NASM STUDY GUIDE

A Certified Personal Trainer may seek further proprioceptive development in which of the following phases? a. Phase 1 b. Phase 5 c. Phase 4 d. Phase 3

Phrase 1

True or False; A BMI score of 18.5 to 24.9 is considered within normal limits.

True

When a client makes a statement that supports their current behavior, what is this called? a. Sustain talk b. An affirmation c. Change talk d. A collecting summary

Sustain talk

Karim, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, recently retired from playing professional football and is beginning his career in the fitness industry. How can Karim best promote his experience as a professional athlete? a. Karim's experience as a professional athlete gives him the ability to create an accurate business forecast. b. Karim's experience as a professional athlete allows him to establish immediate rapport with club members and potential clients. c. Karim's experience as a professional athlete allows him to create a unique selling proposition (USP) allowing club members to exercise with a former professional athlete. d. Karim's experience as a professional athlete allows him to establish a recognizable brand identity.

Karim's experience as a professional athlete allows him to create a unique selling proposition (USP) allowing club members to exercise with a former professional athlete.

What change would lead to an increase in cardiac output during exercise?

Increased heart rate

Which of the following global muscles' primary action is hip flexion? Latissimus dorsi Erector spinae Illiopsoas Rectus abdominis

Illiopsoas

What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization?

Multiplanar jump with stabilization

From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients? a. 4 to 6 drills b. 9 or 10 drills c. 1 or 2 drills d. 7 to 9 drills

4 to 6 drills

What is the best definition of complex carbohydrates?

Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides and that contain both fiber and starch

Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge? a. Cleaning b. Getting in and out of the car c. Raking leaves d. Moving a grocery cart

Cleaning

What concept allows a person to jump higher during plyometric exercises? a. Concentric contractions b. Increased amortization c. Ankle stability d. Eccentric loading

Eccentric loading

What is the correct order of the phases of plyometric exercise?

Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading

Which substrate provides nearly all the energy for activity at and above VT2? a. Fat b. Protein c. Glucose d. Ketone bodies

Glucose

What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement? a. Latissimus dorsi b. Gluteus medius c. Rectus abdominis d. Erector spinae

Erector spinae

Which muscle functions as part of the global muscular system? a. Transversus abdominis b. Erector spinae c. Internal oblique d. Multifidus

Erector spinae

According to the NASM Code of Professional Conduct, for how long must a fitness professional maintain accurate financial, contract, appointment, and tax records? a. 6 months b. 1 year c. 4 years d. Indefinitely

4 years

What is the general recommended rest for advanced clients between SAQ reps?

0 to 90 seconds

What is the approximate percentage of those who will quit a fitness program within the first 6 months after they begin?

0.5

According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese? a. 0.62 b. 0.92 c. 0.22 d. 0.72

0.72

What is the RDA for protein?

0.8 g/kg of body weight

Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults?

1 or 2 sets

What are the recommended training variables for self-myofascial rolling? a. 2 to 5 sets, hold each tender area for 5 minutes b. 1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds c. 1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 2 minutes d. 5 to 10 sets, hold each tender area for 5 seconds

1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds

Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times? a. 10% b. 20% c. 5% d. 30%

10%

What step height is used for the YMCA 3-minute step test?

12 inches

What is a normal respiratory rate for an adult during rest?

15 breaths per minute

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations? a. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM b. 3 sets, 10 repetitions, 77% 1RM c. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM d. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM

2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM

What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for fat in the diet?

20 to 35% of total calories

What is the optimal amount of protein per meal for muscle protein synthesis?

20 to 40g

Which answer best represents the timeframe when delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) occurs after strenuous exercise? a. 36 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise b. 24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise c. 4 to 12 hours after strenuous exercise d. 2 to 4 hours after strenuous exercise

24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise

At what age is the adolescent brain considered to be fully developed?

25

How many repetitions of each SAQ drill is appropriate for youth athletes?

3 to 5 reps

You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most appropriate for SAQ drills?

3 to 5 reps

At what age is total peak bone mass reached?

30

How many minutes of vigorous exercise in hot, humid environments should children be restricted to (including frequent rest periods)?

30 minutes

A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the eccentric muscle action performed?

4 seconds

Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed? a. Pro shuttle b. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT) c. 40-yard dash d. Overhead squat

40-yard dash

What is the recommended recovery time between bouts of plyometric training for novice clients? a. 48 to 72 hours b. 1 week c. 24 hours d. 12 hours

48 to 72 hours

What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?

