Neuro exam

concussion

a temporary loss of neurologic function with no apparent structural damage to the brain

A client with a traumatic brain injury has already displayed early signs of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following would be considered late signs of increasing ICP?

Decerebrate posturing and loss of corneal reflex Early indications of increasing ICP include disorientation, restlessness, increased respiratory effort, mental confusion, pupillary changes, weakness on onside of the body or in one extremity, and constant, worsening headache. Later indications of increasing ICP include decreasing level of consciousness until client is comatose, decreased or erratic pulse and respiratory rate, increased blood presure and temperature, widened pulse pressure, Chenyne-Stokes breathing, projectile vomiting, heimplegia or decorticate or decerebrate posturing, and loss of brain stem reflexes (pupillary, corneal, gag, and swallowing).

Which disease is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive, involuntary dancelike movements and dementia?

Huntington disease Because it is transmitted as an autosomal dominant genetic disorder, each child of a parent with Huntington disease has a 50% risk of inheriting the illness. Multiple sclerosis is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system (CNS) characterized by the occurrence of small patches of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord. Parkinson disease is associated with decreased levels of dopamine due to destruction of pigmented neuronal cells in the substantia nigra in the basal ganglia of the brain. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rare, transmissible, progressive and fatal disease of the CNS characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain.

The nurse is caring for a patient postoperatively after intracranial surgery for the treatment of a subdural hematoma. The nurse observes an increase in the patient's blood pressure from the baseline and a decrease in the heart rate from 86 to 54. The patient has crackles in the bases of the lungs. What does the nurse suspect is occurring?

Increased ICP Increased ICP and bleeding are life threatening to the patient who has undergone intracranial surgery. An increase in blood pressure and decrease in pulse with respiratory failure may indicate increased ICP.

A client with a T4-level spinal cord injury (SCI) reports severe headache. The nurse notes profuse diaphoresis of the client's forehead and scalp and suspects autonomic dysreflexia. What is the first thing the nurse will do?

Place the client in a sitting position. The nurse immediately places the client in a sitting position to lower blood pressure. Next, the nurse will do a rapid assessment to identify and alleviate the cause, and then check the bladder and bowel. The nurse will examine skin for any places of irritation. If no cause can be found, the nurse will give an antihypertensive as ordered and continue to look for cause. He or she watches for rebound hypotension once cause is alleviated. Antiembolic stockings will not decrease the blood pressure.

The client presents to the walk-in clinic with fever, nuchal rigidity, and headache. Which of the following assessment findings would be most significant in the diagnosis of this client?

Possible exposure to mosquito bites can be beneficial in the diagnosing of encephalitis secondary to West Nile virus. Change in level of consciousness (LOC), vomiting, and seizures are all symptoms of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and do not assist in the differentiating of cause, diagnosis, or establishing nursing care

The nurse is caring for a patient with Huntington's disease in the long-term care facility. What d

Rapid, jerky, involuntary movements

A client experiences a seizure while hospitalized for appendicitis. During the postictal phase, the client is yelling and swings a closed fist at the nurse. Which is the appropriate action by the nurse?

Reorient the client while gently holding their arms.

When should the nurse plan the rehabilitation of a patient who is having an ischemic stroke?

The day the patient has the stroke

A client whose physical findings suggest a hyperpituitary condition undergoes an extensive diagnostic workup. Test results reveal a pituitary tumor, which necessitates a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. The evening before the surgery, the nurse reviews preoperative and postoperative instructions given to the client earlier. Which postoperative instruction should the nurse emphasize?

"You must avoid coughing, sneezing, and blowing your nose

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with Guillain-Barre syndrome. His spouse asks about recovery rates. The nurse can correctly relate which of the following?

Approximately 60% to 75% of clients recover completely.

A white female client is admitted to an acute care facility with a diagnosis of stroke. Her history reveals bronchial asthma, exogenous obesity, and iron-deficiency anemia. Which history finding is a risk factor for stroke?

