NASM 6

What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)? a. A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual's physical readiness to engage in structured exercise b. A questionnaire with lists of questions that pertain to health history and habits, such as exercise history, eating behaviors, and general lifestyle c. A screening tool used to evaluate the benefits and the risks associated with starting any type of exercise that is strenuous in nature d. A screening where the results indicate a need for medical clearance, when one is not, in fact, needed

a. A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual's physical readiness to engage in structured exercise

Which of the following best defines cholesterol? a. A waxy, fatlike substance found in bodily cells b. A raising of blood pressure c. A substance that attaches itself to muscles and tendons d. A narrowing of arteries to the heart

a. A waxy, fatlike substance found in bodily cells

What mechanism is responsible for increasing the rate of heart conduction? a. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system b. Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system c. Activation of sarcomeres d. Activation of the intercalated discs

a. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system

What is a body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body? a. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) b. Anthropometry c. Body mass index (BMI) d. Skinfold measurements

a. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)

The cardiovascular and respiratory systems work together to remove what waste product? a. Carbon dioxide b. Water c. Platelets d. Oxygen

a. Carbon dioxide

What is defined as the ability to react and change body position with maximal force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions? a. Quickness b. Speed c. Agility d. Strength

a. Quickness

Which of the following terms can be used in place of repetition tempo? a. Speed b. Intensity c. Rest interval d. Training duration

a. Speed

What are the three levels of the OPT model? a. Stabilization, Strength, and Power b. Stabilization, Muscular Development, and Power c. Strength Endurance, Maximal Strength, and Power d. Stabilization, Strength, and Maximal Strength

a. Stabilization, Strength, and Power

What is known as a sudden lack of blood supply to the brain, caused by either a blockage in an artery or a ruptured blood vessel? a. Peripheral arterial disease b. Stroke c. Intermittent claudication d. Heart failure

b. Stroke

Asking a client to turn their head side to side during a balance exercise would challenge which system? a. Somatosensory system b. Vestibular system c. Auditory system d. Visual system

b. Vestibular system

What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest? a. 5.0 mL/kg/min b. 7.0 mL/kg/min c. 3.5 mL/kg/min d. 2.5 mL/kg/min

c. 3.5 mL/kg/min

Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location? a. A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button) b. A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line) c. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button) d. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line

c. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

Core and balance exercises are a component of which part of an OPT workout? a. Skill development b. Resistance training c. Activation d. Client's choice

c. Activation

What impacts can exercise have on cholesterol levels in the body? a. It increases both HDL and LDL cholesterol. b. It can lower both HDL and LDL cholesterol. c. It can increase LDL cholesterol. d. It can reduce LDL cholesterol and increase HDL cholesterol.

d. It can reduce LDL cholesterol and increase HDL cholesterol.

What is the name for projections protruding from the bone to which tendons and ligaments attach? a. Depressions b. Bone spurs c. Processes d. Sulcus

c. Processes

What might a Certified Personal Trainer do for someone in the precontemplation stage of change? a. Help them identify barriers to exercise b. Encourage them to make plans to exercise c. Provide them with education and knowledge d. Tell them to exercise with a friend

c. Provide them with education and knowledge

This is a conversational technique that helps the listener express the supposed meaning of what was just heard. a. Open-ended questions b. Active listening c. Reflections d. Closed-ended questions

c. Reflections

What is a characteristic of type I muscle fibers? a. Type I fibers are "slow twitch." b. Type I fibers have a lower concentration of mitochondria than type II fibers. c. Type I fibers have a lower concentration of capillaries than type II fibers. d. Type I fibers are "fast twitch."

a. Type I fibers are "slow twitch."

What BMI score is considered within normal limits? a. 30 to 34.9 b. 18.5 to 24.9 c. 35 to 39.9 d. 25 to 29.9

b. 18.5 to 24.9

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve maximal strength adaptations? a. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM b. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM c. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM d. 2 sets, 12 repetitions, 75% 1RM

b. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM

Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%? a. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries b. Ankle sprains c. Medial collateral ligament injuries d. Concussions

b. Ankle sprains

When a client makes a plan, such as, "When I am done with work, I will run for 30 minutes," what are they doing? a. Self-monitoring b. Forming an implementation intention c. Creating a coping plan d. Stating an outcome expectation

b. Forming an implementation intention

Which statement best demonstrates empathy? a. I think you will feel healthier once you finally lose some weight. b. I know that finding time to exercise is hard. I struggle to get it done sometimes as well. c. I don't understand why you think it's so hard to do 30 minutes of cardio 3 times a week. d. If you spend more time in the gym, you will reach your goals faster.

b. I know that finding time to exercise is hard. I struggle to get it done sometimes as well.

