Networking Chapters 1 -8

A master service agreement (MSA) is a contract that defines the terms of future contracts between parties, such as payment terms or arbitration arrangements. True False

True

A wavelength mismatch occurs when transmissions are optimized for one type of cable but sent over a different type of cable. True False

True

All wireless signals are carried through the air by electromagnetic waves. True False

True

An 802.11 data frame contains four address fields, in contrast to the two address fields in 802.3 Ethernet. True False

True

An enterprise-wide VPN can include elements of both the client-to-site and site-to-site models. True False

True

At the root level of the DNS hierarchical structure, 13 clusters of root servers hold information used to locate TLD servers. True False

True

Each organization that provides host services on the public Internet is responsible for providing and maintaining DNS authoritative servers for public access. True False

True

Each type of cable has a prescribed bend radius, which is the radius of the maximum arc into which you can loop a cable without impairing data transmission. True False

True

Fiber-optic cable comes in two types: single-mode fiber (SMF) or multimode fiber (MMF). True False

True

IP is an unreliable, connectionless protocol, as it does not establish a session to send its packets. True False

True

In general, an API (application programming interface) call is the method an application uses when it makes a request of the OS. True False

True

In order to identify the transmissions that belong to each VLAN, a switch will add a tag to Ethernet frames that identifies the port through which they arrive at the switch. True False

True

Latency on data networks is based on a calculation of a packet's round trip time (RTT). True False

True

Office 365 is an example of an SaaS implementation with a subscription model. True False

True

The Virtual Network Computing (VNC) application uses the cross-platform remote frame buffer (RFB) protocol. True False

True

The Wireless Personal Area Network (WPAN) is defined in the 802.15 standard. True False

True

The fundamental difference between a switch and a router is that a switch belongs only to its local network and a router belongs to two or more local networks. True False

True

The process of designing, implementing, and maintaining an entire network is called the system life cycle. True False

True

A Type 2 hypervisor installs on a computer before any OS, and is therefore called a bare-metal hypervisor. True False

False

A native VLAN mismatch occurs when two access ports that are connected to each other are both tagging traffic with different VLAN IDs. True False

False

A serial cable with an RJ-45 connector is capable of being used through an RJ-45 Ethernet port. True False

False

An IPv6 address consists of 128 bits that are written as 10 blocks of hexadecimal numbers separated by colons. True False

False

An unmanaged switch can still support the creation of VLANs, provided there is an interface for configuration. True False

False

Cable that is coated with flame-resistant polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is acceptable for use in plenum areas. True False

False

FTPS (FTP Security or FTP Secure) and SFTP (Secure FTP) are two names for the same protocol. True False

False

ICANN is responsible for restrictions on use of the .com, .org, and .net TLDs. True False

False

IPv4 and IPv6 use the same packet format. True False

False

NFC tags are very expensive and cannot be purchased blank, requiring them to be pre-loaded. True False

False

Network segmentation decreases both performance and security on a network. True False

False

Only Class B and Class C networks can be subnetted. True False

False

TCP uses a four-step process called a four-way handshake to establish a TCP connection. True False

False

The Data Link layer attaches a trailer to the end of a packet, and does not include a header. True False

False

The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is considered to be a connectionless, or best-effort delivery protocol. True False

False

The Transport layer header addresses a receiving application by a number called a MAC address. True False

False

The protocol data unit for the Physical layer of the OSI model is payload, or data. True False

False

UDP provides error checking, but not sequencing. True False

False

Z-Wave transmissions have a range of up to 50m per hop, and can tolerate up to 8 hops through repeaters. True False

False

What does the VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) do? a. It shares VLAN database information amongst switches that participate. b. It shares trunking information amongst switches that participate. c. It is the protocol that defines how VLAN tagging is accomplished in an Ethernet network. d. It is the protocol used by a trunk port for establishing a trunk with another switch.

a. It shares VLAN database information amongst switches that participate.

