NASM CPT PREEXAM
Which component of an OPT workout is intended to help preserve client autonomy?
b. Client's choice
For which of the following populations is the floor bridge exercise contraindicated?
b. Clients who are in the third trimester of pregnancy
What effect would sleep deprivation have on growth hormone and cortisol levels?
b. Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone and increase cortisol levels.
Which core exercise is most appropriate for an obese client to maximize comfort and to avoid potential hypotensive or hypertensive reactions to the exercise?
b. Incline plank
Which of the following is the most highly progressed plyometric exercise?
b. Transverse plane box jump-down
What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training?
d. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
Which of the following would occur during intermittent exercise?
d. All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity.
The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures?
d. Alveolar sacs
What best describes an essential amino acid?
d. An amino acid that must be obtained via diet, as it is not produced by the body
What is a drop set?
d. An approach that involves performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load and continuing with the set
Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)?
d. An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging
What is the best description of a steady-state heart rate?
d. Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed
What is the most valid measurement of aerobic fitness?
VO2
If someone specifically wanted to burn a lot of fat (not necessarily total calories), what type of exercise should they do?
Low- to moderate-intensity exercise for 30 to 60 minutes
How is a general warm-up best defined?
Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.
In order to optimally load muscle during the eccentric phase, the fitness professional should recommend which of the following?
Lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with upper crossed syndrome?
Lower trapezius
The B vitamins have a primary role in what?
Macronutrient metabolism
Which statement best describes the final stage of the sales process?
Making the sale by asking for a financial commitment to solving the customer's needs
What is the anatomical term that describes something positioned above an identified reference point?
Superior
Which is very important as a prenatal vitamin?
folate
What is the term for a postural disturbance being added to a task in order to make the task more difficult?
Perturbation
Jane is a high school hockey goalie. Which type of SAQ training best relates to the physical skills needed at her position?
Quickness training
What are the three branched chain amino acids (BCAAs)?
Valine, leucine, and isoleucine
Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space?
Visual system
When performing high-velocity movements with medicine balls, the ball weight should be no more than what percentage of the user's body weight, according to current recommendations?
0.1
Approximately what percentage of the human body (in male and female adults) is comprised of water?
0.6
According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese?
0.72
What is the RDA for protein?
0.8 g/kg of body weight
Identify the correct number of continuing education units (CEUs) that an NASM Certified Personal Trainer needs to complete in a 2-year cycle to renew the certification.
2
Low-intensity activity burns a higher proportion of fat as fuel, but if someone wanted to burn the most total calories from any substrate, which of the following activities would be most effective?
20 minutes of moderate-intensity activity
What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for fat in the diet?
20 to 35% of total calories
What is the optimal amount of protein per meal for muscle protein synthesis?
20 to 40 g
What is the Tanaka formula, which is used to estimate an individual's maximal heart rate?
208 - (0.7 x age)
At what age is the adolescent brain considered to be fully developed?
25
Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol?
a. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
Which exercise would be most appropriate for the power movement of Phase 5 (Power Training) superset?
a. Front medicine ball oblique throw
What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for carbohydrate in the diet?
b. 45 to 65% of total calories
When attempting to increase muscular size and strength in the lower body, which of the following exercise is least likely to be beneficial?
BOSU squat
When family members are not supportive of exercise-related behaviors, it can be viewed as which of the following?
b. A barrier to exercise
Which of the following examples describes a muscle that is functioning as an antagonist?
b. The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension
What is the general recommended rest for advanced clients between SAQ reps?
c. 0 to 90 seconds
What are the recommended training variables for self-myofascial rolling?
d. 1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds
You have a youth client. What training frequency is most recommended for a young athlete performing SAQ?
d. 1 to 3 times per week
What is the minimum weekly goal of energy expenditure from combined physical activity and exercise for obese clients?
d. 1,200 kcal
According to current research, what is the optimal range of daily protein intake to maximize muscle protein synthesis?
d. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight
A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the concentric muscle contraction performed?
d. 2 seconds
You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete?
d. 4 to 8 drills per workout
Which of the following statements defines the chest skinfold location for men?
d. A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple
A client reports that he is following a limited diet of chicken and rice every day to avoid eating extra calories from other foods in order to lose weight. What would be an appropriate response within your scope of practice as a fitness professional?
d. A varied diet of whole foods provides important micronutrients, and this limited diet may be lacking adequate amounts of them.
What is the primary function of the large intestine?
d. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum
Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client's shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance?
Perturbation
What stage of change is a person in if they are not planning on exercising within the next 6 months?
Precontemplation
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for intermediate clients?
0 to 60 seconds
How many CEUs does the mandatory CPR/AED certification provide for renewal of the NASM-CPT credential?
.1
Approximately what percentage of Americans aged 20 years and older are obese?
.4
What is the approximate percentage of those who will quit a fitness program within the first 6 months after they begin?
.5
Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults?
1 or 2 sets
What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching?
1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises
What are the recommended training variables for active stretching?
1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions
What is shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children?
10 minutes
What weekly progression rate in exercise volume is the maximum recommended for cardiorespiratory training?
10%
What weekly progression rate in exercise volume is the maximum recommended for cardiorespiratory training?
10% per week
What step height is used for the YMCA 3-minute step test?
12 inches
Which of the following blood pressure readings would classify an individual as having stage 1 hypertension?
135/80 mm Hg
What is a normal respiratory rate for an adult during rest?
15 breaths per minute
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients?
15 to 60 seconds
What is the weekly total of time recommended for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?
150 minutes per week
How many repetitions of each SAQ drill is appropriate for youth athletes?
3 to 5 reps
What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest?
3.5 mL/kg/min
At what age is total peak bone mass reached?
30
How many calories are in 1 pound of body fat?
3500
From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients?
4 to 6 drills
What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy?
4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills
What is an appropriate tempo for Phase 1 of the OPT model?
4-2-1-1
Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed?
40-yard dash
Which of the following would be the recommended stability ball size for someone under 5 feet tall?
45 cm
Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve maximal strength adaptations?
5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM
What is a sufficient amount of time for a cardiorespiratory cool-down?
5 to 10 minutes
You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session?
6 to 8 drills
What are the current physical activity recommendations for youth?
60 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day
What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)?
75 minutes per week
How many B vitamins are there?
8
What would be considered a normal resting heart rate for a healthy sedentary person?
80 beats per minute
What percentage of adults experience low-back pain at least once in their lifetime?
80%
How many Essential Amino Acids (EAAs) are there?
9
What are the end products of the electron transport chain?
ATP and water
What statement best describes the main benefit for establishing a brand identity?
A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence.
What is acidosis in muscle?
A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue
What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)?
A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual's physical readiness to engage in structured exercise
What is osteoporosis?
A disease in which the density and quality of bone tissue is reduced, causing bones to become weak and fragile
What statement best describes a premium health club?
A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities
What statement best describes a mid-market health club?
A health club that provides all the features of low-cost clubs and additional amenities like higher-end locker rooms, snack and supplement sales, and group fitness workouts included in the price of membership
What most correctly identifies the purpose of a resume?
A resume allows a job candidate to present their job skills to a potential employer.
What is homeostasis?
A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium
Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location?
A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
What is it called when a ligament is overstretched or torn?
A sprain
How can health best be defined?
A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity
What are the fat-soluble vitamins?
A, D, E, and K
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?
Abdominals
Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise?
Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual
Which of the following processes describes the passage of digested food into the blood system to be processed for energy, nutrients, and tissue building?
Absorption
Which of the following is a ketone body?
Acetoacetic acid
What are the two components of a sarcomere?
Actin and myosin
What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising but for less than 6 months?
Action
Core and balance exercises are a component of which part of an OPT workout?
Activation
The anterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?
Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators
What are the components of ATP?
Adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups
What is defined as the level of commitment to a behavior or plan of action?
Adherence
Davis's law describes what type of changes within the cumulative injury cycle?
Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.
Which communication technique allows the fitness professional to show appreciation of a client's strengths?
Affirmations
What involves reacting to a stimulus and then changing the body's sprinting direction in response to that stimulus?
Agility
Which form of SAQ training is characterized by the ability to start, stop, and change direction in response to a signal or stimulus quickly while maintaining postural control?
Agility
What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome?
Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion
What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex?
Altered reciprocal inhibition
Your client Ethan presents with an overactive/shortened quadriceps group, which is causing the hamstrings to be underactive/lengthened. What is this phenomenon called?
Altered reciprocal inhibition
Which term best describes when someone has mixed feelings about exercise and can see both the pros and cons of participating?
Ambivalence
What are the building blocks of body proteins?
Amino acids
What are nonessential amino acids?
Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body if overall nutrition intake is adequate
During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production?
Amortization
What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay?
Amortization
What types of foods provide all the essential amino acids?
Animal proteins
How is lower crossed syndrome characterized?
Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine
Which division of the skeleton is made up of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle?
Appendicular
Which term best describes motion at the joint surface?
Arthrokinematics
Kettlebells were first used in which setting?
As a unit of measurement on market and farming scales
Which of the following is a component of quickness training?
Assessment of visual stimuli
What causes coronary heart disease?
Atherosclerosis
SAQ programs for youth have been found to decrease what?
Athletic injuries
What is considered to be the mechanism of action with self-myofascial rolling?
Autogenic inhibition
What is the process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles?
Autogenic inhibition
Which of the following vitamins or groups of vitamins plays a key role in energy metabolism?
B vitamins
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?
Back extension
Which exercise is categorized as a total-body movement?
Ball squat, curl to press
Which joint is the most mobile, able to move in all three directions?
Ball-and-socket
Which option is a common strength-focused resistance training exercise?
Barbell bench press
What term would be used to describe the starting point of an individual's fitness level directly after an assessment has been conducted?
Baseline value
Which of the following would be an appropriate Phase 2 superset?
Bench press and stability ball push-ups
Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the upper extremities during a pushing movement?
Bench press strength assessment
What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle?
Beta-oxidation
Which of the following is true about the biologically active forms of vitamins?
Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels.
For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal?
Body fat loss
Which of the following is true about body image?
Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately.
Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps curl exercise with the thumb up?
Brachioradialis
What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core?
Bracing
What is the best definition of complex carbohydrates?
Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides and that contain both fiber and starch
What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques?
Cancer and bleeding disorders
During short, high-intensity exercise, what is the primary fuel source for the body?
Carbohydrates
What is the primary muscle type of the heart?
Cardiac
Where is the heart located in the thoracic cavity?
Central to the left and anterior to the spine
Agility plus which of the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training?
Change of direction
Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge?
Cleaning
Which of the following would be an example of nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)?
Cleaning the house
Which of these exercises targets the triceps musculature?
Close grip bench press
Most bodyweight training exercises are considered which type of movements?
Closed-chain movements
Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires that client records are disposed of in a secure manner?
Confidentiality
A client has thoughts that they cannot exercise on their own, that they look silly doing it, and that other people are watching them. They believe these thoughts to be true. What is occurring?
Cognitive fusion
For which population is the 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test considered most valid?
College-aged athletes
Which statement best describes the second stage of the sales process?
Communicating solutions for the customer's needs
Which statement best describes the local mechanical effect that occurs from myofascial rolling?
Compression to the local myofascia "relaxes" the tissues by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restrictions and adhesions.
Stored energy from an efficiently functioning stretch-shortening cycle is released during which muscle action?
Concentric
Selectorized machines provide all the following benefits except for which one?
Provide an increased range of motion
Which of the following reasons for group exercise participation is described as having a schedule and being able to anticipate what the exercise experience will be like?
Consistency
What stage of change is a person in if they are planning on exercising within the next 6 months?
Contemplation
When a person is ambivalent about changing, what stage of change are they likely in?
Contemplation
How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout?
Continuous talking becomes challenging
What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise?
Contraindication
What is the anatomical term that describes something positioned on the opposite side of the body?
Contralateral
Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement?
Core strength
Which chronic disease is the leading cause of death in the world today?
Coronary artery disease
What is the leading cause of death and disability for both men and women?
Coronary heart disease
Which of the following hormones, if increased at baseline, may be indicative of overtraining?
Cortisol
What marketing strategy would be most effective at helping a fitness professional tell a story and create an instantly recognizable level of service?
Creating a brand identity
A community could influence physical activity for its inhabitants by doing which of the following?
Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails
Which individual listed would be unlikely to use high levels of Maximal Strength Training of the OPT model?
Cross-country runner
Which of the following muscle groups work both eccentrically and concentrically in the sagittal plane during a squat?
Quadriceps
Researchers have found that myofascial rolling can decrease the effects of what condition after strenuous exercise?
Delayed-onset muscle soreness
Which of the following muscle groups work eccentrically in the sagittal plane during the lowering phase of the squat?
Quadriceps
Which of the following is the best example of a complete protein source?
Dairy foods
Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress?
Davis's law
What does the eccentric phase of a plyometric movement accomplish?
Deceleration
Which of the following is a component of agility training?
Deceleration
Inadequate hydration and mild dehydration can have several negative effects on athletic performance, including which of the following?
Decreased blood flow
To increase the metabolic demand of SAQ exercises among weight-loss clients, which of the following adjustments to a workout session could be implemented?
Decreased rest periods
From the list of items provided, which of the following are not considered benefits of cardiorespiratory training?
Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness
What are the two categories of bone markings?
Depressions and processes
Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise?
Depth jumps
What term is defined as the generic modifiable factors that impact behavior?
Determinants
Which of the following muscles are responsible for normal resting state (quiet) breathing?
Diaphragm
Which of the following is not a component of an integrated approach to exercise?
Diet supplementation
What type of movements should be used before progressing to single-foot plyometric exercises?
Dual-foot drills
Which type of assessment assesses the alignment of the body while in motion?
Dynamic posture assessment
What is defined as shortness of breath or labored breathing?
Dyspnea
During a squat, the lowering phase would be described as what type of muscle action?
Eccentric
In what phase of plyometric exercise does preloading or stretching of the agonist muscle occur?
Eccentric
Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most freedom of movement in the transverse plane?
Elastic band woodchop
Providing encouragement and being empathetic is an example of which type of social support?
Emotional support
Which phase of training would be most appropriate for a beginner who has had previous experience within the last few months?
Strength Endurance Training
What is the correct order of fascia, starting with the most superficial?
Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium
What answer best describes the building blocks of proteins?
Essential and nonessential amino acids
A client asks you to provide her with a meal plan specifying how many calories and grams of protein, carbohydrates, and fat she should eat for weight loss. What is the best way to respond to her request to stay within scope of practice?
Explain that providing specific nutrient recommendations is outside your scope of practice, and then refer the client to a registered dietitian or licensed nutritionist for nutrition counseling.
Which source of social support has been shown to be particularly important for older adults?
Family
What surrounds the skeletal muscles and connects them to other surrounding muscles?
Fascia
What depth is suggested for the overhead squat assessment?
Femur parallel to ground
Jessica is looking to grow in her career as a personal trainer. Which employment option would offer her the best chance to provide mentorship to fitness professionals, use managerial skills, and respond directly to member needs when necessary?
Fitness manager
Mac, an NASM-CPT, has been working as a personal trainer at a health club for almost 3 years. He has consistently received positive job evaluations, making him eligible for a promotion. What opportunity would be the most appropriate to pursue, given his experience?
Fitness manager
When discussing fitness trackers and heart rate monitors, which of the following statements is the most accurate?
Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort.
When sequencing physiological assessments, which of the following would produce a better result if measured immediately after exercise rather than before exercise?
Flexibility
Which of the following core exercises best suits stabilization training?
Floor bridge
What are common tools used for self-myofascial techniques?
Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls
What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core?
Force production during dynamic whole-body movements
What are ground reaction forces?
Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping
How many skinfold sites are measured when determining body composition using the Durnin-Womersley protocol?
Four
Regarding free-weight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement?
Free weights may improve dynamic joint stabilization and proprioception.
What does the acronym FITTE-VP, used to design aerobic (cardio) programs, represent?
Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression
Strength-training machines provide training primarily in which planes of motion?
Frontal and sagittal
Scoliosis refers to deviations of the spine in which plane of motion?
Frontal plane
Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important?
Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.
Which muscles are typically overactive when the feet turn out?
Gastrocnemius and soleus
Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through?
Gluconeogenesis
Which substrate provides nearly all the energy for activity at and above VT2?
