NSG 252 Test 4 Questions

A nurse is caring for a client who reports heart palpitations. An ECG confirms the client is experiencing ventricular tachycardia (VT). The nurse should anticipate the need for taking which of the following actions? Defibrillation CPR Radiofrequency catheter ablation Elective cardioversion

Elective cardioversion

A nurse is caring for a patient in hypovolemic shock. Which is the priority action by the nurse? Administer antihistamines. Apply oxygen as needed per respirations. Ensure adequate oxygenation. Administer morphine.

Ensure adequate oxygenation.

A newborn is diagnosed with early hypovolemic shock. Which clinical manifestation indicates the shock is progressing? Acrocyanosis Respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min Heart rate of 140 beats/min Hypotension

Hypotension

True or False: A hallmark finding in a Second-Degree type I (Mobitz I or Wenckebach) heart block is that the PR interval will remain constant throughout the rhythm but there will be a dropped QRS complex after a p wave.

false

True or False: Atrial septal defects are characterized by a hole in the interatrial septum that allows blood to mix in the right and left atria, which are the lower chambers of the heart.*

false

True or False: Atrial septal defects can lead to a decrease in lung blood flow.*

false

True or False: Atropine is the first-line treatment to help control the rate in a patient with atrial flutter.

false

True or False: The parasympathetic nervous system loses the ability to stimulate nerve impulses in patients who are experiencing neurogenic shock. This leads to hemodynamic changes.*

false

TRUE or FALSE: Torsades de pointes is known as a type of monomorphic ventricular tachycardia.

false (polymorphic)

chaotic always refers to

fibrillation

Blunt chest trauma--type of shock

obstructive shock

which type of defect? Coarctation of the aorta

obstructs systemic blood flow

which type of defect? aortic stenosis

obstructs systemic blood flow

which type of defect? hypoplastic left heart syndrome

obstructs systemic blood flow

A PR of 0.16, QRS of 0.04, rate of 58

sinus bradycardia

Rules for this rhythm: Rate - < 60/minute Rhythm - regular P waves - present; 1 per QRS PRI - 0.12 - 0.20 QRS - narrow - 0.04 - 0.10

sinus bradycardia

Which rate gives the following symptoms? change in LOC, pale & cool skin, difficulty breathing, chest pain, hypotension

sinus bradycardia

Rules for this rhythm: Rate - 60 - 100/minute Rhythm - regular P waves - present; 1 per QRS PRI - 0.12 - 0.20 QRS - narrow - 0.04 - 0.10

sinus rhythm

Rules for this rhythm: Rate - > 100 but usually < 160 Rhythm - regular P waves - present; 1 per QRS PRI - 0.12 -0.20 QRS - narrow - 0.04 -0.10

sinus tachycardia

heart block longer, longer, longer drop....

then you have a Wenckebach

heart block if the R is far from the P...

then you have a first degree

heart block if some Ps don't get through...

then you have a mobitz II

heart block If Ps and Qs don't agree...

then you have a third degree

ST segment represents

time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization (contraction and relaxation)

treatment for sinus tachycardia

treat underlying cause (pain, hypovolemia, hypoxia, fever, anxiety, heart failure)

In 1st degree AV heart block, the p-waves are always accompanied by the QRS complex. T/F

true

In 3rd degree heart block, the SA node generates impulses but those impulses do not go to the ventricles. Therefore, the atrial and ventricles are independent. T/F

true

P-waves are absent in atrial flutter. T/F

true

TRUE or FALSE: A small muscular ventricular septal defect has a high probability of self-closure, and these types of VSDs are found in the lower portion of the ventricular septum.*

true

TRUE or FALSE: Both the atrial and ventricular rate is the same for Normal Sinus Rhythm.

true

TRUE or FALSE: Ventricular fibrillation (V-fib) is a lethal rhythm that results in the quivering of the ventricles which leads to a rapid fall in cardiac output.

true

The hallmark of atrial flutter are "saw-tooth" waves, sometimes called F-waves. T/F

true

True or False: If a patient has been in atrial fibrillation for more than 48 hours, anticoagulation is needed prior to a cardioversion due to blood clot risks.

true

True or False: In a First-Degree Heart Block, the atrial rhythm is regular and the QRS complex will measure less than 0.12 seconds.

true

True or False: In a normal heart without any type of congenital heart defect, the pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood away from the lungs to the left side of the heart.*

true

True or False: Treatment for unstable atrial flutter is synchronized cardioversion.

true

Which two rhythms require immediate defibrillation?

v-fib pulseless v-tach

first treatment for SVT

vagal/valsava maneuver, blow through a straw

T wave represents

ventricle relaxing (repolarization)

TP interval represents

ventricle relaxing and filling

QRS depolarization always refers to _______

ventricular

Rules for this rhythm: Rate - cannot be determined; ventricles "quiver" Rhythm - completely chaotic P waves - cannot be seen PRI - cannot be measured QRS - cannot be measured

ventricular fibrillation

chaotic QRS complexes =

ventricular fibrillation

the following is a symptom of which rhythm? Patient is pulseless - in cardiac arrest

ventricular fibrillation

Rules for this rhythm: Rate - > 100/minute Rhythm - regular P waves - cannot be seen PRI - cannot be measured QRS - wide; > 0.12

ventricular tachycardia

bizarre QRS complexes -

ventricular tachycardia

the following are symptoms of which cardiac dysrhythmia: Three possibilities: 1. Patient is asymptomatic or only mild symptoms 2. Patient is symptomatic with signs of decreased cardiac output 3. Patient is pulseless - in cardiac arrest

ventricular tachycardia

Your patient's ECG shows atrial flutter. What complication can arise from this type of rhythm? A. Pericarditis B. Stroke C. Hypoglycemia D. Endocarditis

stroke

Rules for this rhythm: Rate - > 160/minute Rhythm - regular P waves - cannot be seen PRI - cannot be measured QRS - narrow - 0.04 - 0.10

supraventricular tachycardia

bizarre always refers to

tachycardia

While helping a patient with a chest tube reposition in the bed, the chest tube becomes dislodged. What is your immediate nursing intervention? Notify the health-care provider to have chest tubes reinserted STAT. Stay with the patient and monitor their vital signs while another nurse notifies the physician. Instruct the client to take slow shallow breaths until the tube is reinserted. Tape a petroleum jelly occlusive dressing on three (3) sides to the insertion site.

tape a petroleum jelly occlusive dressing on three (3) sides to the insertion site

MAP has decreased 12mmHg, which stage of shock are they in?

compensatory/nonprogressive

The nurse is providing care to a client diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which clinical manifestations are the direct result of altered perfusion? Select all that apply. wheezing cyanosis bounding pulse confusion pink nail beds

cyanosis wheezing

The implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) treats bradydysrhythmias. True False

false

A nurse is providing teaching to a client about interventions to reduce the risk of developing cardiovascular disease. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate to the nurse the need for further teaching? "Increasing my intake of foods containing trans-fatty acids can lower my risk." "Adding foods containing omega-3 fatty acids to my diet can lower my risk." "A weight loss program can decrease my LDL cholesterol level." "Exercising regularly will increase HDL cholesterol levels."

"Increasing my intake of foods containing trans-fatty acids can lower my risk."

The nurse is evaluating the teaching provided to the family of a patient experiencing shock. Which statement by a family member requires follow-up? "We plan to provide ice chips for our family member." "The other nurse gave us information about temporary housing and meals for the family." "Seven family members are planning to visit to watch the football game." "We would appreciate information about pastoral care."

"Seven family members are planning to visit to watch the football game."

The nurse understands that a patient with cardiogenic shock is prone to alterations of gastrointestinal (GI) function. Which statement by the nurse demonstrates accurate understanding? "Respiratory acidosis occurs due to inability to remove lactic acid." "Metabolic alkalosis occurs due to inability to remove lactic acid." "Shock increases gastric motility." "Shock decreases gastric motility."

"Shock decreases gastric motility."

The nurse understands that a patient with cardiogenic shock is prone to alterations of gastrointestinal (GI) function. Which statement by the nurse demonstrates accurate understanding? "Metabolic alkalosis occurs due to inability to remove lactic acid." "Respiratory acidosis occurs due to inability to remove lactic acid." "Shock increases gastric motility." "Shock decreases gastric motility."

"Shock decreases gastric motility."

A new graduate nurse is providing education to a patient who has been newly diagnosed with Parkinson's Disease. Which patient statement would indicate a need for additional teaching? "Taking levodopa as directed by my doctor will cure this disease" "The symptoms I am experiencing are because of low levels of dopamine" "I should report any sudden worsening of my symptoms to my doctor" "Feeling like my muscles are rigid with movement can be associated with this disease"

"Taking levodopa as directed by my doctor will cure this disease"

A nurse is teaching the partner of a client who had an acute myocardial infarction (MI) about the reason blood was drawn from the client. Which of the following statements should the nurse make regarding cardiac enzymes studies? "Cardiac enzymes assist in diagnosing the presence of pulmonary congestion." "Cardiac enzymes will identify the location of the MI." "These tests help determine the degree of damage to the heart tissues." "These tests will enable the provider to determine the heart structure and mobility of the heart valves."

"These tests help determine the degree of damage to the heart tissues."

normal PR interval

0.12-0.20 seconds

The nurse is caring for a patient in hypovolemic shock. Which fluid order should the nurse question? 0.45% NaCl Hetastarch Lactated Ringer Packed red blood cells

0.45% NaCl

treatment for ventricular tachycardia

1. Asymptomatic or mild Sx: Amiodarone 150 mg IV over 10 minutes 2. Symptomatic with serious signs and Sx: synchronized cardioversion 3. Pulseless: CPR until defibrillator or AED available - then defibrillation - resume CPR - search for treatable cause. See asystole. Epinephrine is first drug given in cardiac arrest.

The nurse is caring for a client being evaluated for atrial fibrillation. Which medical condition should the nurse inquire about during the health history interview with the​ client? (Select all that​ apply.) A. ​Long-standing hypertension B. Cor pulmonale C. Hyperthyroidism D. Heart failure E. Mitral valve prolapse

A C D

A 1-day-old infant is ordered an echocardiogram due to abnormal signs and symptoms related to a congenital heart defect. The echo confirms that truncus arteriosus is present. What signs and symptoms may present in this congenital heart defect? Select all that apply:* A. Cyanosis B. Machinery-like murmur C. Poor feeding D. Inability to gain weight E. Hypercyanotic spells F. Clubbing of fingers

A C D

normal QRS interval

< 0.11

normal QT interval

< 0.40 seconds

Needed MAP for perfusion

>60

A cardiac nurse educator is reviewing the use of the fixed rate mode pacemaker with a group of newly hired nurses. Which of the following statements by a newly hired nurse indicates understanding of the review? A. "This means the pacemaker fires in asynchronous pattern." B. "This means the pacemaker fires only when the heart rate is below a certain rate." C. "The pacemaker can automatically adjust to a client's increased activity level." D. "The pacemaker activity is triggered by heart muscle activity."

A

A family member, who is caring for a 2-year-old with Tetralogy of Fallot, asks you why the child will periodically squat when playing with other children. Your response is:* A. "Squatting helps to increase systemic vascular resistance, which will decrease the right to left shunt that is occurring in the ventricles and this helps increase oxygen levels." B. "Squatting helps to decrease systemic vascular resistance, which will decrease the left to right shunt that is occurring in the ventricles and this helps increase oxygen levels." C. "Squatting helps to decrease systemic vascular resistance, which will increase the right to left shunt that is occurring in the ventricles and this helps increase oxygen levels." D. "Squatting helps to normalize systemic vascular resistance, which will increase the left to right shunt that is occurring in the ventricles and this helps increase oxygen levels."

