Nursing Management of Pregnancy at Risk: Pregnancy-Related Complications

A pregnant women calls the clinic to report a small amount of painless vaginal bleeding. What response by the nurse is best?

"Please come in now for an evaluation by your health care provider." Bleeding during pregnancy is always a deviation from normal and should be evaluated carefully. It may be life-threatening or it may be something that is not a threat to the mother and/or fetus. Regardless, it needs to be evaluated quickly and carefully. Telling the client it may be harmless is a reassuring statement, but does not suggest the need for urgent evaluation. Having the mother lay on her left side and drink water is indicated for cramping.

A client with a history of cervical insufficiency is seen for reports of pink-tinged discharge and pelvic pressure. The primary care provider decides to perform a cervical cerclage. The nurse teaches the client about the procedure. Which client response indicates that the teaching has been effective?

"Purse-string sutures are placed in the cervix to prevent it from dilating." The cerclage, or purse string suture, is inserted into the cervix to prevent preterm cervical dilation (dilatation) and pregnancy loss. Staples, glue, or a cervical cap will not prevent the cervix from dilating.

The nurse is caring for a pregnant client with fallopian tube rupture. Which intervention is the priority for this client?

Monitor the client's vital signs and bleeding. A nurse should closely monitor the client's vital signs and bleeding (peritoneal or vaginal) to identify hypovolemic shock that may occur with tubal rupture. Beta-hCG level is monitored to diagnose an ectopic pregnancy or impending spontaneous abortion (miscarriage). Monitoring the mass with transvaginal ultrasound and determining the size of the mass are done for diagnosing an ectopic pregnancy. Monitoring the FHR does not help to identify hypovolemic shock.

A client at 25 weeks' gestation presents with a blood pressure of 152/99 mm Hg, pulse 78 beats/min, no edema, and urine negative for protein. What would the nurse do next?

Notify the health care provider

A 32-year-old gravida 3 para 2 at 36 weeks' gestation comes to the obstetric department reporting abdominal pain. Her blood pressure is 164/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats per minute, and her respirations are 24 per minute. She is restless and slightly diaphoretic with a small amount of dark red vaginal bleeding. What assessment should the nurse make next?

Palpate the fundus and check fetal heart rate. The classic signs of placental abruption (abruptio placentae) are pain, dark red vaginal bleeding, a rigid, board-like abdomen, hypertonic labor, and fetal distress.

After a regular prenatal visit, a pregnant client asks the nurse to describe the differences between placental abruption (abruptio placentae) and placenta previa. Which statement will the nurse include in the teaching?

Placenta previa is an abnormally implanted placenta that is too close to the cervix.

A 35-year-old client is seen for her 2-week postoperative appointment after a suction curettage was performed to evacuate a hydatidiform mole. The nurse explains that the human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels will be reviewed every 2 weeks and teaches about the need for reliable contraception for the next 6 months to a year. The client states, "I'm 35 already. Why do I have to wait that long to get pregnant again?" What is the nurse's best response?

"A contraceptive is used so that a positive pregnancy test resulting from a new pregnancy will not be confused with the increased level of hCG that occurs with a developing malignancy." Because of the risk of choriocarcinoma, the woman receives extensive treatment. Therapy includes baseline chest X-ray to detect lung metastasis, plus a physical exam (including a pelvic exam). Serum B-hCG levels weekly until negative results are obtained three consecutive times, then monthly for 6 to 12 months. The woman is cautioned to avoid pregnancy during this time because the increasing B-hCG levels associated with pregnancy would cause confusion as to whether cancer had developed. If after a year B-hCG serum titers are within normal levels, a normal pregnancy can be achieved.

A client in her first trimester arrives at the emergency room with reports of severe cramping and vaginal spotting. On examination, the health care provider informs her that no fetal heart sounds are evident and orders a dilatation and curettage (D&C). The client looks frightened and confused and states that she does not believe in induced abortion (medical abortion). Which statement by the nurse is best?

"Unfortunately, the pregnancy is already lost. The procedure is to clear the uterus to prevent further complications." The nurse should not inform the client what she must do but supply information about what has happened and teach the client about the treatments that are used to correct the situation. A threatened spontaneous abortion (miscarriage) becomes an imminent (inevitable) miscarriage if uterine contractions and cervical dilation (dilatation) occur. A woman who reports cramping or uterine contractions is asked to seek medical attention. If no fetal heart sounds are detected and an ultrasound reveals an empty uterus or nonviable fetus, her health care provider may perform a dilatation and curettage (D&C) or a dilation and evacuation (D&E) to ensure all products of conception are removed. Be certain the woman has been told the pregnancy was already lost and all procedures, such as suction curettage, are to clear the uterus and prevent further complications such as infection, not to end the pregnancy. This scenario does not involve an abortion (elective termination of pregnancy) or an incomplete miscarriage.

A 16-year-old client was at 12 weeks' gestation when she gave birth to a fetus last week. The client has come to the office for follow-up and, while waiting in an examination room, notices that on the schedule is written her name and "follow-up of spontaneous abortion." The client is upset about what is written on the schedule. How can the nurse best explain this terminology?