Being obese Obesity is a risk factor for stroke. Other risk factors include a history of ischemic episodes, cardiovascular disease, diabetes mellitus, atherosclerosis of the cranial vessels, hypertension, polycythemia, smoking, hypercholesterolemia, hormonal contraceptive use, emotional stress, family history of stroke, and advancing age. The client's race, gender, and bronchial asthma aren't risk factors for stroke.

Which signs are manifestations of the Cushing triad? Select all that apply.

Bradycardia Hypertension Bradypnea

A nurse is instructing the spouse of a client who suffered a stroke about the use of eating devices the client will be using. During the teaching, the spouse starts to cry and states, "One minute he is laughing, and the next he's crying; I just don't understand what's wrong with him." Which statement is the best response by the nurse?

"Emotional lability is common after a stroke, and it usually improves with time."

A client with quadriplegia is in spinal shock. What finding should the nurse expect?

Absence of reflexes along with flaccid extremities

The nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with a severe exacerbation of myasthenia gravis. When administering medications to this client, what is a priority nursing action?

Administer medications at exact intervals ordered.The nurse must administer medications at the exact intervals ordered to maintain therapeutic blood levels and prevent symptoms from returning. Assessing the client's reaction, documenting medication and dose, and giving the client plenty of fluids are not the priority nursing action for this client.

Which term refers to the inability to perform previously learned purposeful motor acts on a voluntary basis?

Apraxia

The nurse is aware that burr holes may be used in neurosurgical procedures. Which of the following is a reason why a neurosurgeon may choose to create a burr hole in a patient?

Aspiration of a brain abscess Burr holes may be used in neurosurgical procedures to make a bone flap in the skull, to aspirate a brain abscess, or to evacuate a hematoma.

The critical care nurse is caring for a client with bacterial meningitis. The client has developed cerebral vasculitis and increased ICP. What neurologic sequelae might this client develop?

Damage to the optic nerve

The nurse is caring for a client with an inoperable brain tumor. What teaching is important for the nurse to do with these clients?

Explaining hospice care and services

The nurse is caring for a client with an inoperable brain tumor. What teaching is important for the nurse to do with these clients?

Explaining hospice care and services The nurse explains hospice care and services to clients with brain tumors that no longer are at a stage where they can be cured. Managing muscle weakness and offering family support groups are important but explaining hospice is the best answer. Optimizing nutrition at this point is not a priority.

Which term refers to the shifting of brain tissue form an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure?

Herniation

A client is receiving an IV infusion of mannitol (Osmitrol) after undergoing intracranial surgery to remove a brain tumor. To determine whether this drug is producing its therapeutic effect, the nurse should consider which finding most significant?

Increased urine output The therapeutic effect of mannitol is diuresis, which is confirmed by an increased urine output. A decreased LOC and elevated blood pressure may indicate lack of therapeutic effectiveness. A decreased heart rate doesn't indicate that mannitol is effective.

A client has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Which of the following is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client?

Ineffective airway clearance related to brain injury

Which of the following antiseizure medication has been found to be effective for post-stroke pain?

Lamotrigine (Lamictal)

A client on your unit is scheduled to have intracranial surgery in the morning. Which nursing intervention helps to avoid intraoperative complications, reduce cerebral edema, and prevent postoperative vomiting?

Restrict fluids before surgery.

Which condition occurs when blood collects between the dura mater and arachnoid membrane?

Subdural hematoma

Which condition occurs when blood collects between the dura mater and arachnoid membrane

Subdural hematoma A subdural hematoma is a collection of blood between the dura mater and the brain, a space normally occupied by a thin cushion of fluid. Intracerebral hemorrhage is bleeding in the brain or the cerebral tissue with displacement of surrounding structures. An epidural hematoma is bleeding between the inner skull and the dura, compressing the brain underneath. An extradural hematoma is another name for an epidural hematoma.

A client with increased intracranial pressure has a cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) of 40 mm Hg. How should the nurse interpret the CPP value?