A

A nurse is admitting a child who has a urinary tract infection and history of myelomeningocele. After completing the admission history, which of the following actions should the plan to take? A. Attach a latex allergy alert identification band B. Initiate contact precaution C. Post signs in the client's bathroom to strain the client's urine D. Administer folic acid with meals

A

A nurse is caring for a client who experienced a cervical spine injury 3 months ago. The nurse should plan to implement which of the following types of bladder management methods? A. Condom catheter B. Intermittent urinary catheterization C. Crede's method D. Indwelling urinary catheter

A

A nurse is caring for a client who has a demand pacemaker inserted with the rate set at 72/min. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Telemetry monitoring shows QRS complexes occurring at a rate of 74/min with no pacing spikes B. The client is experiencing premature ventricular complexes at 12/min C. Telemetry monitoring shows pacing spikes with no QRS complexes D. The client is experiencing hiccups

A

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for an afterload-reducing medication. The nurse should identify that this medication is administered for which of the following types of shock? A. Cardiogenic B. Obstructive C. Hypovolemic D. Distributive

A

A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and whose telemetry reading displays flattening of the T wave. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse anticipate as the cause of this ECG change? A. Potassium 2.8mEq/L B. Digoxin level 0.7ng/mL C. Hemoglobin 9.8g/dL D. Calcium 8.0 mg

A

A nurse is caring for a client who received IV verapamil to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The client's pulse rate is now 98/min and the blood pressure is 74/44mmHg. The nurse should expect a prescription for which of the following IV medications? A. Calcium gluconate B. Sodium bicarbonate C. Potassium chloride D. Magnesium sulfate

A

A nurse is completing discharge teaching with a client who has a permanent pacemaker. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching? A. "I will notify the airport screeners about my pacemaker." B. "I will expect to have occasional hiccups." C. "I will have to disconnect my garage door opener." D. "I will take my pulse every 2-3 days."

A

A nurse is examining the ECG of a client who has hyperkalemia. Which of the following ECG changes should the nurse expect? A. Elevated ST segments B. Absent P waves C. Depressed ST segments D. Varying PP intervals

A

A nurse is planning care for a client who has a spinal cord injury involving a T12 fracture 1 week ago. The client has no muscle control of the lower limbs, bowel, or bladder. Which of the following should be the nurse's highest priority? A. Prevention of further damage to the spinal cord B. Prevention of contractures of the lower extremities C. Prevent of skin breakdown of areas that lack sensation D. Prevention of postural hypotension when placing the client in a wheelchair

A

A nurse is providing teaching about degenerative complications to the partner of a client who has a new diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. Which of the following manifestations is the priority? A. Dysphagia B. Emotional lability C. Impaired speech D. Self-care dependency

A

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has Parkinson's disease and has a new prescription for bromocriptine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. Rise slowly when standing B. Expect urine to become dark-colored C. Avoid foods containing tyramine D. Report any skin discoloration

A

A nurse is teaching about levodopa with a family member of a client who has Parkinson's disease. Which of the following pieces of information should the nurse include? A. " A full therapeutic response may take several months to happen." B. "The medication should be taken with high-protein foods." C. "A full therapeutic response might cause vivid dreams." D. "The medication is given at the onset of mild symptoms."

A

A nurse on a telemetry unit is caring for a client who has an irregular radial pulse. Which of the following ECG abnormalities should the nurse recognize as normal sinus rhythm? A. P Waves occurring at 0.16 seconds before each QRS complex B. Atrial rate of 300/min with QRS complex of 80/min C. Ventricular rate of 82/min with an atrial rate of 80/min D. An irregular ventricular rate of 125/min with a wide QRS pattern

A

After speaking with the mother of the infant in the previous question, who may have a ventricular septal defect, you auscultate heart sounds. If a ventricular septal defect was present, you may hear a harsh murmur that is _______________________.* A. Located at the lower left sternal border and starts at S1 and extends into S2. B. Located at the upper left sternal border and is continuous during systole. C. Located at the lower left sternal border and is continuous machine-like. D. Located at the upper left sternal border and is only heard during diastole.

A

An echocardiogram shows that your patient has an atrial septal defect located at the bottom of the septum near the tricuspid and mitral valves. As the nurse you know this is what type of atrial septal defect (ASD)?* A. Ostium Primum B. Ostium Secundum C. Sinus Venosus D. Coronary Sinus

A

An older adult client has been admitted to the hospital for treatment of symptomatic bradydysrhythmias. Which collaborative therapy should the nurse​ anticipate? A. Pacemaker therapy B. Ablation therapy C. Percutaneous angioplasty D. Open heart surgery

A

As the nurse you know that some patients who have coarctation of the aorta will develop collateral circulation of the arteries due to the abnormality on the aorta. Which option below indicates a patient is experiencing collateral circulation?* A. Chest x-ray that demonstrates notching on the ribs B. A harsh diastolic murmur on inspiration at the 2nd intercostal border C. Ejection fraction of 12% on an echocardiogram D. Chest x-ray that demonstrates cardiomegaly

A

The nurse is caring for a client with a​ first-degree AV block. Which clinical manifestation and history finding support this​ diagnosis? A. Normal pulse with normal blood pressure with no identified risk factors in healthy individuals B. ​Rapid, weak pulse with low blood pressure and a history of rheumatic heart disease C. Rapid​ pulse, low blood​ pressure, decreased urinary​ output, and a history of thyrotoxicosis D. Irregular pulse with decreased blood pressure and a history of chronic use of digoxin

A

The nurse is caring for a family with an infant with severe tetralogy of​ Fallot, which is impacting the​ family's ability to function. Which is the best nursing diagnosis to address this​ concern? A. Family​ Processes, Interrupted B. ​Infection, Risk for C. Caregiver Role Strain D. Activity Intolerance

A

The nurse is discussing pharmacologic therapies that suppress dysrhythmia formation with colleagues. Which information would be accurate for the nurse to include regarding the function of fast sodium channel​ blockers? A. Slow impulse conduction in the atria and ventricles B. Delay repolarization and prolong the relative refractory period C. Decrease SA node automaticity D. Decrease vagal tone and increase heart rate

A

The nurse is preparing to administer prostaglandin E Subscript 1 to an infant with transposition of the great arteries. How should the nurse explain the purpose of this medication to the​ parents? A. ​"Prostaglandin E Subscript 1 is used to help the baby get more oxygenated​ blood." B. ​"Prostaglandin E Subscript 1 is used to repair the ductus​ arteriosus." C. ​"Prostaglandin E Subscript 1 is used to help improve systemic​ vasodilatation." D. ​"Prostaglandin E Subscript 1 is used to lessen the effects of​ apnea."

A

The nurse is providing home care instructions to the mother of an infant suspected of having dysrhythmias. Which intervention should the nurse teach the mother for effective​ care? A. How to use the cardiorespiratory monitor and pulse oximetry B. How to recognize when her child is stressed C. How to take her​ child's temperature D. How to feed her child when the child is having a difficult time feeding

A

The nurse is teaching parents how to care for their infant who has a congenital heart defect. Which statement by the parents indicates effective​ teaching? A. ​"We will report all episodes of vomiting or​ diarrhea." B. ​"We will feed the baby formula because that is​ safest." C. ​"We will avoid live virus​ vaccinations." D. ​"We will avoid feeding our baby for too long at a​ time."

A

The nurse notes regular sinus rhythm on the cardiac monitor. The nurse does a pulse check and a pulse is present. What next action by the nurse is most appropriate? A. Continue to monitor B. Prepare for the administration of Atropine C. Start chest compressions D. Activate the emergency response system

A

The nursing assessment of a newborn reveals​ cyanosis, a continuous murmur over the pulmonic​ area, and a harsh systolic murmur in the tricuspid area. Which condition should the nurse​ suspect? A. Pulmonary atresia B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Aortic stenosis D. Ventricular septal defect

A

What is the BEST position for a patient experiencing autonomic dysreflexia?* A. High Fowler's with legs lowered B. Low Fowler's with legs lowered C. Semi-Fowler's with legs at heart level D. Prone

A

When a heart muscle cell goes back into its negatively charged state, or in other words, when it relaxes this is known as? A. Repolarization B. Polarization C. Depolarization

A

When heart muscle cells are in the resting state they have what type of charge? A. Negative B. Positive C. Neutral D. Depolarized

A

Which assessment finding should the nurse expect for a toddler experiencing​ hypercyanosis? A. Squatting B. Increased PaO Subscript 2 C. Calm nature D. Bradycardia

A

Which part of the PQRST complex represents atrial depolarization? A. P-wave B. QRS complex C. T-wave D. ST segment

A

You're providing an in-service to a group of new nurses who will be caring for patients who have Tetralogy of Fallot. Which statement below is INCORRECT concerning how the blood normally flows through the heart?* A. Unoxygenated blood enters through the superior and inferior vena cava and travels to the left atrium. B. The pulmonic valve receives blood from the right ventricle and allows blood to flow to the lungs via the pulmonary artery. C. The left atrium allows blood to flow down through the bicuspid valve (mitral) into the left ventricle. D. Oxygenated blood leaves the left ventricle and flows up through the aortic valve and aorta to be pumped to the rest of the body.

A

A nurse is planning care for a client who has PICC line in the right arm. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include? SATA A. Use a 10mL syringe to flush the PICC line B. Apply gentle force is resistance is met during injection C. Cleanse ports with alcohol for 15 seconds prior to use D. Maintain a transparent dressing over the insertion site E. Flush with 10mL heparin before and after medication administration

A C D

A nurse is caring for a client following peripheral bypass graft surgery of the left lower extremity. Which of the following findings pose an immediate concern? SATA A. Trace of bloody drainage on dressing B. Capillary refill of affected limb of 6 seconds C. Mottled appearance of the limb D. Throbbing pain of affected limb that is decreased following IV bolus analgesic E. Pulse of 2+ in the affected limb

A B

As the nurse you know which statements below are correct about the ductus arteriosus? Select all that apply:* A. "The ductus arteriosus is a structure that should be present in all babies in utero." B. "The ductus arteriosus normally closes about 3 days after birth or sooner." C. "The purpose of the ductus arteriosus is to help carry blood that is entering the left side of the heart to the rest of the body, hence bypassing the lungs." D. "The ductus arteriosus connects the aorta to the pulmonary vein."

A B

When the body is attempting to compensate for shock the adrenal cortex will release aldosterone due to the presence of angiotensin II. Select all the effects aldosterone will have on the body in attempt to increase cardiac output and maintain tissue perfusion:* A. Increase blood volume B. Causes the kidneys to keep sodium and water C. Causes the kidneys to excrete sodium and water D. Cause the urine to have a low osmolality

A B

A nurse educator is reviewing the use of cardiopulmonary bypass during surgery for CABG grafting with a group of nurses. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the discussion? SATA A. "The client's demand for oxygen is lowered." B. "Motion of the heart ceases." C. "Rewarming of the client takes place." D. "The client's metabolic rates is increased." E. "Blood flow to the heart is stopped."

A B C

After admitting a child with an atrial septal defect, you start developing a nursing care plan. What nursing diagnoses can you include in the patient's plan of care based on the complications that arise from this condition? Select all that apply:* A. Activity Intolerance B. Risk for Infection C. Decrease Cardiac Output D. Excess Fluid Volume E. Risk for Aspiration

A B C D

The nurse is creating a plan of care for a hospitalized client with a temporary pacemaker. Which safety precaution should the nurse​ include? (Select all that​ apply.) A. Wearing gloves when handling the pacemaker electrodes or wires B. Testing the pacemaker battery before use C. Insulating the pacemaker terminals and pacing wires with​ nonconductive, moisture-proof material D. Keeping the client NPO in case of an emergency E. Ensuring that all electrical equipment in use has a grounded plug

A B C E

What are possible causes of Sinus Tachycardia? Select all that apply: A. Exercise B. Atropine C. Pain D. Sick Sinus Syndrome E. Cardiogenic shock F. Hypothyroidism

A B C E

You're providing education to the parents of a child who has a patent ductus arteriosus. The parents want to know the complications of this condition. In your education, you will include which of the following complications of PDA? Select all that apply:* A. Heart failure B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Recurrent lung infections D. Clubbing of the fingernails E. Endocarditis F. Pulmonary stenosis

A B C E

A nurse is caring for a client who is wearing a halo fixator. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement? SATA A. Monitor the client's vital signs every 4 hr B. Monitor the client's pin sites for loosening C. Hold the halo device when turning the client D. Check the client's skin to ensure the jacket is not applying pressure E. Adjust the screws holding the client's halo device in place to ensure a proper fit

A B D

As the nurse you know which statements are TRUE about Tetralogy of Fallot? Select all that apply:* A. "Tetralogy of Fallot is a cyanotic heart defect." B. "In this condition the heart has to work harder to pump blood to the lungs, which cause the right ventricle to work harder and enlarge." C. "Tetralogy of Fallot is treated with only palliative surgery." D. "Many patients with this condition will experience clubbing of the nails."