Glucose
Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat?
Gluteus maximus and medius
A client plans to go for a 10-mile run, but they become fatigued after 7 miles, so they stop. What is the most likely cause of this fatigue?
Glycogen stores were exhausted.
If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity?
Glycolysis
Which mechanoreceptor is sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of that tension change, causing the muscle to relax, which prevents the muscle from excessive stress and possible injury?
Golgi tendon organs
What is defined as the force imparted by the ground on the body when a body segment makes contact with it?
Ground reaction force
The impact that family members, peers, or coworkers have over someone's decision to exercise describes which of the following terms?
Group influence
In a SWOT analysis, which of the following would be an example of a strength?
Having the NASM-CPT credential
When it comes to exercise, older adults find which of the following to be the most motivating?
Health and well-being
Which of the following is the initial assessment that should be completed prior to starting any exercise or training program?
Health risk assessment
Vitamin and mineral supplements are which kind of supplements?
Health supplements
What is the number one cause of death in the United States?
Heart disease
A new client is having trouble managing her busy schedule and has cancelled her last 3 personal training sessions. What is the best option for the fitness professional?
Help the client determine her barriers, and talk through strategies to overcome them.
Which of the following effects may be experienced with overtraining?
High levels of cortisol, which lead to a catabolic environment
Which is not part of triple extension involved in backside sprint mechanics?
Hip abduction
During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane?
Hip abductors
During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back?
Hip extension
Which of these joint movements is part of backside mechanics?
Hip extension
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?
Hip flexor complex
The human body is uniquely designed to respond to stress and, if necessary, make changes to maintain optimal health and physiological functioning. What is this process called?
Homeostasis
What is the primary adaptation for the Muscular Development phase of the OPT model?
Hypertrophy
What is defined as the state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream?
Hypoglycemia
Which endocrine gland serves as a communication channel between the brain and pituitary gland?
Hypothalamus
Which of the following global muscles' primary action is hip flexion?
Iliopsoas
A known relationship between sleep and exercise is demonstrated by which statement?
Increasing physical activity to at least 150 minutes per week at a moderate intensity can decrease symptoms of insomnia.
Which of the following benefits may occur as a result of exercises that comprise only eccentric muscle actions that are appropriately loaded?
Increased anabolic hormone stimulation
Catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions?
Increased lipolysis
When compared to machines, free weights provide which of the following benefits to users?
Increased multiplanar movement
How could the personal trainer make the "single-leg throw and catch" balance exercise more difficult for the client?
Increasing the velocity of each throw
The center of gravity moves in which direction when the knees and hips are equally flexed bilaterally?
Inferiorly
Which type of support is the most common provided by a fitness professional?
Informational support
Which of the following should be considered when determining if a client is ready to undertake plyometric training?
Injury history
Loaning some exercise bands to a client who is scheduled to go on vacation is an example of which type of social support?
Instrumental support
Which of the following hormones have an anabolic function and have been shown to increase up to 48 hours following resistance training?
Insulin-like growth factor (IGF)
What plyometric exercise variable is defined as the distance covered and amount of effort applied by the muscles?
Intensity
Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function?
Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency
What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training?
Isometric
Which of the following describes a benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)?
It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.
What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise?
Jump
Which option is an inaccurate description of the Valsalva maneuver?
It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.
Which statement about chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is accurate?
It is not a curable disease.
What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques?
Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
Why is a jump-down exercise considered more advanced than a jump-up exercise?
Jumping down challenges landing mechanics.
Karim, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, recently retired from playing professional football and is beginning his career in the fitness industry. How can Karim best promote his experience as a professional athlete?
Karim's experience as a professional athlete allows him to create a unique selling proposition (USP) allowing club members to exercise with a former professional athlete.
Which type of cholesterol tends to increase the risk of cardiovascular disease?
LDL (low-density lipoprotein)
What is the bone type of the clavicle, radius, and ulna?
LONG
Not having someone to exercise with would be an example of which type of barrier?
Lack of social support
Proper extensibility of which of these global core muscles is important prior to performing the medicine ball pullover throw?
Latissimus dorsi
For a Certified Personal Trainer, what would provide the most time-efficient option for increasing income potential?
Learning how to lead group training programs
Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs?
Left atrium
What is the fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone?
Ligament
What area of the chest contains the heart?
Mediastinum
Besides Power Training, which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is attempting to improve their Olympic weightlifting?
Maximal Strength Training
What part of a SMART goal involves being able to track progress?
Measurable
Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect?
Measuring intensity by one's "effort" (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling?
Mechanical and neurophysiological response
The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of?
Mechanical specificity
Which option is a common power-focused resistance training exercise?
Medicine ball soccer throw
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets development of the rate of force production (power) of the core?
Medicine ball woodchop throw
What does the standing dumbbell lateral raise primarily target?
Middle deltoid
Compared to nonheme iron, heme iron is absorbed how?
More efficiently
Without a perceived discrepancy between a client's current state and making a change, what is lacking?
Motivation
A person walks differently when they move from a sidewalk onto the sand. This is regulated by what function?
Motor function
Which of the following does plyometric training help increase?
Motor unit recruitment
Squat, push, pull, press, hip hinge, and multiplanar movement are all known as what?
Movement patterns
For a fitness professional using the OPT model, the goal of the Stabilization Endurance phase is to focus on which of the following aspects?
Movement quality
Individuals with low-back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle of the core?
Multifidus
Which muscle functions in a feed-forward mechanism in anticipation of limb movements?
Multifidus
Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine?
Multifidus
What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization?
Multiplanar jump with stabilization
Which of the following movements trains a client in all three planes of motion?
Multiplanar lunge
What is defined as the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to being recruited to develop increased levels of tension, as seen in resistance training?
Muscular hypertrophy
What is the best definition of essential when discussing human nutrition?
Must be obtained in the diet, as the body is incapable of producing the nutrient on its own
Which movement assessment is a global observation of the entire kinetic chain and recommended as the first movement assessment to use with all clients?
Overhead squat
What is the name of the specialized cell that is the functional unit of the nervous system?
Neuron
How heavy should the medicine ball be when performing the soccer throw exercise?
No more than 10% of body weight
Which type of nerve receptor senses pain?
Nociceptor
Which joint has the simplest movement, moving either back and forth or side to side?
Nonaxial
Which of the following statements is the most accurate when discussing strength-training machines?
Not all strength-training machines are designed to fit all body types and thus can limit the effectiveness of the intended exercise.
It is most important to improve balance in this population to decrease their fear of falling.
Older individuals
How many pages are most appropriate for a resume?
One to two pages
A client is asked, "Why do you want to lose weight?" This is an example of what kind of question?
Open-ended
Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs?
Osteokinematics
Which term describes the movement of bones, such as flexion and extension?
Osteokinematics
What must older adults complete prior to initiating an exercise program with a Certified Personal Trainer?
PAR-Q+
Which source of social support for exercise is the most influential for children and adolescents?
Parents
A benefit of being part of an exercise group includes comradery, which is described by which of the following statements?
Participants are forming connections with people who are attempting to achieve similar results, while experiencing feelings of friendship, closeness, and loyalty.
Which of the following would not be an example of core musculature to stabilize the trunk and pelvis?
Pectoral group
Which resistance training system is most appropriate for hypertensive clients?
Peripheral heart action system
Which postural distortion is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips?
Pes planus distortion syndrome
A Certified Personal Trainer may seek further proprioceptive development in which of the following phases?
Phase 1
What phase of the OPT model would hypertrophy fall under?
Phase 3
Which phase of the OPT model introduces lifting near or at maximal intensity?
Phase 4
In which of the following phases of the OPT model is suspended bodyweight training considered ideal?
Phases 1 and 2
The TRX Rip Trainer should be most beneficial to which of the following phases of the OPT model?
Phases 1, 2, and 5
Heavy battle rope training is an ideal training modality for which of the following phases?
Phases 4 and 5
When ADP is converted to ATP, what is this process called?
Phosphorylation
Intentions are a good predictor of behavior, but what has been shown to help translate intentions into behavior?
Planning
What three joint actions comprise triple extension?
Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension
Which component of blood is primarily responsible for clotting mechanisms?
Platelets
In which population is type 1 osteoporosis most prevalent?