The normal CPP is 70 to 100 mm Hg. A CPP of 40 mm Hg is low.

Which of the following diagnostics are beneficial to detect intracranial stenosis?

Transcranial Doppler (TCD) The transcranial Doppler is useful in detecting severe intracranial stenosis, in evaluating the carotid and vertebrobasilar vessels, in assessing patterns and extent of collateral circulation in patients with known arterial stenosis or occlusion, and in detecting microemboli. A CT, CT with contrast, and MRI would not be beneficial for this purpose.

Which of the following teaching points is a priority in the management of symptoms for a client with Bell's palsy?

Use ophthalmic lubricant and protect the eye The VII cranial nerve supplies muscles to the face. In Bell's palsy, the eye can be affected which results in incomplete closure and risk for injury. The eye can become dry and irritated unless eye moisturizing drops and ophthalmic ointment is applied. Avoiding stimuli that can trigger pain is specific to tic douloureux(cranial nerve V disorder). Encouraging dental exams is a part of care but not the priority. Antibiotics are not used in the treatment of Bell's palsybecause it is thought to be caused by a virus.

incomplete spinal cord lesion:

a condition in which there is preservation of the sensory or motor fibers, or both, below the lesion

contusion

brain is bruised and damaged in a specific area . most are usually located in the anterior portions of the frontal and temporal lobes, around the sylvian fissure, and at the orbital areasContusions can be characterized by loss of consciousness associated with stupor and confusion

A client reports light-headedness, speech disturbance, and left-sided weakness that have lasted for several hours. In the examination, an abnormal sound is auscultated in an artery leading to the brain. What is the term for the auscultated discovery?

bruit A neurologic examination during an attack reveals neurologic deficits. Auscultation of the artery may reveal a bruit (abnormal sound caused by blood flowing over a rough surface within one or both carotid arteries). The term for the auscultated discovery is "bruit."

A nurse is reading a journal article about stroke and the underlying causes associated with this condition. The nurse demonstrates understanding of the information when identifying which subtype of stroke as being due to atrial fibrillation?

cardio embolic

The parents of a client intubated due to the progression of Guillain-Barré syndrome ask whether their child will die. What is the best response by the nurse?

"There are no guarantees, but a large portion of people with Guillain-Barré syndrome survive."

A patient is admitted to the hospital for management of an extrapyramidal disorder. Included in the physician's admitting orders are the medications levodopa, benztropine, and selegiline. The nurse knows that most likely, the client has a diagnosis of:

Although antiparkinson drugs are used in some clients with Huntington's disease, these drugs are most commonly used in the medical management of Parkinson's disease

When caring for a client with a head injury, a nurse must stay alert for signs and symptoms of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which cardiovascular findings are late indicators of increased ICP?

Rising blood pressure and bradycardia

A client is receiving hypothermic treatment for uncontrolled fever related to increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Shivering Shivering can increase intracranial pressure by increasing vasoconstriction and circulating catecholamines. Shivering also increases oxygen consumption. A capillary refill of 2 seconds, urine output of 100mL/hr, and cool, dry skin are expected findings.

The nurse is working in the rehabilitative setting caring for tetraplegia and paraplegia clients. When instructing family members on the difference between the sites of impairment, which location differentiates the two disorders?

The first thoracic vertebrae Tetraplegia is the impairment of all extremities and the trunk when there is a spinal injury at or above the first thoracic vertebrae. Paraplegia is the impairment of all extremities below the first thoracic vertebrae.

autonomic dysreflexia

a life-threatening emergency in patients with spinal cord injury that causes a hypertensive emergency; also called autonomic hyperreflexia

A client who recently experienced a stroke tells the nurse that he has double vision. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

Alternatively patch one eye every 2 hours.

A client with newly diagnosed seizures asks about stigma associated with epilepsy. The nurse will respond with which of the following statements?

Many people with developmental disabilities resulting from neurologic damage also have epilepsy."