A B D

The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who​ smokes, has​ hypertension, and is obese. Which recommendation should the nurse include in the teaching to reduce the risk for further dysrhythmias and sudden cardiac​ death? (Select all that​ apply.) A. Daily monitoring of pulse and rhythm B. ​Heart-healthy diet C. Postdischarge chest​ x-ray D. Exercise E. ​Smoking-cessation class

A B D E

Referring back to the previous question (6), Atropine was ineffective for treating the bradycardia. The patient is still symptomatic with a rate 35 bpm. What other options could be considered for the patient? Select all that apply: A. Transcutaneous pacing B. Amiodarone Infusion C. Dopamine Infusion D. Epinephrine Infusion

A C D

Your patient reports they do not feel well and feels very weak. You assess the patient's vital signs. The patient's blood pressure is 78/52 and heart rate is irregular and weak. The patient appears clammy and pale. You note a Second-Degree type I heart block on the ECG. What steps should the nurse take? Select all that apply: A. Activate the emergency response system B. Prepare Atropine C. Prepare for Synchronized Conversion D. Prepare temporary pacing pads and monitor E. Assess patient's current medications F. Start chest compressions

A B D E

A nurse is assessing an infant who has coarctation of the aorta. which of the following findings should the nurse expect? SATA a. Weak femoral pulses B. Cool skin of lower extremities C. Severe cyanosis D. Clubbing of the fingers E. Low blood pressure

A B E

A nurse is caring for a client who experienced defibrillation. Which of the following should be included in the documentation of this procedure? SATA A. Follow-up ECG B. Energy settings used C. IV fluid intake D. Urinary output E. Skin condition under electrodes

A B E

Select below all the causes of a Third-Degree Heart block: A. Congenital heart disease B. Digoxin Toxicity C. Blood Glucose 50 mg/dL D. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L E. Heart valve damage

A B E

The nurse assesses that a client continues to have premature atrial contractions​ (PACs). Which action should the nurse take based on this​ finding? (Select all that​ apply.) A. Instructing the client to limit their caffeine intake B. Instructing the client in​ deep-breathing exercises to reduce stress C. Preparing the client for a chest​ x-ray D. Notifying the healthcare provider that the client continues to have PACs E. Stressing to the client the importance of smoking cessation

A B E

A newborn has severe coarctation of the aorta. What signs and symptoms would you expect to find in this patient? Select all that apply:* A. Very strong bounding pulses in the upper extremities B. Cool legs and feet C. Machine-like murmur only on systole D. Tet spells with activity E. Severe cyanosis F. Absent/diminished femoral pulses

A B F

A nurse at a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory test results for a group of clients. The nurse should identify that which of the following results indicates the client is at risk for heart disease? SATA A. Cholesterol 245mg/dL B. HDL 90mg/dL C. LDL 140mg/dL D. Triglycerides 125mg/dL E. Troponin I 0.02ng/mL

A C

A nurse is caring for a client following the insertion of a temporary venous pacemaker via the femoral artery that is set as a VVI pacemaker rate of 70/min. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? SATA A. Cool and clammy foot with capillary refill of 5 seconds B. Observed pacing spike followed by QRS complex C. Persistent hiccups D. Heart rate 84/min E. Blood pressure 104/62 mmHg

A C

A nurse is completing discharge teaching with a client following placement of an ICD. Which of the following information should the nurse include? SATA A. Avoid large magnetic fields B. Caution family members that they can receive harmful shocks from the ICD C. Take body temperature at the same time each day D. Wear tight clothing to hold the device in place E. Perform arm stretching exercises to strengthen muscles surrounding the ICD

A C

Which statements below best described a transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) used in the treatment of atrial fibrillation? Select all that apply: A. It can be performed before a cardioversion to assess for blood clots in the heart. B. This procedure destroys electrical pathways in the heart to help return a patient's heart rhythm to normal. C. During this procedure, an ultrasound probe is inserted in the patient's mouth down through the esophagus where it takes ultrasound pictures of the heart. D. During the procedure, a transducer is placed on the chest that sends ultrasound waves through the skin so pictures can be obtained of the heart's blood flow.

A C

You're teaching a class to a group of parents about congenital heart defects. During the class discussion, you ask the group to describe the surgical repair for truncus arteriosus. Select all the TRUE statements by the group members about this surgical repair:* A. "During the surgery the pulmonary arteries are separated from the truncus arteriosus and connected to the right ventricle using a valved conduit." B. "This surgery is done within the first 2-3 months of life." C. "Some patients may need another surgical repair later on because of narrowing of the conduit that may occur or they may outgrow it." D. "During the surgery the aorta is separated from the truncus arteriosus and connected to the left ventricle using a valved conduit."

A C

Once electrical signals pass through the Bundle of His, they next travel to A. AV node B. Bundle branches C. SA node D. Purkinje Fibers

B

The nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with torsade de pointes. Which information should the nurse anticipate finding in the​ client's admission​ history? (Select all that​ apply.) A. Currently being on a liquid protein diet B. Massive cardiac muscle damage C. Taking prescribed diuretics D. Experiencing starvation E. Overdosing on cardiac medication

A C D

You're developing a nursing plan of care for a patient with neurogenic shock. As the nurse, you know that due to venous blood pooling from vasodilation a deep vein thrombosis can occur in this type of shock. A patient goal is that the patient will be free from the development of a deep vein thrombosis. Select all the nursing interventions below that can help the patient meet this goal:* A. Perform range of motion exercises daily. B. Place a pillow underneath the patient knees as needed. C. Administer anticoagulants as scheduled per physician's order. D. Apply compression stockings daily.

A C D

A nurse is caring for a group of clients on a medical-surgical unity. Which of the following disorders should the nurse identify as increasing the client's metabolic needs? SATA A. COPD B. Hypothyroidism C. Cancer D. Parkinson's disease E. Major burns

A C D E

The nurse is teaching the parents of a newborn about cardiac defects associated with tetralogy of Fallot. Which information should the nurse​ include? (Select all that​ apply.) A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Pulmonary atresia C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Ventricular septal defect E. Overriding aorta

A C D E

The nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parents of a child with dysrhythmias. Which skill should be​ included? (Select all that​ apply.) A. How to perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation​ (CPR) B. How to perform carotid massage C. How to use Valsalva maneuver D. How to cardiovert E. How to take the​ child's apical pulse

A C E

In neurogenic shock, a patient will experience a decrease in tissue perfusion. This deprives the cells of oxygen that make up the tissues and organs. Select all the mechanisms, in regards to pathophysiology, of why this is occurring:* A. Loss of vasomotor tone B. Increase systemic vascular resistance C. Decrease in cardiac preload D. Increase in cardiac afterload E. Decrease in venous blood return to the heart F. Venous blood pooling in the extremities

A C E F

A patient is receiving treatment for a complete spinal cord injury at T4. As the nurse you know to educate the patient on the signs and symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia What signs and symptoms will you educate the patient about? Select all that apply:* A. Headache B. Low blood glucose C. Sweating D. Flushed below site of injury E. Pale and cool above site of injury F. Hypertension G. Slow heart rate H. Stuffy nose

A C F G H

A 4-month-old is scheduled to take Digoxin for treatment of a ventricular septal defect. The patient's apical pulse is 89 beats per minute. As the nurse you will? Select all that apply:* A. Hold the dose B. Recheck the pulse via the brachial artery C. Administer the dose as scheduled D. Notify the physician

A D

Select all the characteristics a normal p-wave should have? A. One p-wave should accompany a QRS complex. B. They should measure more than 0.36 seconds in duration. C. P-waves should be flat. D. P-waves should be round and upright. E. Multiple p-waves can accompany a QRS complex.

A D

Select all the true statements about the aorta:* A. "The ascending aorta branches off to supply the coronary arteries of the heart." B. "It's the third largest artery in the body." C. "The aorta comes off the right ventricle and supplies oxygenated blood to the body." D. "The aortic arch branches off to supply the head, neck, and upper extremities."

A D

A nurse on a cardiac unit is caring for a group of clients. The nurse should recognize which of the following clients as being at risk for the development of a dysrhythmia? SATA A. A client who has metabolic alkalosis B. A client who has a blood potassium level of 4.3mEq/L C. A client who has an SaO2 of 96% D. A client who has COPD E. A client who underwent stent placement in a coronary artery

A D E

The nurse is caring for an older adult client experiencing​ syncope, generalized​ weakness, and dyspnea. Which dysrhythmia should the nurse suspect the client is​ experiencing? (Select all that​ apply.) A. Mobitz II​ second-degree AV block B. Sinus arrhythmia C. ​First-degree AV block D. Mobitz I​ second-degree AV block E. ​Third-degree AV block

A D E

You receive a patient in the ER who has sustained a cervical spinal cord injury. You know this patient is at risk for neurogenic shock. What hallmark signs and symptoms, if experienced by this patient, would indicate the patient is experiencing neurogenic shock? Select all that apply:* A. Blood pressure 69/38 B. Heart rate 170 bpm C. Blood pressure 250/120 D. Heart rate 29 E. Warm and dry extremities F. Cool and clammy extremities G. Temperature 104.9 'F H. Temperature 95 'F

A D E H

What are potential causes of a Second-Degree Type I (Mobitz I or Wenckebach) Heart Block? Select all that apply: A. An anterior wall myocardial infarction B. Calcium channel blockers C. Rheumatic fever D. Beta Blockers

B C D

What should the PR Interval measure for Normal Sinus Rhythm? A. 0.35-0.44 seconds B. > 0.12 seconds C. 0.12-0.20 seconds D. > 0.20 seconds

C

treatment for atrial fibrillation

Acute onset: try to convert to SR with antidysrhythmics; usually IV diltiazem or verapamil May use synchronized cardioversion if drugs not effective Chronic: Rate control with beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or digoxin Anticoagulation

An older adult patient is experiencing septic shock. Which therapy should the nurse anticipate? Administration of an inotrope Slow administration of antibiotics Aggressive fluid administration Aggressive dosing of antibiotics

Aggressive dosing of antibiotics

Which of the following genetic disorders increases a patient risk of developing truncus arteriosus?* A. Edward's syndrome (trisomy 18) B. Down syndrome C. DiGeorge syndrome D. Patau syndrome

C

A nurse is caring for an infant who has a myelomeningocele. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the preoperative plan of care? Assist the caregiver in cuddling the infant Assess the infant's temperature rectally Place the infant in a supine position Apply a sterile, moist dressing to the sac

Apply a sterile, moist dressing to the sac

A patient is diagnosed with a large atrial septal defect. You're providing information for the patient on the complications related to this condition. What topics will you include in the patient's education? Select all that apply:* A. Tet spells B. Heart failure C. Stroke D. Pulmonary Hypertension E. Rheumatic Fever

B C D

A nurse is preparing an automated external defibrillator (AED) for a client receiving CPR after a cardiac arrest. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first? Press the analyze button on the machine Apply the defibrillator pads to the client's chest Push the charge button to prepare to shock if advised Stop CPR and move away from the client

Apply the defibrillator pads to the client's chest

treatment for sinus bradycardia

Atropine 0.5 - 1 mg IV; may repeat dose Q 3 - 5 minutes to total dose of 3 mg Transcutaneous pacer Epinephrine or Dopamine infusion

During the __________ stage of shock, the signs and symptoms are very subtle. However, cells are experiencing _________ due to the lack of tissue perfusion, which causes the cells to switch from ___________ metabolism to _________ metabolism.* A. Proliferative, hyperoxia, anaerobic, aerobic B. Initial, hypoxia, aerobic, anaerobic C. Compensatory, hypoxia, anaerobic, aerobic D. Fibrotic, hypoxia, aerobic, anaerobic

B

A 42-year-old male patient is admitted with a spinal cord injury. The patient is experiencing severe hypotension and bradycardia. The patient is diagnosed with neurogenic shock. Why is hypotension occurring in this patient with neurogenic shock?* A. The patient has an increased systemic vascular resistance. This increases preload and decreases afterload, which will cause severe hypotension. B. The patient's autonomic nervous system has lost the ability to regulate the diameter of the blood vessels and vasodilation is occurring. C. The patient's parasympathetic nervous system is being unopposed by the sympathetic nervous system, which leads to severe hypotension. D. The increase in capillary permeability has depleted the fluid volume in the intravascular system, which has led to severe hypotension.