In general, how much can a twisted-pair's cable be bent before data transmission may be impeded? a. No more than four times the diameter of the cable. b. Twisted pair cable has a near infinite bend radius. c. No more than ten times the diameter of the cable. d. No more than two times the diameter of the cable.

a. No more than four times the diameter of the cable.

What utility is used to verify that TCP/IP installed, bound to the NIC, configured correctly, and communicating with the network? a. traceroute b. ping c. ifconfig d. route

b. ping

The use of certificate authorities to associate public keys with certain users is known by what term? a. symmetric identification b. public-key infrastructure c. certified infrastructure d. public-key organization

b. public-key infrastructure

Broadband cable Internet service and cable TV are most commonly delivered over long distances via what type of cable? a. LRG-50 b. RG-20 c. RG-6 d. RG-59

c. RG-6

What cloud service model involves providing applications through an online user interface, providing for compatibility with a multitude of different operating systems and devices? a. IaaS b. PaaS c. SaaS d. XaaS

c. SaaS

In considering the responsibilities of each layer of the OSI model, what statement accurately reflects those of the Presentation layer? a. The Presentation layer describes the interface between two applications, each on separate computers. b. The Presentation layer is responsible for describing how data between applications is synced and recovered if messages don't arrive intact at the receiving application. c. The Presentation layer is responsible for reformatting, compressing, and/or encrypting data in a way that the application on the receiving end can read. d. The Presentation layer is responsible for transporting Application layer payloads from one application to another.

c. The Presentation layer is responsible for reformatting, compressing, and/or encrypting data in a way that the application on the receiving end can read.

In the event of a duplicate MAC address shared by two hosts on a switched network, what statement is accurate? a. The hosts will generate new MAC addresses until the conflict is resolved. b. The network switch will eventually crash due to being unable to properly forward traffic. c. The hosts will still send and receive traffic, but traffic may not always reach the correct destination. d. The hosts that share the same MAC addresses will be completely unable to communicate with any other devices.

c. The hosts will still send and receive traffic, but traffic may not always reach the correct destination.

Which statement regarding the use of a bridged mode vNIC is accurate? a. The vNIC will utilize the host PC's IP address. b. The vNIC will be assigned a NAT-ed IP address. c. The vNIC will its own IP address on the physical LAN. d. The vNIC will only be able to communicate across the bridge to the host PC.

c. The vNIC will its own IP address on the physical LAN.

What does backbone cabling consist of? a. The shielded cables that are used for high data transmission rates between an organization and an ISP. b. It is cabling that connects workstations to the closest data room and to switches housed in the room. c. Short length cables with connectors at both ends. d. The cables or wireless links that provide interconnection between the entrance facility and MDF, and between the MDF and IDFs.

d. The cables or wireless links that provide interconnection between the entrance facility and MDF, and between the MDF and IDFs.

A hexadecimal number is a number written in the base 16 number system. True False

True

A community cloud is a service shared between multiple organizations, but not available publicly. True False

True

You have been tasked with the creation and design of a network that must support a minimum of 5000 hosts. Which network accomplishes this goal? a. 10.3.0.0/19 b. 10.90.0.0/22 c. 192.168.0.0/20 d. 172.20.50.0/23

a. 10.3.0.0/19

What is the fastest Ethernet standard that can possibly be used on twisted-pair cabling? a. 10GBase-T b. 100Base-T c. 10TBase-T d. 1000Base-T

a. 10GBase-T

Which of the following IP addresses would be a loopback IP address? a. 127.0.0.1 b. 169.254.0.1 c. 192.168.1.1 d. 224.0.0.1

a. 127.0.0.1

An IP address of 192.168.18.73/28 has what network ID? a. 192.168.18.64 b. 192.168.16.0 c. 192.168.18.32 d. 192.168.18.0

a. 192.168.18.64

By default, when using classful addressing, how many bits exist in the host portion of a Class A address? a. 24 b. 32 c. 8 d. 16

