patients who receive surgery within 1 hour of injury have better chances of survival. All of the above

Studies have indicated that trauma patients who receive surgery within 1 hour of injury have better chances of survival.

Which of the following is an injury that commonly occurs in alcoholic patients with even minor falls and blows to the head?Answer

Subdural hematoma

The patient's impression of what is wrong with him is which of the following types of information?

Subjective

When a chemical substance is taken for reasons other than therapeutic use, this action is called:

Substance abuse.

You are called to the scene of a 14-year-old female patient who is unresponsive. Her mother states she has been teased and bullied at school and she suspects that she tired to commit suicide by taking her pain pills. The patient is unresponsive to painful stimuli, with agonal respirations, and has v0mited. She has a weak carotid pulse. Your first action action is to:

Suction the patients airway.

Which of the following explains why a patient may experience difficulty breathing during anaphylaxis?

Swelling of the airway tissues causes difficulty breathing.

Which of the following should be documented as subjective patient information?

Symptoms

Which one of the following statements is not true?

Tendons are bands of connective tissue that bind the ligaments to muscles.

Which one of the following definitions is not true?

Tendons connect muscles to ligaments.

The provider's hands come into contact with fecal matter.

The CDC recommends using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer in all except which of the following situation(s)?

While on the scene with an elderly chest pain call, you notice that your partner gets on one knee when talking to the seated patient. What is the best reason for an EMT to kneel down beside the patient?

The EMT does not want to appear threatening or intimidating to the patient.

Which of the following agencies assigns and licenses radio frequencies?

The Federal Communications Commission

National standards for emergency medical services personnel

The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) was founded to establish which of the following?

The administration of oxygen and the application of spinal immobilization is part of which of the following for the EMT? A. Duty to act B. Standard of care C. Scope of practice D. None of the above

A new EMT who is treating a suspected femur injury asks his partner, "How much traction should I pull?" The partner's best reply is which of the following?

The amount of traction applied should be roughly 10% of the patient's body weight and not exceed 15 pounds.

Standing orders

The application of oxygen for a patient who is short of breath without having to contact the physician in the emergency department because of existing protocols is an example of which of the following?

C. crying.

The expected response of an infant to a verbal stimulus involving a shout or the painful stimulus of flicking the infant's feet is: A. kicking the feet. B. twisting away from the stimuli. C. crying. D. disorientation.

Two EMTs are on-scene of a behavioral call at a psychiatric facility. The medical personnel state that the patient had a psychotic episode and slashed his wrists. During the call, the patient claims to hear the voice of God and says that the voice is hurting his ears. The patient refuses to be transported to the emergency department, becomes combative, and bites one of the EMTs. Which of the following should not be documented on the EMS report?

The fact that the EMT had an exposure incident

C. Major arterial bleeding

Which condition would be a critical concern during primary assessment? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Coronary artery disease C. Major arterial bleeding D. Gingivitis

The basic nutrient of the cell and the building block for energy is: A. glucose. B. water. C. oxygen. D. protein.

Which of the following is responsible for most of the signs and symptoms of early shock? Answer External bleeding Internal bleeding Dilation of the peripheral blood vessels The body's attempts at compensation for blood loss

The body's attempts at compensation for blood loss

The bone most commonly fractured with a "broken hip" is the: A. femur. B. tibia. C. ilium. D. fibula.

The cardiac muscle receives its supply of oxygenated blood by which of the following mechanisms? A. Absorption of oxygen from the blood returning from the lungs B. Coronary veins that branch off the pulmonary vein as it returns oxygenated blood to the heart C. Coronary arteries that branch off the aorta D. None of the above

The cellular structure that is responsible for synthesizing proteins is: A. nucleus. B. sodium pump. C. endoplasmic reticulum. D. mitochondria.

Which of the following is TRUE concerning expiration? The chest cavity increases in size. The diaphragm moves upward. The intercostal muscles contract to force air out of the lungs. The ribs move upward and outward.

The diaphragm moves upward.

The disruption of lung tissue by mechanical forces or medical problems can upset diffusion, which is defined as: A. the process of gas exchange between the alveoli and the capillaries. B. the ability of the lungs to expand equally during inspiration. C. maintaining enough positive pressure in the pleural space to keep the lungs from collapsing. D. the exchange of gases in the bronchi.

Why is it important that your radio report to the receiving facility be concise?

The emergency department needs to know quickly and accurately the patient's condition.

By definition, a systemic poison causes harm to which of the following?

The entire body.

You are treating a 61-year-old who is a chronic alcohol abuser. He is complaining of "snakes slithering around his ankles," and he tells you that he had only two drinks tonight. You notice that he is sweating, trembling, and anxious. Before you can complete your assessment, he begins to have a seizure. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this situation?

The patient is suffering from alcohol withdrawal.

Which of the following is NOT an indication for the administration of an epinephrine auto-injector?

The patient possesses an epinephrine auto-injector.

Which of the following can be correctly noted as a chief complaint?

The patient stated that she felt sick.

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate statement for the EMT to make on a patient care report?

The patient was having an asthma attack.

Which of the following is NOT appropriate to document on your patient care report?

The patient's attitude

The patient's condition is improving.

When you arrive at the receiving facility, the nurse asks your partner for a verbal report of the patient's condition. This is in addition to the radio report your partner gave to the hospital en route. Afterwards, you ask your partner why you must give a second verbal report and a written report to the receiving nurse. What is the best reason to provide both reports?

The patient's condition may have changed since the first radio report. incorrectThe nurse may be too busy to read the written report.

Your patient is a 43-year-old woman with chest pain. You have called the communications center and asked for an ALS unit to be dispatched to your location. While en route, the ALS unit calls you for a report. Which information is most important to the ALS unit at this time?

The patient's level of consciousness and chief complaint

The potential space between the lung and chest wall is called the: A. carina space. B. pleural space. C. dead space. D. lung space.

The pressure against the walls of the blood vessels as blood is ejected from the heart and circulates through the body is the ________ blood pressure. A. diastolic B. central venous C. mean arterial D. systolic

The pressure that is created when the heart pushes the blood throughout the circulatory system is called: A. hydrostatic pressure. B. osmotic pressure. C. hyperstatic pressure. D. oncotic pressure.

The process by which glucose and other nutrients are converted into energy is called: A. respiration. B. catabolism. C. metabolism. D. depolarization.

The pulse palpated on the top of the foot is called the ________ pulse. A. dorsalis pedis B. phalanx proximalis C. tibialis posterior D. suprametatarsal

Which of the following statements concerning severe allergic reactions is true?

The quicker the onset of symptoms, the greater the likelihood of a severe allergic reaction.

The respiratory system moves air in and out; however, to ________ cells, the air that is inhaled must meet up with the circulatory system. A. defuse B. register C. perfuse D. hyperoxygenate

The seat of respiratory control is found in the: A. lungs. B. chest. C. medulla oblongata. D. nose.

The study of how disease affects the functioning of the human body is called: A. physiology. B. anatomy. C. psychology. D. pathophysiology.

The sympathetic nervous response causes which of the following to occur? A. Breathe slower and deeper, blood vessels to dilate, heart to beat stronger and faster, skin to sweat, pupils to constrict, and skin to become pale B. Breathe faster and deeper, blood vessels to constrict, heart to beat stronger and faster, skin to sweat, pupils to dilate, and skin to become pale C. Breathe faster and deeper, blood vessels to constrict, heart to beat stronger and faster, skin to sweat, pupils to constrict, and skin to become warm D. Breathe faster and deeper, blood vessels to dilate, heart to beat stronger and slower, skin to sweat, pupils to dilate, and skin to become pale

cumulative

The term burnout is also known as a(n) ________ stress reaction.

D) carina

The trachea branches off at the ________ and forms two mainstem bronchi. A) bronchioles B) pleura C) alveoli D) carina

While assessing the airway of a pediatric patient, you will notice that it is different than that of an adult. Which of the following is one of those differences? The cricoid cartilage is less developed, reducing the possibility that it can be completely occluded. The tongue is smaller, taking up less room in the mouth and allowing larger objects to occlude the airway. The trachea is smaller, softer, and more flexible, allowing it to be more easily obstructed. The chest wall is softer, making it easier for the chest to expand.

The trachea is smaller, softer, and more flexible, allowing it to be more easily obstructed.

Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The term transitional is not used to describe the movement between childhood and adulthood. B) INCORRECT. The transition from childhood to adulthood is not called young adult. C) CORRECT. The transition from childhood to adulthood is known as adolescence. D) INCORRECT. Early adulthood does not describe the transition between childhood and adulthood. Page Ref: 181

The transition from childhood to adulthood is known as which of the following? A) Transitional B) Young adult C) Adolescence D) Early adulthood

detect a person's exposure to tuberculosis.

The tuberculin skin test (TST), formerly known as the purified protein derivative (PPD) test, is used to:

The two major portions of the skull are the: A. manubrium and mandible. B. frontal bone and ilium. C. atlas and axis. D. cranium and face.

Your patient is a 19-year-old motorcyclist who has crashed into a parked car and was ejected from his motorcycle. He was wearing a helmet; he is awake, shivering, and anxious. The patient is pale, with slight cyanosis of his lips, a slightly increased respiratory rate, and a rapid, thready radial pulse. Bystanders state that there was no loss of consciousness. The patient has abrasions to his hands and face, and blood is saturating the thigh area of both legs of his jeans. A rapid trauma assessment reveals that the patient has swelling and deformity of both thighs. Which of the following is NOT appropriate in the on-scene management of this patient? Answer The use of a long backboard The use of traction splinting for the lower extremity injuries The use of PASG The use of high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask

The use of traction splinting for the lower extremity injuries

The volume of air that is moved in and out of the chest in a normal breath cycle is called: A. expiration. B. tidal volume. C. inspiration. D. vital capacity.

Which of the following is a benefit of using small-volume nebulizers for the treatment of respiratory problems? They allow greater exposure of the patient's lungs to the medication. The patient can easily carry this equipment in a purse or pocket. Nebulized medications have fewer side effects than aerosolized medications from an inhaler. They will work even when the patient's ventilations are inadequate.

They allow greater exposure of the patient's lungs to the medication.

B. airway.

The "A" in ABCs is: A. assessment. B. airway. C. artificial. D. alert.

The "fight-or-flight" response is activated by the: A. endocrine system. B. sympathetic nervous system. C. renal system. D. parasympathetic nervous system.

The EMT's obligation to provide care to a patient either as a formal or ethical responsibility is known as which of the following? A. Legal responsibility B. Scope of practice C. Duty to act D. Standard of care

Maintaining your equipment

The EMT's role in the quality improvement process includes becoming involved in the quality process, keeping carefully written documentation, obtaining feedback from patients and the hospital staff, continuing your education, and which of the following?

Which of the following is part of the minimum data set developed by the U.S. DOT for purposes of data collection in conducting research?

Time of arrival at the patient's location

able to listen to others

To be compassionate and empathetic, to be accurate with interviews, and to inspire confidence are all examples of which of the personal traits of a quality EMT?

D) 30; 300

To be effective, a suction unit must be able to generate air flow of ________ liters per minute and create a vacuum of ________ mmHg. A) 300; 30 B) 30; 30 C) 300; 330 D) 30; 300

Which of the following types of drugs may induce sleep or stupor?

Tranquilizers and Narcotics

Which of the following is a possible side effect of a prescribed inhaler for respiratory problems? Tremors Sleepiness Trapped air in the lungs Decreased heart rate

Tremors

Your patient has eaten a casserole that may have contained seafood. The patient is worried because he has a seafood allergy. Upon assessment, you find no signs or symptoms of anaphylaxis. The patient's vital signs are stable and he has an epinephrine auto-injector prescribed to him. Which of the following actions is most appropriate?

Try to find out if the casserole contained seafood.

Two EMTs respond to the scene of a syncopal episode. A 50-year-old patient passed out and cut his lip. The EMTs talk the patient out of an expensive ambulance ride and suggest he will save money by driving himself to urgent care instead. The patient agrees and signs a refusal form. The patient dies from sudden cardiac arrest at home the following day. Which of the following statements is true? A. The EMTs are not negligent because the patient signed the refusal form. B. The EMTs are negligent because the patient died. C. The EMTs may be negligent if there is evidence of proximate cause. D. The EMTs are not negligent because the EMTs have no control over the patient's medical condition.

Which of the following is not a classification of the severity of shock?

Uncompensated

transfer of care

Upon arrival at the hospital, the EMT advises hospital personnel of the patient's condition, observations from the scene, treatment rendered, and other pertinent data to assure continuity of care. This process is known as which of the following?

What is the most common disease process that afflicts the renal and urinary system?

Urinary Tract Infections

Which of the following is recommended in situations in which a tourniquet must be used? Answer Apply a bulky dressing and bandage over the tourniquet. Apply the tourniquet over the elbow or knee. Use a material that is wide and thick. Remove the tourniquet as soon as bleeding is controlled to minimize further damage to the limb.

Use a material that is wide and thick.

You are in a very remote area at the residence of a patient who is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction. You attempt to contact medical control via your radio to request orders to assist the patient with his epinephrine auto-injector, but you cannot make contact with the hospital. What should you do next?

Use the patient's landline telephone.

Which of the following is the most effective way of controlling external bleeding? Answer Running cold water over the wound Using direct pressure with a dressing Elevating the affected part Using an ice pack

Using direct pressure with a dressing

Which of the following types of vessels have valves to maintain one-way blood flow? Answer Arteries Capillaries Veins Arterioles

Veins

Your patient is an 18-year-old male who fell into a neighbor's swimming pool but was pulled out by bystanders. The neighbors report that the patient wandered into their yard and that he said he had a "funny numb feeling" in his head and his chest hurt before stumbling into the pool. As you are performing CPR, you notice that the mucous membranes in his mouth and nose are swollen. Which of the following would account for the patient's behavior and current condition?