B

A QRS complex should measure no more than? A. 0.20 seconds B. 0.12 seconds C. 0.08 seconds D. 0.04 seconds

B

A hallmark finding in a First-Degree Heart Block is? A. a gradually lengthening PR interval with a random dropped QRS complex B. a PR interval >0.20 seconds C. a constant PR interval with random dropped QRS complexes D. independent p waves and QRS complexes

B

A newborn baby, who is diagnosed with transposition of the great arteries, is ordered by the physician to be started on an infusion of prostaglandin E (alprostadil). The purpose of this medication is to:* A. Prevent the closure of the foramen ovale. B. Allow a continued connection between the aorta and pulmonary artery via the ductus arteriosus. C. Prevent the closure of the ductus venosus. D. Increase the blood flow to the pulmonary vein, which will increase oxygen levels.

B

A newborn is diagnosed with truncus arteriosus. You're educating the parents about this heart defect. Which statement by the mother demonstrates she understood the education provided about this condition?* A. "My baby has narrowing in the pulmonary artery, and the aorta is arising out of the right ventricle rather than the left ventricle." B. "My baby's heart shares one artery that connects the right and left ventricles." C. "The left side of my baby's heart is not fully developed." D. "The natural structure in my baby's heart, the ductus arteriosus, has failed to close after birth leading to more blood flow to the lungs."

B

A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who sustained a fall off of a roof. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a basilar skull fracture? A. Depressed fracture of the forehead B. Clear fluid coming from the nares C. Motor loss on one side of the body D. Bleeding from the top of the scalp

B

A nurse is caring for a 2 year old child who has a heart defect and is scheduled for cardiac catheterization. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Place on NPO status for 12 hr prior to the procedure B. Check for iodine or shellfish allergies prior to the procedure C. Elevate the affected extremity following the procedure D. Limit fluid intake following the procedure

B

A nurse is caring for a client who has a spinal cord injury who reports a severe headache and is sweating profusely. Vital signs include BP 220/110 mmHg and apical heart rate of 54/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. Examine skin for irritation or pressure B. Sit the client upright in bed C. Check the urinary catheter for blockage D. Administer antihypertensive medication

B

A nurse is caring for a client who is 4hr postoperative following CABG surgery. The client is able to inspire 200mL with the incentive spirometer, then declines to try to cough because of fatigue and pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Allow the client to rest, and return in 1hr B. Administer IV bolus analgesic, and return in 15 min C. Document the 200mL as an appropriate inspired volume. D. Tell the client coughing after incentive spirometry is required

B

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia due to a C5 spinal cord injury. After checking the client's vital signs, which of the following actions should the nurse perform next? A. Administer nifedipine B. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position C. Check for urinary retention D. Check for a fecal impaction

B

A nurse is caring for a newborn who has spina bifida. The newborn's parents are upset by the diagnosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Discuss placement options for the newborn B. Encourage the parents to touch and care for the newborn C. Reassure the parents that everything will be fine D. Avoid talking about the newborn's defect until the parents bring up the subject

B

A nurse is examining the ECG of a client who has frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). Which of the following QRS changes should the nurse expect to see on the client's ECG? A. Narrower than usual QRS complexes B. Much greater amplitude than the usual QRS complexes C. Same polarity as the usual QRS complexes D. Immediate resumption of the usual of the usual rhythm

B

A nurse is planning care for a client who has septic shock. Which of the following actions is the priority for the nurse to take? A. Maintain adequate fluid volume with IV infusions B. Administer antibiotic therapy C. Monitor hemodynamic status D. Administer vasopressor medication

B

A nurse on a cardiac unit is caring for a client who is on telemetry. The nurse recognizes the client's heart rate is 46/min and notifies the provider. Which of the following prescriptions might be appropriate for this client? A. Defibrillation B. Pacemaker insertion C. Synchronized cardioversion D. Administration of IV lidocaine

B

A nurse on a telemetry unit is caring for a client who has an irregular radial pulse. Which of the following ECG abnormalities should the nurse recognize as atrial flutter? A. P Waves occurring at 0.16 seconds before each QRS complex B. Atrial rate of 300/min with QRS complex of 80/min C. Ventricular rate of 82/min with an atrial rate of 80/min D. An irregular ventricular rate of 125/min with a wide QRS pattern

B

A patient in neurogenic shock is ordered intravenous fluids due to severe hypotension. During administration of the fluids the nurse will monitor the patient closely and immediately report?* A. Increase in blood pressure B. High central venous pressure (CVP) and pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) C. Urinary output of 300 mL in the past 5 hours D. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) 85 mmHg

B

In autonomic dysreflexia, the nurse would expect what finding below the site of the spinal cord injury?* A. Flushed lower body B. Pale and cool lower extremities C. Low blood pressure D. Absent reflexes

B

Select the structure below that allows blood to flow from the right to left atrium in utero and that should close after birth:* A. Ductus Arteriosus B. Formen Ovale C. Ductus Venosus D. Ligamentum teres

B

Sinus bradycardia originates in what part of the electrical conduction system? A. AV node B. SA node C. Bundle Branches D. Bundle of His

B

The latest echocardiogram of a teen with hypoplastic left heart syndrome​ (HLHS), who has had several cardiac surgeries in the​ past, shows right ventricular failure. The nurse should anticipate preparing the client for which​ treatment? A. Activity limitations B. Heart transplant C. Closure of patent ductus arteriosus​ (PDA) D. Fontan procedure

B

The nurse is caring for a pediatric client diagnosed with an atrial dysrhythmia. Assessment findings reveal rapid pulse with frequent episodes of palpitations and decreased blood pressure. Which diagnosis should the nurse​ anticipate? A. Premature atrial contractions B. ​Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome C. Sick sinus syndrome D. Wandering atrial pacemaker

B

The nurse is preparing to discuss a congenital heart defect that increases pulmonary blood flow. Which condition should the nurse​ include? A. Tetralogy of Fallot B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Aortic stenosis D. Pulmonary stenosis

B

The nurse is reviewing the health histories of pregnant women who will be admitted to the unit for delivery. A client with which condition will require a cesarean​ birth? A. Atrial septal defect B. Aortic stenosis C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Ventricular septal defect

B

The nurse is teaching an older adult client with atrial fibrillation about treatment options to prevent atrial dysrhythmias. Which collaborative therapy should the nurse identify that would eliminate the​ dysrhythmia? A. Defibrillation B. Ablative therapy C. Cardiac catheterization D. Pacemaker insertion

B

The patient is experiencing ventricular tachycardia. The patient is presenting with a blood pressure of 70/42, mental status changes, and is clammy and pale. A pulse is present. The nurse preps the patient for? A. CPR B. Synchronized cardioversion C. Defibrillation D. Atropine IV

B

The patient's ECG shows atrial fibrillation. The patient is symptomatic and experiencing shortness of breath and chest pain. The patient's blood pressure in 80/44 with the heart rate fluctuating between 130-150s. The nurse calls a rapid response and prepares the patient for? A. Ablation B. Synchronized cardioversion C. Defibrillation D. Pacemaker implantation

B

What medication below could cause a First-Degree Heart Block? A. Lisinopril B. Dilitiazem C. Furosemide D. Clopidogrel

B

What medication can be administered during resuscitation to a patient who is in asystole? A. Amiodarone B. Epinephrine C. Atropine D. Adenosine

B

Which medication below should not be used for the treatment of sinus bradycardia in a patient with a transplanted heart? A. Isoproterenol B. Atropine C. Epinephrine D. Glucagon

B

Which of the following is NOT found in the rhythm Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA)? A. Organization B. Pulse C. P Waves D. QRS Complexes

B

Which part of the PQRST complex represents ventricular depolarization? A. P-wave B. QRS complex C. T-wave D. ST segment

B

Which patient below is at MOST risk for developing a condition called autonomic dysreflexia?* A. A 24-year-old male patient with a traumatic brain injury. B. A 15-year-old female patient with a spinal cord injury at C7. C. A 35-year-old male patient with a spinal cord injury at L6. D. A 42-year-old male patient recovering from a hemorrhagic stroke.

B

Which statement below best describes why Sinus Tachycardia could lead to decreased cardiac output? A. "The atrial kick is decreased leading to inadequate atria emptying." B. "The ventricles don't have enough time to fill completely so less blood is pumped out of the heart." C. "The rapid firing of the SA node leads to rapid atrial contraction and causes blood to pool in the atria." D. "The ventricles are unable to properly contract and push blood forward so less blood is pumped out of the heart."

B

You are assessing the heart sounds of a patient with a severe case of Tetralogy of Fallot. You would expect to hear a __________ murmur at the _______ of the sternal border?* A. diastolic; right B. systolic; left C. diastolic; left D. systolic; right

B

You're caring for a 2-day-old infant with a large patent ductus arteriosus. The mother of the infant is anxious and asks you to explain her child's condition to her again. Which statement below BEST describes this condition?* A. "The vessel connecting the aorta and pulmonary vein has closed prematurely, which is leading to increased blood flow to the lungs." B. "The vessel connecting the aorta and pulmonary artery has failed to close at birth, which is leading to a left-to-right shunt of blood." C. The vessel connecting the aorta and pulmonary vein has failed to close at birth, which is leading to a right-to-left shunt of blood." D. "The vessel connecting the aorta and pulmonary artery has closed prematurely, which is leading to a left-to-right shunt of blood."

B

You're caring for a child with coarctation of the aorta and educating the parents about the child's condition. Which statement by the parents demonstrates they understood the pathophysiology of this defect?* A. "This condition can lead to right-sided heart failure." B. "The narrowing of the aorta leads to a high blood pressure in the arteries that are found before the site of narrowing in the aorta." C. "The dilation of the aorta leads to a decrease blood pressure in the arteries that are found after the site of dilation." D. "The upper and lower extremities will experience a decrease in blood flow due to the defect in the aorta."

B

You're performing a head-to-toe- assessment on a newborn with severe coarctation of the aorta. You note a systolic heart murmur. Where is this heart murmur best auscultated in a patient with this condition?* A. at the 4th intercostal space left to the sternal border B. at the left interscapular area C. at the 2nd intercostal space right to the sternal border D. at the mid-subclavicular line right of the sternal border

B

You're working on a unit that provides specialized cardiac care to the pediatric population. Which patient below would be the best candidate for Indomethacin from the treatment of patent ductus arteriosus?* A. A 25-year-old adult B. A premature infant C. An 8 month old child D. A 12 year old child

B

Your patient develops Sinus Tachycardia with a heart rate of 136 bpm. The patient is post-op from hip surgery. The patient reports chest pain that is worst with each breath in and has shortness of breath. These findings can correlate with what serious condition? A. Cardiogenic shock B. Pulmonary embolism C. Sick Sinus Syndrome D. Hypovolemic shock

B

Your patient in neurogenic shock is not responding to IV fluids. The patient is started on vasopressors. What option below, if found in your patient, would indicate the medication is working?* A. Decreased CVP (central venous pressure) B. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) 90 mmHg C. Serum lactate 6 mmol/L D. Blood pH 7.20

B

Your patient is in ventricular fibrillation (v-fib). You've started CPR and the airway is supported. A rhythm checked in performed and shows the patient is still in ventricular fibrillation. The NEXT action the code team will take in addition to performing high-quality CPR is to? A. Administer Atropine B. Defibrillate C. Administer Epinephrine D. Synchronized cardiovert

B

After the birth of a newborn with severe coarctation of the aorta, the physician orders a prostaglandin infusion. As the nurse you know that this medication will have what type of therapeutic effects? Select all that apply:* A. Prevent the foramen ovale from closing B. Allow a connection between the aorta and pulmonary artery C. Decrease the workload on the left ventricle D. Increase blood flow to the lower extremities

B C D

Prior to surgery for truncus arteriosus, what medications may be ordered to help with heart function and complications related to heart failure? Select all that apply:* A. Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) B. Digoxin C. ACE Inhibitors D. Diuretics

B C D

A 3-day-old infant is diagnosed with truncus arteriosus. As the nurse, you know to monitor the infant for what complications? Select all that apply:* A. Tet spells B. Heart failure C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Increased cardiac output

B C

What complications can develop from uncontrolled atrial fibrillation that the nurse should monitor for? Select all that apply: A. Hypertension B. Stroke C. Heart failure D. Hyperglycemia

B C

Which statements are TRUE about autonomic dysreflexia? Select all that apply:* A. "Autonomic dysreflexia is an exaggerated reflex response by the parasympathetic nervous system that results in severe hypertension due to a spinal cord injury." B. "Autonomic dysreflexia causes a slow heart rate and severe hypertension." C. "Autonomic dysreflexia is less likely to occur in a patient who has experienced a lumbar injury." D. "The first-line of treatment for autonomic dysreflexia is an antihypertensive medication."

