NUR 322 Exam 1

23. The nurse is providing care for a patient who has benefited from a cochlear implant. The nurse should understand that this patient's health history likely includes which of the following? Select all that apply. A) The patient was diagnosed with sensorineural hearing loss. B) The patient's hearing did not improve appreciably with the use of hearing aids. C) The patient has deficits in peripheral nervous function. D) The patient's hearing deficit is likely accompanied by a cognitive deficit. E) The patient is unable to lip-read.

AB Feedback: A cochlear implant is an auditory prosthesis used for people with profound sensorineural hearing loss bilaterally who do not benefit from conventional hearing aids. The need for a cochlear implant is not associated with deficits in peripheral nervous function, cognitive deficits, or an inability to lip-read.

26. You are caring for a patient admitted to the medical-surgical unit after falling from a horse. The patient states ìI hurt so bad. I suffer from chronic pain anyway, and now it is so much worse.î When planning the patient's care, what variables should you consider? Select all that apply. A) How the presence of pain affects patients and families B) Resources that can assist the patient with pain management C) The influence of the patient's cognition on her pain D) The advantages and disadvantages of available pain-relief strategies E) The difference between acute and intermittent pain

ABD Feedback: Nurses should understand the effects of chronic pain on patients and families and should be knowledgeable about pain-relief strategies and appropriate resources to assist effectively with pain management. There is no evidence of cognitive deficits in this patient and the difference between acute and intermittent pain has no immediate bearing on this patient's care.

36. In your role as a school nurse, you are presenting at a high school health fair and are promoting the benefits of maintaining a healthy body weight. You should refer to reductions in the risks of what diseases? Select all that apply. A) Heart disease B) Stroke C) Cancer D) Diabetes E) Hypertension

ABDE Feedback: The increasing prevalence of obesity has increased the incidence of heart disease, strokes, diabetes, and hypertension. Obesity is not usually cited as a major risk factor for most types of cancer.

3. What would the critical care nurse recognize as a condition that may indicate a patient's need to have a tracheostomy? A) A patient has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. B) A patient requires permanent ventilation. C) A patient exhibits symptoms of dyspnea. D) A patient has respiratory acidosis.

B Feedback: A tracheostomy permits long-term use of mechanical ventilation to prevent aspiration of oral and gastric secretions in the unconscious or paralyzed patient. Indications for a tracheostomy do not include a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute, symptoms of dyspnea, or respiratory acidosis.

28. A gerontologic nurse has been working hard to change the perceptions of the elderly, many of which are negative, by other segments of the population. What negative perceptions of older people have been identified in the literature? Select all that apply. A) As being the cause of social problems B) As not contributing to society C) As draining economic resources D) As competing with children for resources E) As dominating health care research

BCD Feedback: Retirement and perceived nonproductivity are responsible for negative feelings because a younger working person may falsely see older people as not contributing to society and as draining economic resources. Younger working people may actually feel that older people are in competition with children for resources. However, the older population is generally not seen as dominating health care research or causing social problems.

18. A nurse is planning the care of a patient who has been diagnosed with renal failure, which the nurse recognizes as being a chronic condition. Which of the following descriptors apply to chronic conditions? Select all that apply. A) Diseases that resolve slowly B) Diseases where complete cures are rare C) Diseases that have a short, unpredictable course D) Diseases that do not resolve spontaneously E) Diseases that have a prolonged course

BDE Feedback: Chronic conditions can also be defined as illnesses or diseases that have a prolonged course, that do not resolve spontaneously, and for which complete cures are unlikely or rare.

21. A gerontologic nurse is aware of the demographic changes that are occurring in the United States, and this affects the way that the nurse plans and provides care. Which of the following phenomena is currently undergoing the most rapid and profound change? A) More families are having to provide care for their aging members. B) Adult children find themselves participating in chronic disease management. C) A growing number of people live to a very old age. D) Elderly people are having more accidents, increasing the costs of health care.

C Feedback: As the older population increases, the number of people who live to a very old age is dramatically increasing. The other options are all correct, but none is a factor that is most dramatically increasing in this age group.

7. A patient has been diagnosed with hearing loss related to damage of the end organ for hearing or cranial nerve VIII. What term is used to describe this condition? A) Exostoses B) Otalgia C) Sensorineural hearing loss D) Presbycusis

C Feedback: Sensorineural hearing loss is loss of hearing related to damage of the end organ for hearing or cranial nerve VIII. Exostoses refer to small, hard, bony protrusions in the lower posterior bony portion of the ear canal. Otalgia refers to a sensation of fullness or pain in the ear. Presbycusis is the term used to refer to the progressive hearing loss associated with aging. Both middle and inner ear age-related changes result in hearing loss.

25. You are writing a care plan for a patient who has been diagnosed with angina pectoris. The patient describes herself as being ìdistressedî and ìshockedî by her new diagnosis. What nursing diagnosis is most clearly suggested by the woman's statement? A) Spiritual distress related to change in health status B) Acute confusion related to prognosis for recovery C) Anxiety related to cardiac symptoms D) Deficient knowledge related to treatment of angina pectoris

C Feedback: Although further assessment is warranted, it is not unlikely that the patient is experiencing anxiety. In patients with CAD, this often relates to the threat of sudden death. There is no evidence of confusion (i.e., delirium or dementia) and there may or may not be a spiritual element to her concerns. Similarly, it is not clear that a lack of knowledge or information is the root of her anxiety.

39. A nurse has cited a research study that highlights the clinical effectiveness of using placebos in the management of postsurgical patients' pain. What principle should guide the nurse's use of placebos in pain management? A) Placebos require a higher level of informed consent than conventional care. B) Placebos are an acceptable, but unconventional, form of nonpharmacological pain management. C) Placebos are never recommended in the treatment of pain. D) Placebos require the active participation of the patient's family

C Feedback: Broad agreement is that there are no individuals for whom and no condition for which placebos are the recommended treatment. This principle supersedes the other listed statements.

17. The nurse is assessing a patient new to the clinic. Records brought to the clinic with the patient show the patient has hypertension and that her current BP readings approximate the readings from when she was first diagnosed. What contributing factor should the nurse first explore in an effort to identify the cause of the client's inadequate BP control? A) Progressive target organ damage B) Possibility of medication interactions C) Lack of adherence to prescribed drug therapy D) Possible heavy alcohol use or use of recreational drugs

C Feedback: Deviation from the therapeutic program is a significant problem for people with hypertension and other chronic conditions requiring lifetime management. An estimated 50% of patients discontinue their medications within 1 year of beginning to take them. Consequently, this is a more likely problem than substance use, organ damage, or adverse drug interactions.

3. A nurse is performing blood pressure screenings at a local health fair. While obtaining subjective assessment data from a patient with hypertension, the nurse learns that the patient has a family history of hypertension and she herself has high cholesterol and lipid levels. The patient says she smokes one pack of cigarettes daily and drinks ìabout a pack of beerî every day. The nurse notes what nonmodifiable risk factor for hypertension? A) Hyperlipidemia B) Excessive alcohol intake C) A family history of hypertension D) Closer adherence to medical regimen

C Feedback: Unlike cholesterol levels, alcohol intake and adherence to treatment, family history is not modifiable.

39. A patient is admitted to the cardiac care unit for an electrophysiology (EP) study. What goal should guide the planning and execution of the patient's care? A) Ablate the area causing the dysrhythmia. B) Freeze hypersensitive cells. C) Diagnose the dysrhythmia. D) Determine the nursing plan of care.

C Feedback: A patient may undergo an EP study in which electrodes are placed inside the heart to obtain an intracardiac ECG. This is used not only to diagnose the dysrhythmia but also to determine the most effective treatment plan. However, because an EP study is invasive, it is performed in the hospital and may require that the patient be admitted.

27. A patient has undergone diagnostic testing and received a diagnosis of sinus bradycardia attributable to sinus node dysfunction. When planning this patient's care, what nursing diagnosis is most appropriate? A) Acute pain B) Risk for unilateral neglect C) Risk for activity intolerance D) Risk for fluid volume excess

C Feedback: Sinus bradycardia causes decreased cardiac output that is likely to cause activity intolerance. It does not typically cause pain, fluid imbalances, or neglect of a unilateral nature.

31. The public health nurse is addressing eye health and vision protection during an educational event. What statement by a participant best demonstrates an understanding of threats to vision? A) ìI'm planning to avoid exposure to direct sunlight on my next vacation.î B) ìI've never exercised regularly, but I'm going to start working out at the gym daily.î C) ìI'm planning to talk with my pharmacist to review my current medications.î D) ìI'm certainly going to keep a close eye on my blood pressure from now on.î

D Feedback: Hypertension is a major cause of vision loss, exceeding the significance of inactivity, sunlight, and adverse effects of medications.

28. A patient comes to the walk-in clinic complaining of frequent headaches. While assessing the patient's vital signs, the nurse notes the BP is 161/101 mm Hg. According to JNC 7, how would this patient's BP be defined if a similar reading were obtained at a subsequent office visit? A) High normal B) Normal C) Stage 1 hypertensive D) Stage 2 hypertensive

D Feedback: JNC 7 defines stage 2 hypertension as a reading ≥ 160/100 mm Hg

24. A patient presents to the ED complaining of a sudden onset of incapacitating vertigo, with nausea and vomiting and tinnitus. The patient mentions to the nurse that she suddenly cannot hear very well. What would the nurse suspect the patient's diagnosis will be? A) Ossiculitis B) MÈniËre's disease C) Ototoxicity D) Labyrinthitis

D Feedback: Labyrinthitis is characterized by a sudden onset of incapacitating vertigo, usually with nausea and vomiting, various degrees of hearing loss, and possibly tinnitus. None of the other listed diagnosis is characterized by a rapid onset of symptoms.

40. A patient's recently elevated BP has prompted the primary care provider to prescribe furosemide (Lasix). The nurse should closely monitor which of the following? A) The client's oxygen saturation level B) The patient's red blood cells, hematocrit, and hemoglobin C) The patient's level of consciousness D) The patient's potassium level

D Feedback: Loop diuretics can cause potassium depletion. They do not normally affect level of consciousness, erythrocytes, or oxygen saturation

17. A 60-year-old patient who has diabetes had a below-knee amputation 1 week ago. The patient asks ìwhy does it still feel like my leg is attached, and why does it still hurt?î The nurse explains neuropathic pain in terms that are accessible to the patient. The nurse should describe what pathophysiologic process? A) The proliferation of nociceptors during times of stress B) Age-related deterioration of the central nervous system C) Psychosocial dependence on pain medications D) The abnormal reorganization of the nervous system

D Feedback: At any point from the periphery to the CNS, the potential exists for the development of neuropathic pain. Hyperexcitable nerve endings in the periphery can become damaged, leading to abnormal reorganization of the nervous system called neuroplasticity, an underlying mechanism of some neuropathic pain states. Neuropathic pain is not a result of age-related changes, nociceptor proliferation, or dependence on medications.

35. The home care nurse is planning to begin breathing retraining exercises with a client newly admitted to the home health service. The home care nurse knows that breathing retraining is especially indicated if the patient has what diagnosis? A) Asthma B) Pneumonia C) Lung cancer D) COPD

D Feedback: Breathing retraining is especially indicated in patients with COPD and dyspnea. Breathing retraining may be indicated in patients with other lung pathologies, but not to the extent indicated in patients with COPD.

18. An ECG has been ordered for a newly admitted patient. What should the nurse do prior to electrode placement? A) Clean the skin with providone-iodine solution. B) Ensure that the area for electrode placement is dry. C) Apply tincture of benzoin to the electrode sites and wait for it to become ìtacky.î D) Gently abrade the skin by rubbing the electrode sites with dry gauze or cloth.

D Feedback: An ECG is obtained by slightly abrading the skin with a clean dry gauze pad and placing electrodes on the body at specific areas. The abrading of skin will enhance signal transmission. Disinfecting the skin is unnecessary and conduction gel is used.

31. A community health nurse teaching a group of adults about preventing and treating hypertension. The nurse should encourage these participants to collaborate with their primary care providers and regularly monitor which of the following? A) Heart rate B) Sodium levels C) Potassium levels D) Blood lipid levels

D Feedback: Hypertension often accompanies other risk factors for atherosclerotic heart disease, such as dyslipidemia (abnormal blood fat levels), obesity, diabetes, metabolic syndrome, and a sedentary lifestyle. Individuals with hypertension need to monitor their sodium intake, but hypernatremia is not a risk factor for hypertension. In many patients, heart rate does not correlate closely with BP. Potassium levels do not normally relate to BP.

30. A nurse educator is reviewing the indications for chest drainage systems with a group of medical nurses. What indications should the nurses identify? Select all that apply. A) Post thoracotomy B) Spontaneous pneumothorax C) Need for postural drainage D) Chest trauma resulting in pneumothorax E) Pleurisy

ABD Feedback: Chest drainage systems are used in treatment of spontaneous pneumothorax and trauma resulting in pneumothorax. Postural drainage and pleurisy are not criteria for use of a chest drainage system

19. The nurse is providing care for a patient with a diagnosis of hypertension. The nurse should consequently assess the patient for signs and symptoms of which other health problem? A) Migraines B) Atrial-septal defect C) Atherosclerosis D) Thrombocytopenia

C Feedback: Hypertension is both a sign and a risk factor for atherosclerotic heart disease. It is not associated with structural cardiac defects, low platelet levels, or migraines.

20. The nurse is planning the care of a patient with a diagnosis of vertigo. What nursing diagnosis risk should the nurse prioritize in this patient's care? A) Risk for disturbed sensory perception B) Risk for unilateral neglect C) Risk for falls D) Risk for ineffective health maintenance

C Feedback: Vertigo is defined as the misperception or illusion of motion, either of the person or the surroundings. A patient suffering from vertigo will be at an increased risk of falls. For most patients, this is likely to exceed the patient's risk for neglect, ineffective health maintenance, or disturbed sensation.

30. The nurse caring for a patient whose sudden onset of sinus bradycardia is not responding adequately to atropine. What might be the treatment of choice for this patient? A) Implanted pacemaker B) Trancutaneous pacemaker C) ICD D) Asynchronous defibrillator

B Feedback: If a patient suddenly develops a bradycardia, is symptomatic but has a pulse, and is unresponsive to atropine, emergency pacing may be started with transcutaneous pacing, which most defibrillators are now equipped to perform. An implanted pacemaker is not a time-appropriate option. An asynchronous defibrillator or ICD would not provide relief.

8. The nurse is administering eye drops to a patient with glaucoma. After instilling the patient's first medication, how long should the nurse wait before instilling the patient's second medication into the same eye? A) 30 seconds B) 1 minute C) 3 minutes D) 5 minute

D Feedback: A 5-minute interval between successive eye drop administrations allows for adequate drug retention and absorption. Any time frame less than 5 minutes will not allow adequate absorption.

38. A patient in hypertensive urgency is admitted to the hospital. The nurse should be aware of what goal of treatment for a patient in hypertensive urgency? A) Normalizing BP within 2 hours B) Obtaining a BP of less than 110/70 mm Hg within 36 hours C) Obtaining a BP of less than 120/80 mm Hg within 36 hours D) Normalizing BP within 24 to 48 hours

D Feedback: In cases of hypertensive urgency, oral agents can be administered with the goal of normalizing BP within 24 to 48 hours. For patients with this health problem, a BP of ≤ 120/80 mm Hg may be unrealistic.

2. A patient presents to the walk-in clinic complaining of intermittent chest pain on exertion, which is eventually attributed to angina. The nurse should inform the patient that angina is most often attributable to what cause? A) Decreased cardiac output B) Decreased cardiac contractility C) Infarction of the myocardium D) Coronary arteriosclerosis

D Feedback: In most cases, angina pectoris is due to arteriosclerosis. The disease is not a result of impaired cardiac output or contractility. Infarction may result from untreated angina, but it is not a cause of the disease.

38. On otoscopy, a red blemish behind the tympanic membrane is suggestive of what diagnosis? A) Acoustic tumor B) Cholesteatoma C) Facial nerve neuroma D) Glomus tympanicum

D Feedback: In the case of glomus tympanicum, a red blemish on or behind the tympanic membrane is seen on otoscopy. This assessment finding is not associated with an acoustic tumor, facial nerve neuroma, or cholesteatoma

26. Nurses and members of other health disciplines at a state's public health division are planning programs for the next 5 years. The group has made the decision to focus on diseases that are experiencing the sharpest increases in their contributions to the overall death rate in the state. This team should plan health promotion and disease prevention activities to address what health problem? A) Stroke B) Cancer C) Respiratory infections D) Alzheimer's disease

D Feedback: In the past 60 years, overall deaths, and specifically, deaths from heart disease, have declined. Recently, deaths from cancer and cerebrovascular disease have declined. However, deaths from Alzheimer's disease have risen more than 50% between 1999 and 2007.

25. You are caring for a young woman who has Down syndrome and who has just been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. What consideration should you prioritize when planning this patient's nursing care? A) How her new diagnosis affects her health attitudes B) How her diabetes affects the course of her Down syndrome C) How her chromosomal disorder affects her glucose metabolism D) How her developmental disability influences her health management

D Feedback: It is important to consider the interaction between existing disabilities and new diagnoses. Cognitive and motor deficits would greatly affect diabetes management. Diabetes would not likely affect her attitude or the course of her Down syndrome. Chromosomal disorders such as Down syndrome do not affect glucose metabolism.

6. An OR nurse is preparing to assist with a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). The OR nurse knows that the vessel most commonly used as source for a CABG is what? A) Brachial artery B) Brachial vein C) Femoral artery D) Greater saphenous vein

D Feedback: The greater saphenous vein is the most commonly used graft site for CABG. The right and left internal mammary arteries, radial arteries, and gastroepiploic artery are other graft sites used, though not as frequently. The femoral artery, brachial artery, and brachial vein are never harvested.

23. The critical care nurse and the other members of the care team are assessing the patient to see if he is ready to be weaned from the ventilator. What are the most important predictors of successful weaning that the nurse should identify? A) Stable vital signs and ABGs B) Pulse oximetry above 80% and stable vital signs C) Stable nutritional status and ABGs D) Normal orientation and level of consciousness

A Feedback: Among many other predictors, stable vital signs and ABGs are important predictors of successful weaning. Pulse oximetry must greatly exceed 80%. Nutritional status is important, but vital signs and ABGs are even more significant. Patients who are weaned may or may not have full level of consciousness.

10. The nurse has just admitted a 66-year-old patient for cardiac surgery. The patient tearfully admits to the nurse that she is afraid of dying while undergoing the surgery. What is the nurse's best response? A) Explore the factors underlying the patient's anxiety. B) Teach the patient guided imagery techniques. C) Obtain an order for a PRN benzodiazepine. D) Describe the procedure in greater detail.

A Feedback: An assessment of anxiety levels is required in the patient to assist the patient in identifying fears and developing coping mechanisms for those fears. The nurse must further assess and explore the patient's anxiety before providing interventions such as education or medications.

1. The nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with an elevated cholesterol level. The nurse is aware that plaque on the inner lumen of arteries is composed chiefly of what? A) Lipids and fibrous tissue B) White blood cells C) Lipoproteins D) High-density cholesterol

A Feedback: As T-lymphocytes and monocytes infiltrate to ingest lipids on the arterial wall and then die, a fibrous tissue develops. This causes plaques to form on the inner lumen of arterial walls. These plaques do not consist of white cells, lipoproteins, or high-density cholesterol

17. A patient is brought to the ED and determined to be experiencing symptomatic sinus bradycardia. The nurse caring for this patient is aware the medication of choice for treatment of this dysrhythmia is the administration of atropine. What guidelines will the nurse follow when administering atropine? A) Administer atropine 0.5 mg as an IV bolus every 3 to 5 minutes to a maximum of 3.0 mg. B) Administer atropine as a continuous infusion until symptoms resolve. C) Administer atropine as a continuous infusion to a maximum of 30 mg in 24 hours. D) Administer atropine 1.0 mg sublingually.

A Feedback: Atropine 0.5 mg given rapidly as an intravenous (IV) bolus every 3 to 5 minutes to a maximum total dose of 3.0 mg is the medication of choice in treating symptomatic sinus bradycardia. By this guideline, the other listed options are inappropriate.

1. The nurse who is a member of the palliative care team is assessing a patient. The patient indicates that he has been saving his PRN analgesics until the pain is intense because his pain control has been inadequate. What teaching should the nurse do with this patient? A) Medication should be taken when pain levels are low so the pain is easier to reduce. B) Pain medication can be increased when the pain becomes intense. C) It is difficult to control chronic pain, so this is an inevitable part of the disease process. D) The patient will likely benefit more from distraction than pharmacologic interventions.

A Feedback: Better pain control can be achieved with a preventive approach, reducing the amount of time patients are in pain. Low levels of pain are easier to reduce or control than intense levels of pain. Pain medication is used to prevent pain so pain medication is not increased when pain becomes intense. Chronic pain is treatable. Giving the patient alternative methods to control pain is good, but it will not work if the patient is in so much pain that he cannot institute reliable alternative methods

33. The nurse is caring for a patient who has had a biventricular pacemaker implanted. When planning the patient's care, the nurse should recognize what goal of this intervention? A) Resynchronization B) Defibrillation C) Angioplasty D) Ablation

A Feedback: Biventricular (both ventricles) pacing, also called resynchronization therapy, may be used to treat advanced heart failure that does not respond to medication. This type of pacing therapy is not called defibrillation, angioplasty, or ablation therapy.

38. Postural drainage has been ordered for a patient who is having difficulty mobilizing her bronchial secretions. Before repositioning the patient and beginning treatment, the nurse should perform what health assessment? A) Chest auscultation B) Pulmonary function testing C) Chest percussion D) Thoracic palpation

A Feedback: Chest auscultation should be performed before and after postural drainage in order to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy. Percussion and palpation are less likely to provide clinically meaningful data for the nurse. PFTs are normally beyond the scope of the nurse and are not necessary immediately before postural drainage.

7. A patient is exhibiting signs of a pneumothorax following tracheostomy. The surgeon inserts a chest tube into the anterior chest wall. What should the nurse tell the family is the primary purpose of this chest tube? A) To remove air from the pleural space B) To drain copious sputum secretions C) To monitor bleeding around the lungs D) To assist with mechanical ventilation

A Feedback: Chest tubes and closed drainage systems are used to re-expand the lung involved and to remove excess air, fluid, and blood. The primary purpose of a chest tube is not to drain sputum secretions, monitor bleeding, or assist with mechanical ventilation.

1. The nurse is caring for a patient who has had an ECG. The nurse notes that leads I, II, and III differ from one another on the cardiac rhythm strip. How should the nurse best respond? A) Recognize that the view of the electrical current changes in relation to the lead placement. B) Recognize that the electrophysiological conduction of the heart differs with lead placement. C) Inform the technician that the ECG equipment has malfunctioned. D) Inform the physician that the patient is experiencing a new onset of dysrhythmia.

A Feedback: Each lead offers a different reference point to view the electrical activity of the heart. The lead displays the configuration of electrical activity of the heart. Differences between leads are not necessarily attributable to equipment malfunction or dysrhythmias.

7. A patient the nurse is caring for has a permanent pacemaker implanted with the identification code beginning with VVI. What does this indicate? A) Ventricular paced, ventricular sensed, inhibited B) Variable paced, ventricular sensed, inhibited C) Ventricular sensed, ventricular situated, implanted D) Variable sensed, variable paced, inhibited

A Feedback: The identification of VVI indicates ventricular paced, ventricular sensed, inhibited.

15. The nurse and the other members of the team are caring for a patient who converted to ventricular fibrillation (VF). The patient was defibrillated unsuccessfully and the patient remains in VF. According to national standards, the nurse should anticipate the administration of what medication? A) Epinephrine 1 mg IV push B) Lidocaine 100 mg IV push C) Amiodarone 300 mg IV push D) Sodium bicarbonate 1 amp IV push

A Feedback: Epinephrine should be administered as soon as possible after the first unsuccessful defibrillation and then every 3 to 5 minutes. Antiarrhythmic medications such as amiodarone and licocaine are given if ventricular dysrhythmia persists.

19. The nurse is caring for a patient who has just undergone catheter ablation therapy. The nurse in the step-down unit should prioritize what assessment? A) Cardiac monitoring B) Monitoring the implanted device signal C) Pain assessment D) Monitoring the patient's level of consciousness (LOC)

A Feedback: Following catheter ablation therapy, the patient is closely monitored to ensure the dysrhythmia does not reemerge. This is a priority over monitoring of LOC and pain, although these are valid and important assessments. Ablation does not involve the implantation of a device.

21. A critical care nurse is caring for a client with an endotracheal tube who is on a ventilator. The nurse knows that meticulous airway management of this patient is necessary. What is the main rationale for this? A) Maintaining a patent airway B) Preventing the need for suctioning C) Maintaining the sterility of the patient's airway D) Increasing the patient's lung compliance

A Feedback: Maintaining a patent (open) airway is achieved through meticulous airway management, whether in an emergency situation such as airway obstruction or in longterm management, as in caring for a patient with an endotracheal or a tracheostomy tube. The other answers are incorrect.

29. A patient is undergoing preoperative teaching before his cardiac surgery and the nurse is aware that a temporary pacemaker will be placed later that day. What is the nurse's responsibility in the care of the patient's pacemaker? A) Monitoring for pacemaker malfunction or battery failure B) Determining when it is appropriate to remove the pacemaker C) Making necessary changes to the pacemaker settings D) Selecting alternatives to future pacemaker use

A Feedback: Monitoring for pacemaker malfunctioning and battery failure is a nursing responsibility. The other listed actions are physician responsibilities.

14. A nurse is teaching an adult female patient about the risk factors for hypertension. What should the nurse explain as risk factors for primary hypertension? A) Obesity and high intake of sodium and saturated fat B) Diabetes and use of oral contraceptives C) Metabolic syndrome and smoking D) Renal disease and coarctation of the aorta

A Feedback: Obesity, stress, high intake of sodium or saturated fat, and family history are all risk factors for primary hypertension. Diabetes and oral contraceptives are risk factors for secondary hypertension. Metabolic syndrome, renal disease, and coarctation of the aorta are causes of secondary hypertension.

29. You are the nurse caring for a postsurgical patient who is Asian-American who speaks very little English. How should you most accurately assess this patient's pain? A) Use a chart with English on one side of the page and the patient's native language on the other so he can rate his pain. B) Ask the patient to write down a number according to the 0-to-10 point pain scale. C) Use the Visual Analog Scale (VAS). D) Use the services of a translator each time you assess the patient so you can document the patient's pain rating.

A Feedback: Of the listed options, a language comparison chart is most plausible. The VAS requires English language skills, even though it is visual. Asking the patient to write similarly requires the use of English. It is impractical to obtain translator services for every pain assessment, since this is among the most frequently performed nursing assessments.

8. The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for cardiac surgery. What should the nurse include in preoperative care? A) With the patient, clarify the surgical procedure that will be performed. B) Withhold the patient's scheduled medications for at least 12 hours preoperatively. C) Inform the patient that health teaching will begin as soon as possible after surgery. D) Avoid discussing the patient's fears as not to exacerbate them.

A Feedback: Preoperatively, it is necessary to evaluate the patient's understanding of the surgical procedure, informed consent, and adherence to treatment protocols. Teaching would begin on admission or even prior to admission. The physician would write orders to alter the patient's medication regimen if necessary; this will vary from patient to patient. Fears should be addressed directly and empathically.

18. A patient has come to the clinic for a follow-up assessment that will include a BP reading. To ensure an accurate reading, the nurse should confirm that the patient has done which of the following? A) Tried to rest quietly for 5 minutes before the reading is taken B) Refrained from smoking for at least 8 hours C) Drunk adequate fluids during the day prior D) Avoided drinking coffee for 12 hours before the visit

A Feedback: Prior to the nurse assessing the patient's BP, the patient should try to rest quietly for 5 minutes. The forearm should be positioned at heart level. Caffeine products and cigarette smoking should be avoided for at least 30 minutes prior to the visit. Recent fluid intake is not normally relevant.

17. The nurse has admitted a patient who is scheduled for a thoracic resection. The nurse is providing preoperative teaching and is discussing several diagnostic studies that will be required prior to surgery. Which study will be performed to determine whether the planned resection will leave sufficient functioning lung tissue? A) Pulmonary function studies B) Exercise tolerance tests C) Arterial blood gas values D) Chest x-ray

A Feedback: Pulmonary function studies are performed to determine whether the planned resection will leave sufficient functioning lung tissue. ABG values are assessed to provide a more complete picture of the functional capacity of the lung. Exercise tolerance tests are useful to determine if the patient who is a candidate for pneumonectomy can tolerate removal of one of the lungs. Preoperative studies, such as a chest x-ray, are performed to provide a baseline for comparison during the postoperative period and to detect any unsuspected abnormalities.