Pressure ulcers may begin within hours of an acute spinal cord injury (SCI) and may cause delay of rehabilitation, adding to the cost of hospitalization. The most effective approach is prevention. Which of the following nursing interventions will most protect the client against pressure ulcers?

Meticulous cleanliness

The nurse is discussing spinal cord injury (SCI) at a health fair at a local high school. The nurse relays that the most common cause of SCI is

Motor vehicle crashes The most common causes of SCIs are motor vehicle crashes (46%), falls (22%), violence (16%), and sports (12%). Males account for 80% of clients with SCI. An estimated 50% to 70% of SCIs occur in those aged 15 to 35 y

The nurse is caring for a postoperative client who had surgery to decrease intracranial pressure after suffering a head injury. Which assessment finding is promptly reported to the physician?

The client's vital signs are temperature, 100.9° F; heart rate, 88 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 18 breaths/minute; and blood pressure, 138/80 mm Hg. The assessment finding promptly reported to the physician is the information which may cause complications. It is important to report the elevation in client temperature (100.9° F) because hyperthermia increases brain metabolism, increasing the potential for brain damage. It is not unusual for the client to experience periorbital edema and ecchymosis secondary to the head injury and surgery. Improved level of consciousness is a positive outcome of the treatment provided. There is no complication related to semi-Fowler's position.

The school nurse notes a 6-year-old running across the playground with friends. The child stops in mid-stride, freezing for a few seconds. Then the child resumes his progress across the playground. The school nurse suspects what in this child?

An absence seizure Absence seizures, formerly referred to as petit mal seizures, are more common in children. They are characterized by a brief loss of consciousness, during which physical activity ceases. The person stares blankly; the eyelids flutter; the lips move; and slight movement of the head, arms, and legs occurs. These seizures typically last for a few seconds, and the person seldom falls to the ground. Because of their brief duration and relative lack of prominent movements, these seizures often go unnoticed. People with absence seizures can have them many times a day. Partial, or focal, seizures begin in a specific area of the cerebral cortex. A generalized seizure involves the whole brain.

The nurse reviews the physician's emergency department progress notes for the client who sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed the Battle sign. The nurse knows that the physician observed which clinical manifestation?

An area of bruising over the mastoid bone Battle sign may indicate a skull fracture. A bloodstain surrounded by a yellowish stain on the head dressing is referred to as a halo sign and is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. Escape of CSF from the client's ear is termed otorrhea. Escape of CSF from the client's nose is termed rhinorrhea.

A client is admitted to an acute care facility after an episode of status epilepticus. After the client is stabilized, which factor is most beneficial in determining the potential cause of the episode?

Compliance with the prescribed medication regimen The most common cause of status epilepticus is sudden withdraw of anticonvulsant therapy. The type of medication prescribed, the client's stress level, and weight change don't contribute to this condition.

A 24-year-old female rock climber is brought to the emergency department after a fall from the face of a rock. The young lady is admitted for observation after being diagnosed with a contusion to the brain. The client asks the nurse what having a contusion means. How should the nurse respond?

Contusions are bruising, and sometimes, hemorrhage of superficial cerebral tissue Contusions result in bruising, and sometimes, hemorrhage of superficial cerebral tissue. When the head is struck directly, the injury to the brain is called a coup injury. Dual bruising can result if the force is strong enough to send the brain ricocheting to the opposite side of the skull, which is called a contrecoup injury. Edema develops at the site of or in areas opposite to the injury. A skull fracture can accompany a contusion. Therefore options B, C, and D are incorrect.

A nurse is working in the neurologic intensive care unit and admits from the emergency department a patient with an inoperable brain tumor. Upon entering the room, the nurse observes that the patient is positioned like the person in part B of the accompanying image. Which posturing is the patient exhibiting?

Decerebrate An inappropriate or nonpurposeful response is random and aimless. Posturing may be decorticate or decerebrate. Decorticate posture is the flexion and internal rotation of forearms and hands. Decerebrate posture is extension and external rotation. Flaccidity is the absence of motor response; tonic clonic movements are seen with seizures.