B C

You're working on a neuro unit. Which of your patients below are at risk for developing neurogenic shock? Select all that apply:* A. A 36-year-old with a spinal cord injury at L4. B. A 42-year-old who has spinal anesthesia. C. A 25-year-old with a spinal cord injury above T6. D. A 55-year-old patient who is reporting seeing green halos while taking Digoxin.

B C

. What other medications can be administered to a patient experiencing Ventricular fibrillation (V-fib) during a code resuscitation attempt? Select all that apply: A. Atropine B. Epinephrine C. Amiodarone D. Lidocaine

B C D

You're developing a care plan for an infant with truncus arteriosus. When analyzing the pathophysiology for this condition, what nursing diagnosis can be included in this patient's plan of care? Select all that apply:* A. Risk for increase cardiac output B. Imbalance Nutrition C. Activity intolerance D. Ineffective breathing pattern

B C D

You're providing an in-service to a group of new nurse graduates on the causes of autonomic dysreflexia. Select all the most common causes you will discuss during the in-service:* A. Hypoglycemia B. Distended bladder C. Sacral pressure injury D. Fecal impaction E. Urinary tract infection

B C D E

A nurse is assessing a client for manifestations of Parkinson's disease. Which of the following are expected findings? SATA A. Decreased vision B. Pill-rolling tremor of the fingers C. Shuffling gait D. Drooling E. Bilateral ankle edema F. Lack of facial expression

B C D F

A nurse in the emergency department is completing an assessment on a client who is in shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? SATA A. Heart rate 60/min B. Seizure activity C. Respiratory rate 42/min D. Increased urine output E. Weak, thready pulse

B C E

A nurse is assessing a client who is undergoing hemodynamic monitoring. The client has a CVP of 7mmHg and a PAWP of 17mmHg. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? SATA A. Poor skin turgor B. Bilateral crackles in the lungs C. Jugular vein distention D. Dry mucous membranes E. Hepatomegaly

B C E

Select the characteristics of the AV node: (select all that apply) A. It is known as the pacemaker. B. It causes a delay in electrical signal transfer so the atria can fully empty into the ventricles. C. It's known as the gatekeeper. D. It fires and sends impulses to cause atrial depolarization of the right and left atria. E. It's found in the lower part of the right atrium just above the tricuspid valve. F. It's found in the upper part the right atrium.

B C E

Your patient is experiencing Sinus Tachycardia with a rate of 160 bpm. Which findings below demonstrate the patient is experiencing a decrease in cardiac output? Select all that apply: A. Blood pressure 220/120 mmHg B. Blood pressure 70/42 mmHg C. Crackles throughout the lung fields D. Decreased capillary refill time E. Cool extremities

B C E

Select all the signs and symptoms of how a newborn with transposition of the great arteries may present after birth:* A. Machinery-like heart murmur B. Cyanosis C. Low oxygen levels D. Bounding pulses in the upper extremities E. Increased respiratory rate F. Increased heart rate G. Knee-to-chest position

B C E F

. A newborn baby with transposition of the great arteries has an echocardiogram performed to detect if any other defects are present in the heart. As the nurse, you know that what other defects can most commonly occur with TGA? Select all that apply:* A. Complete atrioventricular canal defect B. Ventricular septal defect C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Tricuspid atresia E. Tetralogy of fallot F. Atrial septal defect

B C F

You're providing discharge education to the parents of a child who just had surgery to repair coarctation of the aorta. What should the nurse include in the teaching about issues that can arise after surgery that must be closely monitored by a cardiologist? Select all that apply:* A. Dilation of the aorta B. Restenosis of the aorta C. Hyperglycemia D. Hypertension

B D

. A concerned mother brings her 3-month-old to the clinic. The mother states the infant seems to be small for its age. In addition, she states the infant fatigues very easily while feeding and rarely finishes a feeding. While collecting a thorough health history, what other signs and symptoms described by the mother may indicate the child has a congenital heart defect, such as a ventricular septal defect? Select all that apply:* A. Diarrhea B. Frequent treatment for lung infections C. Excessive wet diapers D. Diaphoresis when nursing E. Swelling in the hands and feet

B D E

A nurse is assessing a client who has taken procainamide to treat dysrhythmias for the last 12 months. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following manifestations as an adverse effect of this medication? SATA A. Hypertension B. Widened QRS complex C. Narrowed QT interval D. Easy bruising E. Swollen joints

B D E

A nurse is developing a plan of care for the nutritional needs of a client who has stage IV Parkinson's disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse include? SATA A. Provide three large balanced meals daily B. Record diet and fluid intake daily C. Document weight every other week D. Offer cold fluids such as milkshakes E. Offer nutritional supplements between meals

B D E

A 4-month-old is diagnosed with Tetralogy of Fallot. You're providing an illustration to the parent to help him understand the pathophysiology of this condition. What defects must be present in the illustration to help the parent understand their child's condition? Select all that apply:* A. Aortic stenosis B. Ventricular septal defect C. Coarctation of aorta D. Right ventricular hypertrophy E. Displacement of the aorta F. Pulmonic stenosis G. Patent ductus arteriosus

B D E F

. A patient is in hypovolemic shock. Select all the stages that a patient can enter when in shock:* A. Proliferative B. Compensatory C. Exudative D. Initial E. Progressive F. Fibrotic G. Refractory

B D E G

Your patient is coding and high-quality CPR is being performed. The last rhythm checked showed PEA (Pulseless Electrical Activity). The team is checking the potential causes of this situation by assessing the H's and T's. Select all the possible causes of this rhythm using this mnemonic: A. Hypothyroidism B. Hypoxia C. Hypertension D. Typhoid fever E. Thrombolysis F. Hyperkalemia G. Hypovolemia H. Trauma I. Toxins

B F G H I

Which of the following is NOT a finding in a Second-Degree Type II heart block (Mobitz II) ECG reading? A. Normal p waves with constant PR intervals B. Missing QRS complexes C. Progressively prolonged PR intervals D. Regular atrial rhythm

C

Which of the following is NOT a treatment for symptomatic sinus bradycardia? A. Dopamine B. Atropine C. Synchronized cardioversion D. Transcutaneous pacing

C

Which part of PQRST complex represents ventricular repolarization? A. QRS complex B. ST segment C. T-wave D. P-wave

C

Which statement below best describes why a First-Degree Heart Block occurs? A. The SA node is firing too rapidly to the AV node. B. The signal traveling from the AV node to the Purkinje fibers is blocked in the right and left bundle branches. C. The electrical signal is moving slowly through the AV node. D. The AV node is completely unable to fire during the electrical conduction cycle which create a delay in ventricular contraction.

C

Your patient is unresponsive and the cardiac monitor shows Torsades de Pointes as the patient's rhythm. As the code team is attempting to resuscitate the patient, you look through the patient's electronic health record to try to determine a potential cause for this rhythm. What found in the patient's record is a cause of this rhythm? A. Magnesium level 2 mg/dL B. Amiodarone C. Potassium 5 mEq/L D. Glyburide

B (amiodarone causes prolonged QT interval--common cause of Torsades de Pointes)

A client with severe heart failure has a sudden cardiac arrest while the family is visiting. Which nursing care best helps the​ family? A. Telling the family that their family member is very ill but has a good chance to pull through B. Providing the family with information on how ill their family member is and that she may not make it C. Providing honest information about the​ client's condition to the family in a supportive manner D. Telling the family members to leave thCe room immediately and wait in the waiting room until the healthcare provider comes to talk with them

C

A newborn recently diagnosed with coarctation of the aorta is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit. Which clinical manifestation in the client should the nurse​ monitor? A. Increased urinary output B. Warm extremities C. Delayed capillary refill D. Loud murmur

C

A newly licensed nurse is observing a cardioversion procedure and hears the team leader call out, "stand clear." This statement indicates which of the following events is occurring? A. The cardioverter is being charged to the appropriate setting B. The team should initiate CPR due to pulseless electrical activity C. Team members cannot be in contact with equipment connected to the client D. A time-out is being called to verify correct protocols

C

A normal PR interval should measure between? A. 0.04-0.12 seconds B. 0.20-0.36 seconds C. 0.12-0.20 seconds D. 0.35-0.40 seconds

C

A nurse is assessing a client who is taking amiodarone to treat atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of amiodarone toxicity? A. Light yellow urine B. Report of tinnitus C. Productive cough D. Blue-gray skin discoloration

C

A nurse is caring for a client following an angioplasty that was inserted through the femoral artery. While turning the client, the nurse discovers blood underneath the client's lower back. Which of the following findings should the nurse suspect? A. Retroperitoneal bleeding B. Cardiac tamponade C. Bleeding from the incisional site D. Heart failure

C

A nurse is caring for a client who displays manifestations of stage III Parkinson's disease. which of the following actions should the nurse include? A. Recommend a community support group B. Integrate a daily exercise routine C. Provide a walker for ambulation D. Perform ADLs for the client

C

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing wheezing and swelling of the tongue. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering first? A. Methylprednisolone B. Diphenhydramine C. Epinephrine D. Dobutamine

C

A nurse is caring for a client who reports crushing chest pain. The nurse reviews the ECG results and notes ST changes. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer? A. Simvastatin B. Furosemide C. Nitroglycerin D. Sildenafil

C

A nurse is preparing to administer propranolol to a client who has a dysrhythmia. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? A. Hold propranolol for an apical pulse greater than 100/min B. Administer propranolol to increase the client's BP C. Assist the client when sitting up or standing after taking this medication D. Check for hypokalemia frequently due to the risk of propranolol toxicity

C

A nurse on a telemetry unit is caring for a client who has an irregular radial pulse. Which of the following ECG abnormalities should the nurse recognize as premature ventricular contractions? A. P Waves occurring at 0.16 seconds before each QRS complex B. Atrial rate of 300/min with QRS complex of 80/min C. Ventricular rate of 82/min with an atrial rate of 80/min D. An irregular ventricular rate of 125/min with a wide QRS pattern

C

A patient with neurogenic shock is experiencing a heart rate of 30 bpm. What medication does the nurse anticipate will be ordered by the physician STAT?* A. Adenosine B. Warfarin C. Atropine D. Norepinephrine

C

A teen with a cardiac defect reports feeling tired after physical education class. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider will​ order? A. Echocardiogram B. Chest​ x-ray C. Exercise testing D. Magnetic resonance imaging

C

A teenager who has had multiple hospitalizations since childhood for a congenital heart disorder asks the nurse questions about the condition. How should the nurse​ respond? A. ​"I'll see if I can get your doctor to come visit you later today and answer your​ questions." B. ​"Why do you need to​ know? Your parents are making your medical decisions until you are an​ adult." C. ​"I'll be happy to answer what I can. What are your​ questions?" D. ​"You'll need to ask your parents about any questions that you​ have."

C

A two-month-old is showing signs and symptoms of heart failure. An echocardiogram is ordered. The test shows the infant has a ventricular septal defect (VSD). Which statement below best describes the blood flow in the heart due to this congenital heart defect?* A. "The blood in the heart is shunting from the right ventricle to the left ventricle, which is increasing pulmonary blood flow." B. "The blood in the heart is shunting from the left ventricle to the right ventricle, which is decreasing pulmonary blood flow." C. "The blood in the heart is shunting from the left ventricle to the right ventricle, which is increasing pulmonary blood flow." D. "The blood in the heart is bypassing the left ventricle and is being shunted to the right ventricle, which is decreasing lung blood flow."