Volatile chemicals

Cleaning build, glue, and model cement are common examples of which of the following?

Volatile chemicals.

Water that is found in the space between cells and blood vessels is called: A. hydrostatic. B. intravascular. C. interstitial. D. intracellular.

A. General impression

What BEST defines the immediate sense of the patient's degree of distress, formulated from the patient's immediate environment, appearance, and chief complaint? A. General impression B. Secondary assessment C. Scene size-up D. Primary assessment

Flashbacks, nightmares, and feelings of detachment

What are some signs and symptoms that a coworker may be experiencing a delayed stress reaction (PTSD)?

Gloves, N-95 mask, goggles, and gown

What are the minimum Standard Precautions an EMT should take when transporting a patient infected with Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)?

What are the small bones that make up the wrist called? A. Tarsals B. Carpals C. Metatarsals D. Metacarpals

What are the two most easily injured portions of the spine? A. Cervical and lumbar B. Lumbar and sacral C. Cervical and thoracic D. Sacral and coccygeal

patient assessment

What best defines the evaluation of the patient's condition in order to provide emergency care?

Emergency Medical Dispatcher

What best describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes activation of the EMS system and provides immediate care for life-threatening problems?

Advanced EMT

What best describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes use of advanced airway devices and some prehospital medication administration?

What causes the "seesaw" breathing pattern of young children? A. The cricoid cartilage and trachea are both more flexible than in adults, making breathing more difficult. B. They rely more on the diaphragm during breathing difficulty. C. The size of their tongues in proportion to their mouths. D. The pronounced inward curvature at the bottom of the ribcage.

What condition of immediate concern results from a loss of red blood cells due to hemorrhage? A. Decreased production of carbon dioxide B. Decrease in pulse rate C. Decreased ability to fight infection D. Decreased oxygen delivery to the tissues

What do chemoreceptors found in the body and vascular system measure? A. Low oxygen and low carbon dioxide B. High oxygen and high carbon dioxide C. High oxygen and low carbon dioxide D. Low oxygen and high carbon dioxide

What element does the cell need in order to NOT dehydrate and die? A. Water B. Glucose C. Proteins D. Oxygen

prehospital care

What has the modern emergency medical services (EMS) system been developed to provide?

What is FiO2? A. The concentration of gases in our expired air, which is referred to as the fraction of used oxygen B. The concentration of oxygen in our inhaled air, which is referred to as the fraction of inspired oxygen C. The amount of oxygen delivered via an airway adjunct in liters per minute D. The flow rate of gases provided to the patient by mask or nasal cannula

What is NOT one of the primary organs for the female reproductive system? A. Uterus B. Urethra C. Vagina D. Ovaries

Explanation: A) CORRECT. Late adulthood, the stage often referred to as the "twilight years," brings about several physiological and psychosocial changes, second only to those seen during infancy or adolescence. B) INCORRECT. Middle adulthood does not have nearly the physiological and psychosocial changes found in infancy and adolescence. C) INCORRECT. There are few physiological and psychosocial changes in the toddler stage. D) INCORRECT. Those of preschool age tend not to have notable physiological or psychosocial changes. Page Ref: 184

What is the stage of development where there are several physiological and psychosocial changes, second only to infancy or adolescence? A) Late adulthood B) Middle adulthood C) Toddler D) Preschool age

What is the strongest and most muscular part of the heart? A. Right atrium B. Right ventricle C. Left atrium D. Left ventricle

What is the type of metabolism that occurs when energy is created with a balance of adequate oxygen and nutrients? A. Aerobic B. Anaerobic C. Hypoxic D. Homeostatic

PPE

What is a common term used to describe the items needed for Standard Precautions or body substance isolation precautions?

B. Less than 2 seconds

What is a normal capillary refill time in a pediatric patient? A. 3 seconds B. Less than 2 seconds C. 5 seconds D. 1 minute

Explanation: A) INCORRECT. This is a normal heart rate for an infant. B) INCORRECT. This is a normal heart rate for a toddler. C) INCORRECT. This is a normal heart rate for a preschool age child. D) CORRECT. The normal heart rate of a school age child is 70-110/minute.180 Page Ref: 180

What is a normal heart rate for a school age child? A) 140-160/minute B) 80-130/minute C) 80-120/minute D) 70-110/minute

What is a patent airway? A. A rigid suction device used to remove fluid and foreign objects from the pharynx to secure the airway B. A term used by EMS practitioners to indicate that the patient has a secured and opened airway necessary for life C. An airway that is in need of securing via an oral or nasal pharyngeal airway D. The condition of the patient's airway at the start of a lifesaving intervention

public vaccination programs

What is a public health initiative that is likely to involve the participation of EMTs?

What is another name for the eye socket? A. Odontoid process B. Orbit C. Zygomatic arch D. Parietal bone

What is another name for the shoulder blade? A. Patella B. Scapula C. Clavicle D. Pharynx

Regular physical exercise

What is a positive, healthy way to help deal with stress?

Hospitals

What is not one the common settings that an EMT may work in?

safety of bystanders

What is not the priority of an EMT at the scene of a hazardous materials incident?

What is the best description of the chest's mechanical functions? A. With the chest being an airtight space, the act of breathing occurs when the muscles of the diaphragm and intercostal relax, which causes the lungs to expand and air to flow into the lungs. B. The chest is a closed space with only one opening; the trachea, to inspire air; the diaphragm contracts down and the intercostal muscles expand the ribs, causing a negative pressure that fills the lungs with air. C. The diaphragm contracts, causing the intercostal muscles that are attached to the lungs to also contract, which moves the air into the lungs. D. The chest is a closed space, and the pleural space surrounds the lungs; when the diaphragm contracts and the intercostals expand, the chest and lungs move outward and downward, allowing expiration and gas exchange in the lungs.

What is the bone on the thumb side of the forearm? A. Ulna B. Fibula C. Radius D. Acromion

What is the correct order of air flow from the nose to the alveoli in the lungs? A. Nose, hyperpharynx, pharynx, hypopharynx, trachea, mainstem bronchi, bronchi, alveoli B. Nose, nasopharynx, pharynx, hypopharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli C. Nose, pharynx, hypopharynx, epiglottis, trachea, crania, mainstem bronchi, alveoli D. Mouth, pharynx, epiglottis, hypopharynx, trachea, mainstem bronchi, crania, alveoli

B) Loss of muscle tone and airway collapse

What is the danger that an altered mental status can pose to a patient's breathing? A) Depressed alveolar function B) Loss of muscle tone and airway collapse C) Bronchospasms D) Hyperoxia

What is the largest bone of the lower leg? A. Tibia B. Patella C. Fibula D. Femur

What is the long bone of the upper portion of the arm? A. Scapula B. Humerus C. Ulna D. Radius

EMT

What is the minimum level of certification required of ambulance personnel responsible for direct patient care?

What is the most common digestive disorder? A. Flatus B. Irritable bowel and gastric esophageal disease C. Vomiting and diarrhea D. Diarrhea and gastric esophageal disease

Ryan White CARE Act

What is the name of the federal act that mandates a procedure by which emergency healthcare providers can find out if they have been exposed to potentially life-threatening diseases while on the job?

What is the name of the heart dysfunction caused by an electrical source that causes the heart to beat too fast? A. Tachycardia B. Trauma C. Bradycardia D. Heart attack

Your patient has ingested a potentially dangerous amount of a medication. One question you should ask is

What is the patient's estimated weight

To prevent spreading infection to the next patient

What is the primary reason for an EMT to change gloves between contacts with different patients?

C) Snoring

What is the sound of the soft tissue of the upper airway creating impedance or partial obstruction to the flow of air? A) Stridor B) Hoarseness C) Snoring D) Gurgling

You are called to the scene of a 21-year-old female patient who is unresponsive. Her boyfriend suspects that she tried to commit suicide by overdosing on her depression medications. The patient is unresponsive to painful stimuli, with agonal respirations, and has vomited. She has a weak carotid pulse. After securing the airway and providing oxygen by bag-valve mask, what is the most important question the EMT can ask regarding the medication?

What medication did she take?

fecal-oral

What mode of transmission most accurately describes the route of spreading hepatitis A?

Emergency Response Guidebook

What reference provides important information regarding hazardous materials, emergency care, and procedures in case of accidental fire or release; supplies definitions of placard colors and identification numbers; and should be standard issue on board all ambulances and rescue units?

What system is a group of organs and glands designed for the specific purpose of reproduction? A. Reproduction system B. Lymphatic system C. Renal system D. Respiratory system

What system produces chemicals called hormones that help to regulate many body activities and functions? A. Lymphatic system B. Digestive system C. Respiratory system D. Endocrine system

What two body systems are critical for the life support chain? A. Cardiopulmonary and digestive systems B. Respiratory and endocrine systems C. Cardiovascular and lymphatic systems D. Respiratory and cardiovascular systems

What two components are directly related to aerobic metabolism? A. Electrolytes and carbohydrates B. Exercise and water C. Oxygen and glucose D. Carbolic acid and air

What type of blood vessels surround the alveoli? A. Veins B. Capillaries C. Arterioles D. Arteries

What type of muscles control the size of the bronchioles in the lungs? A. Skeletal B. Striated C. Smooth D. Voluntary

What vessel carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs? A. Aorta B. Pulmonary veins C. Vena cavae D. Pulmonary artery

What substances, when dissolved, separate into charged particles? A. ATP B. Ions C. Electrolytes D. Cations

Which of the following sounds may be heard in lower respiratory obstruction? Crowing Wheezing Stridor Snoring

Wheezing

When a person has an exaggerated response to a body invader, the person is said to have: A. hyposensitivity. B. antibody reaction. C. histamine dump. D. hypersensitivity.

When carbon dioxide is not exchanged, the net result is high carbon dioxide, a condition called ________, within the body. A. hyperemia B. hyperglycemia C. hypercapnia D. hyperthermia

Obstructing the ability to visualize and protect the airway

When covering a patient's mouth and nose with a mask of any kind, which of the following is the primary risk?

C) 180

When inserting an oropharyngeal airway, how many degrees do you need to rotate the airway so the tip is pointing down into the patient's pharynx? A) 45 B) 90 C) 180 D) 270

Anger

When responding to the scene of a patient who was discovered to be unresponsive, not breathing, and without a pulse, family members state that the patient has been suffering from cancer for several years. One of his sons is cursing at you and your partner, saying that you are not moving fast enough. Which stage of grief is the patient's son experiencing in response to his father's death?

A) 10

When suctioning the airway, suction should never be applied for longer than ________ seconds. A) 10 B) 30 C) 45 D) 60

n95

When the potential exists for exposure to exhaled air of a person with suspected or confirmed TB, a(n) ________ mask should be worn by the EMT.

When the body's water moves from the bloodstream into the interstitial space, it is called: A. hydrostatic. B. dehydration. C. edema. D. hypovolemia.

Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The sucking reflex causes an infant to begin sucking when his lips are touched. B) CORRECT. The palmar reflex in an infant causes her to grasp an object placed into her palm. C) INCORRECT. When an infant turns his head to the side when a cheek is touched, it is known as the rooting reflex. D) INCORRECT. Moro reflex causes an infant, when startled, to throw her arms out, spread her fingers, and grab with her fingers and arms. Page Ref: 177

When you place your finger in an infant's palm, she grasps it with her fingers. This is an example of which reflex? A) Sucking B) Palmar C) Rooting D) Moro

Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The rooting reflex causes the infant to turn his head when his cheek is touched. B) INCORRECT. There is no defined reaction called the startle reflex. C) CORRECT. The Moro reflex causes a startled infant to throw his arms out, spread his fingers, and grab with his arms and fingers. D) INCORRECT. There is no such reaction called the scaffolding reflex. Page Ref: 177

When you startle a 4-month-old, he throws his arms out, spreads his fingers, then grabs with his fingers and arms. The reaction is known as the: A) rooting reflex. B) startle reflex. C) Moro reflex. D) scaffolding reflex.

Which chamber of the heart is the strongest, most muscular part of the heart and is primarily responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body? A. Right ventricle B. Right atrium C. Left ventricle D. Left atrium

cortisol

Which hormone helps the body control stress, regulate metabolism, and influence an immune response?

Which of the following BEST defines adenosine triphosphate (ATP)? A. It is the form of energy that is produced in the mitochondria from glucose and DNA. B. It is the form of energy that is produced in the nucleus from glucose and other nutrients. C. It is the form of energy produced in the mitochondria and is the cell's engine responsible for all cell function. D. It is the form of energy produced in the endoplasmic reticulum and is the cell's engine responsible for all cell function.

Which of the following BEST describes the medical condition of shock? A. An extreme emotional reaction to a stressful event B. Delayed capillary refill C. A state of inadequate tissue perfusion D. Hypotension

National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)

Which of the following agencies is responsible for establishing EMS system assessment programs?

Which of the following are the components of the nervous system? A. Spinal cord and motor nerves B. Brain, spinal cord, and nerves C. Brain and autonomic nerves D. Spinal cord and sensory nerves

Irritability with friends, family, coworkers, or patients

Which of the following behaviors would be considered a common sign of stress rather than an acute psychological problem?

Being tolerant of angry reactions by patients and family members

Which of the following behaviors would demonstrate that an EMT understands reactions to death and dying?