When the nurse observes that the patient has extension and external rotation of the arms and wrists, and extension, plantar flexion, and internal rotation of the feet, she records the patient's posturing as which of the following?

Decerebrate Decerebrate posturing is the result of lesions at the midbrain and is more ominous than decorticate posturing. The described posturing results from cerebral trauma and is not normal. The patient has no motor function, is limp, and lacks motor tone with flaccid posturing. In decorticate posturing, the patient has flexion and internal rotation of the arms and wrists and extension, internal rotation, and plantar flexion of the feet.

A client has been diagnosed as having global aphasia. The nurse recognizes that the client will be unable to perform which action?

Form words that are understandable or comprehend spoken words. Global aphasia is a combination of expressive and receptive aphasia and presents a tremendous challenge to the nurse to effectively communicate with the client. In receptive and expressive aphasia, the client is unable to form words that are understandable. The client who is unable to speak at all is referred to as mute.

A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome cannot swallow and has a paralytic ileus; the nurse is administering parenteral nutrition intraveneously. The nurse is careful to assess which of the following related to intake of nutrients?

Gag reflex and bowel sounds Paralytic ileus may result from insufficient parasympathetic activity. The nurse may administer parenteral nutrition and IV fluids. The nurse carefully assesses for the return of the gag reflex and bowel sounds before resuming oral nurition. The other three choices are important assessment items, but not necessarily related to the intake of nutrients.

The nurse is educating a patient with a seizure disorder. What nutritional approach for seizure management would be beneficial for this patient?

High in protein and low in carbohydrate A dietary intervention, referred to as the ketogenic diet, may be helpful for control of seizures in some patients. This high-protein, low-carbohydrate, high-fat diet is most effective in children whose seizures have not been controlled with two antiseizure medications, but it is sometimes used for adults who have had poor seizure control (Mosek, Natour, Neufeld, et al., 2009).

A nurse practitioner provides health teaching to a patient who has difficulty managing hypertension. This patient is at an increased risk of which type of stroke?

Intracerebral hemorrhage.About 80% of hemorrhagic strokes are intracerebral, and they are caused primarily by uncontrolled hypertension.

Which is a contraindication for the administration of tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)?

Intracranial hemorrhage, neoplasm, and aneurysm are contraindications for t-PA. Clinical diagnosis of ischemic stroke, age 18 years or older, and a systolic blood pressure less than or equal to 185 mm Hg are eligibility criteria.

A nurse is working with a student nurse who is caring for a client with an acute bleeding cerebral aneurysm. Which action by the student nurse requires further intervention?

Keeping the client in one position to decrease bleeding.The student nurse shouldn't keep the client in one position. She should carefully reposition the client often (at least every hour). The client needs to be positioned so that a patent airway can be maintained. Fluid administration must be closely monitored to prevent complications such as increased intracranial pressure. The client must be maintained in a quiet environment to decrease the risk of rebleeding.

A nurse is preparing to administer an antiseizure medication to a client. Which of the following is an appropriate antiseizure medication?

Lamictal Lamictal is an antiseizure medication. Its packaging was recently changed in an attempt to reduce medication errors, because this medication has been confused with Lamisil (an antifungal), labetalol (an antihypertensive), and Lomotil (an antidiarrheal).

A patient who has suffered a stroke begins having complications regarding spasticity in the lower extremity. What ordered medication does the nurse administer to help alleviate this problem?

Lioresal (Baclofen)

A client with weakness and tingling in both legs is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with a tentative diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome. On admission, which assessment is most important for this client

Lung auscultation and measurement of vital capacity and tidal volume In Guillain-Barré syndrome, polyneuritis commonly causes weakness and paralysis, which may ascend to the trunk and involve the respiratory muscles. Lung auscultation and measurement of vital capacity, tidal volume, and negative inspiratory force are crucial in detecting and preventing respiratory failure — the most serious complication of polyneuritis. A peripheral nerve disorder, polyneuritis doesn't cause increased ICP. Although the nurse must evaluate the client for pain and

A client with tetraplegia cannot do his own skin care. The nurse is teaching the caregiver about the importance of maintaining skin integrity. Which of the following will the nurse most encourage the caregiver to do?

