NU273 Cellular Regulation
A 17-year-old male has been diagnosed with osteosarcoma of the upper tibia following several months of leg pain. Which statement by the client demonstrates that he has an accurate understanding of his diagnosis? "I guess it's good that at least my tumor is a benign type." "I'm really nervous about having to get surgery and chemo." "It still feels surreal that I'm going to have to get my leg amputated." "I'm gaining hope from the fact that it's really rare for someone to die from this."
"I'm really nervous about having to get surgery and chemo." Explanation: Osteosarcomas are malignant bone tumors that are treatable by surgery and chemotherapy. Survival is in the range of 55%-70%, so death is not uncommon. Amputation is sometimes necessary, but is certainly not an inevitability.
During a routine checkup, a nurse assesses a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) for signs and symptoms of cancer. What is the most common AIDS-related cancer? multiple myeloma Kaposi's sarcoma leukemia squamous cell carcinoma
Kaposi's sarcoma Explanation: Kaposi's sarcoma is the most common cancer associated with AIDS. Squamous cell carcinoma, multiple myeloma, and leukemia may occur in anyone and aren't associated specifically with AIDS.
Information has been received by a client's neuron and transmitted into the cell body. What component of the neurologic system performed this function? dendrite nucleus axon soma
dendrite Explanation: Dendrites carry information to the nerve and axons; they also carry information from a nerve to be transmitted to effector cells, which are found in muscles, glands, or another nerve. Soma refers to the cell body. The nucleus is the central part of a cell, which is responsible for the cell's growth, reproduction, and metabolism.
A 53-year-old man presents with inability to concentrate, itching in his fingers and toes, elevated blood pressure, and unexplained weight loss. He is diagnosed with primary polycythemia. The primary goal of his treatment will be to: reduce the viscosity of his blood. increase the amount of oxygen distributed by his red blood cells. reduce the mean size of his red blood cells. control his hypertension.
reduce the viscosity of his blood. Explanation: While hypertension may accompany polycythemia vera, the primary goal of treatment is to control the increase in blood viscosity that accompanies the disease. Polycythemia vera is not associated with increased corpuscular volume and oxygen distribution is not a priority problem.
A client asks the health care provider to, "Explain brachytherapy, which is recommended for my cervical cancer." Which response by the nurse is most accurate? "They will insert a radioactive device into your vagina and position it next to the cervix, so that curative levels of radiation are directly on the cancer site." "The health care provider will take you to surgery, place your legs in the stirrups, and irrigate your entire vaginal cavity with radioactive water. Then the provider will pack your vagina with sterile packing." "You will go to the x-ray department where they will insert a device in your vagina until it touches the cervix and then turn on a laser." "You will come to the radiation department daily for at least 4 weeks, where they will insert a device and shine a beam on your cervical cancer area, hoping for it to burn off the cancer."
"They will insert a radioactive device into your vagina and position it next to the cervix, so that curative levels of radiation are directly on the cancer site." Explanation: External-beam irradiation and intracavitary irradiation or brachytherapy (i.e., insertion of radioactive materials into the body) can be used in the treatment of cervical cancer. Intracavitary radiation provides direct access to the central lesion and increases the tolerance of the cervix and surrounding tissues, permitting curative levels of radiation to be used. None of the other answers describe this process. It usually is inserted in radiology, and then the client is transported to a private room until an allotted time frame passes.
A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease has metaplasia. Which explanation is the cause? Cells are increased in size due to increased oxygenation. This represents cancerous cells. Cells are replaced in response to chronic irritation. These are nonreversible cell changes.
Cells are replaced in response to chronic irritation. Explanation: Metaplasia represents a reversible change in which one adult cell type is replaced by another adult cell type in response to chronic irritation and inflammation.