Enhanced 911

Which of the following best describes a communication system capable of identifying the number and location of the phone from which a caller is calling?

Protocol

Which of the following best describes a list of steps the EMT should perform while assessing and managing emergency medical situations?

advocate

Which of the following best describes a person who speaks up on behalf of the patient and supports his cause?

Continuing education

Which of the following best describes training that supplements the EMT's original training and that is usually taken in regular intervals?

Which of the following body systems primarily produces hormones? A. Cardiovascular B. Exocrine C. Gastrointestinal D. Endocrine

An organism that causes infection and disease

Which of the following descriptions best defines the term pathogen?

D. The normal respiratory rate is faster.

Which of the following differences should be expected when assessing a pediatric patient, as compared to the adult patient? A. An adult's tongue is proportionally larger than that of a child and should always be considered as a potential airway obstruction. B. The normal pulse rate is slower. C. Capillary refill is not as reliable an indicator of circulatory status. D. The normal respiratory rate is faster.

B. Patient's capillary refill time

Which of the following findings is generally NOT used to assess an adult's circulation? A. Evaluation for bleeding B. Patient's capillary refill time C. Patient's skin color, temperature, and condition D. Patient's distal pulse rate

the french

Which of the following groups is credited with developing the earliest documented emergency medical service?

Which of the following incidents is the EMT legally required to report to law enforcement? A. Your patient is a 12-year-old male who fell from his bicycle, breaking his left arm, and tells you his parents are at work. B. Your patient has facial and head injuries and states that her husband beat her with a telephone receiver. C. Your patient is an 18-year-old college student who has been consuming large amounts of alcohol at a fraternity party. D. You suspect the wife of the patient you are treating for chest pain has been smoking marijuana.

D C和D难道不是同一个意思么

Which of the following information may be important to law enforcement officers investigating a crime scene? A. Your opinion of what happened before you arrived on-scene B. Your experience as an EMT C. What route you took when responding to the scene D. How you gained access to the scene

Explanation: A) CORRECT. Late adulthood is not usually associated with self-destructive behaviors. B) INCORRECT. It is common for those in late adulthood to have concerns about death and dying. C) INCORRECT. Financial burdens can weigh heavily on people in the late adulthood stage due to decreased incomes and rising expenses. D) INCORRECT. Those in late adulthood tend to struggle with self-worth, concerned that they are not producing quality work that benefits themselves and others. Page Ref: 184-185

Which of the following is NOT a common psychosocial challenge of late adulthood? A) Self-destructive behaviors B) Concern about death and dying C) Financial burdens D) Issues of self-worth

Which of the following is NOT part of the lower extremity? A. Carpals B. Patella C. Femur D. Pelvis

Which of the following is NOT part of the upper extremities? A. Carpals B. Scapula C. Clavicle D. Calcaneus

Which of the following is NOT required to prove a claim of negligence against an EMT? A. Proximate causation existed. B. The EMT failed to act according to the standard of care. C. The EMT had a duty to act. D. The patient was in fear of bodily harm at the time of the incident.

C. His brain may not be getting enough oxygen.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding a patient who has a mental status of less than "alert"? A. He is not oriented to place. B. He is not oriented to time. C. His brain may not be getting enough oxygen. D. He will respond only to painful stimuli.

Building rapport with the patient during transport to the hospital

Which of the following is a component of patient advocacy?

D) They cannot be used in a patient with a gag reflex.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of oropharyngeal airways (OPAs)? A) They cannot be used in patients with a suspected skull fracture. B) They do not come in pediatric sizes. C) They require the use of a water-soluble lubricant. D) They cannot be used in a patient with a gag reflex.

Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The term scaffolding is used to describe the process of building additional knowledge onto what one already knows. B) CORRECT. Bonding is the sense that all of the infant's needs will be met, such as receiving food when hungry and comfort when upset. C) INCORRECT. With regard to infant development, trust refers to having a stable and predictable environment. D) INCORRECT. The Moro reflex occurs when an infant is surprised or frightened. Page Ref: 178

Which of the following is the feeling infants get when they know all their needs will be met? A) Scaffolding B) Bonding C) Trust D) Moro reflex

eustress

Which of the following is the form of stress that can cause immediate and long-term problems with an EMT's health and well-being?

Emergency department

Which of the following is the most common gateway for hospital services for patients who need emergency medical assistance?

A. Systematic approach to assessment

Which of the following is the most reliable means of determining whether a patient has any immediately life-threatening conditions? A. Systematic approach to assessment B. Thorough scene size-up C. Obtaining a detailed medical history D. Use of intuition

Which of the following is the only movable bone of the face? A. Maxillae B. Manubrium C. Zygoma D. Mandible

Which of the following is the primary function of the stomach? A. Absorption of water from food products B. Production of bile C. Chemical breakdown of food by acidic secretions D. Absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream

. Provide emergency care.

Which of the following is the primary responsibility of the EMT?

D. Placing the head and neck in a neutral position

Which of the following is the proper position for maintaining the airway in a child with a decreased level of consciousness? A. Using a cervical collar to keep the chin elevated B. Hyperextension of the neck C. Flexing the neck to place the chin on the chest D. Placing the head and neck in a neutral position

A. To detect and treat immediately life-threatening problems

Which of the following is the purpose of the primary assessment? A. To detect and treat immediately life-threatening problems B. To find all of the patient's signs and symptoms C. To detect dangers to the patient and/or EMS crew D. To discover trends of improvement or deterioration in the patient's condition

Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Attitude is a consistent way of thinking or feeling about a person or thing. B) INCORRECT. Bonding is the infant's sense that all of her needs will be met. C) INCORRECT. The characteristics or qualities that form a person's character is called personality. D) CORRECT. Temperament refers to an infant's reaction to his environment. Page Ref: 178

Which of the following is the term used to describe an infant's reaction to his environment? A) Attitude B) Bonding C) Personality D) Temperament

A ！！！！！

Which of the following is the EMT's primary responsibility at a secured crime scene? A. Providing patient care B. Preserving evidence C. Identifying any potential suspects encountered at the scene D. Taking notes that may be needed during court testimony

C. The primary assessment begins as soon as the EMT can observe the patient.

Which of the following is true concerning the primary assessment? A. External bleeding will be obvious as you enter the room and initially see the patient. B. The EMT should perform a sternal rub on all patients to test for response to painful stimuli. C. The primary assessment begins as soon as the EMT can observe the patient. D. Manual airway maneuvers must be performed on all patients.

A) The bevel should be turned toward the nasal septum.

Which of the following is true concerning the procedure for inserting a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)? A) The bevel should be turned toward the nasal septum. B) If a water-soluble lubricant is not available, a silicon spray can be substituted. C) It can only be placed in the right nostril. D) The length of the device is not as important as it is with oropharyngeal airways.

If the EMT's hands are visibly dirty, an alcohol-based hand cleaner is not sufficient.

Which of the following is true regarding proper hand cleaning?

Which of the following makes up more than half of the volume of blood in the body? A. Plasma B. Platelets C. Red blood cells D. White corpuscles

Which of the following organs functions as a reservoir for blood that can be used in case of blood loss? A. Spleen B. Liver C. Heart D. Thyroid gland

sympathetic nervous system

Which of the following parts of the nervous system is responsible for the fight-or-flight response experienced in response to a stressor?

Hepatitis B

Which of the following pathogens can live in dried blood for days and should be a major concern for EMS providers even while cleaning contaminated equipment?

B. Adult male with difficulty breathing

Which of the following patients is a high priority for transport? A. High school student with dizziness after giving blood B. Adult male with difficulty breathing C. Pediatric patient with abrasions to both knees from a fall D. Adult female with knee pain

B) A homeless person of undetermined age found lying unresponsive in an alley with no bystanders.

Which of the following patients should NOT have their airway opened using a head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver? A) A 35-year-old diabetic woman who is in the driver's seat of the car in her driveway, who becomes unresponsive while speaking to her husband. B) A homeless person of undetermined age found lying unresponsive in an alley with no bystanders. C) A 50-year-old woman who choked on a piece of food while dining in a restaurant and was lowered to the floor by a waiter. D) A 25-year-old man who is still unresponsive after a grand mal seizure.

A. Respiratory rate of 12 with adequate depth

Which of the following presentations would be considered normal during the breathing phase of the primary assessment? A. Respiratory rate of 12 with adequate depth B. Respiratory rate of 28 with adequate depth C. Respiratory rate of 16 with altered mental status D. Respiratory rate of 6 with shallow depth

A) The trachea is easily obstructed by swelling.

Which of the following should be kept in mind when assessing and managing the airway of a pediatric patient? A) The trachea is easily obstructed by swelling. B) The tongue is not as likely to obstruct the airway as in an adult. C) Due to their short necks, pediatric patients require a greater degree of hyperextension to open the airway than do adults. D) Gastric distention is unlikely.

Which of the following situations BEST illustrates the act of abandonment by the EMT? A. The EMT resuscitates a patient who has a DNR order signed by his physician. B. An EMT begins care of a patient, then turns the patient over to a paramedic. C. An EMT who is off-duty sees a motor vehicle collision with probable injuries but does not stop to help. D. An EMT transports a patient to the emergency department, leaves the patient in the waiting room, but does not advise the ED staff.

B. The EMT determines that the patient is awake and can answer questions correctly.

Which of the following situations shows the mnemonic AVPU in action? A. The EMT's general impression of the patient's condition is that the patient shows signs of respiratory distress. B. The EMT determines that the patient is awake and can answer questions correctly. C. The EMT asks the patient to explain why he called 911. D. The EMT determines that a patient has a high transport priority.

Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Middle adulthood is usually defined by the "midlife crisis" stage. B) CORRECT. Late adulthood is commonly referred to as "the twilight years." C) INCORRECT. Adolescence is the period between childhood and adulthood, and is not connected to "the twilight years." D) INCORRECT. Early adulthood is not associated with the term "twilight years." Page Ref: 184

Which of the following stages is commonly referred to as "the twilight years"? A) Middle adulthood B) Late adulthood C) Adolescence D) Early adulthood

Which of the following statements is true concerning protection by Good Samaritan laws? A. The purpose of Good Samaritan laws is to protect people who are trying to help in an emergency. B. A Good Samaritan law allows an EMT to exceed the scope of practice, if necessary, when providing emergency care off-duty. C. An EMT is expected to act as a lay person when providing emergency care off-duty. D. An EMT cannot be sued for negligence if the state in which he works has a Good Samaritan law.

Which of the following statements provides reasons for the disruption of respiratory control? A. Mechanical failure, soft-tissue damage, obstruction, and lack of perfusion will interrupt this control. B. Medical reasons, infections, trauma, toxins, and drugs, along with neurologic disorders, can interrupt this control. C. A structural reason that has caused collapse of the upper and lower airways to block the flow of oxygen to the alveoli can interrupt this control. D. A medical, structural, and mechanical failure that has initiated the cascade of life-threatening problems will interrupt this control.

Which of the following structures allows food to move from the mouth to the stomach? A. Vena cavae B. Trachea C. Duodenum D. Esophagus

Which of the following structures closes over the trachea to protect it during swallowing? A. Diaphragm B. Cricoid cartilage C. Pharynx D. Epiglottis

Which of the following structures do NOT form part of the thorax? A. Ischium B. 8th through 19th vertebrae C. Sternum D. Ribs

A) Bronchi

Which of the following structures is found in the lower airway? A) Bronchi B) Uvula C) Pharynx D) Tonsils

Which of the following structures or tissues is NOT part of the musculoskeletal system? A. Acetabulum B. Tendons C. Ligaments D. Fat

Which of the following structures receives deoxygenated blood from the body via the vena cavae? A. Right atrium B. Left atrium C. Right ventricle D. Left ventricle

Which of the following terms describes the heart muscle's ability to generate its own electrical impulses? A. Irritability B. Conductivity C. Contractility D. Automaticity

stress

Which of the following terms is best defined as "a state of physical and/or psychological arousal to a stimulus"?

Eustress

Which of the following terms refers to a positive form of stress that helps people work when under pressure and respond effectively?

Which of the following types of blood vessels allow the exchange of substances directly between the blood and the cells of the body? A. Alveoli B. Capillaries C. Veins D. Arterioles

Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The heart rate is too fast and systolic pressure is too low for a normal 4-year-old. B) INCORRECT. The respiratory rate is too rapid for a normal toddler. C) INCORRECT. The heart rate is too slow for a normal, healthy 4-year-old. D) CORRECT. Normal vital signs for a toddler would be a heart rate between 80 and 130, a respiratory rate between 20 and 30 per minute, and a systolic pressure between 70 and 100 mmHg. Page Ref: 179

Which of the following would be a normal set of vitals for a 4-year-old male patient? A) Heart rate 140/minute, respiratory rate 30/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 60 mmHg B) Heart rate 100/minute, respiratory rate 34/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 100 mmHg C) Heart rate 60/minute, respiratory rate 24/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg D) Heart rate 110/minute, respiratory rate 24/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 80 mmHg

Healthcare practitioners

Which one of these groups is at greatest risk of contracting and transmitting tuberculosis?

Which organ is the principal organ of the renal system? A. Bladder B. Kidney C. Ureter D. Urethra

Which organ secretes insulin after a person eats a large meal? A. Pancreas B. Spleen C. Liver D. Gallbladder

retreat, radio, reevaluate

Which three "Rs" are essential for the EMT to practice when reacting to danger?

Which type of consent must be used by the EMT when seeking to treat a mentally competent adult? A. Implied consent B. Expressed consent C. Unconditional consent D. Conscious consenT

Within what period of time should the EMT expect most anaphylaxis patients to respond to the administration of subcutaneous epinephrine?