16. A patient with secondary hypertension has come into the clinic for a routine check-up. The nurse is aware that the difference between primary hypertension and secondary hypertension is which of the following? A) Secondary hypertension has a specific cause. B) Secondary hypertension has a more gradual onset than primary hypertension. C) Secondary hypertension does not cause target organ damage. D) Secondary hypertension does not normally respond to antihypertensive drug therapy.

A Feedback: Secondary hypertension has a specific identified cause. A cause could include narrowing of the renal arteries, renal parenchymal disease, hyperaldosteronism, certain medications, pregnancy, and coarctation of the aorta. Secondary hypertension does respond to antihypertensive drug therapy and can cause target organ damage if left untreated.

5. You are the nurse caring for an 85-year-old patient who has been hospitalized for a fractured radius. The patient's daughter has accompanied the patient to the hospital and asks you what her father can do for his very dry skin, which has become susceptible to cracking and shearing. What would be your best response? A) ìHe should likely take showers rather than baths, if possible.î B) ìMake sure that he applies sunscreen each morning.î C) ìDry skin is an age-related change that is largely inevitable.î D) ìTry to help your father increase his intake of dairy products.î

A Feedback: Showers are less drying than hot tub baths. Sun exposure should indeed be limited, but daily application of sunscreen is not necessary for many patients. Dry skin is an agerelated change, but this does not mean that no appropriate interventions exist to address it. Dairy intake is unrelated.

13. A 48-year-old man presents to the ED complaining of severe substernal chest pain radiating down his left arm. He is admitted to the coronary care unit (CCU) with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). What nursing assessment activity is a priority on admission to the CCU? A) Begin ECG monitoring. B) Obtain information about family history of heart disease. C) Auscultate lung fields. D) Determine if the patient smokes

A Feedback: The 12-lead ECG provides information that assists in ruling out or diagnosing an acute MI. It should be obtained within 10 minutes from the time a patient reports pain or arrives in the ED. By monitoring serial ECG changes over time, the location, evolution, and resolution of an MI can be identified and monitored; life-threatening arrhythmias are the leading cause of death in the first hours after an MI. Obtaining information about family history of heart disease and whether the patient smokes are not immediate priorities in the acute phase of MI. Data may be obtained from family members later. Lung fields are auscultated after oxygenation and pain control needs are met.

9. A patient who is a candidate for an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) asks the nurse about the purpose of this device. What would be the nurse's best response? A) ìTo detect and treat dysrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardiaî B) ìTo detect and treat bradycardia, which is an excessively slow heart rateî C) ìTo detect and treat atrial fibrillation, in which your heart beats too quickly and inefficientlyî D) ìTo shock your heart if you have a heart attack at homeî

A Feedback: The ICD is a device that detects and terminates life-threatening episodes of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. It does not treat atrial fibrillation, MI, or bradycardia.

2. A gerontologic nurse practitioner provides primary care for a large number of older adults who are living with various forms of cardiovascular disease. This nurse is well aware that heart disease is the leading cause of death in the aged. What is an age-related physiological change that contributes to this trend? A) Heart muscle and arteries lose their elasticity. B) Systolic blood pressure decreases. C) Resting heart rate decreases with age. D) Atrial-septal defects develop with age.

A Feedback: The leading cause of death for patients over the age of 65 years is cardiovascular disease. With age, heart muscle and arteries lose their elasticity, resulting in a reduced stroke volume. As a person ages, systolic blood pressure does not decrease, resting heart rate does not decrease, and the aged are not less likely to adopt a healthy lifestyle.

20. The home health nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient who will be managing his chronic pain at home. Using the nursing process, on which concepts should the nurse focus the patient teaching? A) Self-care and safety B) Autonomy and need C) Health promotion and exercise D) Dependence and health

A Feedback: The patient will be at home monitoring his own pain management, administering his own medication, and monitoring and reporting side effects. This requires the ability to perform self-care activities in a safe manner. Creating autonomy is important, but need is a poorly defined concept. Health promotion is an important global concept for maintaining health, and exercise is an appropriate activity; however, self-care and safety are the priorities. Dependence is not a concept used to develop a nursing plan of care, and health is too broad a concept to use as a basis for a nursing plan of care.

32. A patient has been discharged home after thoracic surgery. The home care nurse performs the initial visit and finds the patient discouraged and saddened. The client states, ìI am recovering so slowly. I really thought I would be better by now.î What nursing action should the nurse prioritize? A) Provide emotional support to the patient and family. B) Schedule a visit to the patient's primary physician within 24 hours. C) Notify the physician that the patient needs a referral to a psychiatrist. D) Place a referral for a social worker to visit the patient.

A Feedback: The recovery process may take longer than the patient had expected, and providing support to the patient is an important task for the home care nurse. It is not necessary, based on this scenario, to schedule a visit with the physician within 24 hours, or to get a referral to a psychiatrist or a social worker.

27. A patient is experiencing severe pain after suffering an electrical burn in a workplace accident. The nurse is applying knowledge of the pathophysiology of pain when planning this patient's nursing care. What is the physiologic process by which noxious stimuli, such as burns, activate nociceptors? A) Transduction B) Transmission C) Perception D) Modulation

A Feedback: Transduction refers to the processes by which noxious stimuli, such as a surgical incision or burn, activate primary afferent neurons called nociceptors. Transmission, perception, and modulation are subsequent to this process.

4. The triage nurse in the ED assesses a 66-year-old male patient who presents to the ED with complaints of midsternal chest pain that has lasted for the last 5 hours. If the patient's symptoms are due to an MI, what will have happened to the myocardium? A) It may have developed an increased area of infarction during the time without treatment. B) It will probably not have more damage than if he came in immediately. C) It may be responsive to restoration of the area of dead cells with proper treatment. D) It has been irreparably damaged, so immediate treatment is no longer necessary.

A Feedback: When the patient experiences lack of oxygen to myocardium cells during an MI, the sooner treatment is initiated, the more likely the treatment will prevent or minimize myocardial tissue necrosis. Delays in treatment equate with increased myocardial damage. Despite the length of time the symptoms have been present, treatment needs to be initiated immediately to minimize further damage. Dead cells cannot be restored by any means.

14. The nurse is discussing the results of a patient's diagnostic testing with the nurse practitioner. What Weber test result would indicate the presence of a sensorineural loss? A) The sound is heard better in the ear in which hearing is better. B) The sound is heard equally in both ears. C) The sound is heard better in the ear in which hearing is poorer. D) The sound is heard longer in the ear in which hearing is better.

A Feedback: A patient with sensorineural hearing loss hears the sound better in the ear in which hearing is better. The Weber test assesses bone conduction of sound and is used for assessing unilateral hearing loss. A tuning fork is used. A patient with normal hearing hears the sound equally in both ears or describes the sound as centered in the middle of the head. A patient whose hearing loss is conductive hears the sound better in the affected ear.

15. The nurse is working with a patient who had an MI and is now active in rehabilitation. The nurse should teach this patient to cease activity if which of the following occurs? A) The patient experiences chest pain, palpitations, or dyspnea. B) The patient experiences a noticeable increase in heart rate during activity. C) The patient's oxygen saturation level drops below 96%. D) The patient's respiratory rate exceeds 30 breaths/min

A Feedback: Any activity or exercise that causes dyspnea and chest pain should be stopped in the patient with CAD. Heart rate must not exceed the target rate, but an increase above resting rate is expected and is therapeutic. In most patients, a respiratory rate that exceeds 30 breaths/min is not problematic. Similarly, oxygen saturation slightly below 96% does not necessitate cessation of activity.

13. A nurse is caring for a patient who is exhibiting ventricular tachycardia (VT). Because the patient is pulseless, the nurse should prepare for what intervention? A) Defibrillation B) ECG monitoring C) Implantation of a cardioverter defibrillator D) Angioplasty

A Feedback: Any type of VT in a patient who is unconscious and without a pulse is treated in the same manner as ventricular fibrillation: Immediate defibrillation is the action of choice. ECG monitoring is appropriate, but this is an assessment, not an intervention, and will not resolve the problem. An ICD and angioplasty do not address the dysrhythmia.

10. A patient comes to the ophthalmology clinic for an eye examination. The patient tells the nurse that he often sees floaters in his vision. How should the nurse best interpret this subjective assessment finding? A) This is a normal aging process of the eye. B) Glasses will minimize this phenomenon. C) The patient may be exhibiting signs of glaucoma. D) This may be a result of weakened ciliary muscles.

A Feedback: As the body ages, the perfect gel-like characteristics of the vitreous humor are gradually lost, and various cells and fibers cast shadows that the patient perceives as floaters. This is a normal aging process.

2. A patient with primary hypertension comes to the clinic complaining of a gradual onset of blurry vision and decreased visual acuity over the past several weeks. The nurse is aware that these symptoms could be indicative of what? A) Retinal blood vessel damage B) Glaucoma C) Cranial nerve damage D) Hypertensive emergency

A Feedback: Blurred vision, spots in front of the eyes, and diminished visual acuity can mean retinal blood vessel damage indicative of damage elsewhere in the vascular system as a result of hypertension. Glaucoma and cranial nerve damage do not normally cause these symptoms. A hypertensive emergency would have a more rapid onset.

16. A patient with cardiovascular disease is being treated with amlodipine (Norvasc), a calcium channel blocking agent. The therapeutic effects of calcium channel blockers include which of the following? A) Reducing the heart's workload by decreasing heart rate and myocardial contraction B) Preventing platelet aggregation and subsequent thrombosis C) Reducing myocardial oxygen consumption by blocking adrenergic stimulation to the heart D) Increasing the efficiency of myocardial oxygen consumption, thus decreasing ischemia and relieving pain

A Feedback: Calcium channel blocking agents decrease sinoatrial node automaticity and atrioventricular node conduction, resulting in a slower heart rate and a decrease in the strength of the heart muscle contraction. These effects decrease the workload of the heart. Antiplatelet and anticoagulation medications are administered to prevent platelet aggregation and subsequent thrombosis, which impedes blood flow. Beta-blockers reduce myocardial consumption by blocking beta-adrenergic sympathetic stimulation to the heart. The result is reduced myocardial contractility (force of contraction) to balance the myocardium oxygen needs and supply. Nitrates reduce myocardial oxygen consumption, which decreases ischemia and relieves pain by dilating the veins and, in higher doses, the arteries.

1. An elderly patient has presented to the clinic with a new diagnosis of osteoarthritis. The patient's daughter is accompanying him and you have explained why the incidence of chronic diseases tends to increase with age. What rationale for this phenomenon should you describe? A) With age, biologic changes reduce the efficiency of body systems. B) Older adults often have less support and care from their family, resulting in illness. C) There is an increased morbidity of peers in this age group, and this leads to the older adult's desire to also assume the ìsick roleî. D) Chronic illnesses are diagnosed more often in older adults because they have more contact with the health care system.

A Feedback: Causes of the increasing number of people with chronic conditions include the following: longer lifespans because of advances in technology and pharmacology, improved nutrition, safer working conditions, and greater access (for some people) to health care. Also, biologic conditions change in the aged population. These changes reduce the efficiency of the body's systems. Older adults usually have more support and care from their family members. Assuming the ìsick roleî can be a desire in any age group, not just the elderly.

2. A patient tells the nurse that her doctor just told her that her new diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is considered to be a ìchronic condition.î She asks the nurse what ìchronic conditionî means. What would be the nurse's best response? A) ìChronic conditions are defined as health problems that require management of several months or longer.î B) ìChronic conditions are diseases that come and go in a relatively predictable cycle.î C) ìChronic conditions are medical conditions that culminate in disabilities that require hospitalization.î D) ìChronic conditions are those that require short-term management in extendedcare facilities.î

A Feedback: Chronic conditions are often defined as medical conditions or health problems with associated symptoms or disabilities that require long-term management (3 months or longer). Chronic diseases are usually managed in the home environment. They are not always cyclical or predictable.

20. The nurse is developing a nursing care plan for a patient who is being treated for hypertension. What is a measurable patient outcome that the nurse should include? A) Patient will reduce Na+ intake to no more than 2.4 g daily. B) Patient will have a stable BUN and serum creatinine levels. C) Patient will abstain from fat intake and reduce calorie intake. D) Patient will maintain a normal body weight.

A Feedback: Dietary sodium intake of no more than 2.4 g sodium is recommended as a dietary lifestyle modification to prevent and manage hypertension. Giving a specific amount of allowable sodium intake makes this a measurable goal. None of the other listed goals is quantifiable and measurable.

2. Two patients on your unit have recently returned to the postsurgical unit after knee arthroplasty. One patient is reporting pain of 8 to 9 on a 0-to-10 pain scale, whereas the other patient is reporting a pain level of 3 to 4 on the same pain scale. What is the nurse's most plausible rationale for understanding the patients' different perceptions of pain? A) Endorphin levels may vary between patients, affecting the perception of pain. B) One of the patients is exaggerating his or her sense of pain. C) The patients are likely experiencing a variance in vasoconstriction. D) One of the patients may be experiencing opioid tolerance.

A Feedback: Different people feel different degrees of pain from similar stimuli. Opioid tolerance is associated with chronic pain treatment and would not likely apply to these patients. The nurse should not assume the patient is exaggerating the pain because the patient is the best authority of his or her existence of pain, and definitions for pain state that pain is ìwhatever the person says it is, existing whenever the experiencing person says it does.î

32. A hearing-impaired patient is scheduled to have an MRI. What would be important for the nurse to remember when caring for this patient? A) Patient is likely unable to hear the nurse during test. B) A person adept in sign language must be present during test. C) Lip reading will be the method of communication that is necessary. D) The nurse should interact with the patient like any other patient.

A Feedback: During health care and screening procedures, the practitioner (e.g., dentist, physician, nurse) must be aware that patients who are deaf or hearing-impaired are unable to read lips, see a signer, or read written materials in the dark rooms required during some diagnostic tests. The same situation exists if the practitioner is wearing a mask or not in sight (e.g., x-ray studies, MRI, colonoscopy).

14. A nurse is teaching a patient with glaucoma how to administer eye drops to achieve maximum absorption. The nurse should teach the patient to perform what action? A) Instill the medication in the conjunctival sac. B) Maintain a supine position for 10 minutes after administration. C) Keep the eyes closed for 1 to 2 minutes after administration. D) Apply the medication evenly to the sclera

A Feedback: Eye drops should be instilled into the conjunctival sac, where absorption can best take place, rather than distributed over the sclera. It is unnecessary to keep the eyes closed or to maintain a supine position after administration.

18. The nurse is admitting a 55-year-old male patient diagnosed with a retinal detachment in his left eye. While assessing this patient, what characteristic symptom would the nurse expect to find? A) Flashing lights in the visual field B) Sudden eye pain C) Loss of color vision D) Colored halos around lights

A Feedback: Flashing lights in the visual field is a common symptom of retinal detachment. Patients may also report spots or floaters or the sensation of a curtain being pulled across the eye. Retinal detachment is not associated with eye pain, loss of color vision, or colored halos around lights

13. A patient is postoperative day 6 following tympanoplasty and mastoidectomy. The patient has phoned the surgical unit and states that she is experiencing occasional sharp, shooting pains in her affected ear. How should the nurse best interpret this patient's complaint? A) These pains are an expected finding during the first few weeks of recovery. B) The patient's complaints are suggestive of a postoperative infection. C) The patient may have experienced a spontaneous rupture of the tympanic membrane. D) The patient's surgery may have been unsuccessful.

A Feedback: For 2 to 3 weeks after surgery, the patient may experience sharp, shooting pains intermittently as the eustachian tube opens and allows air to enter the middle ear. Constant, throbbing pain accompanied by fever may indicate infection and should be reported to the primary care provider. The patient's pain does not suggest tympanic perforation or unsuccessful surgery.

4. The nurse is caring for a 65-year-old patient who has previously been diagnosed with hypertension. Which of the following blood pressure readings represents the threshold between high-normal blood pressure and hypertension? A) 140/90 mm Hg B) 145/95 mm Hg C) 150/100 mm Hg D) 160/100 mm Hg

A Feedback: Hypertension is the diagnosis given when the blood pressure is greater than 140/90 mm Hg. This makes the other options incorrect.

34. Based on a patient's vague explanations for recurring injuries, the nurse suspects that a community-dwelling older adult may be the victim of abuse. What is the nurse's primary responsibility? A) Report the findings to adult protective services. B) Confront the suspected perpetrator. C) Gather evidence to corroborate the abuse. D) Work with the family to promote healthy conflict resolution

A Feedback: If neglect or abuse of any kindóincluding physical, emotional, sexual, or financial abuseóis suspected, the local adult protective services agency must be notified. The responsibility of the nurse is to report the suspected abuse, not to prove it, confront the suspected perpetrator, or work with the family to promote resolution.

12. A patient who is legally blind is being admitted to the hospital. The patient informs the nurse that she needs to have her guide dog present during her hospitalization. What is the nurse's best response to the patient? A) ìArrangements can be made for your guide dog to be at the hospital with you during your stay.î B) ìI will need to check with the care team before that decision can be made.î C) ìBecause of infection control, your guide dog will likely not be allowed to stay in your room during your hospitalization.î D) ìYour guide dog can stay with you during your hospitalization, but he will need to stay in a cage or crate that you will need to provide.î

A Feedback: If patients usually use service animals to assist them with ADLs, it is necessary to make arrangements for the accommodation of these animals. The patient should be moved to a private room, and a cage would prevent the service dog from freely assisting the patient, so it is not necessary.

10. You are caring for a patient with a history of chronic angina. The patient tells you that after breakfast he usually takes a shower and shaves. It is at this time, the patient says, that he tends to experience chest pain. What might you counsel the patient to do to decrease the likelihood of angina in the morning? A) Shower in the evening and shave before breakfast. B) Skip breakfast and eat an early lunch. C) Take a nitro tab prior to breakfast. D) Shower once a week and shave prior to breakfast.

A Feedback: If the nurse determines that one of the situations most likely to precipitate angina is to shower and shave after breakfast, the nurse might counsel the patient to break these activities into different times during the day. Skipping breakfast and eating an early lunch would not decrease the likelihood of angina in the morning. Taking a nitro tablet before breakfast is inappropriate because the event requiring the medication has not yet occurred. Also, suggesting that the patient shower once a week and shave prior to breakfast is an incorrect suggestion because showering and shaving can both be done every day if they are spread out over the course of the day.

36. The nurse is caring for a patient who is in the recovery room following the implantation of an ICD. The patient has developed ventricular tachycardia (VT). What should the nurse assess and document? A) ECG to compare time of onset of VT and onset of device's shock B) ECG so physician can see what type of dysrhythmia the patient has C) Patient's level of consciousness (LOC) at the time of the dysrhythmia D) Patient's activity at time of dysrhythmia

A Feedback: If the patient has an ICD implanted and develops VT or ventricular fibrillation, the ECG should be recorded to note the time between the onset of the dysrhythmia and the onset of the device's shock or antitachycardia pacing. This is a priority over LOC or activity at the time of onset.

6. An international nurse has noted that a trend in developing countries is a decrease in mortality from some acute conditions. This has corresponded with an increase in the incidence and prevalence of chronic diseases. What has contributed to this decrease in mortality from some acute conditions? A) Improved nutrition B) Integration of alternative health practices C) Stronger international security measures D) Decrease in obesity

A Feedback: In developing countries, chronic conditions have become the major cause of healthrelated problems due to improved nutrition, immunizations, and prompt and aggressive management of acute conditions. The integration of alternative health practices has not contributed to a decrease in mortality. Stronger international security measures have not contributed to a decrease in mortality. Obesity has not decreased, even in developing countries.

30. For several years, a community health nurse has been working with a 78-year-old man who requires a wheelchair for mobility. The nurse is aware that the interactions between disabilities and aging are not yet clearly understood. This interaction varies, depending on what variable? A) Socioeconomics B) Ethnicity C) Education D) Pharmacotherapy

A Feedback: Large gaps exist in our understanding of the interaction between disabilities and aging, including how this interaction varies, depending on the type and degree of disability, and other factors such as socioeconomics and gender. Ethnicity, education, and pharmacotherapy are not identified as salient influences on this interaction.

25. A patient got a sliver of glass in his eye when a glass container at work fell and shattered. The glass had to be surgically removed and the patient is about to be discharged home. The patient asks the nurse for a topical anesthetic for the pain in his eye. What should the nurse respond? A) ìOveruse of these drops could soften your cornea and damage your eye.î B) ìYou could lose the peripheral vision in your eye if you used these drops too much.î C) ìI'm sorry, this medication is considered a controlled substance and patients cannot take it home.î D) ìI know these drops will make your eye feel better, but I can't let you take them home.î

A Feedback: Most patients are not allowed to take topical anesthetics home because of the risk of overuse. Patients with corneal abrasions and erosions experience severe pain and are often tempted to overuse topical anesthetic eye drops. Overuse of these drops results in softening of the cornea. Prolonged use of anesthetic drops can delay wound healing and can lead to permanent corneal opacification and scarring, resulting in visual loss. The nurse must explain the rationale for limiting the home use of these medications.

3. You are frequently assessing an 84-year-old woman's pain after she suffered a humeral fracture in a fall. When applying the nursing process in pain management for a patient of this age, what principle should you best apply? A) Monitor for signs of drug toxicity due to a decrease in metabolism. B) Monitor for an increase in absorption of the drug due to age-related changes. C) Monitor for a paradoxical increase in pain with opioid administration. D) Administer analgesics every 4 to 6 hours as ordered to control pain.

A Feedback: Older people may respond differently to pain than younger people. Because elderly people have a slower metabolism and a greater ratio of body fat to muscle mass compared with younger people, small doses of analgesic agents may be sufficient to relieve pain, and these doses may be effective longer. This fact also corresponds to an increased risk of adverse effects. Paradoxical effects are not a common phenomenon. Frequency of administration will vary widely according to numerous variables.

10. The nurse is caring for a patient with metastatic bone cancer. The patient asks the nurse why he has had to keep getting larger doses of his pain medication, although they do not seem to affect him. What is the nurse's best response? A) ìOver time you become more tolerant of the drug.î B) ìYou may have become immune to the effects of the drug.î C) ìYou may be developing a mild addiction to the drug.î D) ìYour body absorbs less of the drug due to the cancer.î

A Feedback: Over time, the patient is likely to become more tolerant of the dosage. Little evidence indicates that patients with cancer become addicted to the opioid medications. Patients do not become immune to the effects of the drug, and the body does not absorb less of the drug because of the cancer.

33. The nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). What is the major indicator of success for this procedure? A) Increase in the size of the artery's lumen B) Decrease in arterial blood flow in relation to venous flow C) Increase in the patient's resting heart rate D) Increase in the patient's level of consciousness (LOC)

A Feedback: PTCA is used to open blocked coronary vessels and resolve ischemia. The procedure may result in beneficial changes to the patient's LOC or heart rate, but these are not the overarching goals of PTCA. Increased arterial flow is the focus of the procedures.

39. A patient with glaucoma has presented for a scheduled clinic visit and tells the nurse that she has begun taking an herbal remedy for her condition that was recommended by a work colleague. What instruction should the nurse provide to the patient? A) The patient should discuss this new remedy with her ophthalmologist promptly. B) The patient should monitor her IOP closely for the next several weeks. C) The patient should do further research on the herbal remedy. D) The patient should report any adverse effects to her pharmacist.

A Feedback: Patients should discuss any new treatments with an ophthalmologist; this should precede the patient's own further research or reporting adverse effects to the pharmacist. Self-monitoring of IOP is not possible.

10. A patient with primary hypertension complains of dizziness with ambulation. The patient is currently on an alpha-adrenergic blocker and the nurse assesses characteristic signs and symptoms of postural hypotension. When teaching this patient about risks associated with postural hypotension, what should the nurse emphasize? A) Rising slowly from a lying or sitting position B) Increasing fluids to maintain BP C) Stopping medication if dizziness persists D) Taking medication first thing in the morning

A Feedback: Patients who experience postural hypotension should be taught to rise slowly from a lying or sitting position and use a cane or walker if necessary for safety. It is not necessary to teach these patients about increasing fluids or taking medication in the morning (this would increase the effects of dizziness). Patient should not be taught to stop the medication if dizziness persists because this is unsafe and beyond the nurse's scope of practice.

11. The nurse in the ED is caring for a 4 year-old brought in by his parents who state that the child will not stop crying and pulling at his ear. Based on information collected by the nurse, which of the following statements applies to a diagnosis of external otitis? A) External otitis is characterized by aural tenderness. B) External otitis is usually accompanied by a high fever. C) External otitis is usually related to an upper respiratory infection. D) External otitis can be prevented by using cotton-tipped applicators to clean the ear.

A Feedback: Patients with otitis externa usually exhibit pain, discharge from the external auditory canal, and aural tenderness. Fever and accompanying upper respiratory infection occur more commonly in conjunction with otitis media (infection of the middle ear). Cottontipped applicators can actually cause external otitis so their use should be avoided.

38. A case manager is responsible for ensuring that patients meet the criteria for diagnoses of chronic conditions in order to ensure their eligibility for federal programs. Which of these definitions may not apply for legal purposes? A) A person who is temporarily disabled but later return to full functioning. B) A person who is disabled and cannot expect a return to full functioning. C) A person whose disability is the result of a developmental disorder. D) A person whose disability is the result of a traumatic injury

A Feedback: People can be temporarily disabled because of an injury or acute exacerbation of a chronic disorder, but later return to full functioning; this definition of disability may not apply for legal purposes. Disabilities may result from developmental challenges or trauma.

18. When discussing angina pectoris secondary to atherosclerotic disease with a patient, the patient asks why he tends to experience chest pain when he exerts himself. The nurse should describe which of the following phenomena? A) Exercise increases the heart's oxygen demands. B) Exercise causes vasoconstriction of the coronary arteries. C) Exercise shunts blood flow from the heart to the mesenteric area. D) Exercise increases the metabolism of cardiac medications.

A Feedback: Physical exertion increases the myocardial oxygen demand. If the patient has arteriosclerosis of the coronary arteries, then blood supply is diminished to the myocardium. Exercise does not cause vasoconstriction or interfere with drug metabolism. Exercise does not shunt blood flow away from the heart.

10. A patient with otosclerosis has significant hearing loss. What should the nurse do to best facilitate communication with the patient? A) Sit or stand in front of the patient when speaking. B) Use exaggerated lip and mouth movements when talking. C) Stand in front of a light or window when speaking. D) Say the patient's name loudly before starting to talk.

A Feedback: Standing directly in front of a hearing-impaired patient allows him or her to lip-read and see facial expressions that offer clues to what is being said. Using exaggerated lip and mouth movements can make lip-reading more difficult by distorting words. Backlighting can create glare, making it difficult for the patient to lip-read. To get the attention of a hearing-impaired patient, gently touch the patient's shoulder or stand in front of the patient.

11. A man with a physical disability uses a wheelchair. The individual wants to attend a support group for the parents of autistic children, which is being held in the basement of a church. When the individual arrives at the church, he realizes there are no ramps or elevators to the basement so he will not be able to attend the support group. What type of barrier did this patient encounter? A) A structural barrier B) A barrier to health care C) An institutional barrier D) A transportation barrier

A Feedback: Structural barriers make certain facilities inaccessible. Examples of structural barriers include stairs, lack of ramps, narrow doorways that do not permit entry of a wheelchair, and restroom facilities that cannot be used by people with disabilities. This individual did not experience a barrier to health care, an institutional barrier, or a transportation barrier.

27. A patient presents to the ED in distress and complaining of ìcrushingî chest pain. What is the nurse's priority for assessment? A) Prompt initiation of an ECG B) Auscultation of the patient's point of maximal impulse (PMI) C) Rapid assessment of the patient's peripheral pulses D) Palpation of the patient's cardiac apex

A Feedback: The 12-lead ECG provides information that assists in ruling out or diagnosing an acute MI. It should be obtained within 10 minutes from the time a patient reports pain or arrives in the ED. Each of the other listed assessments is valid, but ECG monitoring is the most time dependent priority.

40. An advanced practice nurse has performed a Rinne test on a new patient. During the test, the patient reports that air-conducted sound is louder than bone-conducted sound. How should the nurse best interpret this assessment finding? A) The patient's hearing is likely normal. B) The patient is at risk for tinnitus. C) The patient likely has otosclerosis. D) The patient likely has sensorineural hearing loss.

A Feedback: The Rinne test is useful for distinguishing between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss. A person with normal hearing reports that air-conducted sound is louder than bone-conducted sound

24. The OR nurse is setting up a water-seal chest drainage system for a patient who has just had a thoracotomy. The nurse knows that the amount of suction in the system is determined by the water level. At what suction level should the nurse set the system? A) 20 cm H2O B) 15 cm H2O C) 10 cm H2O D) 5 cm H2O

A Feedback: The amount of suction is determined by the water level. It is usually set at 20 cm H2O; adding more fluid results in more suction.