a. 24

What subnet mask can be used to segment the 172.16.0.0 network to allow for a minimum of 6 subnets while maximizing the number of hosts per subnet? a. 255.255.224.0 b. 255.255.248.0 c. 255.255.128.0 d. 255.255.192.0

a. 255.255.224.0

What is the maximum number of host IP addresses that can exist in a Class B network? a. 65,534 b. 8190 c. 1022 d. 32,766

a. 65,534

Which of the following is NOT a task that a VPN concentrator is responsible for? a. A VPN concentrator shuts down established connections with malicious traffic occurs. b. A VPN concentrator manages encryption for VPN transmissions. c. A VPN concentrator authenticates VPN clients. d. A VPN concentrator establishes tunnels for VPN connections.

a. A VPN concentrator shuts down established connections with malicious traffic occurs.

What scenario describes an evil twin attack? a. A malicious access point is configured with the SSID of a non-malicious public access point. b. A hacker is utilizing a protocol analyzer on a public Wi-Fi network to discover packet contents. c. A hacker is actively sending wireless probes to discover available wireless networks. d. An attacker is actively attempting to brute force the PIN of a WPS enabled access point.

a. A malicious access point is configured with the SSID of a non-malicious public access point

What open-source VPN protocol utilizes OpenSSL for encryption and has the ability to possibly cross firewalls where IPsec might be blocked? a. OpenVPN b. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) c. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) d. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)

a. OpenVPN

You have been awarded a contract for wiring a new federal building. What twisted-pair wiring standard must you use? a. TIA/EIA 568A b. TIA/EIA rollover c. TIA/EIA 568F d. TIA/EIA 568B

a. TIA/EIA 568A

In a voice over IP setup (VoIP), what kind of device converts signals from a campus's analog phone equipment into IP data that can travel over a phone company's analog telephone lines? a. VoIP gateway b. VoIP translator c. VoIP MTA d. VoIP PBX

a. VoIP gateway

A policy in which all exit doors for a building stay unlocked during a fire is an example of what type of policy? a. fail-open b. fail-oriented c. fail-tolerant d. fail-close

a. fail-open

What command can you utilize to display TCP/IP configuration information for each network adapter installed? a. ipconfig /all b. ipconfig /list c. ipconfig /full d. ipconfig /show

a. ipconfig /all

In Linux, what command can be used for viewing and setting wireless interface parameters? a. iwconfig b. wlanconf c. wifid d. ifconfig

a. iwconfig

What routing metric affects a path's potential performance due to delay? a. latency b. load c. theoretical bandwidth d. MTU

a. latency

You've been handed a fiber with a 1.25-mm ferrule that requires a connector. What is the most commonly used connector for this ferrule size? a. local connector (LC) b. subscriber connector (SC) c. Mechanical Transfer-Registered Jack (MTRJ) d. straight tip (ST)

a. local connector (LC)

Telephone connections follow what registered jack standard? a. registered jack 11 (RJ-11) b. registered jack 45 (RJ-45) c. registered jack 12 (RJ-12) d. registered jack 100 (RJ-100)

a. registered jack 11 (RJ-11)

A subnet of 255.255.248.0 can be represented by what CIDR notation? a. /29 b. /21 c. /18 d. /20

b. /21

When planning horizontal cabling, what is the maximum allowable distance that can be used? a. 300 meters b. 100 meters c. 100 feet d. 1,000 feet

b. 100 meters

A network with 10 bits remaining for the host portion will have how many usable host addresses? a. 2046 b. 1022 c. 510 d. 4192

b. 1022

A network with a CIDR notation of /26 would have what subnet mask? a. 255.255.255.0 b. 255.255.255.192 c. 255.255.255.224 d. 255.255.255.240

b. 255.255.255.192

How many data streams are used in 802.11ac Wave 2 devices? a. 8 data streams b. 4 data streams c. 2 data streams d. 3 data streams

b. 4 data streams

Your supervisor has asked you to configure a new prototype network with a dual stack configuration. What does this mean? a. Two different IPv4 address spaces will exist on the same network segment. b. Both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols will be used on the network. c. The router serving the network will have a redundant spare. d. The network will exist on two separate segments, separated by a proxy.

b. Both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols will be used on the network.