Within 2 minutes

You are called to a farmhouse on a sunny spring afternoon. Upon arrival, a frantic mother tells you that her 3-year-old daughter was playing in the yard and accidentally stepped on a hornets' nest and was stung repeatedly. The patient is alert, screaming and crying, and can follow her mother's commands. Her arms and legs are swollen and show the marks of several stings. Her body is covered in hives. Her vital signs are blood pressure 90/40, pulse 110, respiratory rate 24, and oxygen saturation 99 percent. Her lung sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. The nearest hospital is 45 minutes away and the nearest ALS unit is 15 minutes away. Should ALS be dispatched?

Yes, the patient's allergic reaction could potentially worsen.

The physician wants to be sure it is appropriate for the patient.

You and another new EMT are studying your local protocols. The other EMT notices that you may give oral glucose without utilizing on-line medical control, but you must get an on-line order from a physician before assisting a patient in taking his nitroglycerin for chest pain. The EMT asks you why some drugs require on-line medical control while others do not. What is the best answer to give him?

Injury prevention in the community is an important component of EMS.

You and your EMT partner are assigned to spend a day at the senior center where you are to inspect the rooms and common areas for fall hazards. Your partner is upset that he is not in the ambulance where the "action is." He complains that "looking for loose rugs" is a waste of his time. What would be the best response to his complaints?

You and your EMT partner respond to a local shipping warehouse for a worker who was hit by a falling crate. Upon arrival, you find the man lying on the concrete floor of the facility, alert and oriented but unable to move or even feel his legs below the waist. Based on the mechanism of injury and the symptoms, which of the patient's body systems would you suspect has been impaired? A. Endocrine system B. Cardiopulmonary system C. Nervous system D. Immune system

Shouting was an attempt to protect the EMT from a potentially unsafe scene.

You and your new EMT partner arrive first on the scene of a single car rollover on the shoulder of a busy highway. You pull off in a safe location and just as you stop the ambulance, your partner throws the passenger door open, steps out of the truck, and begins jogging through the scattered debris toward the overturned car. You shout for him to stop and he looks back at you, but then continues to the vehicle and begins assessing the driver. Later, as you are restocking in the ambulance bay of the local trauma center, your partner tells you that he thinks you acted unprofessionally by shouting at him. What is the best way to respond?

D. ask him if he is okay.

You are approaching a young adult male lying supine on the ground with his eyes closed. You should FIRST: A. feel for a pulse. B. open his airway. C. expose his chest. D. ask him if he is okay.

C. open her airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver.

You are approaching an adult female lying supine on the ground with snoring respirations. You should FIRST: A. insert a nasopharyngeal airway. B. insert an oropharyngeal airway. C. open her airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver. D. ventilate with a bag-valve mask.

B. control the bleeding.

Ensure scene safety.

You are approaching the scene of a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following would be the first way to safeguard your well-being as an EMT?

Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Middle school age is not an accepted stage of life. B) CORRECT. Any patient between the ages of 6 and 12 years old is considered to be school age. C) INCORRECT. Adolescence doesn't begin until the age of 13. D) INCORRECT. There is no defined stage of life called junior school age. Page Ref: 180

You are assessing a 12-year-old male patient who has been involved in a bicycle accident. This patient would be classified as being in which stage of life? A) Middle school age B) School age C) Adolescent D) Junior school age

Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Sitting alone on the floor is the ability of an 8-month-old and older. B) CORRECT. A 6-month-old should be able to make one-syllable sounds and sit upright in a high chair. C) INCORRECT. Sleeping is an ability that all infants have, regardless of development stages. D) INCORRECT. A child can usually begin responding to the word "no" in the eighth month. Page Ref: 177

You are assessing a 6-month-old female patient who, according to the parents, is not acting normally. At this stage of development, the patient should be able to do which of the following? A) Sit alone on the floor B) Sit upright in a high chair C) Sleep D) Respond to the word "no"

Explanation: A) CORRECT. "Empty-nest syndrome" is a characteristic of someone in the middle adulthood stage of life. B) INCORRECT. Middle-aged adulthood does not refer to an accepted life stage. C) INCORRECT. Those in late adulthood are generally far past the "empty nest" stage. D) INCORRECT. People in the early adulthood stage are too young to experience "empty-nest syndrome." Page Ref: 183

You are assessing a female patient with depression. She tells you that her psychologist said that she is dealing with "empty-nest syndrome." What age group is this associated with? A) Middle adulthood B) Middle-aged adulthood C) Late adulthood D) Early adulthood

A. Open the patient's airway using a head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver.

You are at the scene where a 19-year-old female college student has been drinking large quantities of alcohol throughout the evening. On your arrival, the patient is lying on her back with no signs of trauma, has vomited, and has slow, wet-sounding respirations. Which of the following should you do next? A. Open the patient's airway using a head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver. B. Determine the respiratory rate. C. Assist respirations with a bag-valve-mask device. D. Check for carotid and radial pulses.

You are called to a kindergarten class where a boy has fallen while climbing on playground equipment. The teacher saw him fall and hit his stomach on a step. He is sobbing and holding his abdomen. As you assess him, you find his skin cool and clammy, his pulse is 132, respiratory is 28. Why is the boy acting this way? A. He possibly has wet his pants and does not want anyone to know. B. He is embarrassed and is afraid that the other students will make fun of him. C. He is really upset and wants his mother. D. He possibly has internal injuries and is in shock.

Mask yourself and the patient.

You are called to an assault on a homeless male. Dried blood from the trauma is visible around the patient's mouth and nose. During assessment, you note the patient has a productive cough. The patient says, "Don't worry, I'm not contagious. I've had this cough for a year." Describe the best approach regarding respiratory isolation.

Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Not until the sixth month and later will children be able to sit up. B) CORRECT. Most patients in this age range can drool without swallowing. C) INCORRECT. Speaking doesn't generally begin until after the sixth month. D) INCORRECT. A 4-month-old is too young to have developed a fear of strangers. Page Ref: 177

You are caring for a 4-month-old male patient who is reported to have vomited five times today. His parents describe no other associated symptoms or complaints. The patient is lying on the couch with a pacifier in his mouth, smiling at you. Developmentally, you would expect a patient of this age to be able to: A) sit up without assistance. B) drool without swallowing. C) say the word "no." D) have attachment anxiety or fear strangers.

C. General impression, mental status, airway, breathing, circulation, patient priority

You are caring for a patient that looks at you as you approach. Which of the following represents the typical order of assessment for the EMT during the primary assessment from start to end? A. Airway, general impression, mental status, breathing, circulation, patient priority B. Mental status, general impression, airway, breathing, circulation, patient priority C. General impression, mental status, airway, breathing, circulation, patient priority D. Patient priority, general impression, mental status, airway, breathing, circulation

You are caring for a 25-year-old male patient that has been shot once in the head. The patient is in extremis (near the point of death) with a noticeable breathing pattern that alternates between no breathing and fast breathing. Your understanding of pathophysiology leads you to believe the breathing pattern may be due to damage to the section of his brain responsible for respiratory control, also known as the: A. medulla oblongata. B. thalamus. C. frontal lobe. D. cerebellum.

You are caring for a 47-year-old male patient with classical chest pain suggestive of a myocardial infarction. Based on your understanding of the cardiovascular system, you know he could be suffering from damage, narrowing, or blockage of what arteries? A. Femoral arteries B. Coronary arteries C. Brachial arteries D. Pulmonary arteries

Leave the house and call for law enforcement.

You are dispatched to a female with altered mental status. Once inside the home, you find a female who appears to have been beaten unconscious. A man, who smells of alcohol, says that she is his wife and that he does not know what happened: "I just found her this way!" The husband is behaving suspiciously, appears paranoid, and is pacing erratically around the room. What would be the safest course of action?

Dispatch law enforcement and wait until the scene is secure.

You are dispatched to a "man down" with no further information. As your unit arrives on-scene, you see a crowd of bystanders looking at a man lying in an alleyway. The bystanders begin screaming to you, "Help him, he's been shot! He's bleeding real bad!" What would be the best course of action?

Transport decontaminated patients.

You are dispatched to the staging area of a terrorist-related chemical exposure. The incident commander asks you to stand by while hazmat personnel bring patients to the cold zone. As an EMT on board an ambulance, what statement best describes your role?

He is not only putting his life at risk, but also placing the lives of the professional rescuers unnecessarily at risk.

You are first on the scene of a vehicle collision where a vehicle has gone off a bridge and is partially submerged. You are told that a person is still trapped in the vehicle. Your partner starts to take off his shoes and prepares to go in to save the victim. You stop your partner and tell him it is too dangerous. He tells you he is prepared to die to save a life. What is the best response to him?

Upon delivering a patient to the emergency department, you remove your gloves and find that your hands are red and itchy. Which of the following is most likely?

You are having an allergic reaction to the latex in the gloves.

Leave immediately to a safe area and then call for police assistance.

You are on the scene of an "unknown medical" call. The patient is a 26-year-old, 250-pound male patient who suddenly becomes violently angry. Everything you say to the patient only makes him angrier. Offended by your questions, he screams that he is going to "cut your tongue out" and hurries into the kitchen. What should you do?

You are on the scene with a 72-year-old male patient with chest pain. The patient is complaining of shortness of breath but also refuses to go to the hospital, even after multiple attempts urging him to go. Which of the following should you do next? A. Contact medical direction for orders to restrain the patient. B. Stay with the patient until he loses consciousness. C. Inform the patient that he is having a "heart attack" and must be taken to the hospital for evaluation. D. Fully inform the patient about his situation and the implications of refusing care.

Explanation: A) CORRECT. The bones at the top of the skull are not fused at birth; the "soft spot" where these bones meet is called a fontanelle. You can often get a good idea of a child's state of hydration by gently palpating the area. B) INCORRECT. The acromion process is the highest point on the shoulder blade. C) INCORRECT. The lower jaw is called the mandible. D) INCORRECT. The carpals are the bones of the wrist. Page Ref: 177

Your 4-month-old patient is reported to be irritable and lethargic after feeding poorly for two days. One method for assessing the patient's level of hydration is to gently palpate the soft spots on the surface of the skull. These soft spots are also known as the: A) fontanelles. B) acromion process. C) mandibles. D) carpals.

You are providing care to a 54-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. The patient asks to speak to you privately. He tells you he is taking CialisSuperscript ®® for erectile dysfunction and his wife does not know he is taking it. He does not want his wife to find out. As you are putting the EMS bags back in the ambulance, the wife corners you and insists that you tell her what her husband said. What should you do? A. You should tell her. He may be having an affair without her knowledge and she needs to be tested for sexually transmitted diseases. B. You should tell her. As his spouse, she is legally entitled to know his medical information. C. You should not tell her. There is no reason to humiliate your patient by disclosing his embarrassing condition. D. You should not tell her. By law, your conversation with your patient is confidential.

Which of the following is NOT a required time to communicate your location to the dispatch center?

You are stopping to get lunch.

You are treating a patient who has a productive cough and who reports weight loss, loss of appetite, weakness, night sweats, and fever. Which of the following diseases is most likely the cause of these signs and symptoms?

You are treating an elderly male patient in the back of your ambulance. En route, the patient becomes unresponsive. Upon arrival, the ED nurse asks you several questions about his condition. What should you do? A. You should not disclose the information because HIPAA laws only allow you to provide the information to the emergency department physician. B. You should disclose the information, as it is not protected by law. C. You should not disclose the information to the nurse because it is protected confidential information and the patient did not sign a release authorizing you to discuss his condition. D. You should answer her questions because you may legally share the patient's medical condition with other pertinent health care providers.

D) Using large bore suction tubing without a tip or catheter attached

You are ventilating a cardiac arrest patient when he begins to vomit copious amounts of large pieces of undigested food. Which of the following would be most effective in clearing the airway? A) Using a rigid pharyngeal suction tip B) Irrigating the mouth with sterile water to dilute the material before suctioning C) Using a 14 French suction catheter D) Using large bore suction tubing without a tip or catheter attached

C) leave the dentures in place.

You are ventilating an 85-year-old male without difficulty. A nurse tells you that the patient has dentures. To ensure a good mask seal, you should: A) tape the dentures in place. B) remove the dentures. C) leave the dentures in place. D) use an infant mask over the nose.

You arrive on the scene of a 55-year-old male patient. The patient's wife called 911 because he is having chest pains. The patient is very angry with his wife for calling 911 because he states he only has heartburn and adamantly refuses any treatment or transport. After signing the patient refusal form, the patient collapses and goes into sudden cardiac arrest. The wife is crying uncontrollably and begging you to do something. What should you do? A. Respect his legal right to not have any treatment, regardless of how much the wife begs you to help. B. Provide emergency care for the patient only if his wife signs a document stating they will not sue the EMS service. C. Explain to the wife that her husband signed a legal document refusing care, and if you intervened to help him now, you would be breaking the law. D. Provide emergency care under implied consent.

D. Breathing

You assess a patient's breathing rate and see signs of hypoxia and respiratory distress, so you provide the patient with oxygen. You do this during which phase of the primary assessment? A. Airway B. General impression C. Chief complaint D. Breathing

You are first on the scene of a 61-year-old female in need of assistance with her respirations. You have a pocket mask with supplemental oxygen. How can you determine that your artificial ventilation is effective? You are assisting respirations at 10 breaths per minute. Patient's pulse returns to normal. You assure oxygen is being delivered at 15 liters per minute. Patient's skin color remains the same.

You assure oxygen is being delivered at 15 liters per minute.