5 times a week

A normal resting heart rate for a healthy sedentary person would be: a. 50 beats per minute b. 80 beats per minute c. 120 beats per minute d. 105 beats per minute

80 beats per minute

What step cadence is used during the YMCA 3-minute step test?

A cadence of 96 steps per minute

Which of the following statements defines the chest skinfold location for men? a. A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple b. A diagonal fold, 1 to 2 centimeters below the inferior angle of the scapula c. A vertical fold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line) d. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line

A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple

What is osteoporosis?

A disease in which the density and quality of bone tissue is reduced, causing bones to become weak and fragile

What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise? a. Use of heavy weights b. A faster tempo, similar to daily life c. Stabilization of the LPHC d. Slow and controlled movements

A faster tempo, similar to daily life

What is the Valsalva maneuver?

A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability

What blood pressure is reflective of stage 1 hypertension?

A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic

Which of the following is the functional unit of a muscle cell? a. Endomysium b. Actin c. Myosin d. A sarcomere

A sarcomere

What blood pressure is reflective of a hypertensive crisis? a. A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic b. A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg c. A systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic of 90 mm Hg or higher d. A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic

A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg

What is the peripheral heart action system? a. A system that involves performing a series of exercises, one after the other, with minimal rest b. A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit c. A system that involves breaking up the body into parts to be trained on separate days d. A system that incorporates a slight pause between repetitions within a series of sets

A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit

Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat? a. Adductor complex b. Hip flexors c. Gluteus maximus and medius d. Upper trapezius

Adductor complex

How is steady-state aerobic exercise best defined? a. An exercise training method where the client performs a maximal effort interval lasting 20 seconds, followed by only 10 seconds of rest for a total of 4 minutes b. An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods c. An exercise training method that is unstructured and combines low-, moderate-, and high-intensity efforts into one workout d. Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption

Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption

During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production? a. Concentric b. Amortization c. Stabilization d. Eccentric

Amortization

What types of foods provide all the essential amino acids? a. Plant proteins b. Animal proteins c. Fortified foods d. Legumes

Animal proteins

When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used? a. Ankle dorsiflexion b. Ankle plantar flexion c. Knee flexion d. Hip abduction

Ankle plantar flexion

What is the best description of a steady-state heart rate? a. The point at which glucose provides nearly all the energy for the activity. b. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources c. The point at which the body's energy system converts glycogen to glucose without the use of oxygen d. Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed

Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed

What principle is hydrostatic underwater weighing based upon?

Archimedes' principle

Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during a concentric contraction?

As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.

Which of the following is a component of quickness training? a. Acceleration b. Assessment of visual stimuli c. Stride rate d. Speed

Assessment of visual stimuli

What is considered to be the mechanism of action with self-myofascial rolling?

Autogenic inhibition

What surface would be the most challenging for a new client starting a balance training program?

BOSU ball

What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques?

Cancer and bleeding disorders

Agility plus which of the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training? a. Strength b. Power c. Change of direction d. Speed

Change of direction

Why are children at a disadvantage when participating in short-duration (10 to 90 second) high-intensity anaerobic activities? a. Children have underdeveloped growth plates and inadequate joint stabilization. b. Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power. c. Children have smaller digestive tracts and are unable to absorb large quantities of nutrients. d. Children have underdeveloped muscles and lack neuromuscular efficiency.

Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power.

For which population is the floor bridge exercise contraindicated?

Clients who are in the third trimester of pregnancy

Most bodyweight training exercises are considered which type of movements? a. Closed-chain movements b. Suspended bodyweight movements c. Loaded movements d. Open-chain movements

Closed-chain movements

How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout?

Continuous talking becomes challenging

Which of the following is the best example of a complete protein source? a. Legumes b. Dairy foods c. Beans d. Grains

Dairy foods

Which of the following is a banned substance in the United States? a. Caffeine b. Creatine c. Hordenine d. Dimethylamylamine (DMAA)

Dimethylamylamine (DMAA)

What should be the first step in a client's program after the assessment? a. Telling the client to eat some type of complex carbohydrate b. Designing the speed, agility, and quickness portion of the program c. Having the client do their cardiovascular exercise for weight loss d. Designing the flexibility portion of the program

Designing the flexibility portion of the program

What three joint actions comprise triple flexion? a. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension b. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion c. Spinal flexion, knee flexion, and elbow flexion d. Dorsiflexion, plantar flexion, and shoulder flexion

Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion

Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as?