What is the minimum category of UTP cable required in order to support Gigabit speeds? a. Cat 5 b. Cat 5e c. Cat 6 d. Cat 3

b. Cat 5e

Which Bluetooth power class allows for a maximum power output of 100 mW and a range of up to 100 m? a. Class 2 b. Class 1 c. Class X d. Class A

b. Class 1

A vSwitch (virtual switch) or bridge is a logically defined device that operates at what layer of the OSI model? a. Layer 1 b. Layer 2 c. Layer 4 d. Layer 7

b. Layer 2

At what layer of the OSI model does a network switch normally operate? a. Layer 3 b. Layer 2 c. Layer 4 d. Layer 5

b. Layer 2

In the DNS hierarchy, where is information about how to find the top-level domain servers held? a. On DNS caching-only servers. b. On the DNS root servers. c. In the organization's forward lookup zone. d. In the hosts file on the local machine.

b. On the DNS root servers.

The Windows Remote Desktop application utilizes what protocol to provide secure, encrypted transmissions? a. Secure Shell (SSH) b. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) c. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) d. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

b. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

What mail protocol is used to send mail messages to a server? a. HTTPS b. SMTP c. IMAP4 d. POP3

b. SMTP

In the United States, who is able to activate the Emergency Alert System at the national level? a. Any U.S. state or territory b. The President c. The Federal Bureau of Investigation d. Local law enforcement

b. The President

A junior administrator is having issues connecting to a router's console port using a TIA/EIA 568B standard cable and a USB serial to RJ-45 adapter, despite verifying terminal settings. What is the issue? a. The USB standard is incompatible with the serial connection used by the console port. b. The cable must be a rollover cable. c. Router console ports are only used when connected to other routers. d. The router console port is providing an Ethernet connection, instead of a serial connection.

b. The cable must be a rollover cable.

What statement accurately reflects what occurs when a message is too large to transport on a network? a. The message is sent anyway, and is received by the destination as garbage data. b. The message is divided into smaller messages called segments (for TCP) or datagrams (for UDP). c. The message is discarded and must be sent again. d. An ICMP error is generated, and the application must reformat the data for transmission.

b. The message is divided into smaller messages called segments (for TCP) or datagrams (for UDP).

The TCP and UDP protocols both exist at what layer of the OSI model? a. Network b. Transport c. Presentation d. Application

b. Transport

What is the name of the GUI front end that is available for the Nmap utility? a. GUINmap b. Zenmap c. iMap d. VizMap

b. Zenmap

What multiplexing technology lowers cost by spacing frequency bands wider apart to allow for cheaper transceiver equipment? a. dense wavelength division multiplexing b. coarse wavelength division multiplexing c. spaced wavelength division multiplexing d. statistical time division multiplexing

b. coarse wavelength division multiplexing

On certain Cisco products, what command can be used to create and send helper messages that support several types of UDP traffic, including DHCP, TFTP, DNS, and TACACS+? a. ip create helper server b. ip helper-address c. ip new helper d. set ip helper address

b. ip helper-address

The combination of a public key and a private key are known by what term below? a. key team b. key pair c. key tie d. key set

b. key pair

In the classful addressing scheme, what range of network addresses is considered a Class B? a. 1.x.y.z to 126.x.y.z b. 192.0.0.x to 223.255.255.x c. 128.0.x.y to 191.255.x.y d. 224.x.y.z to 255.x.y.z

c. 128.0.x.y to 191.255.x.y

Near-field communication devices send data at what fixed frequency? a. 8.65 MHz b. 47.1 MHz c. 13.56 MHz d. 21.39 MHz