D. Obtain the respiratory rate

You determine that a patient's airway is endangered and initiate the airway phase of the primary assessment. Which of the following would you NOT do during this phase? A. Head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver B. Insert an oropharyngeal airway C. Suction the airway D. Obtain the respiratory rate

C. respiratory distress.

You enter a room to find a 16-year-old female sitting upright in a chair with her back straight, leaning forward, and her arms supporting her. She is having a hard time talking to you. You should suspect: A. allergic reaction. B. abdominal pain. C. respiratory distress. D. chest discomfort.

B. suction the airway.

You find a teenage male lying supine in his bedroom. You hear gurgling sounds from the patient's mouth and see vomit with pill fragments on the floor. You should FIRST: A. perform chest thrusts. B. suction the airway. C. ventilate with oxygen. D. identify the pills.

D. manually immobilize his head and neck.

You find a middle-aged unresponsive man lying prone on the ground near a ladder. You should FIRST: A. evaluate for breathing rate and depth. B. move the ladder out of the way. C. roll him over to a supine position. D. manually immobilize his head and neck.

D. Open the patient's airway using a manual maneuver.

You have arrived on the scene at a high school football field where a 17-year-old male is lying on the ground. He is unresponsive and cyanotic, and he is making obvious respiratory effort without moving adequate amounts of air. Which of the following should be done first? A. Apply high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask. B. Insert a nasopharyngeal or oropharyngeal airway. C. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen. D. Open the patient's airway using a manual maneuver.

Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Depression and suicide can be common among adolescents, along with several other psychosocial traits of this life stage. B) INCORRECT. Adolescents tend to be very focused on body image, but this isn't the only answer that may apply. C) INCORRECT. Self-destructive behaviors are very common among adolescents, but there are other psychosocial attributes as well. D) CORRECT. Adolescents in the age range of 13 to 18 years share many of the same psychosocial characteristics and challenges. Body image is a great concern at this point in life, and eating disorders can be common, especially among girls. It also is a time when self-destructive behaviors begin, such as use of tobacco, alcohol, illicit drugs, and unsafe driving. Depression and suicide are alarmingly common in this age group. Page Ref: 182

You have been called to a private residence where a 16-year-old female patient is reported by her parents to be "acting strangely" and possibly "on something." Upon your arrival, the patient is locked in her bedroom refusing to open the door. The patient refuses to speak to you and will only come out if her best friend is present. Your knowledge of life-span development indicates that the following characteristics are common with a patient of this age. A) Depression and suicide B) Preoccupation with body image C) Self-destructive behaviors such as tobacco, alcohol, and drug use D) All of the above

Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The sucking reflex is related to feeding and the child will typically start sucking when her lips are touched. B) INCORRECT. In the Moro reflex, the child will throw out her arms and spread her fingers when startled. C) CORRECT. In the palmar reflex, the child will grasp your finger in her palm when sensed. D) INCORRECT. The rooting reflex will cause the infant to turn her head toward a stimulus on her cheek. Page Ref: 177

You have been dispatched to a shopping mall to assess a 1-month-old female patient that tumbled out of her stroller while her mother was shopping. Upon your arrival, the baby is awake, alert, and happily smiling and cooing at her mom. The mother reports that the child did not appear to suffer any injuries as a result of the fall. As you assess the patient and place your finger in her hand, she grasps it tightly. This is known as the: A) sucking reflex. B) Moro reflex. C) palmar reflex. D) rooting reflex.

The recording of three sets of vital signs demonstrates that you were trending the patient's condition.

You have just come on duty. The EMT on the previous shift complains to you that the QI manager was giving him grief because he did not document three sets of vital signs on the patient record. The EMT is angry and does not understand why documenting three sets of vital signs is so important. What is the best answer you could give him?

Listen empathetically to all of her complaints and let her know she can contact you for any additional assistance.

You have just worked a cardiac arrest call on a 48-year-old father of three. Despite your best efforts, the patient died in the emergency department. As you are getting your ambulance in service, the patient's wife rushes out of the emergency department. She finds you and begins screaming at you that her husband's death is your fault. She blames you for not getting on the scene fast enough, taking too long at the house, and not shocking her husband back to life like she has seen on television. What response should you have to her anger?

D) ease the head forward a little.

You have performed a head tilt-chin lift maneuver on a 17-month-old boy and are attempting to ventilate him with a bag-valve mask. You are experiencing a lot of resistance with each breath and the chest is barely rising. Prior to attempting ventilations again, you should: A) finger sweep the airway. B) tilt the head back further. C) perform chest thrusts. D) ease the head forward a little.

naive and uncompassionate.

You observe a coworker telling a terminal cancer patient and her family, "Everything will be okay." Making false reassurances is considered:

You respond to a bus accident with multiple patients. As you arrive at the scene, you are approached by a local politician who states that his wife has been involved. He tells you that if you will take care of her first, he will ensure that you get the promotion you are up for. This becomes what type of decision for you as an EMT? A. Legal B. Medical C. Financial D. Ethical

Wash your hands and report the exposure.

You respond to a laceration call. When you arrive on-scene, you walk into the house and find a person suffering from a severe wrist laceration from a broken window. Without thinking, you immediately grab the wrist and apply direct pressure to the wound. You then realize that, in your hurry to save a life, you forgot to put on your gloves. You look down to see your hand is covered in blood. When practical, you immediately wash your hands thoroughly. What is your next best action?

You respond to a middle school for a 12-year-old male patient who has been hit by a car. You get consent to treat the patient from the school principal. What concept allows the principal to speak for the parents? A. Res ipsa loquitur B. In loco parentis C. Informed consent D. Healthcare proxy

You respond to a patient who is choking. The victim is suffering from the most common of airway obstructions. This would indicate that the problem is in the ________ airway. A. upper B. alveoli C. lower D. bronchial

You respond to the report of an unconscious female patient. You can acquire important medical information about the patient through which of the following? A. Medical history identifier B. Medical identification device C. Driver's license D. On-call Medical Director

You are on a call of a minor vehicle accident. Your patient is a 22-year-old male who was the driver of a moderate T-Bone collision. The patient was not wearing a seat belt and there was spidering of the windshield. The patient complains of neck pain and has a scalp laceration. After performing the primary assessment, you take vital signs and bandage the patient's scalp. When you tell him you need to backboard him, he refuses care and ambulance transport. Because the person is alert and oriented to time, place, and person, you have the patient sign the separate patient refusal form provided by your service. How should you document this incident in your EMS report?

You should document everything including all patient care, all of your attempts to persuade the patient to go by ambulance, and who witnessed the patient refusal.

Most cases of accidental poisoning involve which of the following?

Young children

D. manually immobilize the cervical spine.

Your partner is assessing a 55-year-old man who was found sitting on the tailgate of his truck after being involved in a motor vehicle collision. You should FIRST: A. lay the patient down in the truck bed. B. assist the patient to the stretcher. C. instruct the patient to stand up. D. manually immobilize the cervical spine.

Your patient is an 86-year-old male with congestive heart failure. He called for help tonight because he cannot breathe and feels like he is "drowning in his own lungs." The patient has had several heart attacks in the past and he tells you his "heart is shot." The patient's cardiac output is likely diminished because: A. the pressure in the system against which the heart must pump is increased (afterload is increased). B. less blood fills his heart with each contraction (preload is diminished). C. the heart's force of contraction is reduced (contractility is diminished). D. All of the above are true.

C !!!!!!

Your patient is a 10-year-old boy who suffered a possible fractured arm while rollerblading at a friend's house. Which of the following is the BEST way to obtain consent for treatment? A. Get consent from the patient's 15-year-old sister, who is at the scene. B. Act on implied consent. C. Call the patient's mother at work. D. Allow the patient to consent as an emancipated minor.

Your patient is a 22-year-old female that accidentally ate some shellfish and is now having a severe reaction. She tells you that the last time she ate shellfish, "they had to put a breathing tube in my throat and I almost died." Her face is starting to swell up and you can hear audible wheezing when she breathes. The chemical that produces edema and narrowing of the airways during hypersensitivity reactions like this is called: A. serotonin. B. histamine. C. insulin. D. acetylcholine.

C. Open the airway.

Your patient is a 33-year-old man who has been ejected from his vehicle during a high-speed collision. During your primary assessment, you discover that he is not moving, does not appear to have adequate respirations, and has suffered moderate external bleeding. Which of the following should be done first? A. Control the bleeding with direct pressure. B. Check the patient's carotid pulse. C. Open the airway. D. Begin bag-valve-mask ventilations.

Your patient is a 40-year-old known diabetic who was found unconscious at work by a coworker. What type of consent allows you to treat this patient? A. Implied consent B. Consent for treatment of minor emergencies C. Consent for mentally incompetent adults D. Expressed consent

C. Transport priority

Your patient is a 42-year-old woman who fell two feet from a ladder and is complaining of pain in her ankle. Which of the following are you unable to determine from the information given? A. Chief complaint B. Airway status C. Transport priority D. General impression

Your patient is a 45-year-old man who is suffering from chest pain. Upon arrival, the patient is pale, sweaty, and seems short of breath. The patient is angry with his daughter for calling 911. He says that he had some spicy sausage for breakfast and has indigestion. Which of the following is an appropriate means of getting the patient the care he needs? A. Tell the patient that his chest pain is most likely caused by his diet, have him take an antacid, and go to bed. B. Try to find out why the patient does not want to go to the hospital. C. Call the patient's neighbors and tell them that you have been called to the patient's house but he is now refusing care. D. Inform the patient that if he does not agree to treatment, you will have to take him against his will because he has a potentially life-threatening problem.

D. Ask if the patient has pain anywhere besides her ankle.

Your patient is a 72-year-old female who has "twisted her ankle" coming down some steps. She is alert and complaining of pain in her right ankle, but she jokes about her "clumsiness." Which of the following should you do next? A. Administer high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask. B. Take immediate manual control of the patient's cervical spine. C. Determine the presence of a carotid pulse. D. Ask if the patient has pain anywhere besides her ankle.

B) roll him over onto his side to clear the airway.

Your patient is breathing 4 shallow breaths per minute due to overdosing on his pain medication but he has a palpable radial pulse. He vomited prior to your arrival and is choking. You should: A) insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate. B) roll him over onto his side to clear the airway. C) perform chest thrusts to clear the lungs. D) move the patient to the ambulance and suction.

Your unit has arrived on the scene of a multiple vehicle collision where several vehicles have rear-ended each other. You are directed by the incident commander to care for a 23-year-old female in the first vehicle. The firefighter on-scene holding manual spinal immobilization indicates that her primary complaint is back pain from her head whipping back and forth from the impact. Your understanding of the anatomy of the spinal column and vertebrae suggests that this type of mechanism of injury results in frequent injuries to which part of the spinal column? A. Lumbar spine B. Thoracic spine C. Cervical spine D. Sacral spine

Chapter 5 Review DO NOT RELY ON THESE! USE YOUR NOTES! 14. Which of the following describes the midline of the body? A. An imaginary line dividing the body into equal right and left halves B. An imaginary line diving the body into a top and bottom portion C. The intersection of two imaginary lines crossing at the umbilicus D. An imaginary line dividing the body into a front and a back portion

Chapter 5 Review DO NOT RELY ON THESE! USE YOUR NOTES! 16. Your 79-year old female patient appears to show all signs and symptoms of a stroke. Her level of conscious has rapidly deteriorated, she is now unconscious, and she can no longer control hear own airway. While you intervene to manage her airway, the best position in which to keep fluid or vomitus from occluding her airway would be the: A. recovery position B. Fowler position C. Trendelenburg position D. prone position

Chapter 5 Review DO NOT RELY ON THESE! USE YOUR NOTES! 2. With regard to medical terminology, a prefix is: A. added to the beginning of roots or words to modify or qualify their meaning. B. the foundation of a word or term. C. the combination of any two or more whole words. D. a modifier that indicates if a term is singular or plural.

Chapter 5 Review DO NOT RELY ON THESE! USE YOUR NOTES! 20. A postal worker has been attacked by a dog during her mail delivery route. The patient is a 54-year-old female with several dog bites on her lower extremities and left arm. The worst of these bites is located on the back of her right leg just above the ankle. How can you explain the location of this injury using anatomical landmarks? A. The bite is located on the posterior aspect of the calf distal to the knee. B. The bite is located on the anterior aspect of the calf just proximal to the knee. C. The bite is located on the posterior aspect of the calf just proximal to the knee. D. The bite is located on the anterior aspect of the calf just distal to the knee

Chapter 5 Review DO NOT RELY ON THESE! USE YOUR NOTES! 22. Which of the following are the abdominal regions created by drawing two imaginary lines intersecting at the navel? A. Abdominal quadrants B. Abdominal planes C. Abdominal regions D. Abdominal sextants

Chapter 5 Review DO NOT RELY ON THESE! USE YOUR NOTES! 23. Which of the following BEST describes the location of the mid-axillary line? A. A line from the center of the armpit, extending vertically down the side of the chest B. A line drawn diagonally from the outer end of the clavicle to the navel C. A line drawn horizontally from one armpit to the other, across the front of the body D. A line drawn vertically from the xiphoid process to the pubic bone

Chapter 5 Review DO NOT RELY ON THESE! USE YOUR NOTES! 9. You and your EMT partner are responding to a medical aid call in the rural West County area. The dispatcher advises that the caller is reporting the patient as having a history of "plegia." Why would it be beneficial to have the dispatcher clarify a prefix for the word plegia? A. Without clarifying a prefix, it is difficult for the EMTs to effectively prepare for the type of patient they may encounter. B. Because a dysplegiac patient generally requires an EMT-Paramedic level of care, and it may change the level of response. C. A patient with plegia is potentially contagious, and the EMTs need to know what precautions are required. D. There is actually no need to clarify the word.