Which factor places a client at greatest risk for skin cancer? Fair skin and history of chronic sun exposure Dark skin and family history of skin cancer Dark skin and history of hypertension Caucasian race and history of hypertension
Fair skin and history of chronic sun exposure Explanation: Caucasians who have fair skin and a high exposure to ultraviolet light are at increased risk for malignant neoplasms of the skin. The other risk factors include exposure to tar and arsenicals and family history. History of hypertension is a coronary artery disease risk factor. Clients with dark skin have increased melanin and are not as prone to skin cancer.
Which statement accurately reflects current stem cell research? Stem cell transplantation has been performed in the laboratory only. Stem cell transplantation cannot restore immune system functioning. Clinical trials are underway only in clients with acquired immune deficiencies. The stem cell is known as a precursor cell that continually replenishes the body's entire supply of both red and white cells.
The stem cell is known as a precursor cell that continually replenishes the body's entire supply of both red and white cells. Explanation: The stem cell is known as a precursor cell that continually replenishes the body's entire supply of both red and white cells. Stem cells comprise only a small portion of all types of bone marrow cells. Research conducted with mouse models has demonstrated that once the immune system has been destroyed experimentally, it can be completely restored with the implantation of just a few purified stem cells. Stem cell transplantation has been carried out in human subjects with certain types of immune dysfunction, such as severe combined immunodeficiency. Clinical trails are underway in clients with a variety of disorders with an autoimmune component, including systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, scleroderma, and multiple sclerosis.
Which assessment finding indicates an increased risk of skin cancer? White irregular patches on the client's arm An irregular scar on the client's abdomen A dark mole on the client's back A deep sunburn
A deep sunburn Explanation: A deep sunburn is a risk factor for skin cancer. A dark mole or an irregular scar is a benign finding. White irregular patches are abnormal but aren't a risk for skin cancer.
Chromosomes contain all the genetic content of the genome. There are 23 pairs of different chromosomes in each somatic cell, half from the mother and half from the father. One of those chromosomes is the sex chromosome. What are the other 22 pairs of chromosomes called? Ribosomes Autosomes Helixes Haploids
Autosomes Explanation: Of the 23 pairs of human chromosomes, 22 are called autosomes and are alike in both males and females. The double helix is the shape of the DNA molecule. Ribosomes are areas in a cell that synthesize proteins. Haploid have only one complete set of nonhomologous chromosomes.
A client on the urology floor who has BPH asks the nurse how the pharmacologic agent finasteride will help decrease the size of his prostate. Which principle explains the mechanism of action? Promoting relaxation of the urinary sphincter Decreasing urine output and the need to void Relaxation of the muscles surrounding the urethra Blocking effects of androgens on the prostate
Blocking effects of androgens on the prostate Explanation: Dihydrotestosterone (DHT), an androgen and growth factor, contributes to the development of BPH by increasing the proliferation of prostatic stromal cells and decreasing the death of the epithelial cells. The 5-reductase inhibitors such as finasteride block this effect and reduce prostate size.
Which is the primary role of neurotransmitters? Communicate information from one cell or cell group to another Excite the receptor cell located inside the synaptic cleft Inhibit the receptor cell found inside of glial cells Communicate information within the receptor cell
Communicate information from one cell or cell group to another Explanation: Neurotransmitters are referred to as first messengers, which means molecules that communicate information or change from one cell or cell group to another, cause an immediate effect, and are typically found in circuitry that produces behavior.
A patient with end-stage kidney disease (ESKD) has developed anemia. What laboratory finding does the nurse understand to be significant in this stage of anemia? Calcium level of 9.4 mg/dL Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L Creatinine level of 6 mg/100 mL Magnesium level of 2.5 mg/dL
Creatinine level of 6 mg/100 mL Explanation: The degree of anemia in patients with end-stage renal disease varies greatly; however, in general, patients do not become significantly anemic until the serum creatinine level exceeds 3 mg/100 mL.