What is a client-centric coaching style that helps enhance their desire to change by resolving ambivalence? a. Reflective listening b. Motivational interviewing c. Collecting summaries d. Affirming

b. Motivational interviewing

What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization? a. Box jump-up with stabilization b. Multiplanar jump with stabilization c. Squat jump with stabilization d. Tuck jump with stabilization

b. Multiplanar jump with stabilization

Human movement is accomplished through the functional integration of three systems within the human body: the nervous system, the skeletal system, and what other system? a. Digestive b. Muscular c. Vascular d. Coronary

b. Muscular

What answer best describes the building blocks of proteins? a. Peptide bonds b. Carbon molecules c. Essential and nonessential amino acids d. Essential amino acids only

c. Essential and nonessential amino acids

The hip hinge is an important fundamental movement. During a hip hinge, what movements are occurring? a. Adduction and abduction b. Abduction and extension c. Flexion and extension d. Supination and pronation

c. Flexion and extension

Which muscle functions in a feed-forward mechanism in anticipation of limb movements? a. Rectus abdominis b. Erector spinae c. Multifidus d. Gluteus maximus

c. Multifidus

Which type of nerve receptor senses pain? a. Mechanoreceptor b. Action potential c. Nociceptor d. Neurotransmitter

c. Nociceptor

In which BMI category would you classify Vincent if he has a BMI of 27? a. Class II obesity b. Obese c. Overweight d. Healthy weight

c. Overweight

If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity? a. Beta-oxidation b. The ATP-PC system c. Oxidative phosphorylation d. Glycolysis

c. Oxidative phosphorylation

What best describes the all-or-nothing principle? a. The switch from type IIa to type IIx muscle fibers b. The switch from type I to type II muscle fibers c. All muscle fibers contract, or none at all do. d. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.

d. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.

What is the Valsalva maneuver? a. The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium b. The body's ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts c. The process of increasing the intensity or volume of exercise programs using a systematic and gradual approach d. A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability

d. A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability

Which of the following vitamins or groups of vitamins plays a key role in energy metabolism? a. Vitamin C b. Water-soluble vitamins c. Fat-soluble vitamins d. B vitamins

d. B vitamins

Which muscle functions as part of the global muscular system? a. Transversus abdominis b. Internal oblique c. Multifidus d. Erector spinae

d. Erector spinae

Compared to water-soluble vitamins, which of the following is true about fat-soluble vitamins? a. Fat-soluble vitamins are not as healthy because fat is unhealthy. b. Fat-soluble vitamins are better for improving overall health. c. Fat-soluble vitamins accumulate in and deplete quickly from the body. d. Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body.

d. Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body.

The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? a. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum b. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus c. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators d. Hamstrings and erector spinae

d. Hamstrings and erector spinae

A new client is having trouble managing her busy schedule and has cancelled her last 3 personal training sessions. What is the best option for the fitness professional? a. Politely let the client know that you are transferring them to another trainer. b. Let the client know that cancelling sessions costs them money without providing any benefits. c. Refund the remaining sessions and actively search for a new client. d. Help the client determine her barriers, and talk through strategies to overcome them.

d. Help the client determine her barriers, and talk through strategies to overcome them.

Self-esteem is defined by which of the following? a. When someone is anxious about how others view their body b. How someone conceptualizes their place in society c. How someone views their physical self or how they visualize their body d. How someone evaluates their own self-worth physically, emotionally, and socially

d. How someone evaluates their own self-worth physically, emotionally, and socially

When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor? a. It may place too much stress on the lumbar spine through hyperflexion. b. It may place too much stress on the cervical spine through hyperflexion. c. It may place excessive stress on the thoracic spine through hyperflexion. d. It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.

d. It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.

Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires the use of appropriate professional communication in all verbal, nonverbal, and written transactions? a. Confidentiality b. Legal and ethical c. Business practice d. Professionalism

d. Professionalism

Roberta is an NASM Certified Personal Trainer who is going to be working as an independent contractor at a popular health club. What is the most important step to take before starting her job? a. Buying new outfits so that other members will notice her while she's working out b. Designing cute T-shirts with her logo to give away to potential clients c. Purchasing social media followers to enhance her profile d. Purchasing liability insurance to protect her personal assets

d. Purchasing liability insurance to protect her personal assets

Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of motion? a. Frontal b. Transverse c. Axial d. Sagittal

d. Sagittal

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control in a stationary position? a. Low-level balance b. Semi-dynamic balance c. Dynamic balance d. Static balance

d. Static balance

Which physiological systems comprise the human movement system (HMS)? a. The sight, hearing, and taste systems b. These are not the physiological systems that comprise the HMS. c. The vision, vestibular, and somatosensory systems d. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems

d. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems

Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower-body stretch? a. The stretch provides excessive stress to the quadriceps muscles. b. The stretch is too complicated for the older client. c. This stretch is too advanced for the average person. d. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee.

d. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee.

Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core? a. Latissimus dorsi b. Erector spinae c. Rectus abdominis d. Transverse abdominis

d. Transverse abdominis

Which of the following would be the recommended source of hydration after 40 to 45 minutes of exercise with minimal perspiration? a. A hypertonic sports drink b. An isotonic sports drink c. Fruit juice d. Water

d. Water

When is a muscle considered overactive? a. When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of relaxation b. When a muscle is experiencing neural inhibition and limited neuromuscular recruitment c. When a muscle is elongated and in a state of reduced neural activity d. When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of contraction

d. When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of contraction