You are en route to the trauma center with a patient who was injured when he was thrown from a horse. You suspect multiple trauma injuries including a closed head injury. You will monitor his mental status using the Glasgow Coma Scale per your protocols. Which of the following will you check? a. Eye-opening, motor response, and verbal response b. Motor response, verbal response, and attentiveness c. Speech patterns, motor patterns, and mental status d. Verbal responses, motor skills, and mental status

a. Eye-opening, motor response, and verbal response

Which of the following is the opening at the base of the skull? a. Foramen magnum b. Orbits c. Spinous process d. Temporomandibular joint

a. Foramen magnum

Your patient has been involved in a motor vehicle collision. He has a contusion on his forehead, is confused, and is bleeding from his nose. His heart rate is 90 beats per minute, blood pressure is 80 /58 mmHg, respirations are 20 breaths per minute, and his skin is cool and clammy. Which of the following sets of injuries should you suspect? a. Head injury, spine injury, and internal bleeding b. Head injury c. Head injury and spine injury d. Head injury and internal bleeding

a. Head injury, spine injury, and internal bleeding

In most cases, which of the following is the correct way to provide initial management of a suspected cervical spine injury? a. Hold the patient's head still in a neutral, "eyes forward" position. b. Gently apply pressure to the top of the patient's head. c. Maintain the patient's head and neck in the position they are found. d. Provide approximately 15 pounds of upward cervical traction.

a. Hold the patient's head still in a neutral, "eyes forward" position.

A 65-year-old man was doing some work on his roof when he lost his footing and fell to the ground, approximately 15 feet. He is unconscious but his respirations are normal. You note an obviously angulated left leg. You are more concerned about a possible head injury. Which of the following would indicate a possible head injury? a. Increased blood pressure b. Glasgow Coma Scale of 15 c. Constricted pupils d. Increased pulse rate

a. Increased blood pressure

You are treating a 54-year-old female patient who was involved in a domestic dispute; you notice an abrasion to the side of her head. The patient is unresponsive with a blood pressure of 200/110, a pulse of 60 beats per minute, and slightly irregular breathing. The patient's presentation is most likely caused by which of the following? a. Increased intracranial pressure b. Coup-contrecoup injury c. Closed head injury d. Increased arterial pressure

a. Increased intracranial pressure

Which of the following signs is LEAST likely to indicate a traumatic brain injury? a. Low blood pressure b. Irregular breathing pattern c. Vomiting d. Irrational behavior

a. Low blood pressure

What is another name for the zygomatic bone? a. Malar b. Maxillae c. Temporal d. Mandible

a. Malar

Which of the following systems includes the pairs of nerves that enter and exit the spinal cord between each pair of vertebrae? a. Peripheral nervous system b. Central nervous system c. Autonomic nervous system d. All of the above

a. Peripheral nervous system

Messages from the body to the brain are carried by which of the following types of nerves? a. Sensory b. Skeletal c. Motor d. Cranial

a. Sensory

When log-rolling a patient with a suspected spinal injury, which of the following EMTs directs the move? a. The EMT at the head of the patient b. The EMT with the highest level of training c. The EMT with the most seniority d. The EMT at the heaviest portion of the patient

a. The EMT at the head of the patient

To which of the following sections of the spine are the ribs attached? a. Thoracic b. Sacral c. Cervical d. Lumbar

a. Thoracic

Which of the following measures is NOT appropriate for a patient with a significant isolated head injury? a. Treat for shock by elevating the foot of the backboard. b. Keep the patient from becoming overheated. c. Try to keep the patient from being agitated. d. Control bleeding from head wounds.

a. Treat for shock by elevating the foot of the backboard.

Your patient has been injured by a fall down a flight of steps. He is alert and oriented but complains of back and neck pain. You spinal immobilize him on a long spine board with a cervical collar on his neck as a precaution because you know that the: a. cervical spine is the most vulnerable part of the spine. b. lumbar area is rarely injured due to the rib support. c. thoracic spine is especially vulnerable to injury. d. coccyx is easily dislocated.

a. cervical spine is the most vulnerable part of the spine.

The chest cavity can hold up to ________ liter(s) in an adult, leading to the possibility of massive internal hemorrhage without any external blood loss. a. 3 b. 5 c. 0.5 d. 1

a.3

For which of the following wounds should the EMT apply an absorbent dressing moistened with sterile saline and then cover it with an occlusive dressing? a. A gunshot wound to the abdomen from which a loop of intestine is protruding b. A stab wound to the chest c. A laceration to the neck d. The stump of an amputated extremity

a.A gun shot wound to the abdomen from which a loop of intestine is protruding

What is the correct terminology for a wound in which a vacuum has been created within the chest, drawing air into the thorax with each breath? a. A sucking chest wound b. A closed tension pneumothorax c. An open chest wound d. A gurgling chest wound

a.A sucking chest wound

Which of the following is NOT an open tissue injury? a. Contusion b. Evisceration c. Avulsion d. Abrasion

a.Contusion

You are caring for a 27-year-old male who has a puncture wound to the right upper chest. The patient was stabbed with a serrated steak knife by his ex-girlfriend. You have placed an occlusive dressing to the site and began emergent transport to the closest trauma center. However, while en route the patient begins to complain of increasing shortness of breath. You notice a decrease in ventilatory volume and an increase in thoracic diameter. Which of the following options would be the best step to perform next? a. Free a corner or edge of the dressing to release pressure buildup. b. Begin providing BVM-assisted ventilations to the patient. c. Call dispatch for an ALS intercept en route to the hospital. d. Begin providing CPR to the patient.

a.Free a corner or edge of the dressing to release pressure buildup.

What is the underlying cause of bluish or reddish facial discoloration following a traumatic asphyxiation? a. High pressure on the chest leads to blood being forced from the right atrium into the face and neck. b. The patient has become hypoxic due to a chest injury and the finding suggests central cyanosis. c. The physiological strain of the body results in a flushed appearance and increased risk of a hypertensive event. d. Bluish or reddish facial discoloration is not associated with traumatic asphyxiation; a pale discoloration is usually present.

a.High pressure on the chest leads to blood being forced from the right atrium in to the face and neck.

On assessment of the midsection of a 32-year-old male who was struck by a car, you find an abdominal evisceration with several loops of his large intestine exposed. The abdomen appears to have a clean-cut laceration and the bleeding is controlled. Which of the following is the BEST approach toward managing the exposed intestines? a. Moisten a sterile dressing with saline solution and cover the abdominal contents. b. Gently replace the intestines after moistening with sterile saline solution. c. Leave the abdominal contents in the place in which they were found and transport immediately. d. Cover the abdomen with an occlusive dressing of aluminum foil.

a.Moisten a sterile dressing with saline solution and cover the abdominal contents.

Which of the following patients is at greatest risk of respiratory failure and should be carefully monitored for ventilatory status throughout treatment and transport? a. Tension pneumothorax b. Flail chest c. Abdominal evisceration d. Hemopneumothorax

a.Tension pneumothorax

While palpating the radial pulses of a patient who was involved in a motor vehicle crash, you notice a difference in the strength of the pulses bilaterally. This is a finding that you suspect may be associated with: a. aortic dissection. b. tension pneumothorax. c. commotio cordis. d. flail chest.

a.aortic dissection.

You are treating a patient with paradoxical motion on the left side of the chest. He is breathing shallow at a rate of 4 breaths per minute. You should: a. begin positive pressure ventilation. b. apply a bulky dressing to the chest. c. administer 15 lpm oxygen via mask. d. roll the patient onto his left side.

a.begin positive pressure ventilation.

You are palpating the abdomen of a motor vehicle collision patient when you feel a pulsing mass. You should: a. defer further abdominal palpation. b. ask your partner to verify your findings. c. bind the abdomen with an elastic bandage. d. apply cold packs to the abdomen.

a.defer further abdominal palpation.

Your patient splashed liquid fertilizer on his unprotected arms. This would be an example of _______ poisoning.

absorbed

When a substance enters the body through unbroken skin, it has entered the body by which of the following routes?

absorption

Signs and symptoms of alcohol abuse include all of the following EXCEPT:

an acetone or ketone odor to the breath.

A 35-year-old female has just eaten lobster and is now complaining of itchy, watery eyes. Her blood pressure is beginning to fall, but she denies difficulty breathing. Which of the following best describes her condition?

anaphylaxis

What is another name for a severe allergic reaction?

anaphylaxis

You are called to the local park on a hot summer day for an 8-year-old child in respiratory distress. The child can barely speak and appears to be getting sleepy. Vital signs are blood pressure 90/60, pulse 120, and respiratory rate 32. Your physical exam reveals a swollen tongue, inspiratory stridor, wheezing, and hives on the neck and chest. What condition do you suspect?

anaphylaxis

You have responded to a park where you find a 23-year-old female sitting on a bench near a running trail. She states that she has been running for the past 30 minutes, and all of a sudden she can't catch her breath. She states that this has never happened before and she usually runs 5 miles a day. Your assessment reveals that she is flushed, her pulse is fast and weak, her respirations are fast and she is wheezing, and she has hives on her arms and chest. She is most likely suffering from which of the following?

anaphylaxis

Drugs that are "blood thinners" (inhibit platelet aggregation)?

aspirin Plavix (clopidogrel)

Chapter 5 Review DO NOT RELY ON THESE! USE YOUR NOTES! 10. Why should an EMT avoid the use of acronyms and abbreviations when communicating? A. They should only be avoided in verbal communications, where they can be misunderstood; they are expected in written patient care reports. B. There is a chance that they can lead to errors in continued care for the patient. C. The medical acronyms and abbreviations used by prehospital care providers and hospital staff are different. D. Using acronyms and abbreviations is considered unprofessional.

Chapter 5 Review DO NOT RELY ON THESE! USE YOUR NOTES! 24. To check the distal pulse of a patient with an injury to the forearm, the EMT would check for a pulse in which location? A. Armpit B. Wrist C. Upper arm D. Throat

Chapter 5 Review DO NOT RELY ON THESE! USE YOUR NOTES! 5. What is the primary reason for an EMT to use specific and proper medical terminology? A. People may think that an EMT is not intelligent or professional unless she uses medical terms. B. Medical communications needs to be exact and consistent. C. It will make patients and family members trust in the EMT's abilities more. D. EMS providers can't bill for services unless the correct terminology is used in all documentation.

What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) of your adult male patient who has fallen off a horse, has his eyes open, can follow your commands to squeeze his hands, but is confused about what happened and his whereabouts? a. 12 b. 14 c. 15 d. 13

b. 14

Of the following patients, which injury is the highest priority to receive controlled hyperventilation? a. A 25-year-old female victim of battery who is awake but complains of a headache and has bloody fluid draining from her nose and left ear b. A 15-year-old female who was ejected from a vehicle, struck her head on a tree, and displays decerebrate movements in response to painful stimuli c. A 25-year-old male who regained consciousness one or two minutes after being struck on the head by a baseball bat and is now asking repetitive questions d. A 70-year-old male who struck his head when he fell in the parking lot, has a large laceration on his forehead, and is disoriented

b. A 15-year-old female who was ejected from a vehicle, struck her head on a tree, and displays decerebrate movements in response to painful stimuli

While assessing a patient with a laceration to the neck, the EMT must be aware that which of the following conditions may develop? a. Deep vein thrombosis b. Air embolus c. Air thrombosis d. Deep vein embolus

b. Air embolus

Which portions of the spine are the most vulnerable to injury? a. Thoracic and lumbar b. Cervical and lumbar c. Cervical and sacra d. Thoracic and sacra

b. Cervical and lumbar

In addition to lacerations, blunt trauma resulting in a closed chest injury creates the potential for which of the following internal injuries? a. Abrasion b. Contusion c. Evisceration d. Avulsion

b. Contusion

When should the EMT calculate a GCS with a patient who suffered a fall of 20 feet from his apartment building? a. At the hospital before writing the care report b. En route to the hospital c. As he approaches the patient d. Before departing from the scene

b. En route to the hospital

You are dispatched to a 42-year-old male who was shot in the abdomen and thrown from a vehicle. The patient is critical and a high-category trauma; however, due to the mechanism of illness, it is necessary to backboard the patient prior to transport. What is an important assessment before securing the patient? a. V erifying trauma center ER bed availability b. Examining the patient for entrance and exit wounds c. Searching for presence of diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hypotension d. Performing a distal neurological assessment

b. Examining the patient for entrance and exit wounds

As pressure within the cranium increases, which of the following is the result? a. Decreased blood pressure, decreased pulse b. Increased blood pressure, decreased pulse c. Decreased blood pressure, increased pulse d. Increased blood pressure, increased pulse

b. Increased blood pressure, decreased pulse

Which of the following is classified as an open head injury? a. Contusion without a skull fracture b. Laceration with a skull fracture c. Laceration without a skull fracture d. Both A and B

b. Laceration with a skull fracture

Which of the following is a vascular organ in the abdomen that can produce blood loss quickly enough to result in life-threatening hemorrhage following high mechanism of injury blunt trauma? a. Intestines b. Liver c. Pancreas d. Kidneys

b. Liver

Which of the following is a strategy to maintain an occlusive dressing to bloody or diaphoretic skin? a. Do not use occlusive dressings in this case. b. Manually maintain pressure. c. Do not use adhesive tape. d. Wrap the dressing circumferentially with gauze.

b. Manually maintain pressure.