A client with chronic renal failure has begun treatment with a colony-stimulating factor. What medication does the nurse anticipate administering to the client that will promote the production of blood cells? infliximab (Remicade) Adalimumab (Humira) Epoetin alfa (Epogen) Etanercept (Enbrel)
Epoetin alfa (Epogen) Explanation: Colony-stimulating factors are cytokines that prompt the bone marrow to produce, mature, and promote the functions of blood cells. CSFs enable stem cells in bone marrow to differentiate into specific types of cells such as leukocytes, erythrocytes, and platelets. Pharmacologic preparation of CSFs, such as epoetin alfa (Epogen), is used to promote the natural production of blood cells in people whose own hematopoietic functions have become compromised. The other medications in A, B, and D are tumor necrosis factor inhibitors.
A 38-year-old woman with proliferative breast changes of papilloma asks the nurse about her risk for breast cancer. Which statement of risk is correct? Lower as a result of your exercising Low unless other relatives have cancer High due to your increasing age Higher because of your papilloma
Higher because of your papilloma Explanation: Clients with proliferative lesions such as calcifications, hyperplasia, sclerosing adenosis, and intraductal papillomas should be evaluated regularly because if these lesions develop atypical cells, they are more likely to develop into cancerous growths. Cancer risk increases when a woman has several first-degree relatives with breast cancer, is obese, is older, has a history of benign breast disease, is childless or did not breast-feed, consumes more than one alcoholic beverage per day, and had early onset of menstruation or late menopause.
When describing meiosis to a group of students, which of the following would be most appropriate to include? It occurs in the reproductive cells of the body. The chromosomes of each cell duplicate during the process. Each resulting cell contains 23 pairs of chromosomes. Diploid daughter cells are formed in the process.
It occurs in the reproductive cells of the body. Explanation: Reference: Hinkle, J. L., Cheever, K. H. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing , 14th ed Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health/Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2018, Chapter 8: Overview of Genetics and Genomics in Nursing, p. 117.
Which is an abnormal mass of tissue in which the growth exceeds and is uncoordinated with that of the normal tissues? Mutation Neoplasm Transformation Insertion
Neoplasm Explanation: An abnormal mass of tissue in which the growth exceeds and is uncoordinated with that of the normal tissues is called a neoplasm. A transformation occurs when a cell has become cancerous. A mutation is an alteration in the DNA that may or may not result in a transformation. An insertion is a type of mutation.
Bone formation occurs in two stages. Which stage involves the formation of prebone or unmineralized bone? Ossification Resorption Calcification Phagocytosis
Ossification Explanation: Bone formation occurs in two stages: ossification and calcification. Ossification involves the formation of osteoid or prebone. Calcification of bone involves the deposition of calcium salts in the osteoid tissue. Resorption involves removing the mineral content and organic matrix of bones. Osteoclasts, by virtue of their phagocytic lineage, ingest minute particles of bone matrix and crystals.
Because of difficulties with hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis is initiated to treat a client's uremia. Which finding during this procedure signals a significant problem? Blood glucose level of 200 mg/dl Hematocrit (HCT) of 35% White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3 Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3 Explanation: An increased WBC count indicates infection, probably resulting from peritonitis, which may have been caused by insertion of the peritoneal catheter into the peritoneal cavity. Peritonitis can cause the peritoneal membrane to lose its ability to filter solutes; therefore, peritoneal dialysis would no longer be a treatment option for this client. Hyperglycemia (evidenced by a blood glucose level of 200 mg/dl) occurs during peritoneal dialysis because of the high glucose content of the dialysate; it's readily treatable with sliding-scale insulin. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L can be treated by adding potassium to the dialysate solution. An HCT of 35% is lower than normal. However, in this client, the value isn't abnormally low because of the daily blood samplings. A lower HCT is common in clients with chronic renal failure because of the lack of erythropoietin.
When providing postpartum teaching to a couple, the nurse correctly identifies what time as when pathologic jaundice may be found in the newborn? after 5 days postpartum between 2 and 4 days of life during the first 24 hours of life often with formula-fed babies
during the first 24 hours of life Explanation: Pathologic jaundice occurs within the first 24 hours of life and is often related to blood incompatibility. Conversely, physiologic jaundice occurs 48 hours or more after birth, peaks at the 5th to 7th day, and disappears between the 7th and 10th day postpartum. Physiologic jaundice is caused by the normal reduction of red blood cells and occurs in both breastfed and bottle-fed babies.