12. The nurse caring for a 79-year-old man who has just returned to the medicalñsurgical unit following surgery for a total knee replacement received report from the PACU. Part of the report had been passed on from the preoperative assessment where it was noted that he has been agitated in the past following opioid administration. What principle should guide the nurse's management of the patient's pain? A) The elderly may require lower doses of medication and are easily confused with new medications. B) The elderly may have altered absorption and metabolism, which prohibits the use of opioids. C) The elderly may be confused following surgery, which is an age-related phenomenon unrelated to the medication. D) The elderly may require a higher initial dose of pain medication followed by a tapered dose.

A Feedback: The elderly often require lower doses of medication and are easily confused with new medications. The elderly have slowed metabolism and excretion, and, therefore, the elderly should receive a lower dose of pain medication given over a longer period time, which may help to limit the potential for confusion. Unfortunately, the elderly are often given the same dose as younger adults, and the resulting confusion is attributed to other factors like environment. Opioids are not absolutely contraindicated and confusion following surgery is never normal. Medication should begin at a low dose and slowly increase until the pain is managed.

18. A patient with mastoiditis is admitted to the post-surgical unit after undergoing a radical mastoidectomy. The nurse should identify what priority of postoperative care? A) Assessing for mouth droop and decreased lateral eye gaze B) Assessing for increased middle ear pressure and perforated ear drum C) Assessing for gradual onset of conductive hearing loss and nystagmus D) Assessing for scar tissue and cerumen obstructing the auditory canal

A Feedback: The facial nerve runs through the middle ear and the mastoid; therefore, there is risk of injuring this nerve during a mastoidectomy. When injury occurs, the patient may display mouth droop and decreased lateral gaze on the operative side. Scar tissue is a long-term complication of tympanoplasty and therefore would not be evident during the immediate postoperative period. Tympanic perforation is not a common complication of this surgery.

32. A patient has had a sudden loss of vision after head trauma. How should the nurse best describe the placement of items on the dinner tray? A) Explain the location of items using clock cues. B) Explain that each of the items on the tray is clearly separated. C) Describe the location of items from the bottom of the plate to the top. D) Ask the patient to describe the location of items before confirming their location

A Feedback: The food tray's composition is likened to the face of a clock. It is unreasonable to expect the patient to describe the location of items or to state that items are separated.

22. A patient with a spinal cord injury is being assessed by the nurse prior to his discharge home from the rehabilitation facility. The nurse is planning care through the lens of the interface model of disability. Within this model, the nurse will plan care based on what belief? A) The patient has the potential to function effectively despite his disability. B) The patient's disabling condition does not have to affect his lifestyle. C) The patient will not require care from professional caregivers in the home setting. D) The patient's disability is the most salient aspect of his personal identity.

A Feedback: The interface model does not ignore the disabling condition or its disabling effects; instead, it promotes the view that people with disabilities are capable, responsible people who are able to function effectively despite having a disability. This does not mean that the patient will not require care, however, or that it will not affect his lifestyle. The person's disability is not his identity.

7. A patient has been prescribed antihypertensives. After assessment and analysis, the nurse has identified a nursing diagnosis of risk for ineffective health maintenance related to nonadherence to therapeutic regimen. When planning this patient's care, what desired outcome should the nurse identify? A) Patient takes medication as prescribed and reports any adverse effects. B) Patient's BP remains consistently below 140/90 mm Hg. C) Patient denies signs and symptoms of hypertensive urgency. D) Patient is able to describe modifiable risk factors for hypertension.

A Feedback: The most appropriate expected outcome for a patient who is given the nursing diagnosis of risk for ineffective health maintenance is that he or she takes the medication as prescribed. The other listed goals are valid aspects of care, but none directly relates to the patient's role in his or her treatment regimen.

16. The nurse should recognize the greatest risk for the development of blindness in which of the following patients? A) A 58-year-old Caucasian woman with macular degeneration B) A 28-year-old Caucasian man with astigmatism C) A 58-year-old African American woman with hyperopia D) A 28-year-old African American man with myopia

A Feedback: The most common causes of blindness and visual impairment among adults 40 years of age or older are diabetic retinopathy, macular degeneration, glaucoma, and cataracts. The 58-year-old Caucasian woman with macular degeneration has the greatest risk for the development of blindness related to her age and the presence of macular degeneration. Individuals with hyperopia, astigmatism, and myopia are not in a risk category for blindness.

9. A nurse is caring for an 86-year-old female patient who has become increasingly frail and unsteady on her feet. During the assessment, the patient indicates that she has fallen three times in the month, though she has not yet suffered an injury. The nurse should take action in the knowledge that this patient is at a high risk for what health problem? A) A hip fracture B) A femoral fracture C) Pelvic dysplasia D) Tearing of a meniscus or bursa

A Feedback: The most common fracture resulting from a fall is a fractured hip resulting from osteoporosis and the condition or situation that produced the fall. The other listed injuries are possible, but less likely than a hip fracture.

24. When assessing a patient diagnosed with angina pectoris it is most important for the nurse to gather what information? A) The patient's activities limitations and level of consciousness after the attacks B) The patient's symptoms and the activities that precipitate attacks C) The patient's understanding of the pathology of angina D) The patient's coping strategies surrounding the attacks

A Feedback: The nurse must gather information about the patient's symptoms and activities, especially those that precede and precipitate attacks of angina pectoris. The patient's coping, understanding of the disease, and status following attacks are all important to know, but causative factors are a primary focus of the assessment interview.

17. A 6-year-old child is brought to the pediatric clinic for the assessment of redness and discharge from the eye and is diagnosed with viral conjunctivitis. What is the most important information to discuss with the parents and child? A) Handwashing can prevent the spread of the disease to others. B) The importance of compliance with antibiotic therapy C) Signs and symptoms of complications, such as meningitis and septicemia D) The likely need for surgery to prevent scarring of the conjunctiva

A Feedback: The nurse must inform the parents and child that viral conjunctivitis is highly contagious and instructions should emphasize the importance of handwashing and avoiding sharing towels, face cloths, and eye drops. Viral conjunctivitis is not responsive to any treatment, including antibiotic therapy. Patients with gonococcal conjunctivitis are at risk for meningitis and generalized septicemia; these conditions do not apply to viral conjunctivitis. Surgery to prevent scarring of the conjunctiva is not associated with viral conjunctivitis.

2. The nurse has taken shift report on her patients and has been told that one patient has an ocular condition that has primarily affected the rods in his eyes. Considering this information, what should the nurse do while caring for the patient? A) Ensure adequate lighting in the patient's room. B) Provide a dimly lit room to aid vision by limiting contrast. C) Carefully point out color differences for the patient. D) Carefully point out fine details for the patient.

A Feedback: The nurse should provide adequate lighting in the patient's room, as the rods are mainly responsible for night vision or vision in low light. If the patient's rods are impaired, the patient will have difficulty seeing in dim light. The cones in the eyes provide best vision for bright light, color vision, and fine detail.

28. The community nurse is caring for a patient who has paraplegia following a farm accident when he was an adolescent. This patient is now 64 years old and has just been diagnosed with congestive heart failure. The patient states, ìI'm so afraid about what is going to happen to me.î What would be the best nursing intervention for this patient? A) Assist the patient in making suitable plans for his care. B) Take him to visit appropriate long-term care facilities. C) Give him pamphlets about available community resources. D) Have him visit with other patients who have congestive heart failure.

A Feedback: The nurse should recognize the concerns of people with disabilities about their future and encourage them to make suitable plans, which may relieve some of their fears and concerns about what will happen to them as they age. Taking him to visit long-term care facilities may only make him more afraid, especially if he is not ready and/or willing to look at long-term care facilities. Giving him pamphlets about community resources or having him visit with other patients who have congestive heart failure may not do anything to relieve his fears.

9. A home care nurse is making an initial visit to a 68-year-old man. The nurse finds the man tearful and emotionally withdrawn. Even though the man lives alone and has no family, he has been managing well at home until now. What would be the most appropriate action for the nurse to take? A) Reassess the patient's psychosocial status and make the necessary referrals B) Have the patient volunteer in the community for social contact C) Arrange for the patient to be reassessed by his social worker D) Encourage the patient to focus on the positive aspects of his life

A Feedback: The patient is exhibiting signs of depression and should be reassessed and a referral made as necessary. Patients with chronic illness are at an increased risk of depression. It would be simplistic to arrange for him to volunteer or focus on the positive. Social work may or may not be needed; assessment should precede such a referral.

5. The nurse is providing discharge education for a patient with a new diagnosis of MÈniËre's disease. What food should the patient be instructed to limit or avoid? A) Sweet pickles B) Frozen yogurt C) Shellfish D) Red mea

A Feedback: The patient with MÈniËre's disease should avoid foods high in salt and/or sugar; sweet pickles are high in both. Milk products are not contraindicated. Any type of meat, fish, or poultry is permitted, with the exception of canned or pickled varieties. In general, the patient with MÈniËre's disease should avoid or limit canned and processed foods.

16. The nurse is caring for a patient who is ready to be weaned from the ventilator. In preparing to assist in the collaborative process of weaning the patient from a ventilator, the nurse is aware that the weaning of the patient will progress in what order? A) Removal from the ventilator, tube, and then oxygen B) Removal from oxygen, ventilator, and then tube C) Removal of the tube, oxygen, and then ventilator D) Removal from oxygen, tube, and then ventilator

A Feedback: The process of withdrawing the patient from dependence on the ventilator takes place in three stages: the patient is gradually removed from the ventilator, then from the tube, and, finally, oxygen.

12. An elderly patient, while being seen in an urgent care facility for a possible respiratory infection, asks the nurse if Medicare is going to cover the cost of the visit. What information can the nurse give the patient to help allay her concerns? A) Medicare has a copayment for many of the services it covers. This requires the patient to pay a part of the bill. B) Medicare pays for 100% of the cost for acute-care services, so the cost of the visit will be covered. C) Medicare will only pay the cost for acute-care services if the patient has a very low income. D) Medicare will not pay for the cost of acute-care services so the patient will be billed for the services provided.

A Feedback: The two major programs that finance health in the United States are Medicare and Medicaid, both of which are overseen by the Centers for Medicaid and Medicare Services (CMS). Both programs cover acute-care needs such as inpatient hospitalization, physician care, outpatient care, home health services, and skilled nursing care in a nursing. Medicare is a plan specifically for the elderly population, and Medicaid is a program that provides services based on income.

11. A patient's ocular tumor has necessitated enucleation and the patient will be fitted with a prosthesis. The nurse should address what nursing diagnosis when planning the patient's discharge education? A) Disturbed body image B) Chronic pain C) Ineffective protection D) Unilateral neglect

A Feedback: The use of an ocular prosthesis is likely to have a significant impact on a patient's body image. Prostheses are not associated with chronic pain or ineffective protection. The patient experiences a change in vision, but is usually able to accommodate such changes and prevent unilateral neglect.

8. The nurse is providing patient teaching to a patient with early stage Alzheimer's disease (AD) and her family. The patient has been prescribed donepezil hydrochloride (Aricept). What should the nurse explain to the patient and family about this drug? A) It slows the progression of AD. B) It cures AD in a small minority of patients. C) It removes the patient's insight that he or she has AD. D) It limits the physical effects of AD and other dementias.

A Feedback: There is no cure for AD, but several medications have been introduced to slow the progression of the disease, including donepezil hydrochloride (Aricept). These medications do not remove the patient's insight or address physical symptoms of AD.

12. A patient diagnosed with arthritis has been taking aspirin and now reports experiencing tinnitus and hearing loss. What should the nurse teach this patient? A) The hearing loss will likely resolve with time after the drug is discontinued. B) The patient's hearing loss and tinnitus are irreversible at this point. C) The patient's tinnitus is likely multifactorial, and not directly related to aspirin use. D) The patient's tinnitus will abate as tolerance to aspirin develops.

A Feedback: Tinnitus and hearing loss are signs of ototoxicity, which is associated with aspirin use. In most cases, this will resolve upon discontinuing the aspirin. Many other drugs cause irreversible ototoxicity.

33. You are caring for a patient with sickle cell disease in her home. Over the years, there has been joint damage, and the patient is in chronic pain. The patient has developed a tolerance to her usual pain medication. When does the tolerance to pain medication become the most significant problem? A) When it results in inadequate relief from pain B) When dealing with withdrawal symptoms resulting from the tolerance C) When having to report the patient's addiction to her physician D) When the family becomes concerned about increasing dosage

A Feedback: Tolerance to opioids is common and becomes a problem primarily in terms of maintaining adequate pain control. Symptoms of physical dependence may occur when opiates are discontinued, but there is no indication that the patient's medication will be discontinued. This patient does not have an addiction and the family's concerns are secondary to those of the patient.

15. The advanced practice nurse is attempting to examine the patient's ear with an otoscope. Because of impacted cerumen, the tympanic membrane cannot be visualized. The nurse irrigates the patient's ear with a solution of hydrogen peroxide and water to remove the impacted cerumen. What nursing intervention is most important to minimize nausea and vertigo during the procedure? A) Maintain the irrigation fluid at a warm temperature. B) Instill short, sharp bursts of fluid into the ear canal. C) Follow the procedure with insertion of a cerumen curette to extract missed ear wax. D) Have the patient stand during the procedure

A Feedback: Warm water (never cold or hot) and gentle, not forceful, irrigation should be used to remove cerumen. Too forceful irrigation can cause perforation of the tympanic membrane, and ice water causes vomiting. Cerumen curettes should not be routinely used by the nurse. Special training is required to use a curette safely. It is unnecessary to have the patient stand during the procedure.

11. A nurse will conduct an influenza vaccination campaign at an extended care facility. The nurse will be administering intramuscular (IM) doses of the vaccine. Of what agerelated change should the nurse be aware when planning the appropriate administration of this drug? A) An older patient has less subcutaneous tissue and less muscle mass than a younger patient. B) An older patient has more subcutaneous tissue and less durable skin than a younger patient. C) An older patient has more superficial and tortuous nerve distribution than a younger patient. D) An older patient has a higher risk of bleeding after an IM injection than a younger patient.

A Feedback: When administering IM injections, the nurse should remember that in an older patient, subcutaneous fat diminishes, particularly in the extremities. Muscle mass also decreases. There are no significant differences in nerve distribution or bleeding risk.

8. The nurse is caring for an adult patient who has gone into ventricular fibrillation. When assisting with defibrillating the patient, what must the nurse do? A) Maintain firm contact between paddles and patient skin. B) Apply a layer of water as a conducting agent. C) Call ìall clearî once before discharging the defibrillator. D) Ensure the defibrillator is in the sync mode.

A Feedback: When defibrillating an adult patient, the nurse should maintain good contact between the paddles and the patient's skin to prevent arcing, apply an appropriate conducting agent (not water) between the skin and the paddles, and ensure the defibrillator is in the nonsync mode. ìClearî should be called three times before discharging the paddles.

9. A patient newly diagnosed with hypertension asks the nurse what happens when uncontrolled hypertension is prolonged. The nurse explains that a patient with prolonged, uncontrolled hypertension is at risk for developing what health problem? A) Renal failure B) Right ventricular hypertrophy C) Glaucoma D) Anemia

A Feedback: When uncontrolled hypertension is prolonged, it can result in renal failure, myocardial infarction, stroke, impaired vision, left ventricular hypertrophy, and cardiac failure. Glaucoma and anemia are not directly associated with hypertension.

23. The nurse is teaching a patient about some of the health consequences of uncontrolled hypertension. What health problems should the nurse describe? Select all that apply. A) Transient ischemic attacks B) Cerebrovascular accident C) Retinal hemorrhage D) Venous insufficiency E) Right ventricular hypertrophy

ABC Feedback: Potential complications of hypertension include the following: left ventricular hypertrophy; MI; heart failure; transient ischemic attacks (TIAs); cerebrovascular accident; renal insufficiency and failure; and retinal hemorrhage. Venous insufficiency and right ventricular hypertrophy are not potential complications of uncontrolled hypertension.

29. The nurse is assessing a patient with acute coronary syndrome (ACS). The nurse includes a careful history in the assessment, especially with regard to signs and symptoms. What signs and symptoms are suggestive of ACS? Select all that apply. A) Dyspnea B) Unusual fatigue C) Hypotension D) Syncope E) Peripheral cyanosis

ABD Feedback: Systematic assessment includes a careful history, particularly as it relates to symptoms: chest pain or discomfort, difficulty breathing (dyspnea), palpitations, unusual fatigue, faintness (syncope), or sweating (diaphoresis). Each symptom must be evaluated with regard to time, duration, and the factors that precipitate the symptom and relieve it, and in comparison with previous symptoms. Hypotension and peripheral cyanosis are not typically associated with ACS.

38. Falls, which are a major health problem in the elderly population, occur from multifactorial causes. When implementing a comprehensive plan to reduce the incidence of falls on a geriatric unit, what risk factors should nurses identify? Select all that apply. A) Medication effects B) Overdependence on assistive devices C) Poor lighting D) Sensory impairment E) Ineffective use of coping strategies

ACD Feedback: Causes of falls are multifactorial. Both extrinsic factors, such as changes in the environment or poor lighting, and intrinsic factors, such as physical illness, neurologic changes, or sensory impairment, play a role. Mobility difficulties, medication effects, foot problems or unsafe footwear, postural hypotension, visual problems, and tripping hazards are common, treatable causes. Overdependence on assistive devices and ineffective use of coping strategies have not been shown to be factors in the rate of falls in the elderly population.

38. The nurse providing care for a patient post PTCA knows to monitor the patient closely. For what complications should the nurse monitor the patient? Select all that apply. A) Abrupt closure of the coronary artery B) Venous insufficiency C) Bleeding at the insertion site D) Retroperitoneal bleeding E) Arterial occlusion

ACDE Feedback: Complications after the procedure may include abrupt closure of the coronary artery and vascular complications, such as bleeding at the insertion site, retroperitoneal bleeding, hematoma, and arterial occlusion, as well as acute renal failure. Venous insufficiency is not a postprocedure complication of a PTCA.

28. A public health nurse is teaching a health promotion workshop that focuses on vision and eye health. What should this nurse cite as the most common causes of blindness and visual impairment among adults over the age of 40? Select all that apply. A) Diabetic retinopathy B) Trauma C) Macular degeneration D) Cytomegalovirus E) Glaucoma

ACE Feedback: The most common causes of blindness and visual impairment among adults 40 years of age or older are diabetic retinopathy, macular degeneration, glaucoma, and cataracts. Therefore, trauma and cytomegalovirus are incorrect.

40. A patient is scheduled for enucleation and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about postoperative care. What aspects of care should the nurse describe to the patient? Select all that apply. A) Application of topical antibiotic ointment B) Maintenance of a supine position for the first 48 hours postoperative C) Fluid restriction to prevent orbital edema D) Administration of loop diuretics to prevent orbital edema E) Use of an ocular pressure dressing

AE Feedback: Patients who undergo eye removal need to know that they will usually have a large ocular pressure dressing, which is typically removed after a week, and that an ophthalmic topical antibiotic ointment is applied in the socket three times daily. Fluid restriction, supine positioning, and diuretics are not indicated.

20. The nurse is caring for a patient who is experiencing mild shortness of breath during the immediate postoperative period, with oxygen saturation readings between 89% and 91%. What method of oxygen delivery is most appropriate for the patient's needs? A) Non-rebreathing mask B) Nasal cannula C) Simple mask D) Partial-rebreathing mask

B Feedback: A nasal cannula is used when the patient requires a low to medium concentration of oxygen for which precise accuracy is not essential. The Venturi mask is used primarily for patients with COPD because it can accurately provide an appropriate level of supplemental oxygen, thus avoiding the risk of suppressing the hypoxic drive. The patient's respiratory status does not require a partial- or non-rebreathing mask.

8. The nurse is providing care for a patient with a new diagnosis of hypertension. How can the nurse best promote the patient's adherence to the prescribed therapeutic regimen? A) Screen the patient for visual disturbances regularly. B) Have the patient participate in monitoring his or her own BP. C) Emphasize the dire health outcomes associated with inadequate BP control. D) Encourage the patient to lose weight and exercise regularly.

B Feedback: Adherence to the therapeutic regimen increases when patients actively participate in self-care, including self-monitoring of BP and diet. Dire warnings may motivate some patients, but for many patients this is not an appropriate or effective strategy. Screening for vision changes and promoting healthy lifestyle are appropriate nursing actions, but do not necessarily promote adherence to a therapeutic regimen.

3. An occupational health nurse overhears an employee talking to his manager about a 65year-old coworker. What phenomenon would the nurse identify when hearing the employee state, ìHe should just retire and make way for some new blood.î? A) Intolerance B) Ageism C) Dependence D) Nonspecific prejudice

B Feedback: Ageism refers to prejudice against the aged. Intolerance is implied by the employee's statement, but the intolerance is aimed at the coworker's age. The employee's statement does not raise concern about dependence. The prejudice exhibited in the statement is very specific.

34. A nurse has taken on the care of a patient who had a coronary artery stent placed yesterday. When reviewing the patient's daily medication administration record, the nurse should anticipate administering what drug? A) Ibuprofen B) Clopidogrel C) Dipyridamole D) Acetaminophen

B Feedback: Because of the risk of thrombus formation within the stent, the patient receives antiplatelet medications, usually aspirin and clopidogrel. Ibuprofen and acetaminophen are not antiplatelet drugs. Dipyridamole is not the drug of choice following stent placement.

27. During an adult patient's last two office visits, the nurse obtained BP readings of 122/84 mm Hg and 130/88 mm Hg, respectively. How would this patient's BP be categorized? A) Normal B) Prehypertensive C) Stage 1 hypertensive D) Stage 2 hypertensive

B Feedback: Prehypertension is defined systolic BP of 120 to 139 mm Hg or diastolic BP of 80 to 89 mm Hg

10. The acute medical nurse is preparing to wean a patient from the ventilator. Which assessment parameter is most important for the nurse to assess? A) Fluid intake for the last 24 hours B) Baseline arterial blood gas (ABG) levels C) Prior outcomes of weaning D) Electrocardiogram (ECG) results

B Feedback: Before weaning a patient from mechanical ventilation, it is most important to have baseline ABG levels. During the weaning process, ABG levels will be checked to assess how the patient is tolerating the procedure. Other assessment parameters are relevant, but less critical. Measuring fluid volume intake and output is always important when a patient is being mechanically ventilated. Prior attempts at weaning and ECG results are documented on the patient's record, and the nurse can refer to them before the weaning process begins.

6. A patient has returned to the cardiac care unit after having a permanent pacemaker implantation. For which potential complication should the nurse most closely assess this patient? A) Chest pain B) Bleeding at the implantation site C) Malignant hyperthermia D) Bradycardia

B Feedback: Bleeding, hematomas, local infections, perforation of the myocardium, and tachycardia are complications of pacemaker implantations. The nurse should monitor for chest pain and bradycardia, but bleeding is a more common immediate complication. Malignant hyperthermia is unlikely because it is a response to anesthesia administration.

13. The nursing lab instructor is teaching student nurses how to take blood pressure. To ensure accurate measurement, the lab instructor would teach the students to avoid which of the following actions? A) Measuring the BP after the patient has been seated quietly for more than 5 minutes B) Taking the BP at least 10 minutes after nicotine or coffee ingestion C) Using a cuff with a bladder that encircles at least 80% of the limb D) Using a bare forearm supported at heart level on a firm surface

B Feedback: Blood pressures should be taken with the patient seated with arm bare, supported, and at heart level. The patient should not have smoked tobacco or taken caffeine in the 30 minutes preceding the measurement. The patient should rest quietly for 5 minutes before the reading is taken. The cuff bladder should encircle at least 80% of the limb being measured and have a width of at least 40% of limb circumference. Using a cuff that is too large results in a lower BP and a cuff that is too small will give a higher BP measurement.

26. A patient is scheduled for catheter ablation therapy. When describing this procedure to the patient's family, the nurse should address what aspect of the treatment? A) Resetting of the heart's contractility B) Destruction of specific cardiac cells C) Correction of structural cardiac abnormalities D) Clearance of partially occluded coronary arteries

B Feedback: Catheter ablation destroys specific cells that are the cause or central conduction route of a tachydysrhythmia. It does not ìresetî the heart's contractility and it does not address structural or vascular abnormalities.

7. A patient with an occluded coronary artery is admitted and has an emergency percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). The patient is admitted to the cardiac critical care unit after the PTCA. For what complication should the nurse most closely monitor the patient? A) Hyperlipidemia B) Bleeding at insertion site C) Left ventricular hypertrophy D) Congestive heart failure

B Feedback: Complications of PTCA may include bleeding at the insertion site, abrupt closure of the artery, arterial thrombosis, and perforation of the artery. Complications do not include hyperlipidemia, left ventricular hypertrophy, or congestive heart failure; each of these problems takes an extended time to develop and none is emergent.

34. You are admitting a patient to your rehabilitation unit who has a diagnosis of persistent, severe pain. According to the patient's history, the patient's pain has not responded to conventional approaches to pain management. What treatment would you expect might be tried with this patient? A) Intravenous analgesia B) Long-term intrathecal or epidural catheter C) Oral analgesia D) Intramuscular analgesia

B Feedback: For patients who have persistent, severe pain that fails to respond to other treatments or who obtain pain relief only with the risk of serious side effects, medication administered by a long-term intrathecal or epidural catheter may be effective. The other listed means of pain control would already have been tried in a patient with persistent severe pain that has not responded to previous treatment.

34. When planning the care of a patient with an implanted pacemaker, what assessment should the nurse prioritize? A) Core body temperature B) Heart rate and rhythm C) Blood pressure D) Oxygen saturation level

B Feedback: For patients with pacemakers, close monitoring of the heart rate and rhythm is a priority, even though each of the other listed vital signs must be assessed.

19. You are caring for a patient with late-stage Alzheimer's disease. The patient's wife tells you that the patient has now become completely dependent and that she feels guilty if she takes any time for herself. What outcomes would be appropriate for the nurse to develop to assist the patient's wife? A) The caregiver learns to explain to the patient why she needs time for herself. B) The caregiver distinguishes essential obligations from those that can be controlled or limited. C) The caregiver leaves the patient at home alone for short periods of time to encourage independence. D) The caregiver prioritizes her own health over that of the patient.

B Feedback: For prolonged periods, it is not uncommon for caregivers to neglect their own emotional and health needs. The caregiver must learn to distinguish obligations that she must fulfill and limit those that are not completely necessary. The caregiver can tell the patient when she leaves, but she should not expect that the patient will remember or will not become angry with her for leaving. The caregiver should not leave the patient home alone for any length of time because it may compromise the patient's safety. Being thoughtful and selective with her time and energy is not synonymous with prioritizing her own health over than of the patient; it is more indicative of balance and sustainability.

11. A patient with angina has been prescribed nitroglycerin. Before administering the drug, the nurse should inform the patient about what potential adverse effects? A) Nervousness or paresthesia B) Throbbing headache or dizziness C) Drowsiness or blurred vision D) Tinnitus or diplopia

B Feedback: Headache and dizziness commonly occur when nitroglycerin is taken at the beginning of therapy. Nervousness, paresthesia, drowsiness, blurred vision, tinnitus, and diplopia do not typically occur as a result of nitroglycerin therapy.

20. The ED nurse is caring for a patient who has gone into cardiac arrest. During external defibrillation, what action should the nurse perform? A) Place gel pads over the apex and posterior chest for better conduction. B) Ensure no one is touching the patient at the time shock is delivered. C) Continue to ventilate the patient via endotracheal tube during the procedure. D) Allow at least 3 minutes between shocks.

B Feedback: In external defibrillation, both paddles may be placed on the front of the chest, which is the standard paddle placement. Whether using pads, or paddles, the nurse must observe two safety measures. First, maintain good contact between the pads or paddles and the patient's skin to prevent leaking. Second, ensure that no one is in contact with the patient or with anything that is touching the patient when the defibrillator is discharged, to minimize the chance that electrical current will be conducted to anyone other than the patient. Ventilation should be stopped during defibrillation.

33. A patient is being admitted to the preoperative holding area for a thoracotomy. Preoperative teaching includes what? A) Correct use of a ventilator B) Correct use of incentive spirometry C) Correct use of a mini-nebulizer D) Correct technique for rhythmic breathing

B Feedback: Instruction in the use of incentive spirometry begins before surgery to familiarize the patient with its correct use. You do not teach a patient the use of a ventilator; you explain that he may be on a ventilator to help him breathe. Rhythmic breathing and mini-nebulizers are unnecessary.

15. While caring for a patient with an endotracheal tube, the nurses recognizes that suctioning is required how often? A) Every 2 hours when the patient is awake B) When adventitious breath sounds are auscultated C) When there is a need to prevent the patient from coughing D) When the nurse needs to stimulate the cough reflex

B Feedback: It is usually necessary to suction the patient's secretions because of the decreased effectiveness of the cough mechanism. Tracheal suctioning is performed when adventitious breath sounds are detected or whenever secretions are present. Unnecessary suctioning, such as scheduling every 2 hours, can initiate bronchospasm and cause trauma to the tracheal mucosa.