c. 13.56 MHz

What is the industry standard angle for an Angle Polished Connector (APC)? a. 14 degrees b. 12 degrees c. 8 degrees d. 16 degrees

c. 8 degrees

What statement describes a transmission flaw that is occurring due to attenuation? a. A customer's video conferencing application is experiencing delay in audio and video that comes and goes. b. Two network interfaces are experiencing problems at the same time due to the cables having adjacent runs. c. A customer modem is continuously losing signal due to large distance from the transmitting device. d. A network switch interface is dropping due to a powerful radio transmitter in the adjacent room.

c. A customer modem is continuously losing signal due to large distance from the transmitting device.

What statement correctly identifies the purpose of a software patch? a. A software patch is a major change to a software package that enhances the functionality and features of the software, while also correcting bugs and vulnerabilities. b. A software patch involves the process of reverting to a previous version of software after attempting to upgrade it. c. A software patch is a correction, improvement, or enhancement to software. d. A software patch is a container for new software, and must be installed on relevant devices and incorporated with network resources.

c. A software patch is a correction, improvement, or enhancement to software.

In a domain, the process of allowing a user to sign on to the network from any computer on the network and get access to resources is managed by what service? a. Active Directory Federated Users (AD FU) b. Windows Named Resource Services (WN RS) c. Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) d. Automated Directory Network Services (AD NS)

c. Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS)

When creating network diagrams, what icon description typically represents a network router? a. An icon that is rectangular in shape, with squiggly lines on the front. b. An icon that resembles a brick wall. c. An icon that has a hockey-puck shape with two arrows pointing inward and two arrows pointing outward. d. An icon that is rectangular, which contains four arrows pointing in opposite directions.

c. An icon that has a hockey-puck shape with two arrows pointing inward and two arrows pointing outward.

When creating network diagrams, what icon description typically represents a network switch? a. An icon that resembles a brick wall. b. An icon that has a hockey-puck shape with two arrows pointing inward and two arrows pointing outward. c. An icon that is rectangular, which contains four arrows pointing in opposite directions. d. An icon that is rectangular in shape, with squiggly lines on the front.

c. An icon that is rectangular, which contains four arrows pointing in opposite directions.

What is NOT one of the three characteristics of TCP in its role as a reliable delivery protocol? a. Sequencing and checksums b. Flow Control c. Framing d. Connection-oriented Protocol

c. Framing

Which type of cloud service model involves hardware services that are provided virtually, including network infrastructure devices such as virtual servers? a. SaaS b. XaaS c. IaaS d. PaaS

c. IaaS

When using RFID, what is an ARPT (Active Reader Passive Tag)? a. It is a tag that can be read remotely up to a distance of 50 m, but requires a powerful active reader. b. It is a tag that requires an active reader, but still contains a battery in the tag. c. It is a tag that is activated by an active reader, and uses power from the reader's radio to power its transmission. d. It is a battery-powered tag actively transmits its credentials at regular time intervals, which can be read remotely.

c. It is a tag that is activated by an active reader, and uses power from the reader's radio to power its transmission.

Why is the telnet utility a poor choice for remote access to a device? a. It cannot be used over a public WAN connection. b. It does not allow for control of a computer remotely. c. It provides poor authentication and no encryption. d. It provides no mechanism for authentication.

c. It provides poor authentication and no encryption.

At what layer of the OSI model does the IPsec encryption protocol operate? a. Application layer b. Transport layer c. Network layer d. Physical layer

c. Network layer

Which statement does NOT accurately describe characteristics of the OSPF protocol? a. OSPF maintains a database of other routers' links. b. OSPF has no hop limits on a transmission path. c. OSPF requires very little CPU or memory resources. d. OSPF provides low network overhead.

c. OSPF requires very little CPU or memory resources.