A nurse is providing care to a client who has been diagnosed with a common benign form of gestational trophoblastic disease. The nurse identifies this as: placenta accrete. ectopic pregnancy. hydatidiform mole. hydramnios.
hydatidiform mole. Explanation: Gestational trophoblastic disease comprises a spectrum of neoplastic disorders that originate in the placenta. The two most common types are hydatidiform mole (partial or complete) and choriocarcinoma. Hydatidiform mole is a benign neoplasm of the chorion in which the chorionic villi degenerate and become transparent vesicles containing clear, viscid fluid. Ectopic pregnancy, placenta accreta, and hydramnios fall into different categories of potential pregnancy complications.
A client has developed heart failure. The doctor reviews the client's chest x-ray and notes that the heart has enlarged. The changes in the size and shape of the heart are the result of: hyperplasia. hypoplasia. atrophy. hypertrophy.
hypertrophy. Explanation: Cells adapt to changes in their environment and in their work demands by changing their size, number, and characteristics. An increase in work results in cells undergoing hypertrophy and increasing in size. Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue. A decrease in work demands or adverse environmental conditions can cause the cells to atrophy, or reduce in size. Hypoplasia is underdevelopment or incomplete development of a tissue or an organ.
A client's tissue biopsy reveals the presence of cells that appear to have abnormalities in shape and size. Carcinoma is suspected because these cells possess the characteristics of: loss of differentiation. angiogenesis. cell density-dependent inhibition. cohesiveness and adhesion.
loss of differentiation. Explanation: The deviation from normal patterns of differentiation is a characteristic of cancer cells. Angiogenesis is also associated with malignancy, but this does not directly account for abnormalities in size and shape. Cohesiveness, adhesion, and cell density-dependent inhibition are characteristics of normal cells.
A client with sickle cell anemia has a high hematocrit. normal blood smear. normal hematocrit. low hematocrit.
low hematocrit. Explanation: A client with sickle cell anemia has a low hematocrit and sickled cells on the smear. A client with sickle cell trait usually has a normal hemoglobin level, a normal hematocrit, and a normal blood smear
Vitamin B and folic acid deficiencies are characterized by production of abnormally large erythrocytes called blast cells. megaloblasts. mast cells. monocytes.
megaloblasts. Explanation: Megaloblasts are abnormally large erythrocytes. Blast cells are primitive white blood cells (WBCs). Mast cells are cells found in connective tissue involved in defense of the body and coagulation. Monocytes are large WBCs that become macrophages when they leave the circulation and move into body tissues.
A client has a suspected bladder tumor. What is the most common first symptom of a malignant tumor of the bladder? fever painless hematuria urgency dysuria
painless hematuria Explanation: The most common first symptom of a malignant tumor of the bladder is painless hematuria. Additional early symptoms include UTI with symptoms such as fever, dysuria, urgency, and frequency.
When explaining the structure and function of the cell membrane to a client, the nurse should describe it as being: a bipolar protein layer that contains the cytoplasm. primarily responsible for maintaining cellular integrity. a gas-permeable protective layer. a rigid structure that maintains cell shape.
primarily responsible for maintaining cellular integrity. Explanation: The cell membrane, a thin barrier, is essential for maintaining cellular integrity. The cell membrane is not rigid, allowing adjustment to the changing shape of the cells and so it can repair itself. The phospholipid layer of the membrane is bipolar and it is not gas-permeable.
A client recently admitted to the hospital with sharp, substernal chest pain suddenly reports palpitations. The client ultimately admits to using cocaine 1 hour before admission. The nurse should immediately assess the client's: pulse rate and character. anxiety level. neurobehavioral functioning. level of consciousness.
pulse rate and character. Explanation: Cocaine blocks reuptake of norepinephrine, epinephrine, and dopamine, causing an excess of these neurotransmitters at postsynaptic receptor sites. Consequently, the drug is likely to cause tachyarrhythmias. Although neurobehavioral deficits are common in neonates born to cocaine users, these deficits are rare in adults. As craving for the drug increases, a person who's addicted to cocaine typically experiences euphoria followed by depression, not anxiety.