Which of the following describes the proper position of the patient's head for spinal immobilization? a. Chin tilted upward for airway maintenance b. Neutral, in-line "eyes forward" position c. Stabilized in position found d. The "sniffing" position

b. Neutral, in-line "eyes forward" position

Your patient is a 35-year-old woman who was driving a minivan that was struck in the driver's side door by another vehicle. You notice that when you apply pressure to her sternum with your knuckles she extends her legs and flexes her arms and wrists. When giving your radio report, which of the following terms should you use to describe this? a. Tonic-clonic activity b. Posturing c. Cushing's reflex d. Battle's sign

b. Posturing

Your patient is a 30-year-old female involved in a motorcycle crash. She was not wearing a helmet and struck her head on the pavement. She is unresponsive and has a blood pressure of 152/110 mmHg. Her pulse is 60 beats per minute and respirations are 8 breaths per minute and shallow. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention? a. Elevate the legs. b. Provide cervical spine immobilization. c. Hyperventilate at a rate of 24 breaths per minute using supplemental oxygen. d. Apply a pressure dressing to her scalp lacerations.

b. Provide cervical spine immobilization.

Which of the following is controlled by the left side of the brain? a. Sensation in the left arm b. Sensation of the right leg c. Movement of both lower extremities d. Movement of the left arm

b. Sensation of the right leg

Your patient is a 16-year-old male who ran his truck off of the road and into a ditch. He was driving just fast enough to cause the air bag to deploy when he hit the ditch. He is complaining of some neck and shoulder pain. His vital signs are respirations 20, pulse 110, blood pressure 116/80, and pupils equal and reactive. How should you manage this patient? a. Perform a rapid extrication and spinal immobilize him on a long spine board. b. Use a short spine board or vest device, then transfer him to a long spine board. c. Apply a cervical collar, then rotate him to a long spine board. d. Place him on oxygen, then slowly move him to the stretcher.

b. Use a short spine board or vest device, then transfer him to a long spine board.

At which point may manual stabilization of the cervical spine be terminated? a. Only when directed to do so by medical control b. When the patient is secured to a long backboard c. After a short immobilization device has been applied d. After a cervical collar has been applied

b. When the patient is secured to a long backboard

A young female was injured in an automobile wreck, striking her head on the windshield. She is unconscious and her breathing is irregular. She is bleeding from a scalp wound, but your assessment shows that her cranium is intact. Her vital signs are pulse 68, blood pressure 148/90, and her pupils are unequal. You should suspect a(n): a. concussion. b. closed head injury. c. contusion. d. open head injury.

b. closed head injury.

Your 38-year-old male patient has been injured in an assault. He has several facial lacerations and a large knot on his head. Bystanders say that he was thrown over a large table and landed on his head and shoulder. As part of your scene size-up and primary assessment, you should: a. wait for ALS to treat the patient. b. immobilize his cervical spine. c. splint any other bone or joint injuries. d. complete an initial set of vital signs.

b. immobilize his cervical spine.

The proper procedure for opening the airway of an unresponsive trauma patient is: a. head-tilt without chin-lift. b. jaw-thrust maneuver. c. Sellick's maneuver. d. head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver.

b. jaw-thrust maneuver.

Your patient has sustained a serious laceration to his neck. He appears to have lost a lot of blood and you are considering how you will control the bleeding. Your primary treatment should be to place a(n): a. pressure dressing. b. occlusive dressing. c. dry, sterile dressing. d. bulky dressing.

b. occlusive dressing.

Which of the following is an accurate definition of a flail chest? a. A lung that has been punctured by a fractured rib, resulting in a buildup of air b. A section of the chest wall that is unstable, leading to breathing problems c. The fracture of one rib in two or more consecutive places d. The fracture of at least four ribs in two or more places

b.A section of the chest wall that is unstable, leading to breathing problems

Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of dressings used in the prehospital management of most open wounds? a. Nonabsorbent b. Sterile c. Occlusive d. Adherent

b.Sterile

Which of the following types of bandages should NOT be used by the EMT providing wound care? a. Self-adherent roller gauze b. Tourniquet c. A triangular bandage d. Adhesive tape

b.Tourniquet

You are stabilizing a patient who has just been stabbed in the chest to the right of the mediastinum. After placing the patient on supplemental oxygen, his shortness of breath resolves. You also cover the wound with an occlusive dressing. The patient is asymptomatic at the time you're making the decision to transport. Which of the following BEST encapsulates the correct strategy for transport? a. The patient does not necessarily need transport, so allow him to refuse if he wants. b. Transport the patient emergently because of the high index of suspicion for a serious injury. c. Begin transport non-emergently and upgrade if the patient's condition deteriorates. d. Transport the patient non-emergently because he's complaint free.

b.Transportthepatientemergentlybecauseofthehighindexofsuspicionforaseriousinjury.

Your patient was working on a car when it fell off the jack and trapped him between the tire and ground. His face is very blue and his eyes are bloodshot. Which of the following has the patient most likely suffered? a. Hemothorax b. Traumatic asphyxia c. Pneumothorax d. Flail chest

b.Traumatic asphyxia

The mechanism of injury in which a patient's chest has struck an immovable object, such as a steering wheel, may most accurately be described as a: a. blunt trauma injury. b. compression injury. c. penetrating injury. d. coup contrecoup injury.

b.compression injury.

You have covered an open chest wound with your gloved hand and the patient's breathing has improved. In order to free your hand to provide further care, you should: a. cover the wound with a sterile dressing. b. cover the wound with a sterile dressing. cover the wound with an occlusive dressing. c. apply a bulky dressing over the wound. d. remove your hand to see if the wound has closed.

b.cover the wound with a sterile dressing. cover the wound with an occlusive dressing.

Which of the following allows for smooth movement of bone surfaces against one another at joints?

cartlige

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of epinephrine?

bradycardia

Chapter 5 Review DO NOT RELY ON THESE! USE YOUR NOTES! 11. You and your newly hired EMT partner arrive on the scene of a bicycle collision at the local community park. One cyclist stands by and says that she has not injuries. The other is lying on his side on the bike path, guarding his ribs and holding the lower part of his left leg. Your partner kneels next to the man, introduces herself, and asks, "Can you ambulate?" The patient looks up, confused and in obvious pain. "Can you ambulate? You know...walk?" Your partners says, a little louder. After transporting the patient, you discuss the call with your partner and suggest that she avoid using medical terms unnecessarily when talking with patients. She seems insulted and says, "Why?" What would you say? A. Explain that using large words and medical terms can be seen as being egotistical, which can alienate both patients and other providers. B. Tell her that the general public isn't smart enough to understand medical terminology and that all communication must be "dumbed down" when talking to patients. C. Tell her that the point of communicating with patients and other providers is so there is clear understanding; using medical terms when not necessary can cause confusion. D. You should say that you are an experienced EMT and since she is new, she should just take your advice and apply it.

Chapter 5 Review DO NOT RELY ON THESE! USE YOUR NOTES! 13. Which of the following BEST describes the anatomic position? A. Supine with arms crossed over the chest and knees slightly bent B. Standing, facing forward, with arms raised above the head C. Standing, facing forward, with arms at the side, palms forward D. Standing in profile with the hands on the hips

Chapter 5 Review DO NOT RELY ON THESE! USE YOUR NOTES! 15. The inside of a person's thigh is also known as its _____ aspect. A. inferior B. lateral C. medial D. axillary

Chapter 5 Review DO NOT RELY ON THESE! USE YOUR NOTES! 19. The wrist is _____ to the elbow. A. medial B. inferior C. distal D. dorsal

Chapter 5 Review DO NOT RELY ON THESE! USE YOUR NOTES! 3. The abdominal quadrants include all of the following except the: A. right upper B. left lower C. right medial D. left upper

Chapter 5 Review DO NOT RELY ON THESE! USE YOUR NOTES! 6. While transporting a patient with a traumatic wound to the back, you call in to report to the receiving hospital over the radio. Due to radio static and background noise in the Emergency Department, the physician has had to ask you twice to repeat if the wound was superior or inferior. Why would this distinction be important? A. The physician is just trying to determine if the wound is deep or not so she knows what to prepare for. B. The answer is not necessarily important. The physician is just focusing on getting her standard questions answered while dealing with an inadequate radio system. C. The location of the wound is important in determining which types of resources to have available when the patient arrives. D. It is a triage question to determine if the patient is critical or not so the hospital can prioritize.

Chapter 5 Review DO NOT RELY ON THESE! USE YOUR NOTES! 7. What word would be used to refer to a patient's rapid breathing? A. Tachycardia B. Dyspnea C. Tachypnea D. Dyseffusion

Which of the following is a function of the autonomic nervous system? a. Speaking b. Running or walking c. Constriction of blood vessels d. Solving complex math problems

c. Constriction of blood vessels

Which of the following is a potential complication of hyperventilating a patient with a brain injury? a. Increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood b. Increasing blood flow to the brain c. Decreasing blood flow to the brain d. Decreasing the patient's blood pressure

c. Decreasing blood flow to the brain

When using a short spine immobilization device, which part of the body is secured last? a. Arms b. Torso c. Head d. Legs

c. Head

Which of the following may result from the application of a cervical collar that is too large for the patient? a. Rotation of the head and neck b. Hyperflexion of the neck c. Hyperextension of the neck d. Excessive lateral movement of the mandible

c. Hyperextension of the neck

In which of the following circumstances should a helmet be removed? a. If you suspect a skull fracture and need to palpate the head b. If you want to place a nasal cannula on the patient but cannot because his ears are covered by the helmet c. If the helmet interferes with airway management d. If the helmet fits so snugly that you cannot inspect the ears for the presence of blood or fluid

c. If the helmet interferes with airway management

Your patient is a 27-year-old male who has been involved in a motorcycle collision in which he was not wearing a helmet. He does not respond when you speak to him, but he makes incomprehensible sounds when you press your knuckles on his sternum. Which of the following BEST describes his level of consciousness? a. Alert b. Verbal c. Painful d. Unresponsive

c. Painful

Which of the following pieces of equipment is acceptable for use in the prehospital stabilization of suspected cervical spine injuries? a. Soft cervical collars b. Five-pound sand bags c. Rigid cervical collars d. All of the above

c. Rigid cervical collars

The bony bumps you feel along the center of a person's back are known as which of the following? a. Vertebrae b. Foramen magnum c. Spinous process d. None of the above

c. Spinous process

Which of the following is the correct sequence for securing the straps on a long spine board? a. Legs, torso, head b. Head, torso, legs c. Torso, legs, head d. Head, legs, torso

c. Torso, legs, head

Which of the following is NOT used to calculate a patient's GCS? a. Eye movement b. Verbal response c. Work of breathing d. Motor response

c. Work of breathing

Your patient has a suspected cervical spine injury from falling from a rope swing. His vital signs are pulse 62, respirations 20, and blood pressure 90/56. He has no feeling below his mid-chest area but is able to breathe on his own. You should suspect: a. cardiogenic shock. b. hypovolemic shock. c. neurogenic shock. d. psychogenic shock.

c. neurogenic shock.

Your patient is a 16-year-old centerfielder on his high school baseball team. He was injured when he and the left fielder collided trying to catch a fly ball. He is disoriented and is unable to tell you what happened. His vital signs are pulse 88, blood pressure 132/86, respiratory rate 16, and pupils equal. As you assess his head, you do not see any cuts or bleeding, but you feel a spongy, depressed area over his left ear. You should suspect a(n): a. closed head injury. b. skull injury. c. open head injury. d. direct injury.

c. open head injury.

When a patient has a serious open wound to the neck, you are concerned about the possibility of an air embolism. The reason an air embolism can occur is because of: a. the higher pressure in the vessels of the neck. b. the negative pressure in the chest. c. vessel pressure that is lower than atmospheric pressure. d. damage to the trachea.

c. vessel pressure that is lower than atmospheric pressure.

Which of the following traumatic chest injuries may result in massive, often fatal internal hemorrhage? a. Hemopneumothorax b. Hemothorax c. Aortic dissection d. Cardiac tamponade

c.Aortic dissection

Bleeding from open abdominal injuries should initially be controlled with which one of the following techniques? a. Packing the wound with rolled gauze b. Applying an occlusive dressing c. Applying direct pressure to the wound d. Applying an ice pack or chemical cold pack

c.Applying direct pressure to the wound

Which of the following describes the proper application of an occlusive dressing for an open chest wound? a. Trim the dressing so that it is the exact size of the wound. b. Use a porous material such as a 4" by 4" gauze pad. c. Tape the dressing securely on three sides. d. None of the above

c.Tape the dressing securely on three sides.

Your patient is a 55-year-old male who was found in the parking lot behind a tavern. He states that he was assaulted and robbed by three individuals. He is complaining of being "hit in the face and kicked and punched in his ribs and stomach." Your examination reveals contusions and swelling around both eyes, bleeding from the nose, a laceration of his upper lip, and multiple contusions of the chest, abdomen, and flanks. Which of the following should cause the greatest concern regarding the prehospital care of this patient? a. The presence of any defensive wounds the patient may have sustained b. Getting a description of the assailants c. The possibility of a pneumothorax d. Reducing the swelling around his eyes by applying a cold pack

c.The possibility of a pneumothorax

Your patient is a 17-year-old male baseball player found pulseless and apneic after being struck in the chest by a baseball 6 minutes ago. He is surrounded by other players and staff but no one is providing care. You should: a. elevate the patient's legs. b. attach the AED and analyze. c. begin chest compressions. d. place him on a backboard.

c.begin chest compressions

The pathophysiology of _________ is one in which the pericardial sac fills with blood to the point where the chambers of the heart no longer fill adequately, usually secondary to trauma. a. pericardial effusion b. hemopneumothorax c. cardiac tamponade d. commotio cordis

c.cardiac tamponade

Chapter 5 Review DO NOT RELY ON THESE! USE YOUR NOTES! 1. What is the distinction between anatomy and physiology? A. Anatomy is the study of physical body structures, whereas physiology is the study of emotions and behavior. B. The terms are synonymous C. Anatomy is the study of body components and systems, and physiology is the study of injuries and disease processes. D. Anatomy is the study of body structures, and physiology is the study of body function.