C

After taking all the necessary steps for a patient who has developed autonomic dysreflexia, what should the nurse assess FIRST as a possible cause of this condition?* A. Skin break down B. Blood glucose C. Possible bladder irritant D. Last bowel movement

C

An older adult client presents with palpitations and dizziness. Which test should the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider will​ order? A. Exercise test B. CT san C. Electrocardiogram D. Chest​ x-ray

C

As noted in the previous question, a loud murmur was noted during assessment of a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus. As the nurse you know that what type of murmur is a hallmark sign of this condition?* A. harsh, loud systolic murmur B. soft, blowing diastolic murmur C. systolic and diastolic machinery-like murmur D. machinery-like murmur present on only diastole

C

Based on this scenario, what stage of shock is this patient most likely experiencing: A 74-year-old patient is extremely confused and does not respond to commands or stimulation. The patient respiratory rate is 28 and labored, oxygen saturation 86%, heart rate 120, blood pressure 70/40, mean arterial pressure is 50 mmHg, and temperature is 97 'F. The patient's heart rhythm is atrial fibrillation. The patient's urinary output is 5 mL/hr. The patient's labs: blood pH 7.15, serum lactate 15 mmol/L, BUN 55 mg/dL, Creatinine 6 mg/dL. In addition, the patient is now starting to have slight oozing of blood around puncture sites.* A. Initial B. Proliferative C. Progressive D. Compensatory

C

In Second-Degree type I (Mobitz I or Wenckebach) heart block why is the ventricular rate slower than the atrial rate? A. The atrial rate is faster than the ventricular rate because of the shorten PR intervals. B. The constant PR intervals decrease the rate of conduction to the AV node which slows down the ventricular rate. C. The ventricular rate is slower than the atrial rate because at times the electrical signal isn't able to travel down from the atria to the ventricles, which leads to a dropped QRS complex. D. The SA node is firing too slowly and this affects how the AV node stimulates the ventricles to contract.

C

The cardiac monitor is showing asystole for the patient's rhythm. However, the patient is alert and oriented with a strong pulse when palpated. The nurse should perform what action next? A. Press the code blue button B. Start CPR C. Check the monitor's cable and electrode connection D. Continue to monitor

C

The nurse assesses the patient and finds that the patient is unresponsive and has no pulse. The nurse calls a code blue and starts CPR. A rhythm checked is performed and the same rhythm is noted with no pulse. What is an INCORRECT action by the code team for treatment of this rhythm? A. Continue CPR B. Administer Epinephrine C. Defibrillation D. Support the airway

C

The nurse is assessing a client admitted with a suspected stroke. Which dysrhythmia would support this​ diagnosis? A. Junctional escape rhythm B. Mobitz II​ second-degree block C. Atrial fibrillation D. Torsade de pointes

C

The nurse is assessing a toddler with uncorrected cyanotic heart disease. Which question to the parent is most​ appropriate? A. Does your child sleep on her​ tummy? B. How is your​ child's appetite? C. Does your child often​ squat? D. When did your child start​ walking?

C

The nurse is assessing an ECG strip and begins measuring at the beginning of the p-wave to the beginning of the QRS complex. What is the nurse measuring? A. P-wave B. ST segment C. PR interval D. PR segment

C

The nurse is assessing an ECG strip. Which finding on the ECG strip is NOT a characteristic present in atrial fibrillation (a-fib)? A. fibrillary waves B. unmeasureable atrial rate C. saw-tooth waves D. irregular ventricular rate

C

The nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing torsades de pointes. The nurse recognizes this condition as which type of​ dysrhythmia? A. Antrioventricular conduction block B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Junctional dysrhythmia

C

The nurse is caring for an older adult client with a history of congenital heart disease. Which factor should the nurse consider when caring for this​ client? A. Mortality rates are the same for adults of all ages. B. Risk management for an older adult client with a congenital heart defect is not important. C. The risk for developing cardiovascular disease is higher. D. The client only needs a cardiovascular assessment when symptomatic.

C

The nurse is teaching a client with dysrhythmias preventive lifestyle choices. Which intervention is the most appropriate to reduce the body mass index​ (BMI) of 40 kg/m? A. Having a sedentary lifestyle B. Managing stress C. Eating a​ heart-healthy diet D. Not smoking

C

The nurse is teaching women about vaccinations they should have before becoming pregnant. Which should the nurse include that will minimize the risk of having a child with a congenital heart​ disorder? A. Influenza B. Polio C. Rubella D. Haemophilus influenza type B

C

The nurse sees ventricular fibrillation on the ECG. The patient is unresponsive and has no pulse. The nurse calls a code blue and takes what step next? A. Prepare for defibrillation B. Administer Epinephrine C. Start high-quality CPR D. Notify the physician

C

The patient is experiencing ventricular tachycardia. You assess the patient and find the patient is having no symptoms and a pulse is present. What type of treatment do you anticipate will be ordered for this patient? A. CPR B. Defibrillation C. Amiodarone IV D. Digoxin IV

C

The process that causes a heart cell to contract is known as? A. Repolarization B. Polarization C. Depolarization

C

Which statement below is FALSE regarding Normal Sinus Rhythm? A. The QRS complex should measure <0.12 seconds. B. The atrial rate should be 60-100 bpm. C. The ventricular rate should be 40-60 bpm. D. A p wave should accompany every QRS complex.

C

Which statement is correct about atrial flutter? A. The ventricular rate will always be irregular. B. P-waves will be present. C. This rhythm has a saw-tooth appearance. D. The PR interval will be >0.20 seconds.

C

While assessing a newborn's heart sounds you note a loud murmur at the left upper sternal border. You report this to the physician who suspects the infant may have patent ductus arteriosus. The physician asks you to obtain a pulse pressure. If patent ductus arteriosus is present, the pulse pressure would be ___________.* A. Narrow B. Fluctuating C. Wide D. Normal

C

While feeding a 3-month-old infant, who has Tetralogy of Fallot, you notice the infant's skin begins to have a bluish tint and the breathing rate has increased. Your immediate nursing action is to?* A. Continue feeding the infant and place the infant on oxygen. B. Stop feeding the infant and provide suction. C. Stop feeding the infant and place the infant in the knee-to-chest position and administer oxygen. D. Assess the infant's heart rate and rhythm.

C

You obtain an ECG on a patient and the rhythm is sinus bradycardia with a rate of 52 bpm. Your NEXT nursing action is to? A. Prepare to administer Atropine IV push B. Set-up for transcutaneous pacing C. Assess the patient D. Call a rapid response

C

You see Second degree, type 2 heart block on the ECG. The patient is experiencing hypotension, weak pulse, and mental status changes. The nurse knows to prep the patient for the following procedure: A. Synchronized cardioversion B. Defibrillation C. Temporary pacing D. Ablation

C

You're caring for a patient who is experiencing shock. Which lab result below demonstrates that the patient's cells are using anaerobic metabolism?* A. Ammonia 18 µ/dL B. Potassium 4.5 mEq/L C. Serum Lactate 9 mmol/L D. Bicarbonate 23 mEq/L

C

You're educating the parents of a patient with transposition of the great arteries about the treatment options. Which treatment option below provides a permanent solution and is performed within the first few weeks of life?* A. Prostaglandin E infusion B. Balloon atrial septostomy C. Arterial switch procedure D. Complete repair with a patch

C

You're performing a head-to-toe assessment on a patient with a spinal cord injury at T6. The patient is restless, sweaty, and extremely flushed. You assess the patient's blood pressure and heart rate. The patient's blood pressure is 140/98 and heart rate is 52. You look at the patient's chart and find that their baseline blood pressure is 106/76 and heart rate is 72. What action should the nurse take FIRST?* A. Reassess the patient's blood pressure. B. Check the patient's blood glucose. C. Position the patient at 90 degrees and lower the legs. D. Provide cooling blankets for the patient.

C

You're providing care to a 55-year-old male. You note on the bedside monitor the patient has a heart rate of 116 bpm. You obtain an ECG and discover the patient rhythm is Sinus Tachycardia. You assess probable causes of this rhythm. Which finding below could be a cause of this patient's heart rhythm? A. Digoxin therapy B. Pain rating of 2 on 1-10 scale C. Temperature 103.6'F D. Blood glucose of 86 mg/dL

C

You're providing care to a patient experiencing neurogenic shock due to an injury at T4. As the nurse, you know which of the following is a patient safety priority?* A. Keeping the head of the bed greater than 45 degrees at all times. B. Repositioning the patient every thirty minutes. C. Keeping the patient's spine immobilized. D. Avoiding log-rolling the patient during transport.

C

You're working in the NICU providing care to a neonate who has a large patent ductus arteriosus. Which finding during your head-to-toe assessment would require you to immediately notify the physician?* A. Loud, harsh continuous murmur B. Abnormal pulse pressure C. Crackles D. Diaphoresis when feeding

C

Your newborn patient has a severe case of transposition of the great arteries. The baby does not have any other defects and is therefore experiencing severe cyanosis and needs medical intervention immediately. The newborn is started on prostaglandin E and is scheduled for a balloon atrial septostomy. Select the statement below that best describes this procedure:* A. During this procedure the pulmonary artery and aorta are switched along with their coronary arteries. B. This procedure will enlarge a hole in the ventricular septum and provide permanent treatment for this condition. C. During this procedure a hole in the atrial septum is enlarged, which will be temporary. D. The procedure will switch the pulmonary vein and aorta long with their coronary arteries, which will be permanent.

C

Your patient is experiencing a blood pressure of 70/42, weak pulse, chest pain, and is pale. The patient is confused and anxious. An ECG is obtained and a Third-Degree Heart Block is noted. What treatment should the nurse be prepping for? Select all that apply: A. Amiodarone IV B. Defibrillation C. Temporary pacing D. Synchronized Defibrillation

C

Your patient, who has a spinal cord injury at T3, states they are experiencing a throbbing headache. What is your NEXT nursing action?* A. Perform a bladder scan B. Perform a rectal digital examination C. Assess the patient's blood pressure D. Administer a PRN medication to alleviate pain and provide a dark, calm environment.

C

As the registered nurse you are developing a plan of care for a patient with Tetralogy of Fallot. Select all the appropriate nursing diagnoses below that would be specific to this patient:* A. Risk for deficient fluid volume B. Ineffective airway clearance C. Activity Intolerance D. Failure to thrive E. Risk for impaired liver function

C D

The nurse is completing a health history for a young adult athlete. Which additional symptom should the nurse​ assess? (Select all that​ apply.) A. Hyperglycemia B. Stress C. Syncope D. Seizures E. Sleep apnea

C D

Which statements are INCORRECT about the compensatory stage of shock. Select all that apply:* A. This stage is reversible. B. During this stage blood is shunted away from the kidneys, lungs, skin, and gastrointestinal system to the brain and heart. C. During this stage blood flow to the kidneys is reduced, which causes the kidneys to activate the renin-angiotensin system, and this will lead to major vasodilation to the arterial and venous system. D. One hallmark sign of this stage is that there is an increase in capillary permeability. E. A patient is at risk for a paralytic ileus during this stage.

C D

A newborn is taking Digoxin prior to surgical repair of a truncus arteriosus. You're assessing morning labs and the patient's Digoxin level is 1.8 ng/mL. The next dose of Digoxin is due at 1000. As the nurse you will? Select all that apply:* A. Redraw a Digoxin level to confirm the morning lab level B. Hold the 1000 dose and notify the physician C. Administer the dose as ordered D. Administer the dose as ordered, but notify the physician about the abnormal level E. Check apical pulse prior to administration of the scheduled dose at 1000 F. Hold scheduled dose if apical pulse less than 60

C E

Your patient is found to have a First-Degree Heart Block after obtaining an ECG. The patient is asymptomatic. The nurse prepares to? Select all that apply: A. Activate the emergency response team B. Obtain atropine and temporary pacing pads C. Continue to monitor D. Start CPR E. Assess the patient's current medications

C E

Which rhythm should the nurse consider a medical​ emergency? A. Premature ventricular contractions B. Normal sinus C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular fibrillation

D

Which stage of shock is irreversible and unmanageable?* A. Progressive B. Initial C. Exudative D. Refractory

D

What do you do for pulseless electrical activity?