A client has received a diagnosis of oral cancer. During client education, the client expresses dismay at not having recognized any early signs or symptoms of the disease. The nurse tells the client that in early stages of this disease: symptoms include mouth pain. symptoms include oral bleeding. there are usually no symptoms. symptoms include oral numbness.
there are usually no symptoms. Explanation: The early stage of oral cancer is characteristically asymptomatic.
The nurse admits an adult female client with a medical diagnosis of "rule out MI." The client is very frightened and expresses surprise that a woman would have heart problems. What response by the nurse will be most appropriate? "A woman's heart is smaller and has smaller arteries that become occluded more easily." "The stroke volume from a woman's heart is lower than from a man's heart." "It takes longer for an electrical impulse to travel from the sinoatrial node to the atrioventricular node in a woman." "A woman's resting heart rate is lower than a man's."
"A woman's heart is smaller and has smaller arteries that become occluded more easily." Explanation: Because the coronary arteries of a woman are smaller, they become occluded from atherosclerosis more easily. The resting rate, stroke volume, and ejection fraction of a woman's heart are higher than those of a man. The electrical impulses from the sinoatrial node to the atrioventricular node are not different in the genders.
A nursing faculty member is explaining the function of red bone marrow to students. Which statement made by a student indicates that teaching was successful? "Red bone marrow is composed of adipose cells." "In the adult, red marrow is located in the long bones." "Hematopoietic activity only occurs in infants." "Red bone marrow is the site of blood cell formation."a
"Red bone marrow is the site of blood cell formation." Explanation: Red bone marrow contains developing red blood cells and is the site of blood cell formation.
Which statement would a nurse tell a client that best describes a lab finding of metaplasia? "This is a change in cell form as it adapts to increased work demands or threats to survival." "This is a change in the number of cells as they adapt to change." "This is a decrease in the oxygen-carrying capacity of the cells." "This is a decrease in the size of the cell."
"This is a change in cell form as it adapts to increased work demands or threats to survival." Explanation: Metaplasia is a change in the cell's form as it adapts to increased work demands or threats to survival. Hyperplasia is the change in the number of cells, and atrophy and hypertrophy are changes in a cell's size. Hypoxia or hypoxemia are decreases in oxygen.
Which individual displays the precursors to acromegaly? A girl who has been diagnosed with precocious puberty A client who has recently developed primary adrenal carcinoma An adult who has a diagnosis of Cushing syndrome An adult with an excess of growth hormone due to an adenoma
An adult with an excess of growth hormone due to an adenoma Explanation: When growth hormone (GH) excess occurs in adulthood or after the epiphyses of the long bones have fused, it causes a condition called acromegaly, which represents an exaggerated growth of the ends of the extremities.
The anatomy of the prostate gland is made up of three concentric areas surrounding the prostatic urethra, into which they open. The nurse understands that an overgrowth of the mucosal glands can cause which disorder in older men? Neoplasm cells of the prostate Benign prostatic hyperplasia Testicular cancer Prostate cancer
Benign prostatic hyperplasia Explanation: The prostate gland is made up of many secretory glands arranged in three concentric areas surrounding the prostatic urethra, into which they open. The component glands of the prostate include the small mucosal glands associated with the urethral mucosa, the intermediate submucosal glands that lie peripheral to the mucosal glands, and the large main prostatic glands that are situated toward the outside of the gland. It is the overgrowth of the mucosal glands that causes benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) in older men.
Which is an age-related change associated with the cardiovascular system? Decreased blood pressure Thinner heart valves Decreased cardiac output Increased compliance of heart muscle
Decreased cardiac output Explanation: Age-related changes associated with the cardiovascular system include decreased cardiac output, increased blood pressure, decreased compliance of the heart muscle, and thickening of the heart valves.