Chapter 5 Review DO NOT RELY ON THESE! USE YOUR NOTES! 17. What is another term for the frontal aspect of the body? A. Caudal B. Dorsal C. Posterior D. Anterior

Chapter 5 Review DO NOT RELY ON THESE! USE YOUR NOTES! 18. You respond to a large concert venue where a number of spectators are reported to be severely intoxicated. You are directed to an area where several patients appear to be unconscious, lying face down on the ground. The position of these patients is described as: A. posterior B. supine C. anterior D. prone

Chapter 5 Review DO NOT RELY ON THESE! USE YOUR NOTES! 21. With regard to anatomical locations, which of the following is NOT true? A. The umbilicus is located on the ventral aspect of the body. B. The ears are located on the lateral aspect of the head. C. The foot is distal to the knee. D. The mouth is proximal to the nose.

Chapter 5 Review DO NOT RELY ON THESE! USE YOUR NOTES! 25. Which of the following describes Fowler's position? A. Lying flat on the back B. Lying on the side C. Lying on the stomach D. Sitting upright with the legs straight

Chapter 5 Review DO NOT RELY ON THESE! USE YOUR NOTES! 4. The term lateral is best defined as: A. under the arms B. toward the middle of C. to the back of D. to the side

Chapter 5 Review DO NOT RELY ON THESE! USE YOUR NOTES! 8. A patient with bilateral femur fractures would have which of the following? A. 2 fractures in the same femur B. A femur fracture occurring with little or no trauma C. A femur fracture in which the bone ends have punctured the muscle and skin of the thigh D. Fractures of both femurs

A 44-year-old male involved in a collision at 50 mph struck the windshield of his vehicle with his face. Which of the following injuries should you prepare to treat? a. Cervical spine trauma b. Brain injury c. Airway obstruction d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which of the following is a sign of possible brain injury? a. A deep laceration of the scalp b. Projectile vomiting c. Irregular breathing pattern d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which of the following may be a hazard of an improperly fitting cervical collar? a. Allows hyperextension of the neck b. Prevents the patient from opening his mouth c. Allows flexion of the neck d. All of the above

d. All of the above

A fracture of which of the following bones would be considered a skull fracture? a. Temporal bone b. Nasal bones c. Maxilla d. Any of the above

d. Any of the above

Your patient is a 38-year-old male driver of a vehicle that left the roadway and struck a bus stop shelter and a tree. He is conscious and alert, he has some abrasions on his forehead, his skin is warm and dry, and he has a strong radial pulse and no difficulty breathing. Which of the following descriptions represents the MOST appropriate way for removing the patient from the vehicle? a. Apply a cervical collar and perform rapid extrication onto a long backboard. b. Have the patient stand up and then do a "standing take-down" onto a long backboard. c. Place the backboard on the stretcher and have the patient stand, turn, and lie down on the backboard while you maintain manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine. d. Apply a cervical collar and short spine immobilization device before removing to a long backboard.

d. Apply a cervical collar and short spine immobilization device before removing to a long backboard.

Your patient is a 21-year-old male who slid head-first down a water slide at his fraternity house and impacted the bales of straw that his fraternity brothers had erected as a barrier to keep participants from sliding onto the adjacent highway. The patient is conscious and complaining of neck pain. Which of the following should be included in your assessment? a. If the patient has no numbness or tingling, ask him to stand and try to walk. b. Apply painful stimuli to his extremities, starting distally and moving closer and closer to the body. c. Ask the patient to cautiously touch his chin to his chest to check for range of motion. d. Ask the patient to grasp and squeeze your hands.

d. Ask the patient to grasp and squeeze your hands.

You are treating an unresponsive homeless patient found in an alley. During your assessment you notice bruising behind both ears. This is known as what? a. Fatigue signs b. Warrior's signs c. Soldier's signs d. Battle's signs

d. Battle's signs

Which of the following injuries is considered an indirect brain injury? a. Cerebral laceration b. Depressed skull fracture with cerebral penetration by bone fragments c. Gunshot wound to the head d. Concussion

d. Concussion

Which of the following is defined as an area of the body surface that is innervated by a single spinal nerve? a. Spinous process b. None of the above c. Malar d. Dermatome

d. Dermatome

Which of the following is the underlying cause of neurogenic shock? a. Blood loss from damaged spinal blood vessels b. Failure of the heart to adequately pump blood c. Extreme emotional response to paralysis d. Dilation of blood vessels

d. Dilation of blood vessels

Your patient is a 30-year-old construction worker who fell from a scaffolding and has been impaled through the right orbit by a 36-inch piece of concrete reinforcement bar. The patient responds to verbal stimuli and appears to have multiple other injuries. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? a. Remove the reinforcement bar and pack the orbit with sterile moist dressings to keep the scene time under 10 minutes. b. Transport with the reinforcement bar in place to prevent delay at the scene. c. Test the reinforcement bar for stability and remove it only if it is loose enough to be easily pulled from the wound. d. Firmly stabilize the reinforcement bar in place so that the rescue crew can cut it short.

d. Firmly stabilize the reinforcement bar in place so that the rescue crew can cut it short.

Your patient is a 16-year-old male who was ejected from an all-terrain vehicle and struck his head on a large rock. He was not wearing a helmet. He is unresponsive with shallow, irregular respirations; a blood pressure of 170/110 mmHg; and a heart rate of 50 beats per minute. Which of the following interventions would be MOST appropriate? a. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate via bag-valve mask at 30 breaths per minute. b. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and give oxygen by nonrebreather mask at 15 lpm. c. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and give oxygen by nonrebreather mask at 15 lpm. d. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate via bag-valve mask at 20 breaths per minute.

d. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate via bag-valve mask at 20 breaths per minute.

You are treating a 35-year-old male patient that has been involved in a motorcycle incident. The patient is unresponsive with a blood pressure of 60/40, a pulse of 66 beats per minute, and respirations of 18 breaths per minute. The patient's presentation is most likely caused by which of the following? a. Cardiogenic shock b. Septic shock c. Increased intracranial pressure d. Neurogenic shock

d. Neurogenic shock

Your patient is pregnant at 20 weeks' gestation and has been thrown from a horse. She is complaining of back pain. Which of the following is the correct procedure for immobilizing her spine? a. Use a short immobilization device and transport the patient in a sitting position. b. Place the patient supine on the backboard. c. Place the patient on her left side on the backboard. d. Place the patient supine on the backboard, then put a pillow under the right side of the backboard.

d. Place the patient supine on the backboard, then put a pillow under the right side of the backboard.

When blood accumulates between the brain and the dura mater, what is the result? a. Epidural contusion b. Subdural contusion c. Epidural hematoma d. Subdural hematoma

d. Subdural hematoma

You're an off-duty EMT who encounters a patient sitting behind the wheel of a vehicle that ran off the road along an isolated county road. It appears the patient was unrestrained, or not wearing a seat belt, and struck the steering wheel with his chest. On assessment, you notice a paradoxical motion to the patient's chest on inspiration and expiration. When you radio for dispatch of an ambulance, which of the following pieces of information would you be sure to include? a. The patient may have an abdominal evisceration. b. The patient is showing signs of abdominal bleeding. c. The patient is showing signs of an open chest injury. d. The patient may have a flail chest.

d. The patient may have a flail chest.

Which of the following is a true statement regarding the skin's status in the case of a closed chest injury? a. Internal contusions and lacerations cannot occur. b. The skin may be penetrated and occluded. c. The skin is penetrated. d. The skin is not penetrated.

d. The skin is not penetrated.

Your patient has had his throat slashed during a robbery attempt. You are concerned since it is apparent that the vessels in his neck have been lacerated. A breach in which of the following vessels would be most likely to lead to an air embolism? a. Capillaries b. Arterioles c. Arteries d. Veins

d. Veins

You are called for a man who is not acting right. His wife says he was outside working in the garden but didn't come in for lunch when he was called. She went to check on him and found him sitting next to a stump, confused. You assessment shows a pulse rate of 58, blood pressure of 186/82, respirations of 16, and one of his pupils is dilated. You are unable to detect any signs of trauma and you don't see any obvious indication that he has fallen. You should suspect a(n): a. closed head injury. b. open head injury. c. insecticide poisoning. d. nontraumatic brain injury.

d. nontraumatic brain injury.

Your patient was ejected from his motorcycle when he struck a deer late at night on a deserted highway. He is drowsy and unable to communicate clearly. As you immobilize him on the long spine board, you find that you are unable to obtain neutral alignment of his spine due to the large helmet he has on. You should: a. pad under his shoulders to straighten his neck. b. tip his head back to gain neutral alignment. c. place towels on either side of the helmet to stabilize it. d. remove the helmet to better manage proper alignment.

d. remove the helmet to better manage proper alignment.

You are on an EMS standby for a boxing tournament. During one of the matches, one of the female boxers delivers a forcible uppercut to the chest of her opponent, who falls to the ground. The match is declared over on the basis of a TKO. However, the opponent fails to arise following a 1-2 minute interval. EMS is summoned to the ring. You find the patient pulseless and breathing agonal gasps. You suspect which of the following traumatic conditions? a. Cardiac tamponade b. Aortic dissection c. Tension pneumothorax d. Commotio cordis

d.Commotio cordis

Which of the following BEST describes the benefit of a three-sided occlusive dressing over a four- sided occlusive dressing for an open chest wound? a. It eliminates the need to continue monitoring the patient's respiratory status. b. It prevents the development of a hemothorax by allowing blood to escape. c. It allows easy access for re-examination of the wound en route to the hospital. d. It reduces the chances of developing a tension pneumothorax.

d.It reduces the chances of developing a tension pneumothorax.

A 36-year-old male was accidentally shot with a nail gun into the chest. You see the nail, which protrudes about 2 to 3 centimeters from the thorax, when you visualize the injury site. Under which of the following circumstances should you remove the nail from the injury site? a. Bleeding from the patient's wound is minimal. b. The patient develops a tension pneumothorax. c. The patient begins to complain of shortness of breath. d. None of the above

d.None of the above

Your patient is a 21-year-old male who has a gunshot wound to the chest. Which of the following is the highest priority in managing this patient? a. Placing the patient in the shock position b. Performing a rapid trauma assessment c. Placing a pressure dressing over the wound to control bleeding d. Placing an occlusive dressing over the wound

d.Placing an occlusive dressing over the wound

A patient with jugular vein distention is most likely suffering from which of the following injuries? a. Pneumothorax b. Hemothorax c. Hemopneumothorax d. Tension pneumothorax

d.Tension pneumothorax

Which of the following is an unreliable sign for determining the presence of a tension pneumothorax? a. Distended neck veins b. Signs and symptoms of shock c. Shortness of breath d. Trachea that shifts to the side opposite the injury

d.Trachea that shifts to the side opposite the injury

A teenage male has fallen onto a railing while skateboarding. He complains of right-sided chest pain and moderate dyspnea. Exposure of the chest reveals a section of his ribs that is moving opposite of the rest of the ribs. You should: a. roll the patient over onto his right side. b. begin positive pressure ventilation. c. cover the wound with an occlusive dressing. d. apply a bulky dressing over the section.

d.apply a bulky dressing over the section.

Your patient has an open abdominal wound with intestines protruding. You should: a. leave them alone and transport rapidly. b. attempt to place the organs back into the abdomen. c. cover the entire abdomen with a blanket. d. cover the organs with moist sterile dressings.

d.cover the organs with moist sterile dressings.

You find a middle-aged male is sitting against a wall in obvious distress. The patient appears to be extremely short of breath and has an open wound to his chest that is making a sucking sound. You should: a. place the patient on high-concentration oxygen. b. cover the wound with an occlusive dressing. c. place a trauma dressing over the wound. d. place your gloved hand over the wound.

d.place your gloved hand over the wound.

The most important part of treatment for an absorbed poison is

irrigating the skin with large amounts of clean water

Carbon monoxide poisoning is extremely serious because carbon monoxide

is odorless, colorless, and tasteless, making it undetectable without special equipment

Which of the following statements regarding syrup of ipecac is NOT true?

it has an immediate actions

Syrup of ipecac has been used less in recent years because

it removes, on average, less than one-third of the stomach contents

Cold is sometimes used to help control bleeding. When using cold, the following guidelines and statements are true except

it should be applied directly to the skin; it will not be effective if anything is between the cold agent and the wound

When arriving at the scene of an inhaled poisoning, your first priority is

keeping yourself safe

Causes severe unilateral flank pain that radiates to the groin area, sometimes associated with nausea and vomiting?

kidney stones

A class of drugs that affect the nervous system, change many normal body activities, and are legally used for pain relief are

narcotics

Hemodialysis?

over 90% 3 treatments/wk 3 or 4 hrs specialized outpatient dialysis center fistula "thrill"

What are some of the ways acute renal failure can occur?

shock, toxic ingestions etc. an example - someone trapped and severely dehydrated

My EMT w Chpt 35

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