Postmenopausal women
Which is a primary adaptation of the Stabilization Endurance phase?
Postural alignment
When using linear periodization with a client, what would you progress them to after 4 weeks of training maximal strength adaptations?
Power
Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness?
Power
In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength?
Power Training
What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production?
Power Training
A Certified Personal Trainer is speaking with a client who is not currently doing any consistent aerobic training. They ask how ready the client is to do aerobic training once a week for 30 minutes, using a scale of 1 to 10, with 1 representing "not at all ready" and 10 representing "completely ready." If the client is at a 9, what stage of change are they in?
Preparation
Individuals in this stage of change may sporadically engage in physical activity but without any form, structure, or consistency.
Preparation
What stage of change is a person in if they are planning to begin exercising soon and have taken steps toward it?
Preparation
Ambivalent people may be reluctant to start an exercise program. What should the fitness professional focus on when helping a potential client overcome this barrier?
Probe further to determine other barriers they are experiencing and possible motives to participate.
Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires the use of appropriate professional communication in all verbal, nonverbal, and written transactions?
Professionalism
What is a key mechanism involved in internal feedback?
Proprioception
What type of input may provide a runner with a cue to contract the evertor muscles to avoid an inversion injury?
Proprioception
Which nutrient has the highest thermic effect?
Protein
You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills?
a. 3 or 4 sets
A Certified Personal Trainer wants to improve a client's outcome expectations for resistance training. What behavior change technique might they use?
Providing information on the health benefits
Research has demonstrated that moderate-intensity exercise is best for which of the following?
Providing psychological benefits
Which of the following is the best source for reviewing information about dietary supplements?
PubMed
Roberta is an NASM Certified Personal Trainer who is going to be working as an independent contractor at a popular health club. What is the most important step to take before starting her job?
Purchasing liability insurance to protect her personal assets
What is defined as the ability to react and change body position with maximal force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions?
Quickness
Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement?
Pushing
Which of the following is an appropriate assessment for a senior client who is sedentary?
Pushing test
When glucose is broken down via glycolysis, what molecule is created that could also be oxidized under aerobic conditions?
Pyruvate
Which muscle group/complex is a prime mover for squatting motions?
Quadriceps
Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (i.e., reaction time) and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus (such as hitting a baseball)?
Quickness
What is the resting metabolic rate (RMR)?
RMR is the number of calories that the body uses at rest to function.
Improved performance during a plyometric jump is dependent upon which of the following?
Rapid amortization phase
Which of the following markers of exercise intensity is considered to be the most subjective?
Ratings of perceived exertion
What differentiates change of direction from agility?
Reaction to a signal
Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action?
Reciprocal inhibition
What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system's role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists?
Reciprocal inhibition
Balance exercises used for introducing balance training should initially involve little joint motion and improve what type of contractions?
Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions
Which of the following nutrition professionals is nationally recognized by the Commission on Dietetic Registration to provide clinical, community, food service, and nutrition education?
Registered dietitian nutritionist
How are dietary supplements defined?
Regulated dietary materials used to increase intake of a desired nutritional component
According to the OPT model, an integrated program that is planned correctly will not include which of the following factors for training?
Rehabilitation
What term refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent and repeatable results?
Reliability
Weight-bearing exercise helps strengthen bones through what process?
Remodeling
What is the process by which bone is constantly renewed?
Remodeling
During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what?
Resist shoulder horizontal adduction
What activity is especially beneficial for combating the loss of muscle mass, power, and strength for aging adults?
Resistance training
Which system is comprised of the airways and lungs?
Respiratory
Javier has recently earned his NASM Certified Personal Trainer credential and is starting to apply to health clubs for his first job as a personal trainer. Which job from his previous non-fitness industry work experience demonstrates qualities that would best be applicable to personal training?
Restaurant server
Which of the following is a component of total daily energy expenditure (TDEE)?
Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
What is the practice of identifying a negative inner narrative and replacing it with positive statements?
Reverse listing
What is a joint disease in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue, causing an inflammatory response?
Rheumatoid arthritis
Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located?
Right atrium
Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava veins?
Right atrium
Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core?
Rotatores
Which postural deviation is most likely to negatively impact ventilation?
Rounded shoulders and a forward head posture
Which of the following foods is the most likely to be a good source of omega-3 fatty acids?
Salmon
Which of the following modalities will provide the most benefits to Phases 1, 4 and 5 of the OPT model?
Sandbags
During an interview with the hiring manager at a large health club, Sarah, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, is asked how she can contribute as a personal trainer even though she has no formal experience working in the field. What would be the most appropriate response?
Sarah discusses her previous work experience in a busy day care, where she had to multitask multiple times a day to perform her job duties. She thinks the multitasking helped prepare her for the demands of a busy fitness floor.
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise?
Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
What movement term is used to describe the concept of adducting the shoulder blades so that they become closer together?
Scapular retraction
If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client improve their technique by using guided practice to enhance confidence, what determinant of behavior are they targeting?
Self-efficacy
A client has been journaling their behavior. They find that if they get home and sit on the couch to watch television, they do not end up exercising. But if they bring their gym clothes to work with them and change before leaving the office, they are more likely to exercise. Which behavior change technique are they using?
Self-monitoring
When developing a safe and effective warm-up for Phase 1, what is an important consideration for flexibility?
Self-myofascial techniques
What is the primary function of the local muscles of the core?
Stabilize vertebral segments
Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion?
Single-leg squat
What anatomical heart structure is referred to as "the pacemaker of the heart"?
Sinoatrial node
What advice would enable a client to breathe properly?
Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.
Changing leadership style based on the size of a group would be an example of which component of leadership?
Situational factors
Which of the following is an optional component of an OPT workout and is based on client goals and fitness levels?
Skill development
To enable weight-loss clients to perform SAQ exercises at a high intensity in a variety of movements, what can fitness professionals create?
Small circuits
Asking a client to stand on a BOSU ball would provide a major challenge to what system?
Somatosensory
You hear a client remark that she does not want to include any fat in her diet because she wants to avoid gaining weight. How might you respond, while staying within your scope of practice?
Some fats are essential and required in the diet for important physiological processes. Avoiding all fats might lead to deficiencies.
What training stage is ideally suited for new exercisers seeking general health-and-fitness improvements, such as reducing their risk for diabetes?
Stage 1
Which of the following terms can be used in place of repetition tempo?
Speed
Which of the following hydration options would be most appropriate for exercise lasting over 90 minutes, or shorter-duration exercise in warm temperatures with heavy perspiration?
Sports drink or electrolyte tablets mixed with water
What is a regression for the box jump-up with stabilization?
Squat jump with stabilization
During which exercise will the upper body likely fatigue before the lower body?
Squat, curl to two-arm press
Which of the following is considered an "under the water" foundational adaptation, per the "iceberg effect"?
Stability
What is the primary action of the multifidus?
Stabilize and extend the spine
In which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1?
Stage 2 training
Which client position during exercise has been shown to lead to the highest core muscle activity during breathing exercises?
Standing
What is the most appropriate gluteal strengthening exercise for a client with hypertension?
Standing cable hip extension
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control in a stationary position?
Static balance
What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly?
Step-ups
If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine?
Sternocleidomastoid
Which of the following effects may occur if the amortization phase of a plyometric exercise is prolonged?
Stored energy will dissipate, and the unloading phase will be less powerful.
The addition of balance training to a strengthening program can enhance what?
Strength
What scientific term is used to describe the concept whereby a loaded eccentric contraction prepares the muscles for a rapid concentric contraction?
Stretch-shortening cycle
What is defined as the distance covered in one stride?
Stride length
What is defined as the number of strides taken in a given amount of time or distance?
Stride rate
Speed is the product of what two variables?
Stride rate and stride length
What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) internal rotation exercise primarily target?
Subscapularis
When a client makes a statement that supports their current behavior, what is this called?
Sustain talk
The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term?
Synergistic dominance
What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when a synergist muscle takes over for a weak or inhibited muscle?
Synergistic dominance
Which joints are most associated with human movement?
Synovial
Which of the following blood pressure values would be classified as normal according to the American Heart Association?
Systolic <120 and diastolic <80
Informational support would be provided by which example?
Teaching a client how many minutes of cardio they should be accumulating each day
Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat?