37. A nurse on an oncology unit has arranged for an individual to lead meditation exercises for patients who are interested in this nonpharmacological method of pain control. The nurse should recognize the use of what category of nonpharmacological intervention? A) A body-based modality B) A mind-body method C) A biologically based therapy D) An energy therapy

B Feedback: Meditation is one of the recognized mind-body methods of nonpharmacological pain control. The other answers are incorrect.

22. The wife of a patient you are caring for asks to speak with you. She tells you that she is concerned because her husband is requiring increasingly high doses of analgesia. She states, ìHe was in pain long before he got cancer because he broke his back about 20 years ago. For that problem, though, his pain medicine wasn't just raised and raised.î What would be the nurses' best response? A) ìI didn't know that. I will speak to the doctor about your husband's pain control.î B) ìMuch cancer pain is caused by tumor involvement and needs to be treated in a way that brings the patient relief.î C) ìCancer is a chronic kind of pain so the more it hurts the patient, the more medicine we give the patient until it no longer hurts.î D) ìDoes the increasing medication dosage concern you?î

B Feedback: Much pain associated with cancer is a direct result of tumor involvement. Conveying patient/family concerns to the physician is something a nurse does, but is not the best response by the nurse. Cancer pain can be either acute or chronic, and you do not tell a family member that you are going to keep increasing the dosage of the medication until ìit doesn't hurt anymore.î The family member is obviously concerned

35. You are the nurse caring for an elderly patient with cardiovascular disease. The patient comes to the clinic with a suspected respiratory infection and is diagnosed with pneumonia. As the nurse, what do you know about the altered responses of older adults? A) Treatments for older adults need to be more holistic than treatments used in the younger population. B) The altered responses of older adults reinforce the need for the nurse to monitor all body systems to identify possible systemic complications. C) The altered responses of older adults define the nursing interactions with the patient. D) Older adults become hypersensitive to antibiotic treatments for infectious disease states.

B Feedback: Older people may be unable to respond effectively to an acute illness, or, if a chronic health condition is present, they may be unable to sustain appropriate responses over a long period. Furthermore, their ability to respond to definitive treatment is impaired. The altered responses of older adults reinforce the need for nurses to monitor all body system functions closely, being alert to signs of impending systemic complication. Holism should be integrated into all patients' care. Altered responses in the older adult do not define the interactions between the nurse and the patient. Older adults do not become hypersensitive to antibiotic treatments for infectious disease states.

38. During a CPR class, a participant asks about the difference between cardioversion and defibrillation. What would be the instructor's best response? A) ìCardioversion is done on a beating heart; defibrillation is not.î B) ìThe difference is the timing of the delivery of the electric current.î C) ìDefibrillation is synchronized with the electrical activity of the heart, but cardioversion is not.î D) ìCardioversion is always attempted before defibrillation because it has fewer risks.î

B Feedback: One major difference between cardioversion and defibrillation is the timing of the delivery of electrical current. In cardioversion, the delivery of the electrical current is synchronized with the patient's electrical events; in defibrillation, the delivery of the current is immediate and unsynchronized. Both can be done on beating heart (i.e., in a dysrhythmia). Cardioversion is not necessarily attempted first.

1. The nurse is caring for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The patient has been receiving high-flow oxygen therapy for an extended time. What symptoms should the nurse anticipate if the patient were experiencing oxygen toxicity? A) Bradycardia and frontal headache B) Dyspnea and substernal pain C) Peripheral cyanosis and restlessness D) Hypotension and tachycardia

B Feedback: Oxygen toxicity can occur when patients receive too high a concentration of oxygen for an extended period. Symptoms of oxygen toxicity include dyspnea, substernal pain, restlessness, fatigue, and progressive respiratory difficulty. Bradycardia, frontal headache, cyanosis, hypotension, and tachycardia are not symptoms of oxygen toxicity.

13. The physician has ordered continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) with the delivery of a patient's high-flow oxygen therapy. The patient asks the nurse what the benefit of CPAP is. What would be the nurse's best response? A) CPAP allows a higher percentage of oxygen to be safely used. B) CPAP allows a lower percentage of oxygen to be used with a similar effect. C) CPAP allows for greater humidification of the oxygen that is administered. D) CPAP allows for the elimination of bacterial growth in oxygen delivery systems.

B Feedback: Prevention of oxygen toxicity is achieved by using oxygen only as prescribed. Often, positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) or CPAP is used with oxygen therapy to reverse or prevent microatelectasis, thus allowing a lower percentage of oxygen to be used. Oxygen is moistened by passing through a humidification system. Changing the tubing on the oxygen therapy equipment is the best technique for controlling bacterial growth.

30. A patient's intractable neuropathic pain is being treated on an inpatient basis using a multimodal approach to analgesia. After administering a recently increased dose of IV morphine to the patient, the nurse has returned to assess the patient and finds the patient unresponsive to verbal and physical stimulation with a respiratory rate of five breaths per minute. The nurse has called a code blue and should anticipate the administration of what drug? A) Acetylcysteine B) Naloxone C) Celecoxib D) Acetylsalicylic acid

B Feedback: Severe opioid-induced sedation necessitates the administration of naloxone, an opioid antagonist. Celecoxib, acetylcysteine, and acetylsalicylic acid are ineffective.

6. A 40-year-old male newly diagnosed with hypertension is discussing risk factors with the nurse. The nurse talks about lifestyle changes with the patient and advises that the patient should avoid tobacco use. What is the primary rationale behind that advice to the patient? A) Quitting smoking will cause the patient's hypertension to resolve. B) Tobacco use increases the patient's concurrent risk of heart disease. C) Tobacco use is associated with a sedentary lifestyle. D) Tobacco use causes ventricular hypertrophy

B Feedback: Smoking increases the risk for heart disease, for which a patient with hypertension is already at an increased risk. Quitting will not necessarily cause hypertension to resolve and smoking does not directly cause ventricular hypertrophy. The association with a sedentary lifestyle is true, but this is not the main rationale for the nurse's advice; the association with heart disease is more salient.

19. The nurse is caring for a patient who is believed to have just experienced an MI. The nurse notes changes in the ECG of the patient. What change on an ECG most strongly suggests to the nurse that ischemia is occurring? A) P wave inversion B) T wave inversion C) Q wave changes with no change in ST or T wave D) P wave enlargement

B Feedback: T-wave inversion is an indicator of ischemic damage to myocardium. Typically, few changes to P waves occur during or after an MI, whereas Q-wave changes with no change in the ST or T wave indicate an old MI.

2. The nurse is analyzing a rhythm strip. What component of the ECG corresponds to the resting state of the patient's heart? A) P wave B) T wave C) U wave D) QRS complex

B Feedback: The T wave specifically represents ventricular muscle depolarization, also referred to as the resting state. Ventricular muscle depolarization does not result in the P wave, U wave, or QRS complex.

23. New nurses on the telemetry unit have been paired with preceptors. One new nurse asks her preceptor to explain depolarization. What would be the best answer by the preceptor? A) ìDepolarization is the mechanical contraction of the heart muscles.î B) ìDepolarization is the electrical stimulation of the heart muscles.î C) ìDepolarization is the electrical relaxation of the heart muscles.î D) ìDepolarization is the mechanical relaxation of the heart muscles.î

B Feedback: The electrical stimulation of the heart is called depolarization, and the mechanical contraction is called systole. Electrical relaxation is called repolarization, and mechanical relaxation is called diastole.

11. The nurse is planning the care of a patient who has been diagnosed with hypertension, but who otherwise enjoys good health. When assessing the response to an antihypertensive drug regimen, what blood pressure would be the goal of treatment? A) 156/96 mm Hg or lower B) 140/90 mm Hg or lower C) Average of 2 BP readings of 150/80 mm Hg D) 120/80 mm Hg or lower

B Feedback: The goal of antihypertensive drug therapy is a BP of 140/90 mm Hg or lower. A pressure of 130/80 mm Hg is the goal for patients with diabetes or chronic kidney disease.

25. The nurse is caring for a patient with refractory atrial fibrillation who underwent the maze procedure several months ago. The nurse reviews the result of the patient's most recent cardiac imaging, which notes the presence of scarring on the atria. How should the nurse best respond to this finding? A) Recognize that the procedure was unsuccessful. B) Recognize this as a therapeutic goal of the procedure. C) Liaise with the care team in preparation for repeating the maze procedure. D) Prepare the patient for pacemaker implantation.

B Feedback: The maze procedure is an open heart surgical procedure for refractory atrial fibrillation. Small transmural incisions are made throughout the atria. The resulting formation of scar tissue prevents reentry conduction of the electrical impulse. Consequently, scar formation would constitute a successful procedure. There is no indication for repeating the procedure or implanting a pacemaker.

20. An adult patient is admitted to the ED with chest pain. The patient states that he had developed unrelieved chest pain that was present for approximately 20 minutes before coming to the hospital. To minimize cardiac damage, the nurse should expect to administer which of the following interventions? A) Thrombolytics, oxygen administration, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories B) Morphine sulphate, oxygen, and bed rest C) Oxygen and beta-adrenergic blockers D) Bed rest, albuterol nebulizer treatments, and oxygen

B Feedback: The patient with suspected MI should immediately receive supplemental oxygen, aspirin, nitroglycerin, and morphine. Morphine sulphate reduces preload and decreases workload of the heart, along with increased oxygen from oxygen therapy and bed rest. With decreased cardiac demand, this provides the best chance of decreasing cardiac damage. NSAIDs and beta-blockers are not normally indicated. Albuterol, which is a medication used to manage asthma and respiratory conditions, will increase the heart rate.

9. A patient has undergone diagnostic testing and has been diagnosed with otosclerosis? What ear structure is primarily affected by this diagnosis? A) Malleus B) Stapes C) Incus D) Tympanic membrane

B Feedback: Otosclerosis involves the stapes and is thought to result from the formation of new, abnormal bone, especially around the oval window, with resulting fixation of the stapes.

9. The nurse has explained to the patient that after his thoracotomy, it will be important to adhere to a coughing schedule. The patient is concerned about being in too much pain to be able to cough. What would be an appropriate nursing intervention for this client? A) Teach him postural drainage. B) Teach him how to perform huffing. C) Teach him to use a mini-nebulizer. D) Teach him how to use a metered dose inhaler.

B Feedback: The technique of ìhuffingî may be helpful for the patient with diminished expiratory flow rates or for the patient who refuses to cough because of severe pain. Huffing is the expulsion of air through an open glottis. Inhalers, nebulizers, and postural drainage are not substitutes for performing coughing exercises.

23. You are part of the health care team caring for an 87-year-old woman who has been admitted to your rehabilitation facility after falling and fracturing her left hip. The patient appears to be failing to regain functional ability and may have to be readmitted to an acute-care facility. When planning this patient's care, what do you know about the negative effects of the stress associated with pain? A) Stress is less pronounced in older adults because they generally have more sophisticated coping skills than younger adults B) It is particularly harmful in the elderly who have been injured or who are ill. C) It affects only those patients who are already debilitated prior to experiencing pain. D) It has no inherent negative effects; it just alerts the person/health care team of an underlying disease process.

B Feedback: The widespread endocrine, immunologic, and inflammatory changes that occur with the stress of pain can have significant negative effects. This is particularly harmful in patients whose health is already compromised by age, illness, or injury. Older adults are not immune to the negative effects of stress. Prior debilitation does not have to be present in order for stress to cause potential harm.

39. A patient's medication regimen for the treatment of hypertension includes hydrochlorothiazide. Following administration of this medication, the nurse should anticipate what effect? A) Drowsiness or lethargy B) Increased urine output C) Decreased heart rate D) Mild agitation

B Feedback: Thiazide diuretics lower BP by reducing circulating blood volume; this results in a short-term increase in urine output. These drugs do not cause bradycardia, agitation, or drowsiness.

1. You are providing care for an 82-year-old man whose signs and symptoms of Parkinson disease have become more severe over the past several months. The man tells you that he can no longer do as many things for himself as he used to be able to do. What factor should you recognize as impacting your patient's life most significantly? A) Neurologic deficits B) Loss of independence C) Age-related changes D) Tremors and decreased mobility

B Feedback: This patient's statement places a priority on his loss of independence. This is undoubtedly a result of the neurologic changes associated with his disease, but this is not the focus of his statement. This is a disease process, not an age-related physiological change.

29. A patient has been diagnosed as being prehypertensive. What should the nurse encourage this patient to do to aid in preventing a progression to a hypertensive state? A) Avoid excessive potassium intake. B) Exercise on a regular basis. C) Eat less protein and more vegetables. D) Limit morning activity.

B Feedback: To prevent or delay progression to hypertension and reduce risk, JNC 7 urged health care providers to encourage people with blood pressures in the prehypertension category to begin lifestyle modifications, such as nutritional changes and exercise. There is no need for patients to limit their activity in the morning or to avoid potassium and protein intake.

22. In preparation for cardiac surgery, a patient was taught about measures to prevent venous thromboembolism. What statement indicates that the patient clearly understood this education? A) ìI'll try to stay in bed for the first few days to allow myself to heal.î B) ìI'll make sure that I don't cross my legs when I'm resting in bed.î C) ìI'll keep pillows under my knees to help my blood circulate better.î D) ìI'll put on those compression stockings if I get pain in my calves.î

B Feedback: To prevent venous thromboembolism, patients should avoid crossing the legs. Activity is generally begun as soon as possible and pillows should not be placed under the popliteal space. Compression stockings are often used to prevent venous thromboembolism, but they would not be applied when symptoms emerge.

14. A patient converts from normal sinus rhythm at 80 bpm to atrial fibrillation with a ventricular response at 166 bpm. Blood pressure is 162/74 mm Hg. Respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute with normal chest expansion and clear lungs bilaterally. IV heparin and Cardizem are given. The nurse caring for the patient understands that the main goal of treatment is what? A) Decrease SA node conduction B) Control ventricular heart rate C) Improve oxygenation D) Maintain anticoagulation

B Feedback: Treatment for atrial fibrillation is to terminate the rhythm or to control ventricular rate. This is a priority because it directly affects cardiac output. A rapid ventricular response reduces the time for ventricular filling, resulting in a smaller stroke volume. Control of rhythm is the initial treatment of choice, followed by anticoagulation with heparin and then Coumadin.

37. The staff educator is teaching a CPR class. Which of the following aspects of defibrillation should the educator stress to the class? A) Apply the paddles directly to the patient's skin. B) Use a conducting medium between the paddles and the skin. C) Always use a petroleum-based gel between the paddles and the skin. D) Any available liquid can be used between the paddles and the skin.

B Feedback: Use multifunction conductor pads or paddles with a conducting medium between the paddles and the skin (the conducting medium is available as a sheet, gel, or paste). Do not use gels or pastes with poor electrical conductivity.

8. Your patient is receiving postoperative morphine through a patient-controlled analgesic (PCA) pump and the patient's orders specify an initial bolus dose. What is your priority assessment? A) Assessment for decreased level of consciousness (LOC) B) Assessment for respiratory depression C) Assessment for fluid overload D) Assessment for paradoxical increase in pain

B Feedback: A patient who receives opioids by any route must be assessed frequently for changes in respiratory status. Sedation is an expected effect of a narcotic analgesic, though severely decreased LOC is problematic. Fluid overload and paradoxical increase in pain are unlikely, though opioid-induced hyperalgesia (OIH) occurs in rare instances.

21. You are the emergency department (ED) nurse caring for an adult patient who was in a motor vehicle accident. Radiography reveals an ulnar fracture. What type of pain are you addressing when you provide care for this patient? A) Chronic B) Acute C) Intermittent D) Osteopenic

B Feedback: Acute pain is usually of recent onset and commonly associated with a specific injury. Acute pain indicates that damage or injury has occurred. Chronic pain is constant or intermittent pain that persists beyond the expected healing time and that can seldom be attributed to a specific cause or injury. Phantom pain occurs when the body experiences a loss, such as an amputation, and still feels pain in the missing part. ìOsteopenicî pain is not a recognized category of pain.

33. A hospitalized patient with impaired vision must get a picture in his or her mind of the hospital room and its contents in order to mobilize independently and safely. What must the nurse monitor in the patient's room? A) That a commode is always available at the bedside B) That all furniture remains in the same position C) That visitors do not leave items on the bedside table D) That the patient's slippers stay under the bed

B Feedback: All articles and furniture must remain in the same positions throughout the patient's hospitalization. This will reduce the patient's risks for falls. Visual impairment does not necessarily indicate a need for a commode. Keeping slippers under the bed and keeping the bedside table clear are also appropriate, but preventing falls by maintaining the room arrangement is a priority.

13. The admissions department at a local hospital is registering an elderly man for an outpatient diagnostic test. The admissions nurse asks the man if he has an advanced directive. The man responds that he does not want to complete an advance directive because he does not want anyone controlling his finances. What would be appropriate information for the nurse to share with this patient? A) ìAdvance directives are not legal documents, so you have nothing to worry about.î B) ìAdvance directives are limited only to health care instructions and directives.î C) ìYour finances cannot be managed without an advance directive.î D) ìAdvance directives are implemented when you become incapacitated, and then you will use a living will to allow the state to manage your money.î

B Feedback: An advance directive is a formal, legally endorsed document that provides instructions for care (living will) or names a proxy decision maker (durable power of attorney for health care) and covers only issues related specifically to health care, not financial issues. They do not address financial issues. Advance directives are implemented when a patient becomes incapacitated, but financial issues are addressed with a durable power of attorney for finances, or financial power of attorney.

3. A medical-surgical nurse is teaching a patient about the health implications of her recently diagnosed type 2 diabetes. The nurse should teach the patient to be proactive with her glycemic control in order to reduce her risk of what health problem? A) Arthritis B) Renal failure C) Pancreatic cancer D) Asthma

B Feedback: One chronic disease can lead to the development of other chronic conditions. Diabetes, for example, can eventually lead to neurologic and vascular changes that may result in visual, cardiac, and kidney disease and erectile dysfunction. Diabetes is not often linked to cancer, arthritis, or asthma.

7. A patient presents at the ED after receiving a chemical burn to the eye. What would be the nurse's initial intervention for this patient? A) Generously flush the affected eye with a dilute antibiotic solution. B) Generously flush the affected eye with normal saline or water. C) Apply a patch to the affected eye. D) Apply direct pressure to the affected eye.

B Feedback: Chemical burns of the eye should be immediately irrigated with water or normal saline to flush the chemical from the eye. Antibiotic solutions, lubricant drops, and other prescription drops may be prescribed at a later time. Application of direct pressure may extend the damage to the eye tissue and should be avoided. Patching will be incorporated into the treatment plan at a later time to assist with the process of reepithelialization, but at this point in the care of the patient, patching will prevent irrigation of the eye

13. The nurse on the medicalñsurgical unit is reviewing discharge instructions with a patient who has a history of glaucoma. The nurse should anticipate the use of what medications? A) Potassium-sparing diuretics B) Cholinergics C) Antibiotics D) Loop diuretic

B Feedback: Cholinergics are used in the treatment of glaucoma. The action of this medication is to increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting the ciliary muscle and causing miosis and opening the trabecular meshwork. Diuretics and antibiotics are not used in the management of glaucoma.

27. The nurse is caring for a client with an endotracheal tube who is on a ventilator. When assessing the client, the nurse knows to maintain what cuff pressure to maintain appropriate pressure on the tracheal wall? A) Between 10 and 15 mm Hg B) Between 15 and 20 mm Hg C) Between 20 and 25 mm Hg D) Between 25 and 30 mm Hg

B Feedback: Complications can occur from pressure exerted by the cuff on the tracheal wall. Cuff pressures should be maintained between 15 and 20 mm Hg.

14. A 19-year-old patient with a diagnosis of Down syndrome is being admitted to your unit for the treatment of community-acquired pneumonia. When planning this patient's care, the nurse recognizes that this patient's disability is categorized as what? A) A sensory disability B) A developmental disability C) An acquired disability D) An age-associated disability

B Feedback: Developmental disabilities are those that occur any time from birth to 22 years of age and result in impairment of physical or mental health, cognition, speech, language, or self-care. Examples of developmental disabilities are spina bifida, cerebral palsy, Down syndrome, and muscular dystrophy. Acquired disabilities may occur as a result of an acute and sudden injury, acute nontraumatic disorders, or progression of a chronic disorder. Age-related disabilities are those that occur in the elderly population and are thought to be due to the aging process. A sensory disability is a type of a disability and not a category.

22. The hospital nurse cares for many patients who have hypertension. What nursing diagnosis is most common among patients who are being treated for this health problem? A) Deficient knowledge regarding the lifestyle modifications for management of hypertension B) Noncompliance with therapeutic regimen related to adverse effects of prescribed therapy C) Deficient knowledge regarding BP monitoring D) Noncompliance with treatment regimen related to medication costs

B Feedback: Deviation from the therapeutic program is a significant problem for people with hypertension and other chronic conditions requiring lifetime management. For many patients, this is related to adverse effects of medications. Medication cost is relevant for many patients, but adverse effects are thought to be a more significant barrier. Many patients are aware of necessary lifestyle modification, but do not adhere to them. Most patients are aware of the need to monitor their BP.

17. The nurse is planning the care of a patient who is adapting to the use of a hearing aid for the first time. What is the most significant challenge experienced by a patient with hearing loss who is adapting to using a hearing aid for the first time? A) Regulating the tone and volume B) Learning to cope with amplification of background noise C) Constant irritation of the external auditory canal D) Challenges in keeping the hearing aid clean while minimizing exposure to moisture

B Feedback: Each of the answers represents a common problem experienced by patients using a hearing aid for the first time. However, amplification of background noise is a difficult problem to manage and is the major reason why patients stop using their hearing aid. All patients learning to use a hearing aid require support and coaching by the nurse and other members of the health care team. Patients should be encouraged to discuss their adaptation to the hearing aid with their audiologist.

15. The nurse is caring for an older adult with a diagnosis of hypertension who is being treated with a diuretic and beta-blocker. Which of the following should the nurse integrate into the management of this client's hypertension? A) Ensure that the patient receives a larger initial dose of antihypertensive medication due to impaired absorption. B) Pay close attention to hydration status because of increased sensitivity to extracellular volume depletion. C) Recognize that an older adult is less likely to adhere to his or her medication regimen than a younger patient. D) Carefully assess for weight loss because of impaired kidney function resulting from normal aging.

B Feedback: Elderly people have impaired cardiovascular reflexes and thus are more sensitive to extracellular volume depletion caused by diuretics. The nurse needs to assess hydration status, low BP, and postural hypotension carefully. Older adults may have impaired absorption, but they do not need a higher initial dose of an antihypertensive than a younger person. Adherence to treatment is not necessarily linked to age. Kidney function and absorption decline with age; less, rather than more antihypertensive medication is prescribed. Weight gain is not necessarily indicative of kidney function decline.

16. A patient is scheduled to have an electronystagmography as part of a diagnostic workup for MÈniËre's disease. What question is it most important for the nurse to ask the patient in preparation for this test? A) Have you ever experienced claustrophobia or feelings of anxiety while in enclosed spaces? B) Do you currently take any tranquilizers or stimulants on a regular basis? C) Do you have a history of falls or problems with loss of balance? D) Do you have a history of either high or low blood pressure?

B Feedback: Electronystagmography measures changes in electrical potentials created by eye movements during induced nystagmus. Medications such as tranquilizers, stimulants, or antivertigo agents are withheld for 5 days before the test. Claustrophobia is not a significant concern associated with this test; rather, it is most often a concern for patients undergoing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Balance is impaired by MÈniËre's disease; therefore, a patient history of balance problems is important, but is not relevant to test preparation. Hypertension or hypotension, while important health problems, should not be affected by this test.

24. A gerontologic nurse is making an effort to address some of the misconceptions about older adults that exist among health care providers. The nurse has made the point that most people aged 75 years remains functionally independent. The nurse should attribute this trend to what factor? A) Early detection of disease and increased advocacy by older adults B) Application of health-promotion and disease-prevention activities C) Changes in the medical treatment of hypertension and hyperlipidemia D) Genetic changes that have resulted in increased resiliency to acute infection

B Feedback: Even among people 75 years of age and over, most remain functionally independent, and the proportion of older Americans with limitations in activities is declining. These declines in limitations reflect recent trends in health-promotion and disease-prevention activities, such as improved nutrition, decreased smoking, increased exercise, and early detection and treatment of risk factors such as hypertension and elevated serum cholesterol levels. This phenomenon is not attributed to genetics, medical treatment, or increased advocacy.

20. A 47-year-old patient who has come to the physician's office for his annual physical is being assessed by the office nurse. The nurse who is performing routine health screening for this patient should be aware that one of the first physical signs of aging is what? A) Having more frequent aches and pains B) Failing eyesight, especially close vision C) Increasing loss of muscle tone D) Accepting limitations while developing assets

B Feedback: Failing eyesight, especially close vision, is one of the first signs of aging in middle life. More frequent aches and pains begin in the ìearlyî late years (between ages 65 and 79). Increase in loss of muscle tone occurs in later years (ages 80 and older). Accepting limitations while developing assets is socialization development that occurs in adulthood.

20. A patient has just returned to the surgical floor after undergoing a retinal detachment repair. The postoperative orders specify that the patient should be kept in a prone position until otherwise ordered. What should the nurse do? A) Call the physician and ask for the order to be confirmed. B) Follow the order because this position will help keep the retinal repair intact. C) Instruct the patient to maintain this position to prevent bleeding. D) Reposition the patient after the first dressing change.

B Feedback: For pneumatic retinopexy, postoperative positioning of the patient is critical because the injected bubble must float into a position overlying the area of detachment, providing consistent pressure to reattach the sensory retina. The patient must maintain a prone position that would allow the gas bubble to act as a tamponade for the retinal break. Patients and family members should be made aware of these special needs beforehand so that the patient can be made as comfortable as possible. It would be inappropriate to deviate from this order and there is no obvious need to confirm the order.

31. Gerontologic nursing is a specialty area of nursing that provides care for the elderly in our population. What goal of care should a gerontologic nurse prioritize when working with this population? A) Helping older adults determine how to reduce their use of external resources B) Helping older adults use their strengths to optimize independence C) Helping older adults promote social integration D) Helping older adults identify the weaknesses that most limit them

B Feedback: Gerontologic nursing is provided in acute care, skilled and assisted living, community, and home settings. The goals of care include promoting and maintaining functional status and helping older adults identify and use their strengths to achieve optimal independence. Goals of gerontologic nursing do not include helping older adults ìpromote social integrationî or identify their weaknesses. Optimal independence does not necessarily involve reducing the use of available resources.

5. The nurse is providing health education to a patient newly diagnosed with glaucoma. The nurse teaches the patient that this disease has a familial tendency. The nurse should encourage the patient's immediate family members to undergo clinical examinations how often? A) At least monthly B) At least once every 2 years C) At least once every 5 years D) At least once every 10 years

B Feedback: Glaucoma has a family tendency and family members should be encouraged to undergo examinations at least once every 2 years to detect glaucoma early. Testing on a monthly basis is not necessary and excessive.

26. A patient has been diagnosed with glaucoma and the nurse is preparing health education regarding the patient's medication regimen. The patient states that she is eager to ìbeat this diseaseî and looks forward to the time that she will no longer require medication. How should the nurse best respond? A) ìYou have a great attitude. This will likely shorten the amount of time that you need medications.î B) ìIn fact, glaucoma usually requires lifelong treatment with medications.î C) ìMost people are treated until their intraocular pressure goes below 50 mm Hg.î D) ìYou can likely expect a minimum of 6 months of treatment.î

B Feedback: Glaucoma requires lifelong pharmacologic treatment. Normal intraocular pressure is between 10 and 21 mm Hg.

38. A medical nurse is appraising the effectiveness of a patient's current pain control regimen. The nurse is aware that if an intervention is deemed ineffective, goals need to be reassessed and other measures need to be considered. What is the role of the nurse in obtaining additional pain relief for the patient? A) Primary caregiver B) Patient advocate C) Team leader D) Case manager

B Feedback: If the intervention was ineffective, the nurse should consider other measures. If these are ineffective, pain-relief goals need to be reassessed in collaboration with the physician. The nurse serves as the patient's advocate in obtaining additional pain relief.

12. The nurse's assessment of a patient with significant visual losses reveals that the patient cannot count fingers. How should the nurse proceed with assessment of the patient's visual acuity? A) Assess the patient's vision using a Snellen chart. B) Determine whether the patient is able to see the nurse's hand motion. C) Perform a detailed examination of the patient's external eye structures. D) Palpate the patient's periocular regions

B Feedback: If the patient cannot count fingers, the examiner raises one hand up and down or moves it side to side and asks in which direction the hand is moving. An inability to count fingers precludes the use of a Snellen chart. Palpation and examination cannot ascertain visual acuity.