CPR

treatment for pulseless electrical activity

CPR - search for treatable cause. See asystole. Give epinephrine Q 3 - 5 minutes

treatment of asystole

CPR - search for treatable cause. These are called Hs and Ts Hypoxia Hypovolemia Hydrogen ion excess (acidosis) Hypoglycemia Hypokalemia Hyperkalemia Hypothermia Tension pneumothorax Tamponade - Cardiac Toxins Thrombosis (pulmonary embolus) Thrombosis (myocardial infarction) Give epinephrine Q 3 -5 minutes

Pulseless ventricular tachycardia intervention

CPR then debrillation

treatment for ventricular fibrillation

CPR until defibrillator or AED available - then defibrillation - resume CPR - search for treatable cause. See asystole. Epinephrine is first drug given in cardiac arrest.

risk factors for cardiac dysrhythmias

CV disease MI Hypoxia Acid-base imbalances Electrolyte disturbances Kidney failure Liver disease Lung disease Pericarditis Drug or alcohol use Hypovolemia Shock

A patient is experiencing severe hypovolemic shock secondary to a hemorrhage. Which collaborative intervention should the nurse anticipate? Antibiotics to decrease risk from infection from blood transfusions Corticosteroids to decrease inflammatory response from blood transfusions Sodium bicarbonate to treat metabolic acidosis which occurs with blood transfusions Calcium chloride to replace the calcium lost during blood transfusions

Calcium chloride to replace the calcium lost during blood transfusions

A patient is experiencing ventricular tachycardia and is unresponsive with no pulse. After activating the emergency response system, the nurse would immediately? A. Prep the patient for defibrillation B. Administer IV epinephrine C. Secure the airway D. Start chest compressions

D

The nurse assessing a patient experiencing hypovolemic shock notes that the patient's heart rate is 96 beats/min and blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg. The nurse should identify the patient as being in which stage of shock? Class II Class IV Class III Class I

Class I

. A newborn baby is born with transposition of the great arteries (TGA). You're explaining the condition to the parents. Which statement by the father demonstrates he understood the education provided about this condition?* A. "The pulmonary vein and artery are switched, which causes the pulmonary vein to deliver unoxygenated blood to the systemic circulation while the pulmonary artery delivers oxygenated blood back to the lungs." B. "The aorta and pulmonary vein are switched, which causes the aorta to arise from the right ventricle and the pulmonary vein to arise from the left ventricle." C. "The aorta and pulmonary artery are switched, which causes the aorta to arise from the left ventricle and the pulmonary artery to arise from the right ventricle." D. "The aorta and pulmonary artery are switched, which causes the aorta to arise from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery to arise from the left ventricle."

D

A nurse in an ED has assessed a client's airway, breathing, and circulation following a head injury from a fall at work. Which of the following actions is the priority for the nurse to perform next? A. Question the client's coworkers about the mechanism of injury B. Check the client's pupils for equality and reaction to light C. Measure the client's alertness using the Glasgow Coma Scale D. Immobilize the client's cervical spine

D

A nurse is admitting a client who has complete heart block as demonstrated by ECG. The client's heart rate is 34/min and blood pressure is 83/48 mmHg. The client is lethargic and unable to complete sentences. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first? A. Transport the client to the cardiovascular laboratory B. Prepare the client for insertion of a permanent pacemaker C. Obtained a signed informed consent form for a pacemaker D. Apply transcutaneous pacemaker pads

D

A nurse is assessing a client who has a high-thoracic spinal cord injury. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a manifestation of autonomic dysreflexia? A. Flushing of the lower extremities B. Hypotension C. Tachycardia D. Report of a headache

D

A nurse is assessing a client who is taking digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of digoxin toxicity? A. Bruising B. Report of metallic taste C. Muscle pain D. Report of anorexia

D

A nurse is caring for a client who experienced a cervical spine injury 24hr ago. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider? A. Anticoagulant B. Plasma expanders C. H2 antagonists D. Muscle relaxants

D

A nurse is caring for a client who has C4 spinal cord injury. The nurse should recognize the client is at greatest risk for which of the following complications? A. Neurogenic B. Paralytic ileus C. Stress ulcer D. Respiratory compromise

D

A nurse is caring for a client who has Parkinson's disease and is starting to display bradykinesia. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse? A. Teach the client to walk more quickly when ambulating B. Complete passive ROM exercises daily C. Place the client on the low-protein, low-calorie diet D. Give the client extra time to perform activities

D

A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and whose telemetry reading displays a prolonged S-T interval and a prolonged Q-T interval. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse anticipate as the cause of this ECG change? A. Potassium 2.8mEq/L B. Digoxin level 0.7ng/mL C. Hemoglobin 9.8g/dL D. Calcium 8.0 mg

D

A nurse is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients is at risk for obstructive shock? A. A client who is having occasional PVCs on the ECG monitor B. A client who has been experiencing vomiting and diarrhea for several days C. A client who has a gram-negative bacterial infection D. A client who has a pulmonary arterial stenosis

D

A nurse is completing the admission assessment of a client who will undergo peripheral bypass graft surgery on the left leg. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Rubor of the affected leg when elevated B. 3+ dorsal pedal pulse in left foot C. Thin, peeling toenails of left foot D. Report of intermittent claudication in the affected leg

D

A nurse is orienting a newly licensed nurse on the care of a client who is to have a line placed for hemodynamic monitoring. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates understanding? A. "Air should be instilled into the monitoring system prior to the procedure." B. "The client should be positioned on the left side during the procedure." C. "The transducer should be level with the second intercostal space after the line is placed." D. "A chest x-ray is needed to verify placement after the procedure."

D

A nurse is teaching a client who is scheduled for coronary angiography. Which of the following statements should the nurse include? A. "You should have nothing to eat or drink for 4 hours prior to the procedure." B. "You will be given general anesthesia during the procedure." C. "You should not have this procedure done if you are allergic to eggs." D. "You will need to keep your affected leg straight following the procedure."

D

A nurse on a telemetry unit is caring for a client who has an irregular radial pulse. Which of the following ECG abnormalities should the nurse recognize as ventricular tachycardia? A. P Waves occurring at 0.16 seconds before each QRS complex B. Atrial rate of 300/min with QRS complex of 80/min C. Ventricular rate of 82/min with an atrial rate of 80/min D. An irregular ventricular rate of 125/min with a wide QRS pattern

D

A patient is experiencing sinus bradycardia with a rate of 34 bpm and blood pressure of 78/42. The patient reports symptoms of chest pain, has cool and clammy skin, dyspnea, and feels like they may faint. The nurse prepares to administer Atropine per a standing physician's order for the patient's symptomatic bradycardia. How will the nurse administer this medication? A. 3 mg IV push every 3-5 minutes, max dose of 5 mg B. 2 mg IV push every 1-2 minutes, max dose of 3 mg C. 3-5 mg IV push every 1 minute, max dose 10 mg D. 1 mg IV push every 3-5 minutes, max dose of 3 mg

D

An ACE inhibitor is ordered by the physician for an infant with truncus arteriosus. This medication will decrease afterload and help with the management of heart failure. Which medication below is an ACE inhibitor?* A. Losartan B. Celiprolol C. Furosemide D. Catopril

D

An infant has a large ventricular septal defect (VSD). The defect is located in the upper section of the ventricular septum and is near the tricuspid and aortic valve. Based on this description, what type of ventricular septal defect is this?* A. Outlet (conal or subarterial) B. Muscular C. Inlet (atrioventricular) D. Membranous

D

As the nurse you know that if a patient has a large ventricular septal defect and does not receive treatment, the patient may develop Eisenmenger Syndrome. This syndrome causes?* A. A reversal of blood shunting in the heart from right to left and will cause pulmonary hypertension. B. A reversal of blood shunting in the heart from left to right and will cause cyanosis. C. A reversal of blood shunting in the heart from left to right and will cause pulmonary hypertension. D. A reversal of blood shunting in the heart from right to left and will cause cyanosis.

D

During shock, when a patient experiences a drop in cardiac output, the body tries to compensate by stimulating the sympathetic nervous system, which causes the release of _________ and ________. This will lead to?* A. acetylcholine and dopamine, vasodilation B. epinephrine and norepinephrine, vasodilation C. dopamine and epinephrine, vasoconstriction D. norepinephrine and epinephrine, vasoconstriction

D

During what stage of shock does the body attempt to utilize the hormonal, neural, and biochemical responses of the body?* A. Refractory B. Initial C. Proliferative D. Compensatory

D

During what stage of shock is the body unable to compensate for tissue perfusion and the body's cell start to experience hypoxic injury that result in __________capillary permeability?* A. Refractory, increased B. Exudative, decreased C. Compensatory, increased D. Progressive, increased

D

Parents who just had a baby with transposition of the great arteries ask the nurse when the corrective surgery needs to be scheduled. How should the nurse​ reply? A. ​"When you are​ ready." B. ​"Within the first year of​ life." C. ​"This afternoon." D. ​"Sometime this​ week."

D

Sinus tachycardia originates from what part of the electrical conduction system? A. Bundle of His B. Bundle Branches C. AV Node D. SA Node

D

The nurse is about to assess for bowel impaction in a patient who has developed autonomic dysreflexia. The nurse makes it priority to?* A. Avoid using lubricants B. Stimulate the bowel with rectal manipulation C. Slowly administer a saline solution prior to assessment D. Instill an anesthetic jelly prior to assessment

D

The nurse is assessing a newborn. Which finding is often the first indication of a congenital heart​ defect? A. Chest pain B. Exercise intolerance C. Syncope D. Heart murmur

D

The nurse is caring for an infant with ventricular septal defect​ (VSD) with a very small opening. Which treatment does the nurse anticipate the child will​ require? A. Surgery to patch the hole B. Administration of prostaglandin E C. Oral propranolol D. Monitor with periodic echocardiograms

D

The nurse is helping a mom breastfeed a newborn who has a defect that decreases pulmonary flow. The nurse observes that the newborn has difficulty breathing and becomes cyanotic during the feeding. Which instruction should the nurse​ provide?A. Bottle feed with breast milk B. Use a bottle with a larger nipple size C. Administer formula using a bottle D. Periodically stop the newborn from sucking

D

The nurse is preparing to discharge an infant with hypoplastic left heart syndrome. Which information should the nurse provide to the​ family? A. Proper administration of propranolol B. Management of supplemental oxygen therapy C. Infective endocarditis prophylaxis protocols D. Community support and resources

D

The physician orders Nitropaste for a patient who has developed autonomic dysreflexia. Which finding would require the nurse to hold the ordered dose of Nitropaste and notify the physician?* A. The patient's blood pressure is 130/80. B. The patient reports a throbbing headache. C. The patient's lower extremities are pale and cool. D. The patient states they took Sildenafil 12 hours ago.

D

What is the point where the QRS complex meets the ST segment? A. R-point B. PR interval C. QT interval D. J-point

D

What medication below is NOT a treatment for Sinus Tachycardia? A. Verapamil B. Metoprolol C. Antipyretics D. Dopamine

D

What other congenital heart defect is most commonly present in truncus arteriosus?* A. Atrial septal defect B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Tetralogy of Fallot D. Ventricular septal defect

D

Which medication below can be used during a code to treat PEA (Pulseless Electrical Activity)? A. Atropine B. Amiodarone C. Lidocaine D. Epinephrine

D

Which of the following conditions are not thought to cause atrial fibrillation? A. Mitral stenosis B. Mitral regurgitation C. Tricuspid regurgitation D. Peripheral vascular disease

D

Which option below best describes the findings a nurse would find in a Third-Degree Heart Block (complete heart block)? A. Normal p waves with progressively prolonged PR interval and missing QRS complexes B. Normal p waves with constant PR intervals and intermittent missing QRS complexes C. Normal p waves each with a QRS complex but prolonged PR intervals regularly throughout the rhythm D. Normal p waves and QRS complexes that are independent of each other but has regular atrial and ventricular rhythm

D

Which part of the electrical conduction system is located in the upper part of the right atrium and is responsible for atrial depolarization? A. AV node B. Bundle of His C. Purkinje Fibers D. SA node

D

You're assessing the heart sounds of a child with an atrial septal defect. You note a heart murmur at the 2nd intercostal space at the left upper sternal border. Heart murmurs noted in patients with an atrial septal defect are called?* A. Holosystolic murmurs B. Diastolic murmurs C. Early systolic murmurs D. Midsystolic murmurs

D

You're caring for a 2-year-old patient who has a large atrial septal defect that needs repair. This defect is causing complications. These complications are arising from an abnormal shunting of blood throughout the heart. As the nurse, you know that a __________________ shunt is occurring in the heart due to the defect.* A. Right-to-left B. Right C. Left D. Left-to-right

D

You're caring for a newborn who has Tetralogy of Fallot with severe cyanosis. You anticipate the newborn will be started on ___________?* A: Indomethacin B. Diclofenac C. Celecoxib D. Alprostadil

D

Your patient has a Second-Degree Type II (Mobitz II) heart block. What information found in the patient's health history is NOT associated with causing this type of rhythm? A. Anterior wall myocardial infarction B. Heart valve damage C. Diltiazem D. Glyburide

D

Your patient is experiencing extreme fatigue, hypotension, palpations, and shortness of breath. You obtain an ECG and discover a rhythm of sinus bradycardia with a rate of 40 bpm. What finding below could be causing this condition? A. Potassium level of 3.9 meq/L B. Lisinopril 10 mg BID PO C. Blood glucose 84 D. Digoxin 0.125 mg PO daily

D

A nurse is caring for a client who is in the bathroom. The nurse hears a loud thud and, after opening the bathroom door, finds the client on the floor. What is the priority nursing action? Complete an incident report Notify the provider of the fall Determine the client's level of consciousness Call for help

Determine the client's level of consciousness

The nurse is planning care for a patient experiencing septic shock who is scheduled to have a central line placed. Which independent nursing intervention should the nurse implement to decrease the patient's feelings of anxiety? Administer antianxiety medications as ordered. Explain all procedures and therapies ordered. Discourage visitors to maintain therapeutic environment. Place patient away from nurses' station to provide for privacy.