Dyspnea

According to the "iceberg effect," which of the following training adaptations are considered "surface level"? a. Mobility b. Endurance c. Stability d. Proper movement

Endurance

What are two ways to best improve the timely passage of food through the intestinal tracts and prevent constipation? a. Ensure adequate water and protein intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of resistance training b. Perform a daily program of aerobic activity, and ensure increased protein consumption c. Ensure adequate water intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of both aerobic and resistance training d. Ensure adequate water consumption, and avoid higher levels of physical activity

Ensure adequate water intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of both aerobic and resistance training

What answer best describes the building blocks of proteins? a. Essential amino acids only b. Essential and nonessential amino acids c. Carbon molecules d. Peptide bonds

Essential and nonessential amino acids

How often is it recommended to reassess clientele?

Every month

What is the term for the higher-than-normal energy expenditure during the recovery period after exercise?

Excess postexercise oxygen consumption

True or False; A BMI score of 25 to 29.9 is considered within normal limits.

False; A BMI score of 18.5 to 24.9 is considered within normal limits

True or False: When performing a bird dog exercise, the back should be in a kyphotic positioning.

False; it should be in a neutral position

True or False: When performing a bird dog exercise, the back should be in an excessive lordotic position.

False; the back should be in a neutral position

Compared to water-soluble vitamins, which of the following is true about fat-soluble vitamins? a. Fat-soluble vitamins are not as healthy because fat is unhealthy. b. Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body. c. Fat-soluble vitamins are better for improving overall health. d. Fat-soluble vitamins accumulate in and deplete quickly from the body.

Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body.

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? a. Gluteus maximus b. Rectus abdominis c. Gastrocnemius and soleus d. Hip flexor complex

Gluteus maximus

What type of client is ideally suited for stage 2 training around VT1? a. More serious exercisers seeking to expand the capacity for both aerobic and anaerobic work b. Athletes or competitors who desire to improve speed or power during short but very-high-intensity bouts of work c. Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss d. New exercisers seeking to improve health markers like reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease and diabetes

Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss

What two activities are part of a client's warm-up? a. Flexibility and cardio b. Core c. Plyometrics d. Resistance

Flexibility and cardio

What type of exercise would be suggested to address overactive, shortened hamstrings?

Flexibility exercises

Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat? a. Tensor fascia latae b. Lower trapezius c. Gluteus maximus and medius d. Adductor complex

Gluteus maximus and medius

Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important? a. Frontside mechanics align the rear leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward. b. Triple extension involved in frontside mechanics is essential to keep the pelvis in a neutral position and facilitate force production. c. Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward. d. Frontside mechanics are associated with a stronger push phase, including hip-knee extension, gluteal contraction, and backside arm drive.

Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.

Which is not part of triple extension involved in backside sprint mechanics? a. Hip abduction b. Hip extension c. Ankle plantar flexion d. Knee extension

Hip abduction

During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane?

Hip abductors

Which of these joint movements is part of backside mechanics? a. Ankle dorsiflexion b. Hip flexion c. Knee flexion d. Hip extension

Hip extension

What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise?

Ice skaters

Which benefit will positively affect the body through integrated training? a. Decreased fat loss b. Decreased hormonal function c. Improved sleep d. Increased rate of power decline

Improved sleep

Which core exercise is most appropriate for an obese client to maximize comfort and to avoid potential hypotensive or hypertensive reactions to the exercise? a. Incline plank b. Stability ball Russian twist c. Supine reverse crunches d. Supine floor crunches

Incline plank

Excessive anterior pelvic tilt would lead to this posture of the lumbar spine.

Increased lordosis

What is a physical benefit of resistance training? a. Increased resting heart rate b. Decreased bone remodeling c. Increased muscular hypertrophy d. Decreased muscular hypertrophy

Increased muscular hypertrophy

Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for

Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball

Which of the following effects of the cardiovascular system occurs during exercise? a. Increased ventricular filling b. Decreased venous return c. Venous pooling d. Decreased ventricular filling

Increased ventricular filling

Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion?

Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.

Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function? a. Lumbopelvic stability, intervertebral stability, movement efficiency b. Movement efficiency, intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability c. Lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency, intervertebral stability d. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency

Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency

Which lower-body stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury? Standing hamstring stretch Inverted hurdler's stretch for hamstrings Assisted supine hamstring stretch Supine hamstrings stretch

Inverted hurdler's stretch for hamstrings

How does the stretch-shortening cycle improve concentric force production? a. The amortization phase helps generate additional forces. b. It builds up elastic energy during the eccentric phase, preloading the muscle. c. Eccentric contractions are minimized. d. It builds up extra heat in the muscles, which makes them more powerful.

It builds up elastic energy during the eccentric phase, preloading the muscle

Why does a shorter amortization phase lead to more effective plyometric movement? a. It requires the use of less elastic energy. b. It decreases vertical jump height. c. It requires less eccentric deceleration. d. It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently.

It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently.

What is the most important reason not to allow the knee to cave inward during a lunge jump exercise?

It causes stress to the connective tissues.

Which option is an inaccurate description of the Valsalva maneuver? a. It increases intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability. b. It can raise an individual's heart rate and blood pressure. c. It involves expiring against a closed glottis. d. It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.

It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.

Why is third-party verification important?

It provides unbiased testing for a product.

Carbohydrate intake prior to intense or long-duration exercise serves which of the following functions? a. It is the primary energy source for low-intensity and long-duration exercise. b. It replenishes glycogen stores and provides adequate fuel for performance. c. It replenishes depleted amino acid stores prior to high-intensity training. d. It provides adequate energy for muscle protein synthesis during training.

It replenishes glycogen stores and provides adequate fuel for performance.

Calcium is often associated with bone health, but why is it also important for muscular function?

It stimulates actin and myosin activity.

Extension of the shoulder is common in many pulling movements. Which of the following muscles is involved? a. Gluteus maximus b. Anterior deltoid c. Latissimus dorsi d. Pectoralis major

Latissimus dorsi

What leadership component refers to the leader being a great example for how to live a healthy and balanced life, which includes being optimistic, empathetic, and knowledgeable?

Leader's qualities

Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the body?

Left ventricle

Improving frontside running mechanics is associated with?

Less braking force

What is a characteristic of a type I muscle fiber? a. Fewer capillaries b. Quick to fatigue c. Less force production d. Larger in size

Less force production

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment?

Lower trapezius

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with upper crossed syndrome? a. Upper trapezius b. Hip flexors c. Lower trapezius d. Abdominals

Lower trapezius

Which of the following is magnesium classified as? a. Vitamin b. Trace mineral c. Macronutrient d. Macromineral

Macromineral

Which of the following modalities is most likely to allow for strength and/or power development in the transverse plane? a. Suspended bodyweight trainers b. BOSU balls c. Strength machines d. Medicine balls

Medicine balls

The intensity and direction of someone's effort describes what?

Motivation

Without a perceived discrepancy between a client's current state and making a change, what is lacking?

Motivation

Which of the following does plyometric training help increase? a. Balance b. Motor unit recruitment c. Overall base strength d. Core stability

Motor unit recruitment

Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training? a. PAR-Q+ b. Body composition assessments c. Strength assessments d. Movement assessments

Movement assessments

Training to enhance the size of muscle, or an increase in muscle mass, is an example of which improvement of the body?

Muscle hypertrophy

Which factor will be reduced through training/exercising with correct posture? a. Muscle imbalances b. Cardiorespiratory fitness c. Physical and mental well-being d. Flexibility

Muscle imbalances

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase growth of muscles to maximal levels?

Muscular Development

What causes initial improvements in strength when youths engage in a resistance training program?

Neural adaptations

According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics? a. Strength b. Speed c. Neuromuscular stabilization d. Power

Neuromuscular stabilization

Which of the following statements is the most accurate when discussing strength-training machines? a. Machines always work well for those who are obese or are smaller or taller than average. b. Machines work in multiple planes and allow for greater gains in strength development. c. Not all strength-training machines are designed to fit all body types and thus can limit the effectiveness of the intended exercise. d. Machines are superior to free weights for improving core stability because they increase core stability demands.

Not all strength-training machines are designed to fit all body types and thus can limit the effectiveness of the intended exercise.

What do the letters OPT within the OPT model stand for?

Optimum Performance Training

What term describes the movement of bones, such as flexion and extension?

Osteokinematics

Which type of training would most likely lead to increased levels of testosterone, insulin-like growth factors, and growth hormone?

Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods

If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity?

Oxidative phosphorylation

What system puts the body into a relaxed state, termed rest and digest?

Parasympathetic nervous system

Which resistance training system is most appropriate for hypertensive clients? a. Drop set b. Pyramid system c. Peripheral heart action system d. Complex training

Peripheral heart action system

If you have a client who wants to increase speed, what phase of the OPT model would they fall into?

Phase 5

Which of the following solutions would allow an individual to achieve a greater depth during the lowering phase of the squat if ankle stiffness is the cause? a. Stretch the ankle dorsiflexor musculature b. Stretch the ankle eversion musculature c. Place a small board under the heels d. Place a small board under the toes

Place a small board under the heels

Which statement about lowering blood pressure is true? a. Exercise can help control body weight, but it cannot improve blood flow. b. Reducing excessive alcohol use will not have an impact on high blood pressure. c. There is no direct evidence that exercise will result in lower blood pressure. d. Planned exercise alone is typically insufficient for acutely lowering and controlling hypertension.

Planned exercise alone is typically insufficient for acutely lowering and controlling hypertension.

When using linear periodization with a client, what would you progress them to after 4 weeks of training maximal strength adaptations?

Power

In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength? a. Power Training b. Stabilization Endurance Training c. Strength Endurance Training d. Muscular Development Training

Power Training

How often should elastic resistance bands be checked?

Prior to every use

Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control? a. 40-yard dash b. Pro shuttle c. Long (broad) jump d. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

Pro shuttle

Ambivalent people may be reluctant to start an exercise program. What should the fitness professional focus on when helping a potential client overcome this barrier?

Probe further to determine other barriers they are experiencing and possible motives to participate.

What is defined as the awareness of the positioning and movement of body segments?

Proprioception

What is an unstable (yet controllable) exercise environment that causes the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms? a. Feed-forward activation b. Asymmetrical resistance loading c. Integrative function d. Proprioceptively enriched environment

Proprioceptively enriched environment

Which of the macronutrients has the highest thermic effect of food (TEF)? a. Glucose b. Protein c. Lipids d. Carbohydrates

Protein

Which of the following is considered a closed-chain exercise? a. Machine leg extension b. Biceps curls c. Lat pulldown d. Push-ups

Push ups

Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement? a. Overhead press b. Pushing assessment c. Bench press strength assessment d. Push-up test

Push-up test

A Certified Personal Trainer has been listening to a client's goals. After the client is done speaking, the trainer restates the goals back to the client. What best describes the approach the trainer is using? a. Motivational interviewing b. Active listening c. Reflective listening d. Nonverbal communication

Reflective listening

Balance exercises used for introducing balance training should initially involve little joint motion and improve what type of contractions? a. Preplanned voluntary contractions b. Voluntary contractions c. Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions d. No muscle contractions are involved in balance training

Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions

During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what? a. Pull the shoulders into flexion and scapular protraction b. Resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction c. Pull the elbows into extension d. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction

Resist shoulder horizontal adduction

In an integrated training program, what would the last portion of the training session involve as the main exercise or movement component?

Resistance training

What is the concentric motion of the shoulder blades during the standing cable row exercise? a. Upward rotation b. Protraction c. Retraction d. Elevation

Retraction

What is a joint disease in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue, causing an inflammatory response?

Rheumatoid arthritis

Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava veins?

Right atrium

Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood and pumps it to the lungs?

Right ventricle

If someone repeatedly lifts heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. What is this an example of?

SAID principle

Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance? a. Dynamic balance b. Stable balance c. Static balance d. Semi-dynamic balance

Semi-dynamic balance

For which movement impairment would you see the shoulders moving upward toward the ears? a. Scapular winging b. Shoulder elevation c. Arms fall forward d. Forward lean

Shoulder elevation

Which movement assessment is a good assessment of a client's balance during movement? a. Push-up test b. Single-leg squat c. Overhead squat d. 40-yard dash

Single-leg squat

What advice would enable a client to breathe properly?

Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface. a. Vision b. Somatosensation c. Vestibular d. Sensorimotor function

Somatosensation

What exercise is typically used to measure maximum strength of the lower extremities?

Squat

What type of assessment is typically performed first in the assessment flow?

Static posture

The addition of balance training to a strengthening program can enhance what? a. Vision b. Somatosensation c. Strength d. Vestibular senses

Strength

What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle?