37. The nurse is admitting a patient to the unit who is scheduled to have an ossiculoplasty. What postoperative assessment will best determine whether the procedure has been successful? A) Otoscopy B) Audiometry C) Balance testing D) Culture and sensitivity testing of ear discharge

B Feedback: Ossiculoplasty is the surgical reconstruction of the middle ear bones to restore hearing. Consequently, results are assessed by testing hearing, not by visualizing the ear, testing balance, or culturing ear discharge.

13. You are the nurse in a pain clinic caring for an 88-year-old man who is suffering from long-term, intractable pain. At this point, the pain team feels that first-line pharmacological and nonpharmacological methods of pain relief have been ineffective. What recommendation should guide this patient's subsequent care? A) The patient may want to investigate new alternative pain management options that are outside the United States. B) The patient may benefit from referral to a neurologist or neurosurgeon to discuss pain-management options. C) The patient may want to increase his exercise and activities significantly to create distractions. D) The patient may want to relocate to long-term care in order to have his ADL needs met.

B Feedback: In some situations, especially with long-term severe intractable pain, usual pharmacologic and nonpharmacologic methods of pain relief are ineffective. In those situations, neurologic and neurosurgical approaches to pain management may be considered. Investigating new alternative pain-management options that are outside the United States is unrealistic and may even be dangerous advice. Increasing his exercise and activities to create distractions is unrealistic when a patient is in intractable pain and this recommendation conveys the attitude that the pain is not real. Moving into a nursing home so others may care for him is an intervention that does not address the issue of pain.

19. Research has corroborated an experienced nurse's observation that the incidence and prevalence of chronic conditions is increasing in the United States. What health promotion initiative most directly addresses the factor that has been shown to contribute to this increase? A) A program to link residents with primary care providers B) A community-based weight-loss program C) A stress management workshop D) A cancer screening campaign

B Feedback: Lifestyle factors, such as smoking, chronic stress, and sedentary lifestyle, that increase the risk of chronic health problems such as respiratory disease, hypertension, cardiovascular disease, and obesity are all thought to be factors for the increasing incidence of chronic conditions. Obesity is paramount among these, exceeding the significance of lack of access to primary care, inadequate cancer screening, and inadequate stress management.

2. While reviewing the health history of an older adult experiencing hearing loss the nurse notes the patient has had no trauma or loss of balance. What aspect of this patient's health history is most likely to be linked to the patient's hearing deficit? A) Recent completion of radiation therapy for treatment of thyroid cancer B) Routine use of quinine for management of leg cramps C) Allergy to hair coloring and hair spray D) Previous perforation of the eardrum

B Feedback: Long-term, regular use of quinine for management of leg cramps is associated with loss of hearing acuity. Radiation therapy for cancer should not affect hearing; however, hearing can be significantly compromised by chemotherapy. Allergy to hair products may be associated with otitis externa; however, it is not linked to hearing loss. An ear drum that perforates spontaneously due to the sudden drop in altitude associated with a high dive usually heals well and is not likely to become infected. Recurrent otitis media with perforation can affect hearing as a result of chronic inflammation of the ossicles in the middle ear.

4. During discharge teaching the nurse realizes that the patient is not able to read medication bottles accurately and has not been taking her medications consistently at home. How should the nurse intervene most appropriately in this situation? A) Ask the social worker to investigate alternative housing arrangements. B) Ask the social worker to investigate community support agencies. C) Encourage the patient to explore surgical corrections for the vision problem. D) Arrange for referral to a rehabilitation facility for vision training.

B Feedback: Managing low vision involves magnification and image enhancement through the use of low-vision aids and strategies and referrals to social services and community agencies serving those with visual impairment. Community agencies offer services to patients with low vision, which include training in independent living skills and a variety of assistive devices for vision enhancement, orientation, and mobility, preventing patients from needing to enter a nursing facility. A rehabilitation facility is generally not needed by the patients to learn to use the assistive devices or to gain a greater degree of independence. Surgical options may or may not be available to the patient.

32. A nurse knows that patients with ìinvisibleî disabilities like chronic pain often feel that their chronic conditions are more challenging to deal with than more visible disabilities. Why would they feel this way? A) Invisible disabilities create negative attitudes in the health care community. B) Despite appearances, invisible disabilities can be as disabling as visible disabilities. C) Disabilities, such as chronic pain, are apparent to the general population. D) Disabilities. Such as chronic pain, may not be curable, unlike visible disabilities.

B Feedback: Many disabilities are visible, but invisible disabilities are often as disabling as those that can be seen. Invisible disabilities are not noted to create negative attitudes among health care workers, though this is a possibility. Disabilities, such as chronic pain, are considered invisible and are not apparent to the general population.

15. You are the nurse planning an educational event for the nurses on a subacute medical unit on the topic of normal, age-related physiological changes. What phenomenon would you include in your teaching plan? A) A decrease in cognition, judgment, and memory B) A decrease in muscle mass and bone density C) The disappearance of sexual desire for both men and women D) An increase in sebaceous and sweat gland function in both men and women

B Feedback: Normal signs of aging include a decrease in the sense of smell, a decrease in muscle mass, a decline but not disappearance of sexual desire, and decreased sebaceous and sweat glands for both men and women. Cognitive changes are usually attributable to pathologic processes, not healthy aging.

5. A patient with end-stage lung cancer has been admitted to hospice care. The hospice team is meeting with the patient and her family to establish goals for care. What is likely to be a first priority in goal setting for the patient? A) Maintenance of activities of daily living B) Pain control C) Social interaction D) Promotion of spirituality

B Feedback: Once the phase of illness has been identified for a specific patient, along with the specific medical problems and related social and psychological problems, the nurse helps prioritize problems and establish the goals of care. Identification of goals must be a collaborative effort, with the patient, family, and nurse working together, and the goals must be consistent with the abilities, desires, motivations, and resources of those involved. Pain control is essential for patients who have a terminal illness. If pain control is not achieved, all activities of daily living are unattainable. This is thus a priority in planning care over the other listed goals.

30. The nurse is creating a plan of care for a patient with acute coronary syndrome. What nursing action should be included in the patient's care plan? A) Facilitate daily arterial blood gas (ABG) sampling. B) Administer supplementary oxygen, as needed. C) Have patient maintain supine positioning when in bed. D) Perform chest physiotherapy, as indicated.

B Feedback: Oxygen should be administered along with medication therapy to assist with symptom relief. Administration of oxygen raises the circulating level of oxygen to reduce pain associated with low levels of myocardial oxygen. Physical rest in bed with the head of the bed elevated or in a supportive chair helps decrease chest discomfort and dyspnea. ABGs are diagnostic, not therapeutic, and they are rarely needed on a daily basis. Chest physiotherapy is not used in the treatment of ACS.

39. A 39-year-old patient with paraplegia has been admitted to the hospital for the treatment of a sacral ulcer. The nurse is aware that the patient normally lives alone in an apartment and manages his ADLs independently. Before creating the patient's plan of care, how should the nurse best identify the level of assistance that the patient will require in the hospital? A) Make referrals for assessment to occupational therapy and physical therapy. B) Talk with the patient about the type and level of assistance that he desires. C) Obtain the patient's previous medical record and note what was done during his most recent admission. D) Apply a standardized care plan that addresses the needs of a patient with paraplegia.

B Feedback: Patients should be asked preferences about approaches to carrying out their ADLs, and assistive devices they require should be readily available. The other listed actions may be necessary in some cases, but the ultimate resource should be the patient himself.

39. Older people have many altered reactions to disease that are based on age-related physiological changes. When the nurse observes physical indicators of illness in the older population, that nurse must remember which of the following principles? A) Potential life-threatening problems in the older adult population are not as serious as they are in a middle-aged population. B) Indicators that are useful and reliable in younger populations cannot be relied on as indications of potential life-threatening problems in older adults. C) The same physiological processes that indicate serious health care problems in a younger population indicate mild disease states in the elderly. D) Middle-aged people do not react to disease states the same as a younger population does.

B Feedback: Physical indicators of illness that are useful and reliable in young and middle-aged people cannot be relied on for the diagnosis of potential life-threatening problems in older adults. Option A is incorrect because a potentially life-threatening problem in an older person is more serious than it would be in a middle-aged person because the older adult does not have the physical resources of the middle-aged person. Physical indicators of serious health care problems in a young or middle-aged population do not indicate disease states that are considered ìmildî in the elderly population. It is true that middle-aged people do not react to disease states the same as a younger population, but this option does not answer the question.

27. Mrs. Harris is an 83-year-old woman who has returned to the community following knee replacement surgery. The community health nurse recognizes that Mrs. Harris has prescriptions for nine different medications for the treatment of varied health problems. In addition, she has experienced occasional episodes of dizziness and lightheadedness since her discharge. The nurse should identify which of the following nursing diagnoses? A) Risk for infection related to polypharmacy and hypotension B) Risk for falls related to polypharmacy and impaired balance C) Adult failure to thrive related to chronic disease and circulatory disturbance D) Disturbed thought processes related to adverse drug effects and hypotension

B Feedback: Polypharmacy and loss of balance are major contributors to falls in the elderly. This patient does not exhibit failure to thrive or disturbed thought processes. There is no evidence of a heightened risk of infection.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled to have a thoracotomy. When planning preoperative teaching, what information should the nurse communicate to the patient? A) How to milk the chest tubing B) How to splint the incision when coughing C) How to take prophylactic antibiotics correctly D) How to manage the need for fluid restriction

B Feedback: Prior to thoracotomy, the nurse educates the patient about how to splint the incision with the hands, a pillow, or a folded towel. The patient is not taught how to milk the chest tubing because this is performed by the nurse. Prophylactic antibiotics are not normally used and fluid restriction is not indicated following thoracotomy.

8. A group of high school students is attending a concert, which will be at a volume of 80 to 90 dB. What is a health consequence of this sound level? A) Hearing will not be affected by a decibel level in this range. B) Hearing loss may occur with a decibel level in this range. C) Sounds in this decibel level are not perceived to be harsh to the ear. D) Ear plugs will have no effect on these decibel levels.

B Feedback: Sound louder than 80 dB is perceived by the human ear to be harsh and can be damaging to the inner ear. Ear protection or plugs do help to minimize the effects of high decibel levels.

3. A nurse is planning preoperative teaching for a patient with hearing loss due to otosclerosis. The patient is scheduled for a stapedectomy with insertion of a prosthesis. What information is most crucial to include in the patient's preoperative teaching? A) The procedure is an effective, time-tested treatment for sensory hearing loss. B) The patient is likely to experience resolution of conductive hearing loss after the procedure. C) Several months of post-procedure rehabilitation will be needed to maximize benefits. D) The procedure is experimental, but early indications suggest great therapeutic benefits

B Feedback: Stapedectomy is a very successful time-tested procedure, resulting in the restoration of conductive hearing loss. Lengthy rehabilitation is not normally required.

33. The nurse and a colleague are performing the Epley maneuver with a patient who has a diagnosis of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo. The nurses should begin this maneuver by performing what action? A) Placing the patient in a prone position B) Assisting the patient into a sitting position C) Instilling 15 mL of warm normal saline into one of the patient's ears D) Assessing the patient's baseline hearing by performing the whisper test

B Feedback: The Epley maneuver is performed by placing the patient in a sitting position, turning the head to a 45-degree angle on the affected side, and then quickly moving the patient to the supine position. Saline is not instilled into the ears and there is no need to assess hearing before the test.

3. A patient who presents for an eye examination is diagnosed as having a visual acuity of 20/40. The patient asks the nurse what these numbers specifically mean. What is a correct response by the nurse? A) ìA person whose vision is 20/40 can see an object from 40 feet away that a person with 20/20 vision can see from 20 feet away.î B) ìA person whose vision is 20/40 can see an object from 20 feet away that a person with 20/20 vision can see from 40 feet away.î C) ìA person whose vision is 20/40 can see an object from 40 inches away that a person with 20/20 vision can see from 20 inches away.î D) ìA person whose vision is 20/40 can see an object from 20 inches away that a person with 20/20 vision can see from 40 inches away.î

B Feedback: The Snellen chart is a tool used to measure visual acuity. It is composed of a series of progressively smaller rows of letters and is used to test distance vision. The fraction 20/20 is considered the standard of normal vision. Most people can see the letters on the line designated as 20/20 from a distance of 20 feet. A person whose vision is 20/40 can see an object from 20 feet away that a person with 20/20 vision can see from 40 feet away.

23. During the care conference for a patient who has multiple chronic conditions, the case manager has alluded to the principles of the interface model of disability. What statement is most characteristic of this model? A) ìThis patient should be free to plan his care without our interference.î B) ìThis patient can be empowered and doesn't have to be dependent.î C) ìThis patient was a very different person before the emergence of these health problems.î D) ìThis patient's physiological problems are the priority over his psychosocial status.î

B Feedback: The interface model focuses on care that is empowering rather than care that promotes dependency. The other listed statements are inconsistent with the principles of the interface model.

37. A patient has lost most of her vision as a result of macular degeneration. When attempting to meet this patient's psychosocial needs, what nursing action is most appropriate? A) Encourage the patient to focus on her use of her other senses. B) Assess and promote the patient's coping skills during interactions with the patient. C) Emphasize that her lifestyle will be unchanged once she adapts to her vision loss. D) Promote the patient's hope for recovery.

B Feedback: The nurse should empathically promote the patient's coping with her loss. Focusing on the remaining senses could easily be interpreted as downplaying the patient's loss, and recovery is not normally a realistic possibility. Even with successful adaptation, the patient's lifestyle will be profoundly affected.

4. The nurse is assessing a patient's pain while the patient awaits a cholecystectomy. The patient is tearful, hesitant to move, and grimacing. When asked, the patient rates his pain as a 2 at this time using a 0-to-10 pain scale. How should the nurse best respond to this assessment finding? A) Remind the patient that he is indeed experiencing pain. B) Reinforce teaching about the pain scale number system. C) Reassess the patient's pain in 30 minutes. D) Administer an analgesic and then reassess.

B Feedback: The patient is physically exhibiting signs and symptoms of pain. Further teaching may need to be done so the patient can correctly rate the pain. The nurse may also verify that the same scale is being used by the patient and caregiver to promote continuity. Although all answers are correct, the most accurate conclusion would be to reinforce teaching about the pain scale.

29. The nurse is providing discharge education to an adult patient who will begin a regimen of ocular medications for the treatment of glaucoma. How can the nurse best determine if the patient is able to self-administer these medications safely and effectively? A) Assess the patient for any previous inability to self-manage medications. B) Ask the patient to demonstrate the instillation of her medications. C) Determine whether the patient can accurately describe the appropriate method of administering her medications. D) Assess the patient's functional status

B Feedback: The patient or the caregiver at home should be asked to demonstrate actual eye drop administration. This method of assessment is more accurate than asking the patient to describe the process or determining earlier inabilities to self-administer medications. The patient's functional status will not necessarily determine the ability to administer medication safely.

29. An initiative has been launched in a large hospital to promote the use of ìpeople-firstî language in formal and informal communication. What is the significance to the patient when the nurse uses ìpeople-firstî language? A) The nurse knows more clearly who the patient is. B) The person is of more importance to the nurse than the disability. C) The patient's disability is the defining characteristic of the patient's life. D) The nurse knows that the patient's disability is a curable condition.

B Feedback: This simple use of language conveys the message that the person, rather than the illness or disability, is of greater importance to the nurse. The other answers are incorrect because no matter what language the nurse uses, the nurse knows who the patient is, that the patient's disability is not most important in the patient's life, and that the patient's disability most likely will never be cured.

29. The nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone a mastoidectomy. In an effort to prevent postoperative infection, what intervention should the nurse implement? A) Teach the patient about the risks of ototoxic medications. B) Instruct the patient to protect the ear from water for several weeks. C) Teach the patient to remove cerumen safely at least once per week. D) Instruct the patient to protect the ear from temperature extremes until healing is complete.

B Feedback: To prevent infection, the patient is instructed to prevent water from entering the external auditory canal for 6 weeks. Ototoxic medications and temperature extremes do not present a risk for infection. Removal of cerumen during the healing process should be avoided due to the possibility of trauma.

13. The staff development nurse is presenting a class on the importance of incorporating ìpeople-firstî language into daily practice as well as documentation. What is an example of the use of ìpeople-firstî language when giving a verbal report? A) ìThe schizophrenicî B) ìThe patient with schizophreniaî C) ìThe schizophrenic patientî D) ìThe schizophrenic clientî

B Feedback: Using ìpeople-firstî language means referring to the person first: ìthe patient with diabetesî rather than ìthe diabetic,î ìthe diabetic patient,î or ìthe diabetic client.î

36. The nurse is reviewing the medication administration record of a patient who takes a variety of medications for the treatment of hypertension. What potential therapeutic benefits of antihypertensives should the nurse identify? Select all that apply. A) Increased venous return B) Decreased peripheral resistance C) Decreased blood volume D) Decreased strength and rate of myocardial contractions E) Decreased blood viscosity

BCD Feedback: The medications used for treating hypertension decrease peripheral resistance, blood volume, or the strength and rate of myocardial contraction. Antihypertensive medications do not increase venous return or decrease blood viscosity

35. You are caring for a 20-year-old patient with a diagnosis of cerebral palsy who has been admitted for the relief of painful contractures in his lower extremities. When creating a nursing care plan for this patient, what variables should the nurse consider? Select all that apply. A) Patient's gender B) Patient's comorbid conditions C) Type of procedure be performed D) Changes in neurologic function due to the procedure E) Prior effectiveness in relieving the pain

BCDE Feedback: The nursing care of patients who undergo procedures for the relief of chronic pain depends on the type of procedure performed, its effectiveness in relieving the pain, and the changes in neurologic function that accompany the procedure. The patient's comorbid conditions will also affect care, but his gender is not a key consideration.

10. The case manager is working with an 84-year-old patient newly admitted to a rehabilitation facility. When developing a care plan for this older adult, which factors should the nurse identify as positive attributes that benefit coping in this age group? Select all that apply. A) Decreased risk taking B) Effective adaptation skills C) Avoiding participation in untested roles D) Increased life experience E) Resiliency during change

BDE Feedback: Because changes in life patterns are inevitable over a lifetime, older people need resiliency and coping skills when confronting stresses and change. It is beneficial if older adults continue to participate in risk taking and participation in new, untested roles.

19. An unlicensed nursing assistant (NA) reports to the nurse that a postsurgical patient is complaining of pain that she rates as 8 on a 0-to-10 point scale. The NA tells the nurse that he thinks the patient is exaggerating and does not need pain medication. What is the nurse's best response? A) ìPain often comes and goes with postsurgical patients. Please ask her about pain again in about 30 minutes.î B) ìWe need to provide pain medications because it is the law, and we must always follow the law.î C) ìUnless there is strong evidence to the contrary, we should take the patient's report at face value.'î D) ìIt's not unusual for patients to misreport pain to get our attention when we are busy.î

C Feedback: A broad definition of pain is ìwhatever the person says it is, existing whenever the experiencing person says it does.î Action should be taken unless there are demonstrable extenuating circumstances. The other answers are incorrect.

40. You are the nurse caring for a 91-year-old patient admitted to the hospital for a fall. The patient complains of urge incontinence and tells you he most often falls when he tries to get to the bathroom in his home. You identify the nursing diagnosis of risk for falls related to impaired mobility and urinary incontinence. The older adult's risk for falls is considered to be which of the following? A) The result of impaired cognitive functioning B) The accumulation of environmental hazards C) A geriatric syndrome D) An age-related health deficit

C Feedback: A number of problems commonly experienced by the elderly are becoming recognized as geriatric syndromes. These conditions do not fit into discrete disease categories. Examples include frailty, delirium, falls, urinary incontinence, and pressure ulcers. Impaired cognitive functioning, environmental hazards in the home, and an age-related health deficit may all play a part in the episodes in this patient's life that led to falls, but they are not diagnoses and are, therefore, incorrect.

35. A nurse is working with a patient who has been scheduled for a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) later in the week. What anticipatory guidance should the nurse provide to the patient? A) He will remain on bed rest for 48 to 72 hours after the procedure. B) He will be given vitamin K infusions to prevent bleeding following PCI. C) A sheath will be placed over the insertion site after the procedure is finished. D) The procedure will likely be repeated in 6 to 8 weeks to ensure success.

C Feedback: A sheath is placed over the PCI access site and kept in place until adequate coagulation is achieved. Patients resume activity a few hours after PCI and repeated treatments may or may not be necessary. Anticoagulants, not vitamin K, are administered during PCI.

31. The nurse is participating in the care conference for a patient with ACS. What goal should guide the care team's selection of assessments, interventions, and treatments? A) Maximizing cardiac output while minimizing heart rate B) Decreasing energy expenditure of the myocardium C) Balancing myocardial oxygen supply with demand D) Increasing the size of the myocardial muscle

C Feedback: Balancing myocardial oxygen supply with demand (e.g., as evidenced by the relief of chest pain) is the top priority in the care of the patient with ACS. Treatment is not aimed directly at minimizing heart rate because some patients experience bradycardia. Increasing the size of the myocardium is never a goal. Reducing the myocardium's energy expenditure is often beneficial, but this must be balanced with productivity.

40. A patient is recovering in the hospital from cardiac surgery. The nurse has identified the diagnosis of risk for ineffective airway clearance related to pulmonary secretions. What intervention best addresses this risk? A) Administration of bronchodilators by nebulizer B) Administration of inhaled corticosteroids by metered dose inhaler (MDI) C) Patient's consistent performance of deep breathing and coughing exercises D) Patient's active participation in the cardiac rehabilitation program

C Feedback: Clearance of pulmonary secretions is accomplished by frequent repositioning of the patient, suctioning, and chest physical therapy, as well as educating and encouraging the patient to breathe deeply and cough. Medications are not normally used to achieve this goal. Rehabilitation is important, but will not necessarily aid the mobilization of respiratory secretions.

34. A patient in the ICU has had an endotracheal tube in place for 3 weeks. The physician has ordered that a tracheostomy tube be placed. The patient's family wants to know why the endotracheal tube cannot be left in place. What would be the nurse's best response? A) ìThe physician may feel that mechanical ventilation will have to be used longterm.î B) ìLong-term use of an endotracheal tube diminishes the normal breathing reflex.î C) ìWhen an endotracheal tube is left in too long it can damage the lining of the windpipe.î D) ìIt is much harder to breathe through an endotracheal tube than a tracheostomy.î

C Feedback: Endotracheal intubation may be used for no longer than 2 to 3 weeks, by which time a tracheostomy must be considered to decrease irritation of and, trauma to, the tracheal lining, to reduce the incidence of vocal cord paralysis (secondary to laryngeal nerve damage), and to decrease the work of breathing. The need for long-term ventilation would not be the primary rationale for this change in treatment. Endotracheal tubes do not diminish the breathing reflex.

5. The nurse is writing a plan of care for a patient with a cardiac dysrhythmia. What would be the most appropriate goal for the patient? A) Maintain a resting heart rate below 70 bpm. B) Maintain adequate control of chest pain. C) Maintain adequate cardiac output. D) Maintain normal cardiac structure

C Feedback: For patient safety, the most appropriate goal is to maintain cardiac output to prevent worsening complications as a result of decreased cardiac output. A resting rate of less than 70 bpm is not appropriate for every patient. Chest pain is more closely associated with acute coronary syndrome than with dysrhythmias. Nursing actions cannot normally influence the physical structure of the heart.

16. The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a patient with a newly inserted permanent pacemaker. What is the priority teaching point for this patient? A) Start lifting the arm above the shoulder right away to prevent chest wall adhesion. B) Avoid cooking with a microwave oven. C) Avoid exposure to high-voltage electrical generators. D) Avoid walking through store and library antitheft devices.

C Feedback: High-output electrical generators can reprogram pacemakers and should be avoided. Recent pacemaker technology allows patients to safely use most household electronic appliances and devices (e.g., microwave ovens). The affected arm should not be raised above the shoulder for 1 week following placement of the pacemaker. Antitheft alarms may be triggered so patients should be taught to walk through them quickly and avoid standing in or near these devices. These alarms generally do not interfere with pacemaker function.

5. A group of student nurses are practicing taking blood pressure. A 56-year-old male student has a blood pressure reading of 146/96 mm Hg. Upon hearing the reading, he exclaims, "My pressure has never been this high. Do you think my doctor will prescribe medication to reduce it?" Which of the following responses by the nursing instructor would be best? A) "Yes. Hypertension is prevalent among men; it is fortunate we caught this during your routine examination." B) "We will need to reevaluate your blood pressure because your age places you at high risk for hypertension." C) "A single elevated blood pressure does not confirm hypertension. You will need to have your blood pressure reassessed several times before a diagnosis can be made." D) "You have no need to worry. Your pressure is probably elevated because you are being tested."

C Feedback: Hypertension is confirmed by two or more readings with systolic pressure of at least 140 mm Hg and diastolic pressure of at least 90 mm Hg. An age of 56 does not constitute a risk factor in and of itself. The nurse should not tell the student that there is no need to worry.

14. You are the home health nurse caring for a homebound client who is terminally ill. You are delivering a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump to the patient at your visit today. The family members will be taking care of the patient. What would your priority nursing interventions be for this visit? A) Teach the family the theory of pain management and the use of alternative therapies. B) Provide psychosocial family support during this emotional experience. C) Provide patient and family teaching regarding the operation of the pump, monitoring the IV site, and knowing the side effects of the medication. D) Provide family teaching regarding use of morphine, recognizing morphine overdose, and offering spiritual guidance.

C Feedback: If PCA is to be used in the patient's home, the patient and family are taught about the operation of the pump as well as the side effects of the medication and strategies to manage them. The family would also need to monitor the IV site and notify the nurse of any changes, such as infiltration, that could endanger the patient. Teaching the family the theory of pain management or the use of alternative therapies and the nurse providing emotional support are important, but the family must be able to operate the pump as well as know the side effects of the medication and strategies to manage them. Offering spiritual guidance would not be a priority at this point and morphine is not the only medication administered by PCA.

36. The nurse is performing nasotracheal suctioning on a medical patient and obtains copious amounts of secretions from the patient's airway, even after inserting and withdrawing the catheter several times. How should the nurse proceed? A) Continue suctioning the patient until no more secretions are obtained. B) Perform chest physiotherapy rather than nasotracheal suctioning. C) Wait several minutes and then repeat suctioning. D) Perform postural drainage and then repeat suctioning.

C Feedback: If additional suctioning is needed, the nurse should withdraw the catheter to the back of the pharynx, reassure the patient, and oxygenate for several minutes before resuming suctioning. Chest physiotherapy and postural drainage are not necessarily indicated.

16. A home health nurse makes a home visit to a 90-year-old patient who has cardiovascular disease. During the visit the nurse observes that the patient has begun exhibiting subtle and unprecedented signs of confusion and agitation. What should the home health nurse do? A) Increase the frequency of the patient's home care. B) Have a family member check in on the patient in the evening. C) Arrange for the patient to see his primary care physician. D) Refer the patient to an adult day program.

C Feedback: In more than half of the cases, sudden confusion and hallucinations are evident in multi-infarct dementia. This condition is also associated with cardiovascular disease. Having the patient's home care increased does not address the problem, neither does having a family member check on the patient in the evening. Referring the patient to an adult day program may be beneficial to the patient, but it does not address the acute problem the patient is having, the nurse should arrange for the patient to see his primary care physician.

4. An adult patient with third-degree AV block is admitted to the cardiac care unit and placed on continuous cardiac monitoring. What rhythm characteristic will the ECG most likely show? A) PP interval and RR interval are irregular. B) PP interval is equal to RR interval. C) Fewer QRS complexes than P waves D) PR interval is constant.

C Feedback: In third-degree AV block, no atrial impulse is conducted through the AV node into the ventricles. As a result, there are impulses stimulating the atria and impulses stimulating the ventricles. Therefore, there are more P waves than QRS complexes due to the difference in the natural pacemaker (nodes) rates of the heart. The other listed ECG changes are not consistent with this diagnosis.

12. A patient in a hypertensive emergency is admitted to the ICU. The nurse anticipates that the patient will be treated with IV vasodilators, and that the primary goal of treatment is what? A) Lower the BP to reduce onset of neurologic symptoms, such as headache and vision changes. B) Decrease the BP to a normal level based on the patient's age. C) Decrease the mean arterial pressure between 20% and 25% in the first hour of treatment. D) Reduce the BP to ≤ 120/75 mm Hg as quickly as possible.

C Feedback: Initially, the treatment goal in hypertensive emergencies is to reduce the mean arterial pressure by 25% in the first hour of treatment, with further reduction over the next 24 hours. Lowering the BP too fast may cause hypotension in a patient whose body has adjusted to hypertension and could cause a stroke, MI, or visual changes. Neurologic symptoms should be addressed, but this is not the primary focus of treatment planning.