A nurse is assessing a client with an autosomal-recessive inherited condition. When discussing the risk of transmission to the client's offspring, what teaching would the nurse include? Females will be predominantly affected. The client's partner will not have the genetic mutation. Each child has a 25% risk of inheriting the gene. The carriers of the gene mutation will have symptoms of the genetic condition.
Each child has a 25% risk of inheriting the gene. Explanation: A person with an autosomal-recessive inherited condition carries a gene mutation for that condition on one chromosome of a pair. Each of that person's offspring has a 25% chance of inheriting the gene mutation for the condition and a 25% chance of inheriting the normal version of the gene. Females and males are equally affected with autosomal-recessive inheritance. Autosomal-recessive inheritance requires that each parent carries the gene mutation on one chromosome of the pair and a normal gene on the other chromosome. The carriers of the gene mutation with an autosomal recessive inherited condition will not have symptoms of the condition.
After teaching nursing students about autosomal-dominant and autosomal-recessive inherited disorders, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the class identifies which of the following as true about autosomal-dominant inherited conditions? The percentage of people with a trait who manifest it is variable. Horizontal transmission is more commonly seen in families. The severity of the manifestations often varies in degrees. Males and females are equally affected by this pattern of inheritance.
Males and females are equally affected by this pattern of inheritance. Explanation: Autosomal-recessive disorders are transmitted horizontally in families; Autosomal-dominant disorders are transmitted vertically. Autosomal-dominant disorders affect males and females equally and have manifestations that vary in degrees of severity (variable expression). Additionally, the percentage of people known to have the particular genetic mutation who actually show the trait (penetrance) varies.
Select the statement that best describes the difference between ribonucleic acid (RNA) and deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). RNA is a single-stranded molecule. The pyrimidine bases of RNA are thymine and cytosine. The sugar in RNA is a single-stranded molecule. RNA is composed of a long string of nucleotides.
RNA is a single-stranded molecule. Explanation: RNA is a single-stranded molecule, while DNA is a double-stranded molecule. The sugar in each nucleotide of RNA is ribose instead of deoxyribose. The pyrimidine base thymine in DNA is replaced by uracil in RNA. RNA, like DNA, is a large molecule made up of a long string of nucleotides.
A patient is diagnosed with a spinal cord tumor and has had a course of radiation and chemotherapy. Two months after the completion of the radiation, the patient complains of severe pain in the back. What is pain an indicator of in a patient with a spinal cord tumor? The development of a skin ulcer from the radiation Spinal metastasis Hematoma formation Lumbar sacral strain
Spinal metastasis Explanation: Pain is the hallmark of spinal metastasis. Patients with sensory root involvement may suffer excruciating pain, which requires effective pain management.
A client is admitted to the hospital for diagnostic testing to rule out colorectal cancer. Which intervention should the nurse include on the plan of care? Prepare the client for a gastrostomy tube placement. Administer topical ointment to the rectal area to decrease bleeding. Administer morphine (Duramorph PF) routinely, as ordered. Test all stools for occult blood.
Test all stools for occult blood. Explanation: Blood in the stools is one of the warning signs of colorectal cancer. The nurse should plan on checking all stools for both frank and occult blood. The blood in the stool is coming from the colon or rectum; administering an ointment wouldn't help decrease the bleeding. Preparing a client for a gastrostomy tube isn't appropriate when diagnosing colorectal cancer. Colorectal cancer is usually painless; administering opioid pain medication isn't needed
A client has been diagnosed with cancer and will begin aggressive treatment. The client's course of treatment includes drug therapies that affect cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs). This drug will achieve a therapeutic effect by: hastening the differentiation of stem cells into healthy cells. aiding stem cells in the identification of neoplasms. reversing the process of uncontrolled cell growth by causing cell atrophy. affecting the progression of cells through the process of cell division.a
affecting the progression of cells through the process of cell division. Explanation: The cyclins are a family of proteins that control the entry and progression of cells through the cell cycle. Manipulation of cyclins, CDKs, and CDK inhibitors serves as the basis for development of newer forms of drug therapy that can be used in cancer treatment. These types of drugs would not cause cell atrophy and they do not have a direct effect on the role of stem cells.