Stretching of the agonist muscle

What is known as a sudden lack of blood supply to the brain, caused by either a blockage in an artery or a ruptured blood vessel?

Stroke

The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term? a. Synergistic dominance b. Reciprocal inhibition c. Altered reciprocal inhibition d. Altered length-tension relationship

Synergistic dominance

What is the most accurate description of motor control? a. The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements b. The motor response to internal and external environmental stimuli c. The cumulative changes in motor behavior over time, throughout the life span d. The integration of motor control processes through practice

The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements

Balance is best described as which of the following? a. The ability to control the motion of the spine over a given longer duration b. The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position c. The ability to change direction quickly and accelerate d. Increased ability to overcome the force of gravity during jumping

The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position

What is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working at ventilatory threshold 2? a. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes b. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for only few seconds c. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources d. The ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels

The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes

Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic? a. The exercise is intense. b. The exercise is continuous in nature. c. The exercise targets large muscle groups. d. The exercise is rhythmic.

The exercise is intense.

What is the definition of anthropometry?

The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion

What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training?

To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

What is an example of an individual in the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome? a. The person is experiencing improvement in muscular strength. b. The person is experiencing an increase in muscular power. c. The person has suffered an ACL sprain. d. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.

The person has suffered an ACL sprain.

How is ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) best defined? a. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources b. An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods c. The point during graded exercise in which ventilation increases disproportionately to oxygen uptake d. An aerobic test that measures the participant's ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels

The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources

What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment shoulder elevation? a. The arms falling forward b. The scapula protruding excessively from the back c. The trunk leaning forward d. The shoulders moving upward toward the ears

The shoulders moving upward toward the ears

What is the function of the neuromuscular junction?

The site where the nervous system and muscle fibers communicate

What are triglycerides?

The storage form of fat

Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower-body stretch? a. The stretch provides excessive stress to the quadriceps muscles. b. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee. c. This stretch is too advanced for the average person. d. The stretch is too complicated for the older client.

The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee.

Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate? a. The work-to-recovery intervals are 3:1 (30 sec work + 10 sec recovery) for a total of 12 intervals. b. The total duration of the workout is 20 minutes long and performed at near maximal effort. c. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max. d. The work-to-recovery intervals are 1:2 (20 sec work + 40 sec recovery) for a total of 10 intervals.

The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.

What is cardiac output?

The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute

Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where?

Thoracic spine

Iodine has a major role in which bodily process?

Thyroid function

What is an appropriate cue that can be given to a client to properly perform the drawing-in maneuver?

To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.

Which of the following is proper technique during a squat movement? a. Keeping the feet facing inward b. Allowing the gaze to move freely c. Maintaining equal extension of the ankles and hips d. Tracking the knees over the second and third toes

Tracking the knees over the second and third toes

In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur?

Transverse

Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core? a. Latissimus dorsi b. Rectus abdominis c. Erector spinae d. Transverse abdominis

Transverse abdominis

What are the three categories within the lipid family? a. Saturated fat, unsaturated fat, and cholesterol b. Cholesterol, omega-3s, and omega-6s c. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols d. Saturated, unsaturated, and hydrogenated fats

Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols

Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers?

Type 1

Which disease is caused by specific medical conditions or medications, including alcohol abuse, smoking, specific diseases, or particular medications, that disrupt normal bone reformation?

Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis

If a new client indicates that they are frustrated with their lack of expected results, which barrier are they likely experiencing? Select one: a. Lack of social support b. Ambivalence c. Unrealistic goals d. Social physique anxiety

Unrealistic goals

Which muscle or muscles would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?

Upper trapezius and levator scapula

What is considered the gold standard measurement for cardiorespiratory fitness?

VO2max

What is the most valid measurement of aerobic fitness?

VO2max

Which food would be classified as a high biological value protein source? a. Beans b. Peas c. Whole eggs d. Lentils

Whole eggs

Which of the following is an example of an exercise modality to enrich the proprioceptive nature of an exercise? a. Medicine ball b. Cables c. Tubing d. Wobble board

Wobble board

Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels? a. Rockport 1-mile walk test b. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test c. YMCA 3-minute step test d. Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) test

YMCA 3-minute step test

In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases?

Zone 3

Four Horsemen of Fitness

medicine balls, Indian Clubs, dumbbells, and wands