24. The nurse is collaborating with the dietitian and a patient with hypertension to plan dietary modifications. These modifications should include which of the following? A) Reduced intake of protein and carbohydrates B) Increased intake of calcium and vitamin D C) Reduced intake of fat and sodium D) Increased intake of potassium, vitamin B12 and vitamin D

C Feedback: Lifestyle modifications usually include restricting sodium and fat intake, increasing intake of fruits and vegetables, and implementing regular physical activity. There is no need to increase calcium, potassium, and vitamin intake. Calorie restriction may be required for some patients, but a specific reduction in protein and carbohydrates is not normally indicated.

19. The nurse is assessing a patient with multiple sclerosis who is demonstrating involuntary, rhythmic eye movements. What term will the nurse use when documenting these eye movements? A) Vertigo B) Tinnitus C) Nystagmus D) Astigmatism

C Feedback: Vertigo is an illusion of movement where the individual or the surroundings are sensed as moving. Tinnitus refers to a subjective perception of sound with internal origin. Nystagmus refers to involuntary rhythmic eye movement. Astigmatism is a defect is visual acuity

39. A patient who is postoperative day 1 following a CABG has produced 20 mL of urine in the past 3 hours and the nurse has confirmed the patency of the urinary catheter. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Document the patient's low urine output and monitor closely for the next several hours. B) Contact the dietitian and suggest the need for increased oral fluid intake. C) Contact the patient's physician and suggest assessment of fluid balance and renal function. D) Increase the infusion rate of the patient's IV fluid to prompt an increase in renal function.

C Feedback: Nursing management includes accurate measurement of urine output. An output of less than 1 mL/kg/h may indicate hypovolemia or renal insufficiency. Prompt referral is necessary. IV fluid replacement may be indicated, but is beyond the independent scope of the dietitian or nurse

11. A 52-year-old female patient is receiving care on the oncology unit for breast cancer that has metastasized to her lungs and liver. When addressing the patient's pain in her plan of nursing care, the nurse should consider what characteristic of cancer pain? A) Cancer pain is often related to the stress of the patient knowing she has cancer and requires relatively low doses of pain medications along with a high dose of anti-anxiety medications. B) Cancer pain is always chronic and challenging to treat, so distraction is often the best intervention. C) Cancer pain can be acute or chronic and it typically requires comparatively high doses of pain medications. D) Cancer pain is often misreported by patients because of confusion related to their disease process.

C Feedback: Pain associated with cancer may be acute or chronic. Pain resulting from cancer is so ubiquitous that when cancer patients are asked about possible outcomes, pain is reported to be the most feared outcome. Higher doses of pain medication are usually needed with cancer patients, especially with metastasis. Cancer pain is not treated with anti-anxiety medications. Cancer pain can be chronic and difficult to treat so distraction may help, but higher doses of pain medications are usually the best intervention. No research indicates cancer patients misreport pain because of confusion related to their disease process.

25. The nurse is preparing to discharge a patient after thoracotomy. The patient is going home on oxygen therapy and requires wound care. As a result, he will receive home care nursing. What should the nurse include in discharge teaching for this patient? A) Safe technique for self-suctioning of secretions B) Technique for performing postural drainage C) Correct and safe use of oxygen therapy equipment D) How to provide safe and effective tracheostomy care

C Feedback: Respiratory care and other treatment modalities (oxygen, incentive spirometry, chest physiotherapy [CPT], and oral, inhaled, or IV medications) may be continued at home. Therefore, the nurse needs to instruct the patient and family in their correct and safe use. The scenario does not indicate the patient needs help with suctioning, postural drainage, or tracheostomy care.

34. A student nurse is taking care of an elderly patient with hypertension during a clinical experience. The instructor asks the student about the relationships between BP and age. What would be the best answer by the student? A) ìBecause of reduced smooth muscle tone in blood vessels, blood pressure tends to go down with age, not up.î B) ìDecreases in the strength of arteries and the presence of venous insufficiency cause hypertension in the elderly.î C) ìStructural and functional changes in the cardiovascular system that occur with age contribute to increases in blood pressure.î D) ìThe neurologic system of older adults is less efficient at monitoring and regulating blood pressure.î

C Feedback: Structural and functional changes in the heart and blood vessels contribute to increases in BP that occur with aging. Venous insufficiency does not cause hypertension, however. Increased BP is not primarily a result of neurologic changes.

3. The nursing educator is presenting a case study of an adult patient who has abnormal ventricular depolarization. This pathologic change would be most evident in what component of the ECG? A) P wave B) T wave C) QRS complex D) U wave

C Feedback: The QRS complex represents the depolarization of the ventricles and, as such, the electrical activity of that ventricle.

25. The critical care nurse is caring for a patient just admitted in a hypertensive emergency. The nurse should anticipate the administration of what medication? A) Warfarin (Coumadin) B) Furosemide (Lasix) C) Sodium nitroprusside (Nitropress) D) Ramipril (Altace)

C Feedback: The medications of choice in hypertensive emergencies are those that have an immediate effect. IV vasodilators, including sodium nitroprusside (Nitropress), nicardipine hydrochloride (Cardene), clevidipine (Cleviprex), fenoldopam mesylate (Corlopam), enalaprilat, and nitroglycerin, have immediate actions that are short lived (minutes to 4 hours), and they are therefore used for initial treatment. Ramipril is administered orally and would not meet the patient's immediate need for BP management. Diuretics, such as Lasix, are not used as initial treatments and there is no indication for anticoagulants such as Coumadin.

31. The nurse is caring for a patient who has had a dysrhythmic event. The nurse is aware of the need to assess for signs of diminished cardiac output (CO). What change in status may signal to the nurse a decrease in cardiac output? A) Increased blood pressure B) Bounding peripheral pulses C) Changes in level of consciousness D) Skin flushing

C Feedback: The nurse conducts a physical assessment to confirm the data obtained from the history and to observe for signs of diminished cardiac output (CO) during the dysrhythmic event, especially changes in level of consciousness. Blood pressure tends to decrease with lowered CO and bounding peripheral pulses are inconsistent with this problem. Pallor, not skin flushing, is expected.

28. The ED nurse is caring for a patient with a suspected MI. What drug should the nurse anticipate administering to this patient? A) Oxycodone B) Warfarin C) Morphine D) Acetaminophen

C Feedback: The patient with suspected MI is given aspirin, nitroglycerin, morphine, an IV beta- blocker, and other medications, as indicated, while the diagnosis is being confirmed. Tylenol, warfarin, and oxycodone are not typically used.

12. The nurse is providing an educational workshop about coronary artery disease (CAD) and its risk factors. The nurse explains to participants that CAD has many risk factors, some that can be controlled and some that cannot. What risk factors would the nurse list that can be controlled or modified? A) Gender, obesity, family history, and smoking B) Inactivity, stress, gender, and smoking C) Obesity, inactivity, diet, and smoking D) Stress, family history, and obesity

C Feedback: The risk factors for CAD that can be controlled or modified include obesity, inactivity, diet, stress, and smoking. Gender and family history are risk factors that cannot be controlled.

32. The presence of a gerontologic advanced practice nurse in a long-term care facility has proved beneficial to both the patients and the larger community in which they live. Nurses in this advanced practice role have been shown to cause what outcome? A) Greater interaction between younger adults and older adults occurs. B) The elderly recover more quickly from acute illnesses. C) Less deterioration takes place in the overall health of patients. D) The elderly are happier in long-term care facilities than at home.

C Feedback: The use of advanced practice nurses who have been educated in geriatric nursing concepts has proved to be very effective when dealing with the complex care needs of an older patient. When best practices are used and current scientific knowledge applied to clinical problems, significantly less deterioration occurs in the overall health of aging patients. This does not necessarily mean that patients are happier in long-term care than at home, that they recover more quickly from acute illnesses, or greater interaction occurs between younger and older adults.

14. The home care nurse is assessing a patient who requires home oxygen therapy. What criterion indicates that an oxygen concentrator will best meet the needs of the patient in the home environment? A) The patient desires a low-maintenance oxygen delivery system that delivers oxygen flow rates up to 6 L/min. B) The patient requires a high-flow system for use with a tracheostomy collar. C) The patient desires a portable oxygen delivery system that can deliver 2 L/min. D) The patient's respiratory status requires a system that provides an FiO2 of 65%.

C Feedback: The use of oxygen concentrators is another means of providing varying amounts of oxygen, especially in the home setting. They can deliver oxygen flows from 1 to 10 L/min and provide an FiO2 of about 40%. They require regular maintenance and are not used for high-flow applications. The patient desiring a portable oxygen delivery system of 2L/min will benefit from the use of an oxygen concentrator.

37. A newly diagnosed patient with hypertension is prescribed Diuril, a thiazide diuretic. What patient education should the nurse provide to this patient? A) ìEat a banana every day because Diuril causes moderate hyperkalemia.î B) ìTake over-the-counter potassium pills because Diuril causes your kidneys to lose potassium.î C) ìDiuril can cause low blood pressure and dizziness, especially when you get up suddenly.î D) ìDiuril increases sodium levels in your blood, so cut down on your salt.î

C Feedback: Thiazide diuretics can cause postural hypotension, which may be potentiated by alcohol, barbiturates, opioids, or hot weather. Diuril does not cause either moderate hyperkalemia or severe hypokalemia and it does not result in hypernatremia.

21. A patient has informed the home health nurse that she has recently noticed distortions when she looks at the Amsler grid that she has mounted on her refrigerator. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Reassure the patient that this is an age-related change in vision. B) Arrange for the patient to have her visual acuity assessed. C) Arrange for the patient to be assessed for macular degeneration. D) Facilitate tonometry testing.

C Feedback: 18, The Amsler grid is a test often used for patients with macular problems, such as macular degeneration. Distortions would not be attributed to age-related changes and there is no direct need for testing of intraocular pressure or visual acuity.

21. A patient has been diagnosed with serous otitis media for the third time in the past year. How should the nurse best interpret this patient's health status? A) For some patients, these recurrent infections constitute an age-related physiologic change. B) The patient would benefit from a temporary mobility restriction to facilitate healing. C) The patient needs to be assessed for nasopharyngeal cancer. D) Blood cultures should be drawn to rule out a systemic infection.

C Feedback: A carcinoma (e.g., nasopharyngeal cancer) obstructing the eustachian tube should be ruled out in adults with persistent unilateral serous otitis media. This phenomenon is not an age-related change and does not indicate a systemic infection. Mobility limitations are unnecessary.

26. A child goes to the school nurse and complains of not being able to hear the teacher. What test could the school nurse perform that would preliminarily indicate hearing loss? A) Audiometry B) Rinne test C) Whisper test D) Weber test

C Feedback: A general estimate of hearing can be made by assessing the patient's ability to hear a whispered phrase or a ticking watch, testing one ear at a time. The Rinne and Weber tests distinguish sensorineural from conductive hearing loss. These tests, as well as audiometry, are not usually performed by a registered nurse in a general practice setting

9. Your patient is 12-hours post ORIF right ankle. The patient is asking for a breakthrough dose of analgesia. The pain-medication orders are written as a combination of an opioid analgesic and a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) given together. What is the primary rationale for administering pain medication in this manner? A) To prevent respiratory depression from the opioid B) To eliminate the need for additional medication during the night C) To achieve better pain control than with one medication alone D) To eliminate the potentially adverse effects of the opioid

C Feedback: A multimodal regimen combines drugs with different underlying mechanisms, which allows lower doses of each of the drugs in the treatment plan, reducing the potential for each to produce adverse effects. This method also reduces, but does not eliminate, adverse effects of the opioid. This regimen is not motivated by the need to prevent respiratory depression or to eliminate nighttime dosing.

38. When administering a patient's eye drops, the nurse recognizes the need to prevent absorption by the nasolacrimal duct. How can the nurse best achieve this goal? A) Ensure that the patient is well hydrated at all times. B) Encourage self-administration of eye drops. C) Occlude the puncta after applying the medication. D) Position the patient supine before administering eye drops.

C Feedback: Absorption of eye drops by the nasolacrimal duct is undesirable because of the potential systemic side effects of ocular medications. To diminish systemic absorption and minimize the side effects, it is important to occlude the puncta. Self-administration, supine positioning, and adequate hydration do not prevent this adverse effect

11. The nurse is caring for a patient who has just had an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) placed. What is the priority area for the nurse's assessment? A) Assessing the patient's activity level B) Facilitating transthoracic echocardiography C) Vigilant monitoring of the patient's ECG D) Close monitoring of the patient's peripheral perfusion

C Feedback: After a permanent electronic device (pacemaker or ICD) is inserted, the patient's heart rate and rhythm are monitored by ECG. This is a priority over peripheral circulation and activity. Echocardiography is not indicated.

36. You are the nurse caring for patients in the urology clinic. A new patient, 78 years old, presents with complaints of urinary incontinence. An anticholinergic is prescribed. Why might this type of medication be an inappropriate choice in the elderly population? A) Gastrointestinal hypermotility can be an adverse effect of this medication. B) Detrusor instability can be an adverse effect of this medication. C) Confusion can be an adverse effect of this medication. D) Increased symptoms of urge incontinence can be an adverse effect of this medication.

C Feedback: Although medications such as anticholinergics may decrease some of the symptoms of urge incontinence (detrusor instability), the adverse effects of these medications (dry mouth, slowed gastrointestinal motility, and confusion) may make them inappropriate choices for the elderly.

22. As the population of the United States ages, research has shown that this aging will occur across all racial and ethnic groups. A community health nurse is planning an initiative that will focus on the group in which the aging population is expected to rise the fastest. What group should the nurse identify? A) Asian-Americans B) White non-Hispanics C) Hispanics D) African-Americans

C Feedback: Although the older population will increase in number for all racial and ethnic groups, the rate of growth is projected to be fastest in the Hispanic population that is expected to increase from 6 million in 2004 to an estimated 17.5 million by 2050.

5. Family members bring a patient to the ED with pale cool skin, sudden midsternal chest pain unrelieved with rest, and a history of CAD. How should the nurse best interpret these initial data? A) The symptoms indicate angina and should be treated as such. B) The symptoms indicate a pulmonary etiology rather than a cardiac etiology. C) The symptoms indicate an acute coronary episode and should be treated as such. D) Treatment should be determined pending the results of an exercise stress test.

C Feedback: Angina and MI have similar symptoms and are considered the same process, but are on different points along a continuum. That the patient's symptoms are unrelieved by rest suggests an acute coronary episode rather than angina. Pale cool skin and sudden onset are inconsistent with a pulmonary etiology. Treatment should be initiated immediately regardless of diagnosis.

22. A 56-year-old patient has come to the clinic for his routine eye examination and is told he needs bifocals. The patient asks the nurse what change in his eyes has caused his need for bifocals. How should the nurse respond? A) ìYou know, you are getting older now and we change as we get older.î B) ìThe parts of our eyes age, just like the rest of us, and this is nothing to cause you to worry.î C) ìThere is a gradual thickening of the lens of the eye and it can limit the eye's ability for accommodation.î D) ìThe eye gets shorter, back to front, as we age and it changes how we see things.î

C Feedback: As a result of a loss of accommodative power in the lens with age, many adults require bifocals or other forms of visual correction. This is not attributable to a change in the shape of the ocular globe. The nurse should not dismiss or downplay the patient's concerns.

31. You are assessing an 86-year-old postoperative patient who has an unexpressive, stoic demeanor. When you enter the room, the patient is curled into the fetal position and your assessment reveals that his vital signs are elevated and he is diaphoretic. You ask the patient what his pain level is on a 0-to-10 scale that you explained to the patient prior to surgery. The patient indicates a pain level of ìthree or so.î You review your pain-management orders and find that all medications are ordered PRN. How would you treat this patient's pain? A) Treat the patient on the basis of objective signs of pain and reassess him frequently. B) Call the physician for new orders because it is apparent that the pain medicine is not working. C) Believe what the patient says, reinforce education, and reassess often. D) Ask the family what they think and treat the patient accordingly.

C Feedback: As always, the best guide to pain management and administration of analgesic agents in all patients, regardless of age, is what the individual patient says. However, further education and assessment are appropriate. You cannot usually treat pain the patient denies having if the orders are PRN only. The scenario does not indicate the present pain-management orders are not working for this patient. The family's insights do not override the patient's self-report.

22. The nurse is preparing to suction a patient with an endotracheal tube. What should be the nurse's first step in the suctioning process? A) Explain the suctioning procedure to the patient and reposition the patient. B) Turn on suction source at a pressure not exceeding 120 mm Hg. C) Assess the patient's lung sounds and SAO2 via pulse oximeter. D) Perform hand hygiene and don nonsterile gloves, goggles, gown, and mask.

C Feedback: Assessment data indicate the need for suctioning and allow the nurse to monitor the effect of suction on the patient's level of oxygenation. Explaining the procedure would be the second step; performing hand hygiene is the third step, and turning on the suction source is the fourth step.

25. After a sudden decline in cognition, a 77-year-old man who has been diagnosed with vascular dementia is receiving care in his home. To reduce this man's risk of future infarcts, what action should the nurse most strongly encourage? A) Activity limitation and falls reduction efforts B) Adequate nutrition and fluid intake C) Rigorous control of the patient's blood pressure and serum lipid levels D) Use of mobility aids to promote independence

C Feedback: Because vascular dementia is associated with hypertension and cardiovascular disease, risk factors (e.g., hypercholesterolemia, history of smoking, diabetes) are similar. Prevention and management are also similar. Therefore, measures to decrease blood pressure and lower cholesterol levels may prevent future infarcts. Activity limitation is unnecessary and infarcts are not prevented by nutrition or the use of mobility aids.

7. Your patient has just returned from the postanesthetic care unit (PACU) following left tibia open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). The patient is complaining of pain, and you are preparing to administer the patient's first scheduled dose of hydromorphone (Dilaudid). Prior to administering the drug, you would prioritize which of the following assessments? A) The patient's electrolyte levels B) The patient's blood pressure C) The patient's allergy status D) The patient's hydration status

C Feedback: Before administering medications such as narcotics for the first time, the nurse should assess for any previous allergic reactions. Electrolyte values, blood pressure, and hydration status are not what you need to assess prior to giving a first dose of narcotics.

12. During a patient's care conference, the team is discussing whether the patient is a candidate for cardiac conduction surgery. What would be the most important criterion for a patient to have this surgery? A) Angina pectoris not responsive to other treatments B) Decreased activity tolerance related to decreased cardiac output C) Atrial and ventricular tachycardias not responsive to other treatments D) Ventricular fibrillation not responsive to other treatments

C Feedback: Cardiac conduction surgery is considered in patients who do not respond to medications and antitachycardia pacing. Angina, reduced activity tolerance, and ventricular fibrillation are not criteria.

4. Which of the following nursing interventions would most likely facilitate effective communication with a hearing-impaired patient? A) Ask the patient to repeat what was said in order to evaluate understanding. B) Stand directly in front of the patient to facilitate lip reading. C) Reduce environmental noise and distractions before communicating. D) Raise the voice to project sound at a higher frequency

C Feedback: Communication with the hearing impaired can be facilitated by talking in a quiet space free of competing noise stimuli and other distractions. Asking the patient to repeat what was said is likely to provoke frustration in the patient. A more effective strategy would be to repeat the question or statement, choosing different words. Raising the voice to project sound at higher frequency would make understanding more difficult. The nurse cannot assume that the patient reads lips. If the patient does read lips, on average he or she will understand only 50% of words accurately.

11. While assessing the patient, the nurse observes constant bubbling in the water-seal chamber of the patient's closed chest-drainage system. What should the nurse conclude? A) The system is functioning normally. B) The patient has a pneumothorax. C) The system has an air leak. D) The chest tube is obstructed.

C Feedback: Constant bubbling in the chamber often indicates an air leak and requires immediate assessment and intervention. The patient with a pneumothorax will have intermittent bubbling in the water-seal chamber. If the tube is obstructed, the nurse should notice that the fluid has stopped fluctuating in the water-seal chamber.

9. The critical care nurse is precepting a new nurse on the unit. Together they are caring for a patient who has a tracheostomy tube and is receiving mechanical ventilation. What action should the critical care nurse recommend when caring for the cuff? A) Deflate the cuff overnight to prevent tracheal tissue trauma. B) Inflate the cuff to the highest possible pressure in order to prevent aspiration. C) Monitor the pressure in the cuff at least every 8 hours D) Keep the tracheostomy tube plugged at all times.

C Feedback: Cuff pressure must be monitored by the respiratory therapist or nurse at least every 8 hours by attaching a handheld pressure gauge to the pilot balloon of the tube or by using the minimal leak volume or minimal occlusion volume technique. Plugging is only used when weaning the patient from tracheal support. Deflating the cuff overnight would be unsafe and inappropriate. High cuff pressure can cause tissue trauma.

6. The nurse is caring for a 51-year-old female patient whose medical history includes chronic fatigue and poorly controlled back pain. These medical diagnoses should alert the nurse to the possibility of what consequent health problem? A) Anxiety B) Skin breakdown C) Depression D) Hallucinations

C Feedback: Depression is associated with chronic pain and can be exacerbated by the effects of chronic fatigue. Anxiety is also plausible, but depression is a paramount risk. Skin breakdown and hallucinations are much less likely.

30. A patient with low vision has called the clinic and asked the nurse for help with acquiring some low-vision aids. What else can the nurse offer to help this patient manage his low vision? A) The patient uses OTC NSAIDs. B) The patient has a history of stroke. C) The patient has diabetes. D) The patient has Asian ancestry.

C Feedback: Diabetes is a risk factor for glaucoma, but Asian ancestry, NSAIDs, and stroke are not risk factors for the disease.

1. An older adult is newly diagnosed with primary hypertension and has just been started on a beta-blocker. The nurse's health education should include which of the following? A) Increasing fluids to avoid extracellular volume depletion from the diuretic effect of the beta-blocker B) Maintaining a diet high in dairy to increase protein necessary to prevent organ damage C) Use of strategies to prevent falls stemming from postural hypotension D) Limiting exercise to avoid injury that can be caused by increased intracranial pressure

C Feedback: Elderly people have impaired cardiovascular reflexes and are more sensitive to postural hypotension. The nurse teaches patients to change positions slowly when moving from lying or sitting positions to a standing position, and counsels elderly patients to use supportive devices as necessary to prevent falls that could result from dizziness. Lifestyle changes, such as regular physical activity/exercise, and a diet rich in fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy products, is strongly recommended. Increasing fluids in elderly patients may be contraindicated due to cardiovascular disease. Increased intracranial pressure is not a risk and activity should not normally be limited.

21. The nurse is assessing a patient who was admitted to the critical care unit 3 hours ago following cardiac surgery. The nurse's most recent assessment reveals that the patient's left pedal pulses are not palpable and that the right pedal pulses are rated at +2. What is the nurse's best response? A) Document this expected assessment finding during the initial postoperative period. B) Reposition the patient with his left leg in a dependent position. C) Inform the patient's physician of this assessment finding. D) Administer an ordered dose of subcutaneous heparin.

C Feedback: If a pulse is absent in any extremity, the cause may be prior catheterization of that extremity, chronic peripheral vascular disease, or a thromboembolic obstruction. The nurse immediately reports newly identified absence of any pulse.

26. You are the nurse caring for a young mother who has a longstanding diagnosis of multiple sclerosis (MS). She was admitted to your unit with a postpartum infection 3 days ago. You are planning to discharge her home when she has finished 5 days of IV antibiotic therapy. With what information would it be most important for you to provide this patient? A) A succinct overview of postpartum infections B) How the response to infection differs in patients with multiple sclerosis C) The same information you would provide to a patient without a chronic condition D) Information on effective management of multiple sclerosis in the home setting

C Feedback: In general, patients with disabilities are in need of the same information as other patients. Information on home management of MS has likely been already provided to the patient. The immune response does not greatly differ in this patient.

3. The nurse is caring for an adult patient who had symptoms of unstable angina upon admission to the hospital. What nursing diagnosis underlies the discomfort associated with angina? A) Ineffective breathing pattern related to decreased cardiac output B) Anxiety related to fear of death C) Ineffective cardiopulmonary tissue perfusion related to coronary artery disease (CAD) D) Impaired skin integrity related to CAD

C Feedback: Ineffective cardiopulmonary tissue perfusion directly results in the symptoms of discomfort associated with angina. Anxiety and ineffective breathing may result from angina chest pain, but they are not the causes. Skin integrity is not impaired by the effects of angina.

23. An 83-year-old woman was diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease 2 years ago and the disease has progressed at an increasing pace in recent months. The patient has lost 16 pounds over the past 3 months, leading to a nursing diagnosis of Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements. What intervention should the nurse include in this patient's plan of care? A) Offer the patient rewards for finishing all the food on her tray. B) Offer the patient bland, low-salt foods to limit offensiveness. C) Offer the patient only one food item at a time to promote focused eating. D) Arrange for insertion of a gastrostomy tube and initiate enteral feeding.

C Feedback: To avoid any ìplayingî with food, one dish should be offered at a time. Foods should be familiar and appealing, not bland. Tube feeding is not likely necessary at this time and a reward system is unlikely to be beneficial.

16. You have just received report on a 27-year-old woman who is coming to your unit from the emergency department with a torn meniscus. You review her PRN medications and see that she has an NSAID (ibuprofen) ordered every 6 hours. If you wanted to implement preventive pain measures when the patient arrives to your unit, what would you do? A) Use a pain scale to assess the patient's pain, and let the patient know ibuprofen is available every 6 hours if she needs it. B) Do a complete assessment, and give pain medication based on the patient's report of pain. C) Check for allergies, use a pain scale to assess the patient's pain, and offer the ibuprofen every 6 hours until the patient is discharged. D) Provide medication as per patient request and offer relaxation techniques to promote comfort.

C Feedback: One way preventive pain measures can be implemented is by using PRN medications on a more regular or scheduled basis to allow for more uniform pain control. Smaller drug doses of medication are needed with the preventive pain method when PRN medications are given around the clock. Offering the medication is more beneficial than letting the patient know ibuprofen is available.

1. The clinic nurse is assessing a child who has been brought to the clinic with signs and symptoms that are suggestive of otitis externa. What assessment finding is characteristic of otitis externa? A) Tophi on the pinna and ear lobe B) Dark yellow cerumen in the external auditory canal C) Pain on manipulation of the auricle D) Air bubbles visible in the middle ear

C Feedback: Pain when the nurse pulls gently on the auricle in preparation for an otoscopic examination of the ear canal is a characteristic finding in patients with otitis externa. Tophi are deposits of generally painless uric acid crystals; they are a common physical assessment finding in patients diagnosed with gout. Cerumen is a normal finding during assessment of the ear canal. Its presence does not necessarily indicate that inflammation is present. Air bubbles in the middle ear may be visualized with the otoscope; however, these do not indicate a problem involving the ear canal.

33. A man and woman are in their early eighties and have provided constant care for their 44-year-old son who has Down syndrome. When planning this family's care, the nurse should be aware that the parents most likely have what concerns around what question? A) ìWhat could we have done better for our son?î B) ìWhy was our son born with Down syndrome while our other children are healthy?î C) ìWho will care for our son once we're unable?î D) ìWill we experience the effects of developmental disabilities late in life?î

C Feedback: Parents of adult children with developmental disabilities often fear what will happen when they are no longer available and able to care for their children. Developmental delays do not have a late onset. Concerns about the causes of their son's disease likely predominated when he was younger.

30. A patient is being discharged home after mastoid surgery. What topic should the nurse address in the patient's discharge education? A) Expected changes in facial nerve function B) The need for audiometry testing every 6 months following recovery C) Safe use of analgesics and antivertiginous agents D) Appropriate use of OTC ear drops

C Feedback: Patients require instruction about medication therapy, such as analgesics and antivertiginous agents (e.g., antihistamines) prescribed for balance disturbance. OTC ear drops are not recommended and changes in facial nerve function are signs of a complication that needs to be addressed promptly. There is no need for serial audiometry testing.

24. The nurse is caring for a young adult male with a traumatic brain injury and severe disabilities caused by a motor vehicle accident when he was an adolescent. Where does the nurse often provide care for patients like this young adult? A) Adult day-care facilities B) Step-down units C) Medical-surgical units D) Pediatric units

C Feedback: Patients with preexisting disabilities due to conditions that have been present from birth or due to illnesses or injuries experienced as an adolescent or young adult often require health care and nursing care in medical-surgical settings. Step-down units provide care between the ICU setting and the regular units. Pediatric units provide care for patients aged 19 and younger. Adult day care may or may not be appropriate.

23. The nurse is teaching a patient to care for her new ocular prosthesis. What should the nurse emphasize during the patient's health education? A) The need to limit exposure to bright light B) The need to maintain a low Fowler's position when removing the prosthesis C) The need to perform thorough hand hygiene before handling the prosthesis D) The need to apply antiviral ointment to the prosthesis daily

C Feedback: Proper hand hygiene must be observed before inserting and removing an ocular prosthesis. There is no need for a low Fowler's position or for limiting light exposure. Antiviral ointments are not routinely used.