Tensor fascia latae and adductor complex
Which test would you select as the most appropriate when attempting to measure the overall fitness level of a fit college-aged athlete who competes on the school's rugby team?
The 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test
Balance is best described as which of the following?
The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position
Core stability is best described as:
The ability to resist external resistance in the lumbar spine while the extremities are actively moving
What is stroke volume?
The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
What is end-systolic volume?
The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
What is a kilocalorie (kcal)?
The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.
How can basal metabolic rate (BMR) best be defined?
The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest
Proprioception is best described as which of the following statements?
The body's ability to sense body position and limb movements
The number of sidewalks available in a community is an example of which of the following?
The built environment
What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment of knee valgus?
The knees collapsing inward
Which of the following describes attitude?
The degree to which a person has a favorable or unfavorable evaluation of a behavior
What is the definition of anthropometry?
The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion
Why is continued education required for NASM Certified Personal Trainers?
To ensure that fitness professionals stay current on the latest understandings and research findings within the industry
What is the general adaptation syndrome?
The general adaptation syndrome describes the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress. Correct
What is meant by the term tolerable upper limit (UL)?
The greatest quantity of a vitamin or mineral that may be consumed in a day without risk of an adverse health effect
An important aspect of an established exercise group includes which of the following?
The group feels distinct from other people.
Which part of a food label would help a client review the ingredients in a food product?
The ingredients list
What is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working at ventilatory threshold 2?
The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes
How can diastolic blood pressure be defined?
The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded
How can systolic blood pressure be defined?
The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded
What is explained by the sliding filament theory?
The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction
What is the function of the neuromuscular junction?
The site where the nervous system and muscle fibers communicate
What is glycogen?
The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans
What are triglycerides?
The stored form of fat
Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower-body stretch?
The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee.
What is the purpose of a professional personal training certification?
To ensure that individual job candidates can demonstrate the ability to perform the tasks required for this job category
A hypertensive client is taking a beta-blocker medication. What is the most appropriate method to monitor exercise intensity?
The talk test
What is cardiac output?
The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
Which of the following is true of protein shakes?
They are convenient options for increasing protein intake.
Which of the following best describes the role of micronutrients in the body?
They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.
Iodine has a major role in which bodily process?
Thyroid function
What are the steps in the cumulative injury cycle?
Tissue Trauma, Inflammation, Muscle Spasm, Adhesions, Altered Neuromuscular control, Muscle Imbalance
Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following?
Tissue overload
What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system?
To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body
What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training?
To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness
What measurement is dependent upon the length of the lever arm and the angle between the force application and the lever arm?
Torque
Accumulating too much of a vitamin or mineral in the body may lead to what?
Toxicity
Which of the following is iron considered to be?
Trace mineral
What variable of plyometric training is determined by the client's fitness level, current training program, training history, injury history, and training goals?
Training frequency
What is defined as an individual's level of effort, compared with their maximal effort, which is usually expressed as a percentage?
Training intensity
During normal walking, the pelvis rotates in what plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase?
Transverse
In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur?
Transverse
Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core?
Transverse abdominis
What are the three categories within the lipid family?
Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols
Which of the following protein structures is important for muscular contractions by providing a binding site?
Troponin
What type of diabetes occurs when specialized cells in the pancreas (called beta cells) stop producing insulin?
Type 1
Which disease is associated with normal aging and is attributable to a lower production of estrogen and progesterone, both of which are involved with regulating the rate at which bone is lost?
Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis
Which disease is caused by specific medical conditions or medications, including alcohol abuse, smoking, specific diseases, or particular medications, that disrupt normal bone reformation?
Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis
What type of periodization uses changes in volume and intensity on a daily or weekly basis?
Undulating
Antirotational exercises are often this sort of movement by nature.
Unilateral
Which muscle or muscles would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?
Upper trapezius and levator scapula
Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining angular accelerations of the head while bending over to pick something up off the ground.
Vestibular
Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality?
ViPR
Extreme dietary restrictions may increase risk for what?
Vitamin and mineral deficiencies
What are the three micronutrients?
Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients
What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training?
Volume and progression
What is the most valid measurement of aerobic fitness?
V̇O2max
Where is it most common to take an individual's circumference measurement to assess health risk?
Waist
Which of the following is considered a component of NEAT?
Walking
Which of the following would be the recommended source of hydration after 40 to 45 minutes of exercise with minimal perspiration?
Water
Which of the following intensities best represents VT2 during the incremental test protocol?
When the individual responds with "no" when asked, "Can you speak competently?"
Dan, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, completed what he felt was a very successful interview with the hiring manager at a top fitness studio. What is the best course of action if Dan is interested in moving on to the next phase of the interview process?
Writing a handwritten note to thank the hiring manager for the opportunity to interview for the job
Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels?
YMCA 3-minute step test
Which of the following best demonstrates an example of activities of daily living separate from planned exercise?
Yardwork
You have a client seeking weight loss. What is the most appropriate amount of rest recommended between each repetition of an SAQ exercise?
a. 15 to 60 seconds
Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations?
a. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for intermediate clients?
a. 0 to 60 seconds
What is the RDA for protein?
a. 0.8 g/kg of body weight
What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients?
a. 1 or 2 sessions per week
A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the eccentric muscle action performed?
a. 4 seconds
What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy?
a. 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills
Which of the following is an example of linear periodization?
a. 4 weeks in Phase 1 followed by 4 weeks in Phase 2
According to the NASM Code of Professional Conduct, for how long must a fitness professional maintain accurate financial, contract, appointment, and tax records?
a. 4 years
What is forecasting?
a. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal
What step cadence is used during the YMCA 3-minute step test?
a. A cadence of 96 steps per minute
What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise?
a. A faster tempo, similar to daily life
What best describes the all-or-nothing principle?
a. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.
What ideally should follow a day of high-intensity training in stage 3?
a. A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day.
Which of the following is a ketone body?
a. Acetoacetic acid
What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2?
a. An RPE of 5 to 6
The PAR-Q+ and preparticipation process reflects what three health indicators?
a. An individual's current level of physical activity, the presence of signs and symptoms of disease, and the individual's desired exercise intensity
Overactive hip flexors may lead to which of the following postural compensations?
a. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch
Vitamin K supplements should be avoided by those taking which type of medication?
a. Anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin)
Which term best describes motion at the joint surface?
a. Arthrokinematics
Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during an eccentric muscle action?
a. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.
How can fitness professionals earn CEUs?
a. Attending fitness industry conferences
When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called?
a. Autogenic inhibition
What are the two divisions of the skeletal system?
a. Axial and appendicular
What term best describes the amount of mineral content, such as calcium and phosphorous, in a segment of bone?
a. Bone density
What disease is a condition of altered airflow through the lungs, generally caused by airway obstruction due to mucus production?
a. Chronic obstructive lung disease
What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers?
a. Frank Starling Law of the Heart
Which type of muscle contraction/action produces force through muscle fiber shortening?
a. Concentric action
Which of the following is a behavior change technique where clients list potential barriers and make plans to overcome them?
a. Coping responses
In which of the following pairs are both foods considered to be allergens?
a. Dairy and shellfish
Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise?
a. Depth jumps
What is the superior boundary of the core?
a. Diaphragm
What concept allows a person to jump higher during plyometric exercises?
a. Eccentric loading
What is the term for the higher-than-normal energy expenditure during the recovery period after exercise?
a. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption
Which of the following is an example of a client's intrinsic motivation for exercise?
a. Exercising because it is fun
What two activities are part of a client's warm-up?
a. Flexibility and cardio
When a client makes a plan, such as, "When I am done with work, I will run for 30 minutes," what are they doing?
a. Forming an implementation intention
Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane?
a. Gluteus medius
A client wants to improve their deadlift. Which of the following is an outcome goal?
a. I want to deadlift 300 pounds.
A new client has indicated that they are exercising due to advice from their physician, but they are generally amotivated. What would be the best choice for the personal trainer in their initial meeting?
a. Inquire further about what their motives are for participating.
Which of the following force couples is accurately linked to the movement created by their combined action?
a. Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation
Why is third-party verification important?
a. It provides unbiased testing for a product.
Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex?
a. Lateral subsystem
Which is involved in frontside mechanics?
a. Lead leg
Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the body?
a. Left ventricle
Improving frontside running mechanics is associated with which of the following?
a. Less braking force
What is a characteristic of a type I muscle fiber?
a. Less force production
What is another term for the annual training plan that outlines the entire year's worth of programming?
a. Macrocycle
What can Phase 1 of the OPT model best be described as?
a. Mastering basic movement patterns
How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described?
b. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted
Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training?
a. Movement assessments
Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises?
a. Multiplanar jump with stabilization
Which of the following movements trains a client in all three planes of motion?
a. Multiplanar lunge
According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics?
a. Neuromuscular stabilization
Which disease is caused by a degeneration of cartilage within joints?
a. Osteoarthritis
Why can personal trainers be considered among the most important employees within a health club?
a. Personal trainers come in direct contact with members and can have the greatest influence on whether members achieve results.
Which of the following is not considered an open-chain exercise?
a. Push-up
Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement?
a. Push-up test
What resistance training system involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases or decreases weight with each set?
a. Pyramid system
Which of the following should be emphasized the most in a core training program?
a. Quality of movement
What differentiates change of direction from agility?
a. Reaction to a signal
A Certified Personal Trainer has been listening to a client's goals. After the client is done speaking, the trainer restates the goals back to the client. What best describes the approach the trainer is using?
a. Reflective listening
What type of listening involves making a best guess as to what the speaker means, then stating it back to the speaker?
a. Reflective listening
What is the most effective way to learn more about a large health club company before an interview with a hiring manager?
a. Reviewing the company website and social media channels to learn about all the programs and services offered
Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to cancer?
a. Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments.
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support?
a. Semi-dynamic balance
What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ?
a. Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core?
a. Side plank
Which characteristic is exhibited by type I muscle fibers?
a. Slow to fatigue
What training tip would enhance the benefits of resistance training by helping increase growth hormone, testosterone, and epinephrine?
a. Slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases
Which two electrolytes are most commonly supplemented by athletes to replace those lost in sweat?
a. Sodium and potassium
Asking a client to balance on an unstable surface while barefoot would challenge which system?
a. Somatosensory system
What are two of the most common issues at the foot and ankle complex?
a. Sprains and plantar fasciitis
A client is taking prescription beta-blockers for hypertension. Which exercise is the safest for him to perform?
a. Standing cobra
Maintaining one's balance while standing still on a single foot in contact with a firm surface can best be described as what type of balance?
a. Static balance
What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength?
a. Strength Endurance
Which organization must approve a supplement prior to it being sold?
a. Supplements do not require approval prior to sale.
When working in a health club, what piece of equipment would it be essential to know the location of?
a. The AED, in case the personal trainer will need to perform CPR on a health club member
What are the three pathways through which the body can produce ATP?
a. The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation
In most individuals, to what pressure is the blood pressure cuff inflated when measuring resting blood pressure?
a. The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
Which statement best describes the neurophysiological effect that occurs from myofascial rolling?
a. The direct roller compression may create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors.
What is the ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2)?
a. The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel
If pyruvate is being created via glycolysis faster than oxygen can be delivered to the muscle, what will happen to the pyruvate?
a. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.
What is bioenergetics?
a. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy
How should the amortization phase of the stretch-shortening cycle be described?
a. The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading
Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where?
a. Thoracic spine
Which muscle acts to increase intra-abdominal pressure?
a. Transverse abdominis
Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement?
a. Two-arm push press
Which type of muscle fiber has a large number of capillaries?
a. Type I
Asking a client to turn their head side to side during a balance exercise would challenge which system?
a. Vestibular system
What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session?
a. Volume
When is a muscle considered overactive?
a. When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of contraction
What is the sufficient recovery time that is generally needed between plyometric exercises during a workout?
b. 60 to 120 seconds
Current sports nutrition guidelines from the International Society of Sports Nutrition recommend what range of protein for most exercising individuals?
b. 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight
You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most appropriate for SAQ drills?
b. 3 to 5 reps
What blood pressure is reflective of a hypertensive crisis?
b. A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg
Which of the following conditions would produce nutritional ketosis in the body?
b. A very low-carbohydrate diet
What percentage of alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) converts to a biologically available form called eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)?
b. About 5-15%
What is sarcopenia?
b. Age-related loss of muscle tissue
Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility?
b. Altered movement patterns
The risk of which lower-extremity injury was decreased in female basketball athletes who participated in a 5-week balance training program that improved landing movement mechanics?
b. Anterior cruciate ligament injury
Which of the following represents a criterion for terminating an exercise test or exercise bout that involves exertion?
b. Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms
Movements that take place within a joint and are not visible to the human eye may be classified in what way?
b. Arthrokinematic
How far down should a client squat during the barbell squat exercise?
b. As far as can be controlled without compensating
Which of the following exercises would be most likely to contribute to an acute increase in testosterone levels?
b. Back squat
What are the basic two types of disease?
b. Chronic and acute
Which of the following defines the general goal or outcome of training in zone 1?
b. Develop an appropriate aerobic base
What three joint actions comprise triple flexion?
b. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain the center of mass over an ever-changing limit of stability?
b. Dynamic balance
What is excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)?
b. EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.
How often is it recommended to reassess clientele?
b. Every month
How is Fartlek training best described?
b. Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.
What is the concept used to describe the action of muscles that have the ability to contract automatically in anticipation of movement?
b. Feed-forward
What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints?
b. Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck
Which of the following are the correct five kinetic chain checkpoints when utilizing kettlebells?
b. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head
What equation represents power?
b. Force x velocity
The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?
b. Hamstrings and erector spinae
At her annual physical, Claire found out her blood pressure was 110/70 mm Hg. According to this information, which statement is true?
b. Her diastolic pressure is 70.
Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion?
b. Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing
What is defined as the state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream?
b. Hyperglycemia
Which benefit will positively affect the body through integrated training?
b. Improved sleep
Creatine is most effective for what purpose?
b. Improving strength and muscle size
Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for:
b. Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball
What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) external rotation exercise primarily target?
b. Infraspinatus and teres minor
What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart?
b. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
What two factors define any form or type of exercise?
b. Intensity and duration
How is heart rate collected during the YMCA 3-minute step test to evaluate the cardiorespiratory fitness level of an individual?
b. It is measured over a 60-second count immediately following the test.
Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following?
b. Landing mechanics
Extension of the shoulder is common in many pulling movements. Which of the following muscles is involved?
b. Latissimus dorsi
Performing 4 weeks of stabilization training before moving on to strength endurance training for another 4 weeks would be an example of what kind of periodization?
b. Linear periodization
What is a client-centric coaching style that helps enhance their desire to change by resolving ambivalence?
b. Motivational interviewing
Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training?
b. Movement assessments
Which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is looking to improve their physique in a way similar to that of a bodybuilder?
b. Muscular Development Training
Which type of training would most likely lead to increased levels of testosterone, insulin-like growth factors, and growth hormone?
b. Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods
If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity?
b. Oxidative phosphorylation
Which of the following injuries is characterized by a sharp pain in the bottom of the heel that makes it difficult to walk?
b. Plantar fasciitis
Using the healthcare continuum, how would training with a fitness professional be classified?
b. Preventive care
What might a Certified Personal Trainer do for someone in the precontemplation stage of change?
b. Provide them with education and knowledge
What is plyometric training also known as?
b. Reactive training
In an integrated training program, what would the last portion of the training session involve as the main exercise or movement component?
b. Resistance training
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise?
b. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press
If your client is working in Phase 1 of the OPT model, what type of flexibility training should they utilize?
b. SMR/static stretching
Maintaining one's balance while on a skateboard that is moving while the feet remain in a fixed position can be described as what type of balance?
b. Semi-dynamic balance
Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance?
b. Semi-dynamic balance
The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula?
b. Serratus anterior
Which phase of training would a person who just completed a Muscular Development Training program want to go back to for some corrective assistance?
b. Stabilization Endurance Training
What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement?
b. Stabilization-focused exercise
The lengthening reaction is often seen with what type of flexibility technique?
b. Static stretching
What plyometric term relates to a rapid eccentric motion followed by an explosive concentric motion?
b. Stretch-shortening cycle
The difference between the end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes is referred to as what?
b. Stroke volume
The standard Jackson and Pollock 3-Site protocol for women requires skinfold measurements at which of the following sites?
b. Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps
What does the electron transport chain (ETC) do?
b. The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.