A client with chronic renal failure (CRF) has developed faulty red blood cell (RBC) production. The nurse should monitor this client for: thrush and circumoral pallor. fatigue and weakness. dyspnea and cyanosis. nausea and vomiting.
atigue and weakness. Explanation: RBCs carry oxygen throughout the body. Decreased RBC production diminishes cellular oxygen, leading to fatigue and weakness. Nausea and vomiting may occur in CRF but don't result from faulty RBC production. Dyspnea and cyanosis are associated with fluid excess, not CRF. Thrush, which signals fungal infection, and circumoral pallor, which reflects decreased oxygenation, aren't signs of CRF.
Which type of white blood cells are related to the connective tissue mast cells and respond in allergic and hypersensitivity reactions? Basophils Granulocytes B lymphocytes Neutrophils
Basophils Explanation: The basophil is related to connective tissue mast cells because they contain similar granules and are believed to be involved in allergic and hypersensitivity reactions. Neutrophils, granulocytes, and B lymphocytes are not identified as being similar to mast cells.
The nurse is conducting education for a client who is scheduled to undergo diagnostic testing for non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL). The nurse includes information on: Lymph node biopsy Diagnostic X-ray White blood cell counts Blood cultures
Lymph node biopsy Explanation: Diagnostic testing for NHL includes a lymph node biopsy and immunophenotyping to determine the lineage and clonality.
The prostate gland functions in the elimination of urine. The nurse knows that the prostate gland if enlarged can cause which dysfunction of the urinary system? Drainage Filtration Atony Obstruction
Obstruction Explanation: The prostate gland also functions in the elimination of urine and consists of a thin, fibrous capsule that encloses the circularly oriented smooth muscle fibers and collagenous tissue that surround the urethra where it joins the bladder. Because the prostate surrounds the urethra, enlargement of the gland can produce urinary obstruction.
A client with a nagging cough makes an appointment to see the healthcare provider. For what other signs or symptoms will the nurse assess as a priority? swollen lymph nodes and hematuria change in voice and unexplained weight loss urinary frequency and weak urine stream change in appearance of moles and bowel habits
change in voice and unexplained weight loss Explanation: A nagging cough is one of the warning signs of lung cancer. The nurse will assess for other findings associated with lung cancer such as hemoptysis, change in voice, weight loss, dyspnea, and fatigue. The other options represent warning signs of different cancers--change in moles is associated with melanoma; change in bowel habits with gastrointestinal cancers; urinary frequency and weak stream with prostate or bladder cancer. Hematuria, bladder cancer, and swollen lymph nodes can occur with lung cancer if it has metastasized to the lymph system.
The nurse is assisting with the collection of a Tzanck smear. What is the suspected diagnosis of the patient? Seborrheic dermatosis Fungal infection Psoriasis Herpes zoster
Herpes zoster Explanation: The Tzanck smear is a test used to examine cells from blistering skin conditions, such as herpes zoster, varicella, herpes simplex, and all forms of pemphigus. The secretions from a suspected lesion are applied to a glass slide, stained, and examined.
The physician is attending to a 72-year-old client with a malignant brain tumor. The physician recommends immediate radiation therapy. What is a reason for the physician's recommendation? To analyze the lymph nodes involved To prevent the formation of new cancer cells To remove the tumor from the brain To destroy marginal tissues
To prevent the formation of new cancer cells Explanation: Radiation therapy helps prevent cellular growth. It may be used to cure the cancer or to control malignancy when the tumor cannot be removed or when lymph node involvement is present; also, it can be used prophylactically to prevent spread. Biopsy is used to analyze lymph nodes or to destroy the surrounding tissues around the tumor.