15. The nurse is reviewing the importance of preventative health care with a patient who has a disability. The patient states that she will not have the money to pay for her annual gynecologic exams or mammograms due to the cost of this hospitalization. What information would be appropriate for the nurse to share with the patient? A) ìLimited finances are a common problem for patients with a disability. Since you were hospitalized this year, you can likely forego the gynecologic exam and mammogram.î B) ìThese are very important health preventative measures, so you will need to borrow the money to pay for the exam and mammogram.î C) ìI'll look into federal assistance programs that provide financial assistance for health-related expenses for people with disabling conditions.î D) ìThese preventative measures should likely be tax deductible, so you should consult with your accountant and then make your appointments.î

C Feedback: Several federal assistance programs provide financial assistance for health-related expenses for people with some chronic illnesses, acquired disabling acute and chronic diseases, and diseases from childhood. Lack of financial resources, including health insurance, is an important barrier to health care for people with disabilities. Each of the other responses is inappropriate and inaccurate.

20. A patient who has recently been diagnosed with chronic heart failure is being taught by the nurse how to live successfully with her chronic condition. Her ability to meet this goal will primarily depend on her ability to do which of the following? A) Lower her expectations for quality of life and level of function. B) Access community services to eventually cure her disease. C) Adapt her lifestyle to accommodate her symptoms. D) Establish good rapport with her primary care provider.

C Feedback: Successful management of chronic conditions depends largely on the patient's ability to adapt in order to accommodate symptoms. However, telling the patient to lower her expectations is a simplistic and negative interpretation of this reality. Rapport is beneficial, but not paramount. A cure is not normally an option.

7. An 84-year-old patient has returned from the post-anesthetic care unit (PACU) following hip arthroplasty. The patient is oriented to name only. The patient's family is very upset because, before having surgery, the patient had no cognitive deficits. The patient is subsequently diagnosed with postoperative delirium. What should the nurse explain to the patient's family? A) This problem is self-limiting and there is nothing to worry about. B) Delirium involves a progressive decline in memory loss and overall cognitive function. C) Delirium of this type is treatable and her cognition will return to previous levels. D) This problem can be resolved by administering antidotes to the anesthetic that was used in surgery.

C Feedback: Surgery is a common cause of delirium in older adults. Delirium differs from other types of dementia in that delirium begins with confusion and progresses to disorientation. It has symptoms that are reversible with treatment, and, with treatment, is short term in nature. It is patronizing and inaccurate to reassure the family that there is ìnothing to worry about.î The problem is not treated by the administration of antidotes to anesthetic.

19. A patient with a severe exacerbation of COPD requires reliable and precise oxygen delivery. Which mask will the nurse expect the physician to order? A) Non-rebreather air mask B) Tracheostomy collar C) Venturi mask D) Face tent

C Feedback: The Venturi mask provides the most accurate method of oxygen delivery. Other methods of oxygen delivery include the aerosol mask, tracheostomy collar, and face tents, but these do not match the precision of a Venturi mask.

16. You are the case manager who oversees the multidisciplinary care of several patients living with chronic conditions. Two of your patients are living with spina bifida. You recognize that the center of care for these two patients typically exists where? A) In the hospital B) In the physician's office C) In the home D) In the rehabilitation facility

C Feedback: The day-to-day management of illness is largely the responsibility of people with chronic disorders and their families. As a result, the home, rather than the hospital, is the center of care in chronic conditions. Hospitals, rehabilitation facilities, clinics, physician's offices, nursing homes, nursing centers, and community agencies are considered adjuncts or back-up services to daily home management.

17. The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with cancer of the liver who has chosen to remain in his home as long as he is able. The nurse reviews the care plan for the patient and notes that it focuses on palliative measures. The nurse also notes that over the last 3 weeks, the patient's condition has continued to deteriorate. What is the nurse's best response to this clinical information? A) Recognize that death will most likely occur in the next week. B) Recognize that the patient is in the trajectory phase of chronic illness and should be kept pain-free. C) Recognize that the patient is in the downward phase of chronic illness and should be reassessed. D) Recognize that the patient should immediately be admitted into the hospital.

C Feedback: The downward phase occurs when symptoms of chronic illness worsen despite attempts to control the course through proper regimen management. A downward turn does not necessarily lead to death. A downward trend can be arrested and the trajectory reestablished at any point, depending on the condition and the treatment. A patient who is palliative may not desire hospitalization and aggressive treatment.

34. A 6-month-old infant is brought to the ED by his parents for inconsolable crying and pulling at his right ear. When assessing this infant, the advanced practice nurse is aware that the tympanic membrane should be what color in a healthy ear? A) Yellowish-white B) Pink C) Gray D) Bluish-white

C Feedback: The healthy tympanic membrane appears pearly gray and is positioned obliquely at the base of the ear canal. Any other color is suggestive of a pathological process.

35. You are presenting patient teaching to a 48-year-old man who was just diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. The patient has a BMI of 35 and leads a sedentary lifestyle. You give the patient information on the risk factors for his diagnosis and begin talking with him about changing behaviors around diet and exercise. You know that further patient teaching is necessary when your patient tells you what? A) ìI need to start slow on an exercise program approved by my doctor.î B) ìI know there's a chance I could have avoided this if I'd always eaten better and exercised more.î C) ìThere is nothing that can be done anyway, because chronic diseases like diabetes cannot be prevented.î D) ìI want to have a plan in place before I start making a lot of changes to my lifestyle.î

C Feedback: The major causes of chronic diseases are known, and if these risk factors were eliminated, at least over 80% of heart disease, stroke, and type 2 diabetes would be prevented. In addition, over 40% of cancers would be prevented. The other listed options are accurate statements.

37. A nurse has performed tracheal suctioning on a patient who experienced increasing dyspnea prior to a procedure. When applying the nursing process, how can the nurse best evaluate the outcomes of this intervention? A) Determine whether the patient can now perform forced expiratory technique (FET). B) Percuss the patient's lungs and thorax. C) Measure the patient's oxygen saturation. D) Have the patient perform incentive spirometry

C Feedback: The patient's response to suctioning is usually determined by performing chest auscultation and by measuring the patient's oxygen saturation. FET, incentive spirometry, and percussion are not normally used as evaluative techniques.

30. A patient who is recovering from a stroke expresses frustration about his care to the nurse, stating, ìIt seems like everyone sees me as just a problem that needs fixing.î This patient's statement is suggestive of what model of disability? A) Biopsychosocial model B) Social model C) Rehabilitation model D) Interface model

C Feedback: The rehabilitation model regards disability as a deficiency that requires a rehabilitation specialist or other helping professional to fix the problem. This is not characteristic of the biopsychosocial, social, or interface models.

24. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the most common cause of retinal inflammation in patients with AIDS. What drug, surgically implanted, is used for the acute stage of CMV retinitis? A) Pilocarpine B) Penicillin C) Ganciclovir D) Gentamicin

C Feedback: The surgically implanted sustained-release insert of ganciclovir enables higher concentrations of ganciclovir to reach the CMV retinitis. Pilocarpine is a muscarinic agent used in open-angle glaucoma. Gentamicin and penicillin are antibiotics that are not used to treat CMV retinitis.

27. An older adult patient has been diagnosed with macular degeneration and the nurse is assessing him for changes in visual acuity since his last clinic visit. When assessing the patient for recent changes in visual acuity, the patient states that he sees the lines on an Amsler grid as being distorted. What is the nurse's most appropriate response? A) Ask if the patient has been using OTC vasoconstrictors. B) Instruct the patient to repeat the test at different times of the day when at home. C) Arrange for the patient to visit his ophthalmologist. D) Encourage the patient to adhere to his prescribed drug regimen.

C Feedback: With a change in the patient's perception of the grid, the patient should notify the ophthalmologist immediately and should arrange to be seen promptly. This is a priority over encouraging drug adherence, even though this is also important. Vasoconstrictors are not a likely cause of this change and repeating the test at different times is not relevant.

34. A patient has just arrived to the floor after an enucleation procedure following a workplace accident in which his left eye was irreparably damaged. Which of the following should the nurse prioritize during the patient's immediate postoperative recovery? A) Teaching the patient about options for eye prostheses B) Teaching the patient to estimate depth and distance with the use of one eye C) Assessing and addressing the patient's emotional needs D) Teaching the patient about his post-discharge medication regimen

C Feedback: When surgical eye removal is unexpected, such as in severe ocular trauma, leaving no time for the patient and family to prepare for the loss, the nurse's role in providing emotional support is crucial. In the short term, this is a priority over teaching regarding prostheses, medications, or vision adaptation.

36. An older adult with a recent history of mixed hearing loss has been diagnosed with a cholesteatoma. What should this patient be taught about this diagnosis? Select all that apply A) Cholesteatomas are benign and self-limiting, and hearing loss will resolve spontaneously. B) Cholesteatomas are usually the result of metastasis from a distant tumor site. C) Cholesteatomas are often the result of chronic otitis media. D) Cholesteatomas, if left untreated, result in intractable neuropathic pain. E) Cholesteatomas usually must be removed surgically

CE Feedback: Cholesteatoma is a tumor of the external layer of the eardrum into the middle ear, often resulting from chronic otitis media. They usually do not cause pain; however, if treatment or surgery is delayed, they may burst or destroy the mastoid bone. They are not normally the result of metastasis and are not self-limiting.

32. The nurse working on the coronary care unit is caring for a patient with ACS. How can the nurse best meet the patient's psychosocial needs? A) Reinforce the fact that treatment will be successful. B) Facilitate a referral to a chaplain or spiritual leader. C) Increase the patient's participation in rehabilitation activities. D) Directly address the patient's anxieties and fears

D Feedback: Alleviating anxiety and decreasing fear are important nursing functions that reduce the sympathetic stress response. Referrals to spiritual care may or may not be appropriate, and this does not relieve the nurse of responsibility for addressing the patient's psychosocial needs. Treatment is not always successful, and false hope should never be fostered. Participation in rehabilitation may alleviate anxiety for some patients, but it may exacerbate it for others.

9. The OR nurse is explaining to a patient that cardiac surgery requires the absence of blood from the surgical field. At the same time, it is imperative to maintain perfusion of body organs and tissues. What technique for achieving these simultaneous goals should the nurse describe? A) Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) B) Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) C) Atherectomy D) Cardiopulmonary bypass

D Feedback: Cardiopulmonary bypass is often used to circulate and oxygenate blood mechanically while bypassing the heart and lungs. PTCA, atherectomy, and CABG are all surgical procedures, none of which achieves the two goals listed

6. A nurse is educating a patient in anticipation of a procedure that will require a watersealed chest drainage system. What should the nurse tell the patient and the family that this drainage system is used for? A) Maintaining positive chest-wall pressure B) Monitoring pleural fluid osmolarity C) Providing positive intrathoracic pressure D) Removing excess air and fluid

D Feedback: Chest tubes and closed drainage systems are used to re-expand the lung involved and to remove excess air, fluid, and blood. They are not used to maintain positive chest-wall pressure, monitor pleural fluid, or provide positive intrathoracic pressure.

18. You are the case manager for a 35-year-old man being seen at a primary care clinic for chronic low back pain. When you meet with the patient, he says that he is having problems at work; in the past year he has been absent from work about once every 2 weeks, is short-tempered with other workers, feels tired all the time, and is worried about losing his job. You are developing this patient's plan of care. On what should the goals for the plan of care focus? A) Increase the patient's pain tolerance in order to achieve psychosocial benefits. B) Decrease the patient's need to work and increase his sleep to 8 hours per night. C) Evaluate other work options to decrease the risk of depression and ineffective coping. D) Decrease the time lost from work to increase the quality of interpersonal relationships and decrease anxiety.

D Feedback: Chronic pain may affect the patient's quality of life by interfering with work, interpersonal relationships, or sleep. Thus, the best set of goals would be to ìdecrease time lost from work to increase the quality of interpersonal relationships, and decrease anxiety.î Increasing pain tolerance is an unrealistic and inappropriate goal; exercise could help, but would not be the focus of the plan of care. Decreasing the need to work does not address his pain. Evaluating other work options to decrease the risk of depression is a misdirected diagnosis.

6. An elderly patient has come in to the clinic for her twice-yearly physical. The patient tells the nurse that she is generally enjoying good health, but that she has been having occasional episodes of constipation over the past 6 months. What intervention should the nurse first suggest? A) Reduce the amount of stress she currently experiences. B) Increase carbohydrate intake and reduce protein intake. C) Take herbal laxatives, such as senna, each night at bedtime. D) Increase daily intake of water.

D Feedback: Constipation is a common problem in older adults and increasing fluid intake is an appropriate early intervention. This should likely be attempted prior to recommending senna or other laxatives. Stress reduction is unlikely to wholly resolve the problem and there is no need to increase carbohydrate intake and reduce protein intake.

10. A nurse is providing health education to a patient scheduled for cryoablation therapy. The nurse should describe what aspect of this treatment? A) Peeling away the area of endocardium responsible for the dysrhythmia B) Using electrical shocks directly to the endocarduim to eliminate the source of dysrhythmia C) Using high-frequency sound waves to eliminate the source of dysrhythmia D) Using a cooled probe to eliminate the source of dysrhythmia

D Feedback: Cryoablation therapy involves using a cooled probe to create a small scar on the endocardium to eliminate the source of the dysrhythmias. Endocardium resection involves peeling away a specified area of the endocardium. Electrical ablation involves using shocks to eliminate the area causing the dysrhythmias. Radio frequency ablation uses high-frequency sound waves to destroy the area causing the dysrhythmias.

35. The nurse is assessing a patient who had a pacemaker implanted 4 weeks ago. During the patient's most recent follow-up appointment, the nurse identifies data that suggest the patient may be socially isolated and depressed. What nursing diagnosis is suggested by these data? A) Decisional conflict related to pacemaker implantation B) Deficient knowledge related to pacemaker implantation C) Spiritual distress related to pacemaker implantation D) Ineffective coping related to pacemaker implantation

D Feedback: Depression and isolation may be symptoms of ineffective coping with the implantation. These psychosocial symptoms are not necessarily indicative of issues related to knowledge or decisions. Further data would be needed to determine a spiritual component to the patient's challenges.

40. The nurse is assessing a patient who has a chest tube in place for the treatment of a pneumothorax. The nurse observes that the water level in the water seal rises and falls in rhythm with the patient's respirations. How should the nurse best respond to this assessment finding? A) Gently reinsert the chest tube 1 to 2 cm and observe if the water level stabilizes. B) Inform the physician promptly that there is in imminent leak in the drainage system. C) Encourage the patient to do deep breathing and coughing exercises. D) Document that the chest drainage system is operating as it is intended

D Feedback: Fluctuation of the water level in the water seal shows effective connection between the pleural cavity and the drainage chamber and indicates that the drainage system remains patent. No further action is needed.

17. The home health nurse is making an initial home visit to a 76-year-old widower. The patient takes multiple medications for the treatment of varied chronic health problems. The patient states that he has also begun taking some herbal remedies. What should the nurse be sure to include in the patient's teaching? A) Herbal remedies are consistent with holistic health care. B) Herbal remedies are often cheaper than prescribed medication. C) It is safest to avoid the use of herbal remedies. D) There is a need to inform his physician and pharmacist about the herbal remedies.

D Feedback: Herbal remedies combined with prescribed medications can lead to interactions that may be toxic. Patients should notify the physician and pharmacist of any herbal remedies they are using. Even though herbal remedies are considered holistic, this is not something that is necessary to include in the patient's teaching. Herbal remedies may be cheaper than prescribed medicine, but this is still not something that is necessary to include in the patient's teaching. For most people, it is not necessary to wholly avoid herbal remedies.

4. The staff educator is teaching ED nurses about hypertensive crisis. The nurse educator should explain that hypertensive urgency differs from hypertensive emergency in what way? A) The BP is always higher in a hypertensive emergency. B) Vigilant hemodynamic monitoring is required during treatment of hypertensive emergencies. C) Hypertensive urgency is treated with rest and benzodiazepines to lower BP. D) Hypertensive emergencies are associated with evidence of target organ damage

D Feedback: Hypertensive emergencies are acute, life-threatening BP elevations that require prompt treatment in an intensive care setting because of the serious target organ damage that may occur. Blood pressures are extremely elevated in both urgency and emergencies, but there is no evidence of target organ damage in hypertensive urgency. Extremely close hemodynamic monitoring of the patient's BP is required in both situations. The medications of choice in hypertensive emergencies are those with an immediate effect, such as IV vasodilators. Oral doses of fast-acting agents, such as beta-adrenergic blocking agents, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, or alpha-agonists, are recommended for the treatment of hypertensive urgencies.

12. A patient recovering from thoracic surgery is on long-term mechanical ventilation and becomes very frustrated when he tries to communicate. What intervention should the nurse perform to assist the patient? A) Assure the patient that everything will be all right and that remaining calm is the best strategy. B) Ask a family member to interpret what the patient is trying to communicate. C) Ask the physician to wean the patient off the mechanical ventilator to allow the patient to speak freely. D) Express empathy and then encourage the patient to write, use a picture board, or spell words with an alphabet board.

D Feedback: If the patient uses an alternative method of communication, he will feel in better control and likely be less frustrated. Assuring the patient that everything will be all right offers false reassurance, and telling him not to be upset minimizes his feelings. Neither of these methods helps the patient to communicate. In a patient with an endotracheal or tracheostomy tube, the family members are also likely to encounter difficulty interpreting the patient's wishes. Making them responsible for interpreting the patient's gestures may frustrate the family. The patient may be weaned off a mechanical ventilator only when the physiologic parameters for weaning have been met.

28. The nurse is caring for a patient on telemetry. The patient's ECG shows a shortened PR interval, slurring of the initial QRS deflection, and prolonged QRS duration. What does this ECG show? A) Sinus bradycardia B) Myocardial infarction C) Lupus-like syndrome D) Wolf-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome

D Feedback: In WPW syndrome there is a shortened PR interval, slurring (called a delta wave) of the initial QRS deflection, and prolonged QRS duration. These characteristics are not typical of the other listed cardiac anomalies.

40. A patient calls his cardiologist's office and talks to the nurse. He is concerned because he feels he is being defibrillated too often. The nurse tells the patient to come to the office to be evaluated because the nurse knows that the most frequent complication of ICD therapy is what? A) Infection B) Failure to capture C) Premature battery depletion D) Oversensing of dysrhythmias

D Feedback: Inappropriate delivery of ICD therapy, usually due to oversensing of atrial and sinus tachycardias with a rapid ventricular rate response, is the most frequent complication of ICD. Infections, failure to capture, and premature battery failure are less common.

28. A 74-year-old woman was diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis 1 year ago, but has achieved adequate symptom control through the regular use of celecoxib (Celebrex), a COX-2 selective NSAID. The nurse should recognize that this drug, like other NSAIDs, influences what aspect of the pathophysiology of nociceptive pain? A) Distorting the action potential that is transmitted along the A-delta (δ) and C fibers B) Diverting noxious information from passing through the dorsal root ganglia and synapses in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord C) Blocking modulation by limiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine D) Inhibiting transduction by blocking the formation of prostaglandins in the periphery

D Feedback: NSAIDs produce pain relief primarily by blocking the formation of prostaglandins in the periphery; this is a central component of the pathophysiology of transduction. NSAIDs do not act directly on the aspects of transmission, perception, or modulation of pain that are listed.

22. The nurse is providing care to a patient who has just undergone an electrophysiologic (EP) study. The patient states that she is nervous about ìthings going wrongî during the procedure. What is the nurse's best response? A) ìThis is basically a risk-free procedure.î B) ìThousands of patients undergo EP every year.î C) ìRemember that this is a step that will bring you closer to enjoying good health.î D) ìThe whole team will be monitoring you very closely for the entire procedure.î

D Feedback: Patients who are to undergo an EP study may be anxious about the procedure and its outcome. A detailed discussion involving the patient, the family, and the electrophysiologist usually occurs to ensure that the patient can give informed consent and to reduce the patient's anxiety about the procedure. It is inaccurate to state that EP is ìrisk-freeî and stating that it is common does not necessarily relieve the patient's anxiety. Characterizing EP as a step toward good health does not directly address the patient's anxiety.

8. A patient's plan of care specifies postural drainage. What action should the nurse perform when providing this noninvasive therapy? A) Administer the treatment with the patient in a high Fowler's or semi-Fowler's position. B) Perform the procedure immediately following the patient's meals. C) Apply percussion firmly to bare skin to facilitate drainage. D) Assist the patient into a position that will allow gravity to move secretions.

D Feedback: Postural drainage is usually performed two to four times per day. The patient uses gravity to facilitate postural draining. The skin should be covered with a cloth or a towel during percussion to protect the skin. Postural drainage is not administered in an upright position or directly following a meal.

25. You are the nurse coming on shift in a rehabilitation unit. You receive information in report about a new patient who has fibromyalgia and has difficulty with her ADLs. The off-going nurse also reports that the patient is withdrawn, refusing visitors, and has been vacillating between tears and anger all afternoon. What do you know about chronic pain syndromes that could account for your new patient's behavior? A) Fibromyalgia is not a chronic pain syndrome, so further assessment is necessary. B) The patient is likely frustrated because she has to be in the hospital. C) The patient likely has an underlying psychiatric disorder. D) Chronic pain can cause intense emotional responses.

D Feedback: Regardless of how patients cope with chronic pain, pain that lasts for an extended period can result in depression, anger, or emotional withdrawal. Nowhere in the scenario does it indicate the patient is upset about the hospitalization or that she has a psychiatric disorder. Fibromyalgia is closely associated with chronic pain.

24. A cardiac care nurse is aware of factors that result in positive chronotropy. These factors would affect a patient's cardiac function in what way? A) Exacerbating an existing dysrhythmia B) Initiating a new dysrhythmia C) Resolving ventricular tachycardia D) Increasing the heart rate

D Feedback: Stimulation of the sympathetic system increases heart rate. This phenomenon is known as positive chronotropy. It does not influence dysrhythmias.

33. A gerontologic nurse is basing the therapeutic programs at a long-term care facility on Miller's Functional Consequences Theory. To actualize this theory of aging, the nurse should prioritize what task? A) Attempting to control age-related physiological changes B) Lowering expectations for recovery from acute and chronic illnesses C) Helping older adults accept the inevitability of death D) Differentiating between age-related changes and modifiable risk factors

D Feedback: The Functional Consequences Theory requires the nurse to differentiate between normal, irreversible age-related changes and modifiable risk factors. This theory does not emphasize lowering expectations, controlling age-related changes, or helping adults accept the inevitability of death.

4. The medical nurse is creating the care plan of an adult patient requiring mechanical ventilation. What nursing action is most appropriate? A) Keep the patient in a low Fowler's position. B) Perform tracheostomy care at least once per day. C) Maintain continuous bedrest. D) Monitor cuff pressure every 8 hours.

D Feedback: The cuff pressure should be monitored every 8 hours. It is important to perform tracheostomy care at least every 8 hours because of the risk of infection. The patient should be encouraged to ambulate, if possible, and a low Fowler's position is not indicated.

37. A patient in the cardiac step-down unit has begun bleeding from the percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) access site in her femoral region. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Call for assistance and initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation. B) Reposition the patient's leg in a nondependent position. C) Promptly remove the femoral sheath. D) Call for help and apply pressure to the access site

D Feedback: The femoral sheath produces pressure on the access site. Pressure will temporarily reduce bleeding and allow for subsequent interventions. Removing the sheath would exacerbate bleeding and repositioning would not halt it. CPR is not indicated unless there is evidence of respiratory or cardiac arrest.

31. The home care nurse is visiting a patient newly discharged home after a lobectomy. What would be most important for the home care nurse to assess? A) Resumption of the patient's ADLs B) The family's willingness to care for the patient C) Nutritional status and fluid balance D) Signs and symptoms of respiratory complications

D Feedback: The nurse assesses the patient's adherence to the postoperative treatment plan and identifies acute or late postoperative complications. All options presented need assessment, but respiratory complications are the highest priority because they affect the patient's airway and breathing.

32. Following cardiac resuscitation, a patient has been placed in a state of mild hypothermia before being transferred to the cardiac intensive care unit. The nurse's assessment reveals that the patient is experiencing neuromuscular paralysis. How should the nurse best respond? A) Administer hypertonic IV solution. B) Administer a bolus of warned normal saline. C) Reassess the patient in 15 minutes. D) Document this as an expected assessment finding.

D Feedback: The nurse caring for a patient with hypothermia (passive or induced) needs to monitor for appropriate level of cooling, sedation, and neuromuscular paralysis to prevent seizures; myoclonus; and shivering. Neuromuscular paralysis is an expected finding and does not necessitate further interventions.

18. The nurse is discussing activity management with a patient who is postoperative following thoracotomy. What instructions should the nurse give to the patient regarding activity immediately following discharge? A) Walk 1 mile 3 to 4 times a week. B) Use weights daily to increase arm strength. C) Walk on a treadmill 30 minutes daily. D) Perform shoulder exercises five times daily.

D Feedback: The nurse emphasizes the importance of progressively increased activity. The nurse also instructs the patient on the importance of performing shoulder exercises five times daily. The patient should ambulate with limits and realize that the return of strength will likely be gradual and likely will not include weight lifting or lengthy walks.

28. The decision has been made to discharge a ventilator-dependent patient home. The nurse is developing a teaching plan for this patient and his family. What would be most important to include in this teaching plan? A) Administration of inhaled corticosteroids B) Assessment of neurologic status C) Turning and coughing D) Signs of pulmonary infection

D Feedback: The nurse teaches the patient and family about the ventilator, suctioning, tracheostomy care, signs of pulmonary infection, cuff inflation and deflation, and assessment of vital signs. Neurologic assessment and turning and coughing are less important than signs and symptoms of infection. Inhaled corticosteroids may or may not be prescribed.

24. You are the nurse caring for the 25-year-old victim of a motor vehicle accident with a fractured pelvis and a ruptured bladder. The nurse's aide (NA) tells you that she is concerned because the patient's resting heart rate is 110 beats per minute, her respirations are 24 breaths per minute, temperature is 99.1∞F axillary, and the blood pressure is 125/85 mm Hg. What other information is most important as you assess this patient's physiologic status? A) The patient's understanding of pain physiology B) The patient's serum glucose level C) The patient's white blood cell count D) The patient's rating of her pain

D Feedback: The nurse's assessment of the patient's pain is a priority. There is no suggestion of diabetes and leukocytosis would not occur at this early stage of recovery. The patient does not need to fully understand pain physiology in order to communicate the presence, absence, or severity of pain

39. A nurse is teaching a patient how to perform flow type incentive spirometry prior to his scheduled thoracic surgery. What instruction should the nurse provide to the patient? A) ìHold the spirometer at your lips and breathe in and out like you normally would.î B) ìWhen you're ready, blow hard into the spirometer for as long as you can.î C) ìTake a deep breath and then blow short, forceful breaths into the spirometer.î D) ìBreathe in deeply through the spirometer, hold your breath briefly, and then exhale.î

D Feedback: The patient should be taught to lace the mouthpiece of the spirometer firmly in the mouth, breathe air in through the mouth, and hold the breath at the end of inspiration for about 3 seconds. The patient should then exhale slowly through the mouthpiece.

21. A patient with newly diagnosed hypertension has come to the clinic for a follow-up visit. The patient asks the nurse why she has to come in so often. What would be the nurse's best response? A) ìWe do this so you don't suffer a stroke.î B) ìWe do this to determine how your blood pressure changes throughout the day.î C) ìWe do this to see how often you should change your medication dose.î D) ìWe do this to make sure your health is stable. We'll then monitor it at routinely scheduled intervals.î

D Feedback: When hypertension is initially detected, nursing assessment involves carefully monitoring the BP at frequent intervals and then at routinely scheduled intervals. The reference to stroke is frightening and does not capture the overall rationale for the monitoring regimen. Changes throughout the day are not a clinical priority for most patients. The patient must not change his or her medication doses unilaterally.

25. Which of the following nurse's actions carries the greatest potential to prevent hearing loss due to ototoxicity? A) Ensure that patients understand the differences between sensory hearing loss and conductive hearing loss. B) Educate patients about expected age-related changes in hearing perception. C) Educate patients about the risks associated with prolonged exposure to environmental noise. D) Be aware of patients' medication regimens and collaborate with other professionals accordingly.

D Feedback: A variety of medications may have adverse effects on the cochlea, vestibular apparatus, or cranial nerve VIII. All but a few, such as aspirin and quinine, cause irreversible hearing loss. Ototoxicity is not related to age-related changes, noise exposure, or the differences between types of hearing loss.

18. You are the nurse caring for an elderly patient who is being treated for communityacquired pneumonia. Since the time of admission, the patient has been disoriented and agitated to varying degrees. Appropriate referrals were made and the patient was subsequently diagnosed with dementia. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize when planning this patient's care? A) Social isolation related to dementia B) Hopelessness related to dementia C) Risk for infection related to dementia D) Acute confusion related to dementia

D Feedback: Acute confusion is a priority problem in patients with dementia, and it is an immediate threat to their health and safety. Hopelessness and social isolation are plausible problems, but the patient's cognition is a priority. The patient's risk for infection is not directly influenced by dementia.