What is NOT a potential disadvantage of utilizing virtualization? a. Licensing costs can be high due to every instance of commercial software requiring a separate license. b. Increased complexity and administrative burden can result from the use of virtual machines. c. Virtualization software increases the complexity of backups, making creation of usable backups difficult. d. Multiple virtual machines contending for finite resources can compromise performance.

c. Virtualization software increases the complexity of backups, making creation of usable backups difficult.

Noise that can degrade or distort a signal on a network is measured with what unit? a. farads b. volts c. decibels d. joules

c. decibels

What IPv6 field is similar to the TTL field in IPv4 packets? a. next header b. distance vector c. hop limit d. flow label

c. hop limit

Routing protocols that enable routers to communicate beyond neighboring routers, allowing each router to independently map the network, are known as which type of protocols? a. border gateway protocols b. interior gateway protocols c. link-state protocols d. distance vector protocols

c. link-state protocols

Which of the following terms is commonly used to describe a VLAN configuration in which one router connects to a switch that supports multiple VLANs? a. router-on-a-branch b. branched router c. router-on-a-stick d. router overloading

c. router-on-a-stick

You are connected to your network's Cisco router, and need to verify the route table. What command should you enter? a. route print b. route -a c. show ip route d. show route-table

c. show ip route

What is the minimal amount of voltage required to damage an electrical component? a. 1500 volts b. 5 volts c. 100 volts d. 10 volts

d. 10 volts

Which of the following is NOT a range of IP addresses recommended for use in private networks? a. 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255 b. 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255 c. 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255 d. 127.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255

d. 127.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255

By default, what is the MTU size on a typical Ethernet network? a. 1492 bytes b. 1522 bytes c. 1518 bytes d. 1500 bytes

d. 1500 bytes

How large is the 802.1Q tag that is added to an Ethernet frame when using VLANs? a. 12 bytes b. 8 bytes c. 20 bytes d. 4 byte

d. 4 bytes

The 802.11 standard specifies the use of what technique in order to minimize the potential for collisions? a. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Mitigation (CMSA/CM) b. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) c. Carrier Sense Single Access with Collision Adaptation (CSSA/CA) d. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA)

d. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA)

What occurs when a collision happens on a network? a. The collision goes undetected, and data transmission continues. b. Each node on the network stops transmitting, until manually told to reconnect and transmit. c. The collision will create an error in the network switch, but otherwise, no issues will occur as a result. d. Each node on the network waits a random amount of time and then resends the transmission.

d. Each node on the network waits a random amount of time and then resends the transmission.

What security encryption protocol requires regular re-establishment of a connection and can be used with any type of TCP/IP transmission? a. SSL b. TLS c. L2TP d. IPsec

d. IPsec

What is the purpose of the checksum TCP field? a. It identifies the data segment's position in the stream of data segments being sent. b. It confirms receipt of data via a return message to the sender. c. It specifies special options, such as the maximum segment size a network can handle. d. It allows the receiving node to determine whether the TCP segment became corrupted during transmission.

d. It allows the receiving node to determine whether the TCP segment became corrupted during transmission.

How does refraction affect the propagation of a wireless transmission? a. It causes the signal to be returned back towards the source of the origin. b. It splits the signal into secondary waves that continue in the direction in which they split. c. It causes the signal to be absorbed by the refracting material. d. It distorts the signal as it travels into and through a different transmission medium.

d. It distorts the signal as it travels into and through a different transmission medium.

What is routing protocol convergence time defined as? a. It is the amount of time it takes after initial configuration of the protocol for all routes to become known. b. It is the time it takes for the protocol to recognize that a change has occurred. c. It is the amount of time involved in configuration of the routing protocol. d. It is the time it takes for the protocol to recognize the best path in the event of a network change.

d. It is the time it takes for the protocol to recognize the best path in the event of a network change.