Maintain a diet for the client that is high in protein, vitamins, and calories. To maintain healthy skin, the following interventions are necessary: regularly relieve pressure, protect from injury, keep clean and dry, avoid wrinkles in the bed, and maintain a diet high in protein, vitamins, and calories to ensure minimal wasting of muscles and healthy skin.

Which is the initial diagnostic test for a stroke?

Noncontrast computed tomography The initial diagnostic test for a stroke is nonconstrast computed tomography performed emergently to determine whether the event is ischemic or hemorrhagic. Further diagnostics include a carotid Doppler, electrocardiogram, and transcranial Doppler.

Which of the following tests confirms the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis (MG)?

Tensilon test Edrophonium chloride (Tensilon) is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that stops the breakdown of acetylcholine. The drug is used because it has a rapid onset of 30 seconds and a short duration of 5 minutes. Immediate improvement in muscle strength after administration of this agent represents a positive test and usually confirms the diagnosis. The presence of acetylcholine receptor antibodies is identified in serum. Repetitive nerve stimulation demonstrates a decrease in successive action potentials. The thymus gland may be enlarged in MG, and a T scan of the mediastinum is performed to detect thymoma or hyperplasia of the thymus.

While snowboarding, a fell and sustained a blow to the head, resulting in a loss of consciousness. The client regained consciousness within an hour after arrival at the ED, was admitted for 24-hour observation, and was discharged without neurologic impairment. What would the nurse expect this client's diagnosis to be?

concussion A concussion results from a blow to the head that jars the brain. It usually is a consequence of falling, striking the head against a hard surface such as a windshield, colliding with another person (e.g., between athletes), battering during boxing, or being a victim of violence. The force of the blow causes temporary neurologic impairment but no serious damage to cerebral tissue. There is generally complete recovery within a short time.

When the nurse observes that the client has extension and external rotation of the arms and wrists and extension, plantar flexion, and internal rotation of the feet, she records the client's posture as

decerebrate. Decerebrate posturing is the result of lesions at the midbrain and is more ominous than decorticate posturing. The described posturing results from cerebral trauma and is not normal. The client has no motor function, is limp, and lacks motor tone with flaccid posturing. In decorticate posturing the client has flexion and internal rotation of the arms and wrists and extension, internal rotation, and plantar flexion of the feet.

A client's spouse relates how the client reported a severe headache and then was unable to talk or move their right arm and leg. After diagnostics are completed and the client is admitted to the hospital, when would basic rehabilitation begin?

immediately

To meet the sensory needs of a client with viral meningitis, the nurse should:

minimize exposure to bright lights and noise.

paraplegia

paralysis of the lower extremities with dysfunction of the bowel and bladder from a lesion in the thoracic, lumbar, or sacral region of the spinal cord

A client who has been severely beaten is admitted to the emergency department. The nurse suspects a basilar skull fracture after assessing:

raccoon's eyes and Battle sign.

The nurse is caring for a client immediately after supratentorial intracranial surgery. The nurse performs the appropriate action by placing the patient in the

supine position with the head slightly elevated

When communicating with a client who has sensory (receptive) aphasia, the nurse should:

use short, simple sentences. Although sensory aphasia allows the client to hear words, it impairs the ability to comprehend their meaning. The nurse should use short, simple sentences to promote comprehension. Allowing time for the client to respond might be helpful but is less important than simplifying the communication. Because the client's hearing isn't affected, speaking loudly isn't necessary. A writing pad is helpful for clients with expressive, not receptive, aphasia.

tetraplegia

varying degrees of paralysis of both arms and legs, with dysfunction of bowel and bladder from a lesion of the cervical segments of the spinal cord; formerly called quadriplegia