27. You have admitted a new patient to your unit with a diagnosis of stage IV breast cancer. This woman has a comorbidity of myasthenia gravis. While you are doing the initial assessment, the patient tells you that she felt the lump in her breast about 9 months ago. You ask the patient why she did not see her health care provider when she first found the lump in her breast. What would be a factor that is known to influence the patient in seeking health care services? A) Lack of insight due to the success of self-managing a chronic condition B) Lack of knowledge about treatment options C) Overly sensitive patient reactions to health care services D) Unfavorable interactions with health care providers

D Feedback: Because of unfavorable interactions with health care providers, including negative attitudes, insensitivity, and lack of knowledge, people with disabilities may avoid seeking medical intervention. The population of people who are disabled is not overly sensitive to the reactions of those providing health care services. This is more likely than lack of insight or knowledge on the part of the patient.

9. A patient is being discharged home from the ambulatory surgical center after cataract surgery. In reviewing the discharge instructions with the patient, the nurse instructs the patient to immediately call the office if the patient experiences what? A) Slight morning discharge from the eye B) Any appearance of redness of the eye C) A ìscratchyî feeling in the eye D) A new floater in vision

D Feedback: Cataract surgery increases the risk of retinal detachment and the patient must be instructed to notify the surgeon of new floaters in vision, flashing lights, decrease in vision, pain, or increase in redness. Slight morning discharge, some redness, and a scratchy feeling may be expected for a few days after surgery

21. A major cause of health-related problems is the increase in the incidence of chronic conditions. This is the case not only in developed countries like the United States but also in developing countries. What factor has contributed to the increased incidence of chronic diseases in developing countries? A) Developing countries are experiencing an increase in average life span. B) Increasing amounts of health research are taking place in developing countries. C) Developing countries lack the health infrastructure to manage illness. D) Developing countries are simultaneously coping with emerging infectious diseases.

D Feedback: Chronic conditions have become the major cause of health-related problems in developed countries as well as in the developing countries, which are also trying to cope with new and emerging infectious diseases. There is indeed a lack of health infrastructure in many countries, but this is not cited as the cause of the increased incidence of chronic diseases. In many countries, increased life span and health research are not occurring.

26. The nurse is performing patient education for a patient who is being discharged on mini-nebulizer treatments. What information should the nurse prioritize in the patient's discharge teaching? A) How to count her respirations accurately B) How to collect serial sputum samples C) How to independently wean herself from treatment D) How to perform diaphragmatic breathing

D Feedback: Diaphragmatic breathing is a helpful technique to prepare for proper use of the smallvolume nebulizer. Patient teaching would not include counting respirations and the patient should not wean herself from treatment without the involvement of her primary care provider. Serial sputum samples are not normally necessary.

32. The nurse caring for a 91-year-old patient with osteoarthritis is reviewing the patient's chart. This patient is on a variety of medications prescribed by different care providers in the community. In light of the QSEN competency of safety, what is the nurse most concerned about with this patient? A) Depression B) Chronic illness C) Inadequate pain control D) Drug interactions

D Feedback: Drug interactions are more likely to occur in older adults because of the higher incidence of chronic illness and the increased use of prescription and OTC medications. The other options are all good answers for this patient because of the patient's age and disease process. However, they are not what the nurse would be most concerned about in terms of ensuring safety.

14. The public health nurse is participating in a health fair and interviews a patient with a history of hypertension, who is currently smoking one pack of cigarettes per day. She denies any of the most common manifestations of CAD. Based on these data, the nurse would expect the focuses of CAD treatment most likely to be which of the following? A) Drug therapy and smoking cessation B) Diet and drug therapy C) Diet therapy only D) Diet therapy and smoking cessation

D Feedback: Due to the absence of symptoms, dietary therapy would likely be selected as the firstline treatment for possible CAD. Drug therapy would be determined based on a number of considerations and diagnostics findings, but would not be directly indicated. Smoking cessation is always indicated, regardless of the presence or absence of symptoms

29. You are caring for an 82-year-old man who was recently admitted to the geriatric medical unit in which you work. Since admission, he has spoken frequently of becoming a burden to his children and ìstaying afloatî financially. When planning this patient's care, you should recognize his heightened risk of what nursing diagnosis? A) Disturbed thought processes B) Impaired social interaction C) Decisional conflict D) Anxiety

D Feedback: Economic concerns and fear of becoming a burden to families often lead to high anxiety in older people. There is no clear indication that the patient has disturbed thought processes, impaired social interaction, or decisional conflict.

34. During their prime employable years between ages 21 and 64, 77% of those with a nonsevere disability are employed. What has research shown about this employed population? A) Their salaries are commensurate with their experience. B) They enjoy their jobs more than people who do not have disabilities. C) Employment rates are higher among people with a disability than those without. D) People with disabilities earn less money than people without disabilities.

D Feedback: Employed people with a disability earn less money than people without disabilities. Of those without a disability, 85% are employed as compared to 77% of those with a nonsevere disability. Job satisfaction is not noted to differ.

28. The nurse is reviewing the health history of a newly admitted patient and reads that the patient has been previously diagnosed with exostoses. How should the nurse accommodate this fact into the patient's plan of care? A) The nurse should perform the Rinne and Weber tests. B) The nurse should arrange for audiometry testing as soon as possible. C) The nurse should collaborate with the pharmacist to assess for potential ototoxic medications. D) No specific assessments or interventions are necessary to addressing exostoses.

D Feedback: Exostoses are small, hard, bony protrusions found in the lower posterior bony portion of the ear canal; they usually occur bilaterally. They do not normally impact hearing and no treatments or nursing actions are usually necessary.

6. Following a motorcycle accident, a 17-year-old man is brought to the ED. What physical assessment findings related to the ear should be reported by the nurse immediately? A) The malleus can be visualized during otoscopic examination. B) The tympanic membrane is pearly gray. C) Tenderness is reported by the patient when the mastoid area is palpated. D) Clear, watery fluid is draining from the patient's ear.

D Feedback: For the patient experiencing acute head trauma, immediately report the presence of clear, watery drainage from the ear. The fluid is likely to be cerebrospinal fluid associated with skull fracture. The ability to visualize the malleus is a normal physical assessment finding. The tympanic membrane is normally pearly gray in color. Tenderness of the mastoid area usually indicates inflammation. This should be reported, but is not a finding indicating urgent intervention.

22. A patient with a sudden onset of hearing loss tells the nurse that he would like to begin using hearing aids. The nurse understands that the health professional dispensing hearing aids would have what responsibility? A) Test the patient's hearing promptly. B) Perform an otoscopy. C) Measure the width of the patient's ear canal. D) Refer the patient to his primary care physician.

D Feedback: Health care professionals who dispense hearing aids are required to refer prospective users to a physician if the patient has sudden or rapidly progressive hearing loss. This would be a health priority over other forms of assessment, due to the possible presence of a pathologic process.

40. A community health nurse has drafted a program that will address the health promotion needs of members of the community who live with one or more disabilities. Which of the following areas of health promotion education is known to be neglected among adults with disabilities? A) Blood pressure screening B) Diabetes testing C) Nutrition D) Sexual health

D Feedback: Health promotion interventions addressing sexual health in disabled individuals are necessary but rare. Blood pressure testing, diabetes testing, and nutrition are not known to constitute such a gap in health promotion teaching.

35. A 55-year-old patient comes to the clinic for a routine check-up. The patient's BP is 159/100 mm Hg and the physician diagnoses hypertension after referring to previous readings. The patient asks why it is important to treat hypertension. What would be the nurse's best response? A) ìHypertension can cause you to develop dangerous blood clots in your legs that can migrate to your lungs.î B) ìHypertension puts you at increased risk of type 1 diabetes and cancer in your age group.î C) ìHypertension is the leading cause of death in people your age.î D) ìHypertension greatly increases your risk of stroke and heart disease.î

D Feedback: Hypertension, particularly elevated systolic BP, increases the risk of death, stroke, and heart failure in people older than 50 years. Hypertension is not a direct precursor to pulmonary emboli, and it does not put older adults at increased risk of type 1 diabetes or cancer. It is not the leading cause of death in people 55 years of age

35. A child has been experiencing recurrent episodes of acute otitis media (AOM). The nurse should anticipate that what intervention is likely to be ordered? A) Ossiculoplasty B) Insertion of a cochlear implant C) Stapedectomy D) Insertion of a ventilation tube

D Feedback: If AOM recurs and there is no contraindication, a ventilating, or pressure-equalizing, tube may be inserted. The ventilating tube, which temporarily takes the place of the eustachian tube in equalizing pressure, is retained for 6 to 18 months. Ossiculoplasty is not used to treat AOM and stapedectomy is performed to treat otosclerosis. Cochlear implants are used to treat sensorineural hearing loss.

26. A patient in hypertensive emergency is being cared for in the ICU. The patient has become hypovolemic secondary to natriuresis. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Add sodium to the patient's IV fluid, as ordered. B) Administer a vasoconstrictor, as ordered. C) Promptly cease antihypertensive therapy. D) Administer normal saline IV, as ordered

D Feedback: If there is volume depletion secondary to natriuresis caused by the elevated BP, then volume replacement with normal saline can prevent large, sudden drops in BP when antihypertensive medications are administered. Sodium administration, cessation of antihypertensive therapy, and administration of vasoconstrictors are not normally indicated.

5. You are creating a nursing care plan for a patient with a primary diagnosis of cellulitis and a secondary diagnosis of chronic pain. What common trait of patients who live with chronic pain should inform your care planning? A) They are typically more comfortable with underlying pain than patients without chronic pain. B) They often have a lower pain threshold than patients without chronic pain. C) They often have an increased tolerance of pain. D) They can experience acute pain in addition to chronic pain.

D Feedback: It is tempting to expect that people who have had multiple or prolonged experiences with pain will be less anxious and more tolerant of pain than those who have had little experience with pain. However, this is not true for many people. The more experience a person has had with pain, the more frightened he or she may be about subsequent painful events. Chronic pain and acute pain are not mutually exclusive.

30. The nurse is screening a number of adults for hypertension. What range of blood pressure is considered normal? A) Less than 140/90 mm Hg B) Less than 130/90 mm Hg C) Less than 129/89 mm Hg D) Less than 120/80 mm Hg

D Feedback: JNC 7 defines a blood pressure of less than 120/80 mm Hg as normal, 120 to 129/80 to 89 mm Hg as prehypertension, and 140/90 mm Hg or higher as hypertension.

4. A patient who undergoes hemodialysis three times weekly is on a fluid restriction of 1000 mL/day. The nurse sees the patient drinking a 355-mL (12 ounce) soft drink after the patient has already reached the maximum intake of fluid for the day. What action should the nurse take? A) Take the soft drink away from the patient and inform the dialysis nurse to remove extra fluid from the patient during the next dialysis treatment B) Document the patient's behavior as noncompliant and notify the physician C) Further restrict the patient's fluid for the following day and communicate this information to the charge nurse D) Reinforce the importance of the fluid restriction and document the teaching and the intake of extra fluid

D Feedback: Management of chronic conditions includes learning to live with symptoms or disabilities and coming to terms with identity changes resulting from having a chronic condition. It also consists of carrying out the lifestyle changes and regimens designed to control symptoms and to prevent complications. Although it may be difficult for nurses and other health care providers to stand by while patients make unwise decisions about their health, they must accept the fact that the patient has the right to make his or her own choices and decisions about lifestyle and health care.

36. Preoperative education is an important part of the nursing care of patients having coronary artery revascularization. When explaining the pre- and postoperative regimens, the nurse would be sure to include education about which subject? A) Symptoms of hypovolemia B) Symptoms of low blood pressure C) Complications requiring graft removal D) Intubation and mechanical ventilation

D Feedback: Most patients remain intubated and on mechanical ventilation for several hours after surgery. It is important that patients realize that this will prevent them from talking, and the nurse should reassure them that the staff will be able to assist them with other means of communication. Teaching would generally not include symptoms of low blood pressure or hypovolemia, as these are not applicable to most patients. Teaching would also generally not include rare complications that would require graft removal.

8. A patient has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. The patient is clinically obese and has a sedentary lifestyle. How can the nurse best begin to help the patient increase his activity level? A) Set up appointment times at a local fitness center for the patient to attend. B) Have a family member ensure the patient follows a suggested exercise plan. C) Construct an exercise program and have the patient follow it. D) Identify barriers with the patient that inhibit his lifestyle change.

D Feedback: Nurses cannot expect that sedentary patients are going to develop a sudden passion for exercise and that they will easily rearrange their day to accommodate time-consuming exercise plans. The patient may not be ready or willing to accept this lifestyle change. This is why it is important that the nurse and patient identify barriers to change.

27. A nurse is teaching preventative measures for otitis externa to a group of older adults. What action should the nurse encourage? A) Rinsing the ears with normal saline after swimming B) Avoiding loud environmental noises C) Instilling antibiotic ointments on a regular basis D) Avoiding the use of cotton swabs

D Feedback: Nurses should instruct patients not to clean the external auditory canal with cottontipped applicators and to avoid events that traumatize the external canal such as scratching the canal with the fingernail or other objects. Environmental noise should be avoided, but this does not address the risk for ear infection. Routine use of antibiotics is not encouraged and rinsing the ears after swimming is not recommended.

35. A patient with a diagnosis of retinal detachment has undergone a vitreoretinal procedure on an outpatient basis. What subject should the nurse prioritize during discharge education? A) Risk factors for postoperative cytomegalovirus (CMV) B) Compensating for vision loss for the next several weeks C) Non-pharmacologic pain management strategies D) Signs and symptoms of increased intraocular pressure

D Feedback: Patients must be educated about the signs and symptoms of complications, particularly of increasing IOP and postoperative infection. CMV is not a typical complication and the patient should not expect vision loss. Vitreoretinal procedures are not associated with high levels of pain.

15. The mother of a cancer patient comes to the nurse concerned with her daughter's safety. She states that her daughter's morphine dose that she needs to control her pain is getting ìhigher and higher.î As a result, the mother is afraid that her daughter will overdose. The nurse educates the mother about what aspect of her pain management? A) The dose range is higher with cancer patients, and the medical team will be very careful to prevent addiction. B) Frequently, female patients and younger patients need higher doses of opioids to be comfortable. C) The increased risk of overdose is an inevitable risk of maintaining adequate pain control during cancer treatment. D) There is no absolute maximum opioid dose and her daughter is becoming more tolerant to the drug.

D Feedback: Patients requiring opioids for chronic pain, especially cancer patients, need increasing doses to relieve pain. The requirement for higher drug doses results in a greater drug tolerance, which is a physical dependency as opposed to addiction, which is a psychological dependency. The dose range is usually higher with cancer patients. Although tolerance to the drug will increase, addiction is not dose related, but is a separate psychological dependency issue. No research indicates that women and/or younger people need higher doses of morphine to be comfortable. Overdose is not an ìinevitableî risk

36. The nurse is caring for a male patient whose diagnosis of bone cancer is causing severe and increasing pain. Before introducing nonpharmacological pain control interventions into the patient's plan of care, the nurse should teach the patient which of the following? A) Nonpharmacological interventions must be provided by individuals other than members of the healthcare team. B) These interventions will not directly reduce pain, but will refocus him on positive stimuli. C) These interventions carry similar risks of adverse effects as analgesics. D) Reducing his use of analgesics is not the purpose of these interventions.

D Feedback: Patients who have been taking analgesic agents may mistakenly assume that clinicians suggest a nonpharmacolgical method to reduce the use or dose of analgesic agents. Nonpharmacological interventions indeed reduce pain and their use is not limited to practitioners outside the healthcare team. In general, adverse effects are minimal.

15. A patient with chronic open-angle glaucoma is being taught to self-administer pilocarpine. After the patient administers the pilocarpine, the patient states that her vision is blurred. Which nursing action is most appropriate? A) Holding the next dose and notifying the physician B) Treating the patient for an allergic reaction C) Suggesting that the patient put on her glasses D) Explaining that this is an expected adverse effect

D Feedback: Pilocarpine, a miotic drug used to treat glaucoma, achieves its effect by constricting the pupil. Blurred vision lasting 1 to 2 hours after instilling the eye drops is an expected adverse effect. The patient may also note difficulty adapting to the dark. Because blurred vision is an expected adverse effect, the drug does not need to be withheld, nor does the physician need to be notified. Likewise, the patient does not need to be treated for an allergic reaction. Wearing glasses will not alter this temporary adverse effect.

36. A patient is ready to be discharged home after a cataract extraction with intraocular lens implant and the nurse is reviewing signs and symptoms that need to be reported to the ophthalmologist immediately. Which of the patient's statements best demonstrates an adequate understanding? A) ìI need to call the doctor if I get nauseated.î B) ìI need to call the doctor if I have a light morning discharge.î C) ìI need to call the doctor if I get a scratchy feeling.î D) ìI need to call the doctor if I see flashing lights.î

D Feedback: Postoperatively, the patient who has undergone cataract extraction with intraocular lens implant should report new floaters in vision, flashing lights, decrease in vision, pain, or increase in redness to the ophthalmologist. Slight morning discharge and a scratchy feeling can be expected for a few days. Blurring of vision may be experienced for several days to weeks.

21. A group of nurses are participating in orientation to a telemetry unit. What should the staff educator tell this class about ST segments? A) They are the part of an ECG that reflects systole. B) They are the part of an ECG used to calculate ventricular rate and rhythm. C) They are the part of an ECG that reflects the time from ventricular depolarization through repolarization. D) They are the part of an ECG that represents early ventricular repolarization

D Feedback: ST segment is the part of an ECG that reflects the end of the QRS complex to the beginning of the T wave. The part of an ECG that reflects repolarization of the ventricles is the T wave. The part of an ECG used to calculate ventricular rate and rhythm is the RR interval. The part of an ECG that reflects the time from ventricular depolarization through repolarization is the QT interval.

6. A patient is exploring treatment options after being diagnosed with age-related cataracts that affect her vision. What treatment is most likely to be used in this patient's care? A) Antioxidant supplements, vitamin C and E, beta-carotene, and selenium B) Eyeglasses or magnifying lenses C) Corticosteroid eye drops D) Surgical interventio

D Feedback: Surgery is the treatment option of choice when the patient's functional and visual status is compromised. No nonsurgical (medications, eye drops, eyeglasses) treatment cures cataracts or prevents age-related cataracts. Studies recently have found no benefit from antioxidant supplements, vitamins C and E, beta-carotene, or selenium. Corticosteroid eye drops are prescribed for use after cataract surgery; however, they increase the risk for cataracts if used long-term or in high doses. Eyeglasses and magnification may improve vision in the patient with early stages of cataracts, but have limitations for the patient with impaired functioning.

40. The nurse is accepting care of an adult patient who has been experiencing severe and intractable pain. When reviewing the patient's medication administration record, the nurse notes the presence of gabapentin (Neurontin). The nurse is justified in suspecting what phenomenon in the etiology of the patient's pain? A) Neuroplasticity B) Misperception C) Psychosomatic processes D) Neuropathy

D Feedback: The anticonvulsants gabapentin (Neurontin) and pregabalin (Lyrica) are first-line analgesic agents for neuropathic pain. Neuroplasticity is the ability of the peripheral and central nervous systems to change both structure and function as a result of noxious stimuli; this does not likely contribute to the patient's pain. Similarly, psychosomatic factors and misperception of pain are highly unlikely.

31. After mastoid surgery, an 81-year-old patient has been identified as needing assistance in her home. What would be a primary focus of this patient's home care? A) Preparation of nutritious meals and avoidance of contraindicated foods B) Ensuring the patient receives adequate rest each day C) Helping the patient adapt to temporary hearing loss D) Assisting the patient with ambulation as needed to avoid falling

D Feedback: The caregiver and patient are cautioned that the patient may experience some vertigo and will therefore require help with ambulation to avoid falling. The patient should not be expected to experience hearing loss and no foods are contraindicated. Adequate rest is needed, but this is not a primary focus of home care.

17. The nurse is providing care for a patient with high cholesterol and triglyceride values. In teaching the patient about therapeutic lifestyle changes such as diet and exercise, the nurse realizes that the desired goal for cholesterol levels is which of the following? A) High HDL values and high triglyceride values B) Absence of detectable total cholesterol levels C) Elevated blood lipids, fasting glucose less than 100 D) Low LDL values and high HDL values

D Feedback: The desired goal for cholesterol readings is for a patient to have low LDL and high HDL values. LDL exerts a harmful effect on the coronary vasculature because the small LDL particles can be easily transported into the vessel lining. In contrast, HDL promotes the use of total cholesterol by transporting LDL to the liver, where it is excreted. Elevated triglycerides are also a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease. A goal is also to keep triglyceride levels less than 150 mg/dL. All individuals possess detectable levels of total cholesterol.

37. A gerontologic nurse is overseeing the care that is provided in a large, long-term care facility. The nurse is educating staff about the significant threat posed by influenza in older, frail adults. What action should the nurse prioritize to reduce the incidence and prevalence of influenza in the facility? A) Teach staff how to administer prophylactic antiviral medications effectively. B) Ensure that residents receive a high-calorie, high-protein diet during the winter. C) Make arrangements for residents to limit social interaction during winter months. D) Ensure that residents receive influenza vaccinations in the fall of each year

D Feedback: The influenza and the pneumococcal vaccinations lower the risks of hospitalization and death in elderly people. The influenza vaccine, which is prepared yearly to adjust for the specific immunologic characteristics of the influenza viruses at that time, should be administered annually in autumn. Prophylactic antiviral medications are not used. Limiting social interaction is not required in most instances. Nutrition enhances immune response, but this is not specific to influenza prevention

31. The interface model of disability is being used to plan the care of a patient who is living with the effects of a stroke. Why should the nurse prioritize this model? A) It fosters dependency and rapport between the caregiver and the patient. B) It encourages the provision of care that is based specifically on the disability. C) It promotes interactions with patients focused on the root cause of the disability. D) It promotes the idea that patients are capable and responsible.

D Feedback: The interface model promotes the view that people with disabilities are capable, responsible people who are able to function effectively despite having a disability. It does not foster dependency, does not encourage giving care based on the patient's disability, and does not encourage or promote interactions with patients that are focused on the cause of the disability.

7. A 37-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis is married and has three children. The nurse has worked extensively with the woman and her family to plan appropriate care. What is the nurse's most important role with this patient? A) Ensure the patient adheres to all treatments B) Provide the patient with advice on alternative treatment options C) Provide a detailed plan of activities of daily living (ADLs) for the patient D) Help the patient develop strategies to implement treatment regimens

D Feedback: The most important role of the nurse working with patients with chronic illness is to help patients develop the strategies needed to implement their treatment regimens and carry out activities of daily living. The nurse cannot ensure the patient adheres to all treatments. Providing information of treatment options is not the nurse's most important role. The nurse does not provide the patient with a detailed plan of ADLs, though promotion of ADLs is a priority.

37. A nurse is aware that the number of people in the United States who are living with disabilities is expected to continue increasing. What is considered to be one of the factors contributing to this increase? A) The decrease in the number of people with early-onset disabilities B) The increased inability to cure chronic disorders C) Changes in infection patterns resulting from antibiotic resistance D) Increased survival rates among people who experience trauma

D Feedback: The number of people with disabilities is expected to increase over time as people with early-onset disabilities, chronic disorders, and severe trauma survive and have normal or near-normal lifespans. There has not been a decrease in the number of people with early-onset disabilities. Acquired chronic disorders still cannot be cured.

39. The nurse is discharging a patient home after mastoid surgery. What should the nurse include in discharge teaching? A) ìTry to induce a sneeze every 4 hours to equalize pressure.î ' B) ìBe sure to exercise to reduce fatigue.î C) ìAvoid sleeping in a side-lying position.î D) ìDon't blow your nose for 2 to 3 weeks.î

D Feedback: The patient is instructed to avoid heavy lifting, straining, exertion, and nose blowing for 2 to 3 weeks after surgery to prevent dislodging the tympanic membrane graft or ossicular prosthesis. Side-lying is not contraindicated; sneezing could cause trauma

32. A community health nurse is planning an educational campaign addressing hypertension. The nurse should anticipate that the incidence and prevalence of hypertension are likely to be highest among members of what ethnic group? A) Pacific Islanders B) African Americans C) Asian-Americans D) Hispanics

D Feedback: The prevalence of uncontrolled hypertension varies by ethnicity, with Hispanics and African Americans having the highest prevalence at approximately 63% and 57%, respectively.

2. The nurse caring for a patient with an endotracheal tube recognizes several disadvantages of an endotracheal tube. What would the nurse recognize as a disadvantage of endotracheal tubes? A) Cognition is decreased. B) Daily arterial blood gases (ABGs) are necessary. C) Slight tracheal bleeding is anticipated. D) The cough reflex is depressed.

D Feedback: There are several disadvantages of an endotracheal tube. Disadvantages include suppression of the patient's cough reflex, thickening of secretions, and depressed swallowing reflexes. Ulceration and stricture of the larynx or trachea may develop, but bleeding is not an expected finding. The tube should not influence cognition and daily ABGs are not always required.

1. The registered nurse taking shift report learns that an assigned patient is blind. How should the nurse best communicate with this patient? A) Provide instructions in simple, clear terms. B) Introduce herself in a firm, loud voice at the doorway of the room. C) Lightly touch the patient's arm and then introduce herself. D) State her name and role immediately after entering the patient's room.

D Feedback: There are several guidelines to consider when interacting with a person who is blind or has low vision. Identify yourself by stating your name and role, before touching or making physical contact with the patient. When talking to the person, speak directly at him or her using a normal tone of voice. There is no need to raise your voice unless the person asks you to do so and there is no particular need to simplify verbal instructions.

14. A nurse is planning discharge teaching for an 80-year-old patient with mild short-term memory loss. The discharge teaching will include how to perform basic wound care for the venous ulcer on his lower leg. When planning the necessary health education for this patient, what should the nurse plan to do? A) Set long-term goals with the patient. B) Provide a list of useful Web sites to supplement learning. C) Keep visual cues to a minimum to enhance the patient's focus. D) Keep teaching periods short.

D Feedback: To assist the elderly patient with short-term memory loss, the nurse should keep teaching periods short, provide glare-free lighting, link new information with familiar information, use visual and auditory cues, and set short-term goals with the patient. The patient may or may not be open to the use of online resources.

33. The home health nurse is caring for a patient who has a comorbidity of hypertension. What assessment question most directly addresses the possibility of worsening hypertension? A) ìAre you eating less salt in your diet?î B) ìHow is your energy level these days?î C) ìDo you ever get chest pain when you exercise?î D) ìDo you ever see spots in front of your eyes?î

D Feedback: To identify complications or worsening hypertension, the patient is questioned about blurred vision, spots in front of the eyes, and diminished visual acuity. The heart, nervous system, and kidneys are also carefully assessed, but angina pain and decreased energy are not normally suggestive of worsening hypertension. Sodium limitation is a beneficial lifestyle modification, but nonadherence to this is not necessarily a sign of worsening symptoms.

19. Several residents of a long-term care facility have developed signs and symptoms of viral conjunctivitis. What is the most appropriate action of the nurse who oversees care in the facility? A) Arrange for the administration of prophylactic antibiotics to unaffected residents. B) Instill normal saline into the eyes of affected residents two to three times daily. C) Swab the conjunctiva of unaffected residents for culture and sensitivity testing. D) Isolate affected residents from residents who have not developed conjunctivitis

D Feedback: To prevent spread during outbreaks of conjunctivitis caused by adenovirus, health care facilities must set aside specified areas for treating patients diagnosed with or suspected of having conjunctivitis caused by adenovirus. Antibiotics and saline flushes are ineffective and normally no need to perform testing of individuals lacking symptoms.

26. The nurse is caring for patient who tells the nurse that he has an angina attack beginning. What is the nurse's most appropriate initial action? A) Have the patient sit down and put his head between his knees. B) Have the patient perform pursed-lip breathing. C) Have the patient stand still and bend over at the waist. D) Place the patient on bed rest in a semi-Fowler's position.

D Feedback: When a patient experiences angina, the patient is directed to stop all activities and sit or rest in bed in a semi-Fowler's position to reduce the oxygen requirements of the ischemic myocardium. Pursed-lip breathing and standing will not reduce workload to the same extent. No need to have the patient put his head between his legs because cerebral perfusion is not lacking.

23. An ED nurse is assessing an adult woman for a suspected MI. When planning the assessment, the nurse should be cognizant of what signs and symptoms of MI that are particularly common in female patients? Select all that apply. A) Shortness of breath B) Chest pain C) Anxiety D) Numbness E) Weakness

DE Feedback: Although these symptoms are not wholly absent in men, many women have been found to have atypical symptoms of MI, including indigestion, nausea, palpitations, and numbness. Shortness of breath, chest pain, and anxiety are common symptoms of MI among patients of all ages and genders.