What statement correctly describes "jitter"? a. Jitter is the loss of 50% or more packets in a given data stream, causing a connection to falter. b. Jitter is the transmission of signal onto unintended pairs in a copper cable. c. Jitter is the fluctuation of a signal's strength as it travels away from its source. d. Jitter is what happens when packets experience varying amounts of delay and arrive out of order.

d. Jitter is what happens when packets experience varying amounts of delay and arrive out of order.

The frame header at the Data Link layer includes hardware addresses of the source and destination NICs. What is another name for this address? a. PAC (Packet Access Control) address b. DAC (Data Access Control) address c. DAC (Digital Access Control) address d. MAC (Media Access Control) address

d. MAC (Media Access Control) address

Which statement accurately describes what near end crosstalk (NEXT) is? a. NEXT is crosstalk that occurs when an EMI source is near the data signal source. b. NEXT is crosstalk that occurs near the opposite end of a signal source. c. NEXT is crosstalk that occurs only when a cable segment exceeds the bend radius. d. NEXT is crosstalk that occurs between wire pairs near the source of a signal.

d. NEXT is crosstalk that occurs between wire pairs near the source of a signal.

At what layer of the OSI model do the IP, ICMP, and ARP protocols operate? a. Application b. Transport c. Session d. Network

d. Network

At what layer of the OSI model do the 802.11 standards vary? a. Data link layer b. Transport layer c. Network layer d. Physical layer

d. Physical layer

How can you determine the manufacturer of a NIC card based on the MAC address? a. The last 24 bits, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier, identify the manufacturer. b. The first 12 bits and last 12 bits combined are known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier. c. The middle 24 bits, known as the Organization Universal Identifier, identify the manufacturer. d. The first 24 bits, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier, identify the manufacturer.

d. The first 24 bits, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier, identify the manufacturer.

Diffraction has what affect on a wireless signal's propagation? a. The signal is returned back towards the source of the original signal. b. The signal is redirected into multiple directions. c. The signal is completely absorbed by the diffracting material. d. The signal is split into secondary waves that continue in the direction in which they split.

d. The signal is split into secondary waves that continue in the direction in which they split.

When using a site-to-site VPN, what type of device sits at the edge of the LAN and establishes the connection between sites? a. VPN transport b. VPN proxy c. VPN server d. VPN gateway

d. VPN gateway

In order to ensure that a cable is not affected by electromagnetic interference, how far away should the cable be from fluorescent lighting? a. at least 12 feet b. at least 6 feet c. at least 3 inches d. at least 3 feet

d. at least 3 feet

The Data Link Layer utilizes what name for its protocol data unit (PDU)? a. data b. packet c. bit d. frame

d. frame

Where is a demarc located in relation to the structured cabling of an enterprise environment? a. at the Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF) b. in the work area c. between the MDF and the IDF d. in the Main Distribution Frame (MDF)

d. in the Main Distribution Frame (MDF)

What kind of tool can you use to measure voltage on a cable length? a. continuity tester b. light meter c. time domain reflectometer d. multimeter

d. multimeter

With a FQDN of ftp1.dallas.mycompany.com, what part is the domain name? a. ftp1.dallas b. ftp1.dallas.mycompany. c. ftp1 d. mycompany.com

d. mycompany.com

At the Transport layer of the OSI, what is used to find and communicate with a particular application running on a host? a. IP addresses b. MAC addresses c. domain names d. port numbers

d. port numbers

Signals that can travel in only one direction on a medium are referred to as what type of signal? a. half-duplex b. full-duplex c. duplex d. simplex

d. simplex

Utilizing time slots that are adjusted according to priority and need is an example of what type of multiplexing on copper lines? a. frequency division multiplexing b. wavelength division multiplexing c. time division multiplexing d. statistical time division multiplexing

d. statistical time division multiplexing

What component of the backbone runs between a building's floors and can be used to connect an MDF and IDF or multiple IDFs? a. horizontal cross connect b. patch cable c. diagonal cabling d. vertical cross connect

d. vertical cross connect