How should an eccentric muscle action be described?
b. The development of muscle tension without shortening or lengthening of the contractile tissue
A client is performing a barbell squat exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client?
b. The fitness professional should spot underneath the client's armpits.
The field of psychology focuses on which of the following domains?
b. The mind and behavior
What is the ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2)?
b. The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel
What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment shoulder elevation?
b. The shoulders moving upward toward the ears
Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate?
b. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.
If the concentric phase of a plyometric exercise doesn't use all the stored elastic energy from the eccentric phase, what occurs?
b. The unused energy is dissipated as heat.
What is the purpose of the Current Good Manufacturing Practices?
b. To provide guidelines to help ensure quality and purity of products
If a new client indicates that they are frustrated with their lack of expected results, which barrier are they likely experiencing?
b. Unrealistic goals
Which postural distortion is characterized by a forward head and rounded shoulders?
b. Upper crossed syndrome
Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system?
b. Visual system
Which three senses are involved in the balance system?
b. Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems
Which vitamin is the most transient?
b. Vitamin C
Which of the following is an open-ended question?
b. What has prevented you from reaching your goals in the past?
What does BMI (body mass index) assess for?
b. Whether a person's weight is appropriate for their height
In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases?
b. Zone 3
What artery is used to measure blood pressure?
brachial artery
With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for young athletes to perform?
c. 1 to 4 sets
What is shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children?
c. 10 minutes
Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times?
c. 10%
What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for fat in the diet?
c. 20 to 35% of total calories
For effective weight loss, how many calories should obese clients expend per exercise session?
c. 200 to 300 kcal
How many minutes of vigorous exercise in hot, humid environments should children be restricted to (including frequent rest periods)?
c. 30 minutes
What would be considered a normal resting heart rate for a healthy sedentary person?
c. 80 beats per minute
Of the following individuals, who would be the most suitable for being programmed SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) exercises/movements?
c. A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength
What statement best describes a nonprofit health club?
c. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives
Which of the following best defines cholesterol?
c. A waxy, fatlike substance found in bodily cells
For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2?
c. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week
Before carbohydrates, fat, or protein can enter the citric acid cycle (CAC), they need to be converted to what common molecule?
c. Acetyl CoA
What mechanism is responsible for increasing the rate of heart conduction?
c. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system
Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility?
c. Altered movement patterns
Which of the following answers indicates a primary difference between working as an independent contractor and working as an employee?
c. An independent contractor is responsible for paying their own taxes, while an employee has taxes withheld by the employer.
Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%?
c. Ankle sprains
When a person loses body weight, what is the only way that mass is lost?
c. As exhaled carbon dioxide
d. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface
c. As far as can be controlled without compensating
When it comes to barriers to exercise, which statement is correct?
c. Barriers to exercise are often cited by people who are sedentary or infrequently active.
Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the upper extremities during a pushing movement?
c. Bench press strength assessment
Which of the following has been used specifically as part of a protocol to improve balance?
c. Biomechanical ankle platform system
What term describes the process of building a relationship based on communication and trust?
c. Building rapport
Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to arthritis?
c. Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).
Which statement about a Certified Personal Trainer's scope of practice is accurate?
c. Certified Personal Trainers do not diagnose or treat areas of pain or disease.
Which of the following is a characteristic of undulating periodization?
c. Changing acute variables on a weekly basis
Which type of muscle contraction/action attenuates force through muscle fiber lengthening?
c. Eccentric action
What are two ways to best improve the timely passage of food through the intestinal tracts and prevent constipation?
c. Ensure adequate water intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of both aerobic and resistance training
Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core?
c. Erector spinae
Pronation of the foot describes what multiplanar movements?
c. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction
What is the term for the higher-than-normal energy expenditure during the recovery period after exercise?
c. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption
What is a common cause of chronic hypertension?
c. Excess weight
A long-term client has recently indicated that she wants to start training for a fitness competition and, due to her competitive nature, she indicates that she wants to win. Which type of motivation is driving her?
c. Extrinsic motivation
What type of client is ideally suited for stage 2 training around VT1?
c. Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss
When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2?
c. From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?
c. Gluteus maximus
Which of the following most closely resembles a SMART goal?
c. I want to lose 20 pounds over the next 8 months.
What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise?
c. Ice skaters
Which type of training can be used to improve activation of core muscles compared to traditional core training?
c. Instability training using a stability ball
Implementing exercise concepts like core, balance, and agility training with resistance training methods indicates what style of training?
c. Integrated training
Which of the following variations of a hop exercise would be the most difficult from a deceleration and balance standpoint?
c. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
Long-term exercise adherence is associated with which type of motivation?
c. Intrinsic motivation
Which lower-body stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury?
c. Inverted hurdler's stretch for hamstrings
Which type of exercise accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel, despite the movement speed remaining constant?
c. Isokinetic
Why does a shorter amortization phase lead to more effective plyometric movement?
c. It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently.
What is the most important reason not to allow the knee to cave inward during a lunge jump exercise?
c. It causes stress to the connective tissues.
When discussing suspended bodyweight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement?
c. It increases flexibility and joint mobility.
Carbohydrate intake prior to intense or long-duration exercise serves which of the following functions?
c. It replenishes glycogen stores and provides adequate fuel for performance.
Which of the following compensations is most likely considered a predictive factor for developing a knee injury?
c. Knee valgus
Which of the following is not considered a closed-chain exercise?
c. Lat pulldowns
Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise?
c. Low-impact activity
Which postural distortion is characterized by anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis (extension) of the lumbar spine?
c. Lower crossed syndrome
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment?
c. Lower trapezius
Which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration?
c. Medicine ball
What term is used to describe the concept of how the functioning of one body segment can impact other areas of the body?
c. Regional interdependence
Which structures of the body does osteoporosis commonly affect?
c. Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae
Which type of joint includes the sutures of the skull?
c. Nonsynovial
What type of communication includes posture, hand gestures, proximity to others, and facial expressions?
c. Nonverbal communication
What is the difference between open-ended and closed-ended questions?
c. Open-ended allows for elaboration, while closed-ended allows for one-word answers.
What must older adults complete prior to initiating an exercise program with a Certified Personal Trainer?
c. PAR-Q+
What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body?
c. Peripheral vasodilation
What are three postural distortion patterns to look for in static postural assessments?
c. Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome
During which Phase of OPT should the exerciser be most concerned with increasing the speed (repetition tempo) of exercises?
c. Phase 5 Power
Which of the following injuries is characterized by a sharp pain in the bottom of the heel that makes it difficult to walk?
c. Plantar fasciitis
When a gymnast balances on a beam, they are aware of their body's general orientation and the relative position of its parts. This is due to which key sensory function?
c. Proprioception
Research has demonstrated that moderate-intensity exercise is best for which of the following?
c. Providing psychological benefits
Which of the following contributes the most to the total calories burned in a day?
c. Resting metabolic rate
Which behavior change technique allows individuals to identify external triggers that lead them to behave in certain ways?
c. Self-monitoring
What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle?
c. Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change
What is a characteristic of a type II muscle fiber?
c. Short-term contractions
Where in the digestive system are most fluids absorbed?
c. Small intestine
What is the best type of plyometric exercise for a beginner client?
c. Small jumps
What interventions are suggested for an individual with a resting blood pressure of 134/86 mm Hg?
c. Some lifestyle changes coupled with some medical monitoring
Which subtopic of psychology deals with how the environment affects exercise behavior?
c. Sport and exercise psychology
Which movement assessment utilizes weighted pullies to assess a pushing movement?
c. Standing push assessment
Which type of assessment is typically performed first in the assessment flow?
c. Static posture
Which of the following effects may occur if the amortization phase of a plyometric exercise is prolonged?
c. Stored energy will dissipate, and the unloading phase will be less powerful.
What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle?
c. Stretching of the agonist muscle
A client looking to add muscle and bulk over the next few months asks for advice on how to consume extra calories. Which of the following would be the most appropriate advice, while remaining within scope of practice?
c. Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals.