Explain all procedures and therapies ordered.

True or False: PEA (Pulseless Electrical Activity) can have many presentations on the ECG and can sometimes appear as a complete flat line. True False

False

The nurse is assessing a newborn. Which finding is often the first indication of a congenital heart​ defect? Chest pain Heart murmur Exercise intolerance Syncope

Heart murmur

The nurse is assessing a patient experiencing hypovolemic shock. Which clinical manifestation is most indicative of early shock? Heart rate 120 beats/min and blood pressure 120/70 mmHg Heart rate 96 beats/min and blood pressure 150/90 mmHg Heart rate 145 beats/min and blood pressure 70/30 mmHg Heart rate 120 beats/min and blood pressure 100/70 mmHg

Heart rate 96 beats/min and blood pressure 150/90 mmHg

The nurse is caring for a child with tetralogy of Fallot and notes a decreased partial pressure of oxygen and increased partial pressure of CO2 on the latest arterial blood gases (ABGs). The nurse would include all of the following interventions in the plan of care except: Encourage the child to rest and relax Administer oxygen Administer propranolol Help the child to lie in the prone position

Help the child to lie in the prone position

The nurse discusses the signs and symptoms that validate early septic shock in children with colleagues. Which answer by a colleague indicates a need for further discussion? Positive blood cultures White blood cell count of 20,000 mcL Hypotension Poor cardiac output

Hypotension

Which early manifestation is least likely to be expected in a child with shock? Hypotension Cardiovascular dysfunction Infection Sepsis

Hypotension

The nurse is caring for a patient with severe third spacing. Over the last hour, the patient's heart rate has consistently increased, the blood pressure has decreased, and the patient has become confused. Which is most likely the cause of the symptoms? Distributive shock Septic shock Hypovolemic shock Cardiogenic shock

Hypovolemic shock

A home hospice nurse is caring for a client who is dying. A family member of the client is talking to the nurse. Which of the following statements by the family member requires clarification by the nurse? I'm glad that professionals will be here in case my father stops breathing. My siblings and I have a schedule of when we are available to provide care for our father. My biggest concern is that I don't want my father to be in any pain. Although my father can't get around much, at least he is alert at times.

I'm glad that professionals will be here in case my father stops breathing.

The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with cardiogenic shock. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect? Slight increase in urinary output Clear lung fields Warm, moist skin Increased heart rate

Increased heart rate

The nurse is administering an inotropic medication to a patient experiencing cardiogenic shock. The nurse should understand that which statement defines the purpose for this medication order? Increases intravascular volume Prevents dysrhythmia Increases cardiac contractility Prevents heart failure

Increases cardiac contractility

Which of the following is the most important goal of nursing care for a client who is in shock? Manage vasoconstriction of vascular beds Manage inadequate tissue perfusion Manage fluid overload Manage increased cardiac output

Manage inadequate tissue perfusion

The nurse caring for a patient experiencing shock should monitor which manifestation to assess tissue perfusion? Mental status Pupil size Breath sounds Abdominal girth

Mental status

The nurse is teaching the care of patients experiencing septic shock to colleagues. Which intervention should the nurse include? Encourage frequent deep breathing and coughing to meet oxygen demand. Maintain a supine position with legs in the dependent position to promote venous return. Adjust oxygen flow rate to achieve an oxygenation of 90% or better. Monitor intake and output to determine renal perfusion.

Monitor intake and output to determine renal perfusion.

Periodic wide bizarre QRS complexes

PVCs

The nurse is teaching a patient with cardiac disease about lifestyle modifications to reduce the risk for cardiogenic shock. Which modification should the nurse include? Performing regular exercise Maintaining a BMI of 40 Reducing smoking Taking blood pressure medication as needed

Performing regular exercise

The nurse in the ICU is planning to teach a family about infection control methods to prevent septic shock. Which teaching should the nurse include? Performing scrupulous hand hygiene Limiting visiting hours Keeping a quiet environment Administering antibiotics

Performing scrupulous hand hygiene

A nurse is caring for a patient who suffered a spinal cord injury. The nurse is called to the patient's room for complaints of a severe headache and notes the following vital signs: Blood Pressure 210/110 Heart Rate 54/min Respiratory Rate 18/min O2 Saturation 95%. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? Remove restrictive clothing Check the urinary catheter for blockage Place the client in high fowler's position Administer antihypertensive medication

Place the client in high fowler's position

Which assessment should the nurse include during the physical examination of a patient in shock? Presence of trauma Presence of myocardial infarction Presence of spinal cord injury Presence of jugular vein distention

Presence of jugular vein distention

The nurse is caring for a patient who recently experienced a C4 spinal cord injury. Which of the following complications is the nurse most concerned about with this level of injury? Paralytic Ileus Peptic Ulcer Neurogenic Shock Respiratory Compromise

Respiratory Compromise

treatment for supraventricular trachycardia

Stable: patient has no or mild symptoms - vagal maneuver first. Then adenosine 6 mg rapid IV push. May give adenosine 12 mg within 1 minute of first dose if no conversion. Consider synchronized cardioversion if drug is ineffective. Unstable: (patient is symptomatic) - synchronized cardioversion

A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) examination of the cervical vertebra. Which of the following pieces of information in the client's history is a contraindication to this procedure? The client has a history of peripheral vascular disease The clients is unable to sit upright The client has a new tattoo The client has a pacemaker

The client has a pacemaker

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has an implantable cardioverter/defibrillator (ICD). Which of the following information should the nurse include? The client can carry his ICD in a small pocket. The client should avoid the use of small electric devices The client should hold his cell phone on the side opposite the ICD. The client cannot travel by air due to security screening.

The client should hold his cell phone on the side opposite the ICD.

A nurse is monitoring a client who had a myocardial infarction. For which of the following complications should the nurse monitor in the first 24 hrs? Pulmonary emboli Infective endocarditis Pericarditis Ventricular dysrhythmias

Ventricular dysrhythmias

A newborn has a murmur and a small hole in the muscle between the lower chambers of the heart. Which congenital heart defect should the nurse suspect the newborn has? Pulmonary stenosis Ventricular septal defect Pulmonary atresia Atrioventricular canal

Ventricular septal defect

Treatment for atrial arrhythmias

adenosine beta blockers calcium channel blockers digoxin

SVT intervention

adenosine try to stimulate vagal response with valsalva maneuver

Select all the complications that can arise from the progressive stage of shock:* A. Acute respiratory distress syndrome B. Extreme edema C. Elevated ammonia and lactate levels D. GI bleeding and ulcers E. Dysrhythmias F. Myocardial infraction G. Acute tubular necrosis H. Disseminated intravascular clotting

all

rules for this rhythm: Rate - 0 Rhythm - flatline P waves - not present PRI - cannot be measured QRS - not present; may see 1 - 2 beats on the strip

asystole

P wave represents

atrial contraction

Rules for this rhythm: Rate - variable ventricular rate; atrial rate ≥ 300/min. Atria "quiver" Rhythm - irregular P waves - not present; "f" waves PRI - cannot be measured QRS - narrow - 0.04 - 0.10

atrial fibrillation

chaotic p wave patterns =

atrial fibrillation

irregularly irregular rhythm =

atrial fibrillation

The nurse assesses the respiratory status of a client who is experiencing an exacerbation of COPD secondary to an upper respiratory tract infection. Which of the following findings would be expected? bilateral clear breath sounds bilateral course crackles and rhonchi prolonged inspiration normal chest movement

bilateral course crackles and rhonchi

which type of defect? pulmonary atresia

decreased pulmonary blood flow

which type of defect? pulmonary stenosis

decreased pulmonary blood flow

which type of defect? tetralogy of fallot

decreased pulmonary blood flow

which type of defect? tricuspid atresia

decreased pulmonary blood flow

The nurse is providing care to an adult client with a long history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The client is admitted to the intensive care unit with a pneumothorax. Which interventions are appropriate for this client? Select all that apply. Administer a high rate of oxygen by nasal cannula Administer prescribed antihypertensive medications Administer intravenous caffeine per order Elevate head of bed Prepare for chest tube insertion

elevate head of bed prepare for chest tube insertion

2nd Degree Type 2 Heart Blocks are sometimes called Wenckebach Heart Blocks.* T/F

false

Atrial fibrillation is characetized by random p-waves on the EKG T/F

false

In 2nd degree, type 2 (Mobitz II), the p-waves (atrial rate) are usually regular while the ventricle rate is irregular. In addition, this pattern tends to be CYCLIC.* T/F

false

TRUE or FALSE: A Second-Degree Type II heart block (Mobitz II) is the most serious type of heart block among all the types of AV heart blocks.

false

TRUE or FALSE: A Third-Degree Heart Block is unlikely to cause symptoms in a patient and usually requires no treatment.

false

TRUE or FALSE: A patient experiencing fine ventricular fibrillation has a better chance of being revived than a patient in coarse ventricular fibrillation.

false

TRUE or FALSE: All types of shock during the compensatory (early) stage will cause a patient to experience cold and clammy (moist or sweaty) skin.*

false

TRUE or FALSE: Asystole requires immediate defibrillation to increase the patient's chances of survival.

false

TRUE or FALSE: The signs and symptoms of a ventricular septal defect are most commonly detected in a baby following birth.*

false

The R waves in atrial fibrillation are regular T/F

false

The nurse is discussing dietary changes for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which advice should the nurse include? increase dairy products restrict fluids follow a low-salt diet follow a low protein, high-carbohydrate diet

follow a low-salt diet

which type of defect? ASD

increased pulmonary blood flow

which type of defect? AV Canal

increased pulmonary blood flow

which type of defect? PDA

increased pulmonary blood flow

which type of defect? VSD

increased pulmonary blood flow

A nurse is assessing a patient for manifestations of Parkinson's disease. Which of the following findings are associated with Parkinson's Disease? (Select all that apply.) Lack of facial expression Difficulty swallowing Bilateral ankle edema Shuffling gait Hypertension Pill-rolling tremors of the fingers

lack of facial expression (mask-like) difficulty swallowing shuffling gait pill-rolling tremors of fingers

early shock = ____decrease in MAP

less than 10

treatment for ventricular arrhythmias

lidocaine amiodarone

which type of defect? total anomalous pulmonary venous return

mixed defect

which type of defect? transposition of the great arteries

mixed defect

which type of defect? truncus arteriosus

mixed defect

PR segment represents

movement of electrical activity from atria to the ventricles

cerebral hematoma--type of shock

neurogenic shock

What shows PEA?

no pulse, rhythm showing on the monitor

treatment for normal sinus rhythm

none

A patient experiencing septic shock is intubated and placed on mechanical ventilation after progressively worsening arterial blood gas (ABG) values. Which ABG result should the nurse understand is the most likely reason for the patient's intubation? pH increased, PaCO2 decreased, PaO2 decreased pH decreased, PaCO2 increased, PaO2 decreased pH decreased, PaCO2 decreased, PaO2 increased pH increased, PaCO2 increased, PaO2 decreased

pH decreased, PaCO2 increased, PaO2 decreased

3 congenital heart defects that increase pulmonary blood flow

patent ductus arteriosus ventricular septal defect atrial septal defect

symptom of asystole

patient is pulseless--in cardiac arrest

rules for this rhythm: Rate - variable Rhythm - variable P waves - may be present PRI - can be measured if P waves present QRS - variable configuration

pulseless electrical activity