When a client's heart rate is raised during cardio activities, this is being caused by which system?
c. Sympathetic nervous system
Along with muscle protein synthesis, which of the following is an important function of protein?
c. Synthesis of hormones
If someone engages in a short, intense burst of activity lasting less than 30 seconds, which energy system will contribute the most to ATP production?
c. The ATP-PC system
Which of the following best defines the base of support of the body?
c. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface
Social support is best described by which statement?
c. The intentional things that people do to assist others to achieve a specific behavior
How is osteopenia best described?
c. The loss of bone density related to the aging process.
What is an example of an individual in the alarm reaction stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
c. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.
How is ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) best defined?
c. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
When balancing, the knee of the balance leg should be in line with which structure?
c. The toes of the leg on which the participant is balancing
Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves?
c. Thoracic and sacral
What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema?
c. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.
Ergogenic aids are typically consumed for what purpose?
c. To improve athletic performance and/or body composition
What is an appropriate cue that can be given to a client to properly perform the drawing-in maneuver?
c. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.
Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power?
c. Triceps brachii
Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers?
c. Type I
Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding proprioceptive modalities?
c. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous.
Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure?
c. Validity
Which of the following tests is used to measure lower-extremity power?
c. Vertical jump
Which sense provides information about movement of the head in space?
c. Vestibular system
Which of the following two modalities are the most alike?
c. ViPR and sandbag
The water-soluble vitamins include which vitamins?
c. Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins
What are the three micronutrients?
c. Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients
Unrealistic goals can become a barrier when which of the following happens?
c. When goals are not adjusted
Which food would be classified as a high biological value protein source?
c. Whole eggs
What is a body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body?
d. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)
From the list of assessments provided, which should be conducted first to preserve its validity?
d. Body composition
Which of the following modalities has the potential to be used effectively in every phase of the OPT model?
d. Cable machines
Why are children at a disadvantage when participating in short-duration (10 to 90 second) high-intensity anaerobic activities?
d. Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power.
A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used?
d. Complex training
Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support?
d. Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities
What should be the first step in a client's program after the assessment?
d. Designing the flexibility portion of the program
Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominis?
d. Drawing-in maneuver
Food in the stomach is processed and then passes into what anatomical structure?
d. Duodenum of the small intestine
Maintaining one's balance while running on an uneven surface can best be described as what type of balance?
d. Dynamic balance
What is excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)?
d. EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.
What does the first law of thermodynamics state?
d. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed.
Which muscle functions as part of the global muscular system?
d. Erector spinae
Which of the following is characterized as a global muscle of the core on the posterior aspect of the body?
d. Erector spinae
When NASM recommends relying on the current best information in making decisions about client care, what is it referring to?
d. Evidence-based practice
Which of the following is true about cholesterol?
d. Exercise has been shown to help reduce high cholesterol.
What is the concept used to describe the action of muscles that have the ability to contract automatically in anticipation of movement?
d. Feed-forward
Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in the United States?
d. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
Which type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance?
d. Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis
The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?
d. Hamstrings and erector spinae
Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat?
d. Having more mitochondria in their muscle
Which statement best describes the first stage of the sales process?
d. Identifying a customer's needs
Which of the following effects of the cardiovascular system occurs during exercise?
d. Increased ventricular filling
Which of the following is a characteristic of linear periodization?
d. Increases intensity while decreasing volume
Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion?
d. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.
Which type of support describes the actions that a person takes to help another person engage in exercise?
d. Instrumental support
Which type of motivation would be characterized by a client who enjoys the process of becoming more fit?
d. Intrinsic motivation
During balance training, gluteal muscles should remain in which state to hold the body stable?
d. Isometrically contracted
Which of the following describes a benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)?
d. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.
Calcium is often associated with bone health, but why is it also important for muscular function?
d. It stimulates actin and myosin activity.
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment?
d. Latissimus dorsi
Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt.
d. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.
Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?
d. Local muscles
Having poor body image is most likely to be associated with which of the following?
d. Low self-esteem
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility?
d. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
Which of the following exercises may increase inaccurate readings while utilizing a wrist-worn heart rate monitor?
d. Medicine ball catch and pass
Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most demands on explosive power?
d. Medicine ball chest pass
How does taking "high" doses of vitamin C impact health?
d. More is not always better. In some cases, increasing the dosage does not come with many adverse effects, but it also does not increase health benefits. An increased dose of Vitamin C over 1 g reduces absorption.
Flexibility training can reduce the risk of what three conditions?
d. Muscle imbalances, joint dysfunctions, and overuse injuries
What phase of the OPT model aims to increase growth of muscles to maximal levels?
d. Muscular Development
What causes initial improvements in strength when youths engage in a resistance training program?
d. Neural adaptations
What do the letters OPT within the OPT model stand for?
d. Optimum Performance Training
Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs?
d. Osteokinematics
A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive?
d. Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals
Extrinsic motivation is characterized by which of the following?
d. Participating in an activity or behavior for some type of reward or recognition from others
Resistance band exercises are best utilized in which phases of the OPT model?
d. Phase 2 and 5
Having an informal role in an exercise group is demonstrated by which example?
d. Planning social gatherings for the group
What area of the body is most targeted during the single-leg squat to row exercise?
d. Posterior chain
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control?
d. Pro shuttle
Which of the following statements is true about proprietary blends?
d. Proprietary blends should typically be avoided, as the precise amount of each ingredient is not disclosed.
What are the three macronutrients?
d. Protein, carbohydrates, and lipids
What resistance training system involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases or decreases weight with each set?
d. Pyramid system
Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training?
d. Quickness
What is defined as the ability to generate force as quickly as possible?
d. Rate of force production
When performing a dumbbell biceps curl, the biceps brachii is considered the agonist (prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antagonist. What is this phenomenon called?
d. Reciprocal inhibition
Which of the following would be a helpful and sustainable strategy for achieving a moderate calorie deficit for fat loss?
d. Replacing high-calorie foods with leaner substitutes
Which essential component of an OPT workout is beneficial for developing stability, muscular endurance, hypertrophy, strength, power, and athleticism?
d. Resistance training
What is the primary goal of repeating flexibility training during a cool-down?
d. Restore optimal length-tension relationships
If someone repeatedly lifts heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. What is this an example of?
d. SAID principle
Susan's quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance?
d. SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps
Which of the following options would be the correct superset for back exercises during Phase 2 of the OPT model?
d. Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row
What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion?
d. Self-myofascial techniques
What anatomical heart structure is referred to as "the pacemaker of the heart"?
d. Sinoatrial node
Which type of assessment evaluates the position of the musculoskeletal system while the body is standing still?
d. Static posture assessment
What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as?
d. Stretch-shortening cycle
Which muscle would you be targeting for SMR if you placed the roller along the front and slightly lateral (outside) part of the upper thigh (just below the pelvis)?
d. Tensor fascia latae
What is end-diastolic volume?
d. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
A client is performing a dumbbell overhead press exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client?
d. The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists.
The pathway for hormones secreted by the endocrine system may be described by which of the following?
d. The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action.
What is an example of an individual in the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
d. The person has suffered an ACL sprain.
What is atherosclerosis?
d. The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow
Which of the following is not a negative side effect of stress?
d. The release of endorphins
Why are plyometrics best performed on grass playing fields, basketball courts, or tartan tracks?
d. The surfaces are more stable, which helps reduce injury risk.
Ergogenic aids are typically consumed for what purpose?
d. To improve athletic performance and/or body composition
When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia?
d. Transverse abdominis
What is a characteristic of type I muscle fibers?
d. Type I fibers are "slow twitch."
Which of the following waist-to-hip ratios (WHRs) places Amy (a female) in the high-risk category for cardiovascular disease?
d. WHR of 0.88
Which of the following is a question that may provoke resistance?
d. What makes you think you are not at risk?
Which of the following is an example of an exercise modality to enrich the proprioceptive nature of an exercise?
d. Wobble board
In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging?
d. Zone 2
What does EMG stand for?
electromyography
What group of hormones are released by the brain during exercise help reduce pain?
endorphines
What is the primary limiting factor for exercise in the client with PAD?
leg pain
If you have a client who wants to increase speed, what phase of the OPT model would they fall into?
phase 5
What types of foods contain carbohydrates?
plant foods and dairy
Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the lower extremities?
squat
What training stage is ideally suited for new exercisers seeking general health-and-fitness improvements, such as reducing their risk for diabetes?
stage 1