"spontaneous abortion is a more specific term used to describe a spontaneous miscarriage, which is a loss of pregnancy before 20 weeks. This term does not imply that you did anything to affect the pregnancy" Abortion is a medical term for any interruption of a pregnancy before a fetus is viable, but it is better to speak of these early pregnancy losses as spontaneous abortions to avoid confusion with intentional terminations of pregnancies. The other responses are correct, but they do not provide the client with the most complete nor reassuring answer.

A nurse is caring for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum. Which nursing action is the priority for this client?

Administer IV normal saline with vitamins and electrolytes. The first choice for fluid replacement is generally normal saline with vitamins and electrolytes added. If the client does not improve after several days of bed rest, "gut rest," IV fluids, and antiemetics, then total parenteral nutrition or percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube feeding is instituted to prevent malnutrition.

A pregnant client is admitted to a health care unit with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which prescription is the nurse most likely to receive regarding the therapy for such a client?

Administer cryoprecipitate and platelets. In a pregnant client with DIC, the nurse may be told to administer cryoprecipitate and platelets. Whole blood does not contain clotting factors. Therefore, a ratio of 4 units of blood to 1 unit of fresh frozen plasma, and not 1 unit of blood to 4 units of frozen plasma, should be considered. The nurse should aim at maintaining the client's hematocrit above 30% and not just 20%. The nurse should expect one unit of blood to increase the hematocrit by 1.5 g/dl (15 g/L) not 3g/dl (30 g/L).

The nurse recognizes that documenting accurate blood pressures is vital in the diagnosing of preeclampsia, severe preeclampsia and eclampsia. The nurse suspects preeclampsia based on which finding?

BP of 140/90 mm Hg last week and at current visit after 20 weeks' gestation Gestational hypertension is diagnosed when systolic blood pressure is over 140 mm Hg and/or diastolic pressure is over 90 mm Hg on at least two occasions at least 4 to 6 hours apart after the 20th week of gestation in women known to be normotensive prior to this time and prior to pregnancy. Severe preeclampsia (i.e., preeclampsia with severe features) may develop suddenly or within days and bring with it high blood pressure of more than 160/110 mm Hg, cerebral and visual symptoms, and pulmonary edema.

A nurse is preparing a nursing care plan for a client who is admitted at 22 weeks' gestation with advanced cervical dilation (dilatation) to 5 cm, cervical insufficiency, and a visible amniotic sac at the cervical opening. Which primary goal should the nurse prioritize at this point?

Bed rest to maintain pregnancy as long as possible At 22 weeks' gestation, the fetus is not viable. The woman would be placed on total bed rest with every attempt made to halt any further progression of dilation (dilatation) of the cervix. The nurse would not want this fetus to be born vaginally at this stage of gestation. It is not the nurse's responsibility to notify the client's social support of a possible loss of the pregnancy. It is not appropriate at this time to educate the mother on causes of cervical insufficiency for future pregnancies.

The nurse is comforting and listening to a young couple who just suffered a spontaneous abortion (miscarriage). When asked why this happened, which reason should the nurse share as a common cause?

Chromosomal abnormality The most common cause for the loss of a fetus in the first trimester is associated with a genetic defect or chromosomal abnormality. There is nothing that can be done and the mother should feel no fault. The nurse needs to encourage the parents to speak with a health care provider for further information and questions related to genetic testing. Early pregnancy loss is not associated with maternal smoking, lack of prenatal care, or the age of the mother.

A woman in her 20s has experienced a spontaneous abortion (miscarriage) at 10 weeks' gestation and asks the nurse at the hospital what went wrong. She is concerned that she did something that caused her to lose her baby. The nurse can reassure the woman by explaining that the most common cause of miscarriage in the first trimester is related to which factor?

Chromosomal defects in the fetus Fetal factors are the most common cause of early miscarriages, with chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus being the most common reason. This client fits the criteria for early spontaneous abortion (miscarriage) since she was only 10 weeks' pregnant and early miscarriage occurs before 12 weeks.

An 18-year-old pregnant client is hospitalized as she recovers from hyperemesis gravidarum. The client reveals she wanted to have an abortion (elective termination of pregnancy) but her cultural background forbids it. She is very unhappy about being pregnant and even expresses a wish for a miscarriage. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

Contact the health care provider to report the client's feelings. The client may be experiencing a psychological situation that needs intervention by a trained professional in the area of mental health. The hyperemesis gravidarum may worsen her feelings toward the pregnancy, so reporting her feelings to the health care provider is the best action at this time. Although the nurse will continue to monitor the client's hyperemesis gravidarum, this is not the only action needed at this time and there is a better action. Encouraging the client to be positive about her situation may obstruct therapeutic communication. Sharing the information with the client's family is not appropriate, because the scenario described does not indicate that the nurse has the client's permission to share this information with the family.

A 28-year-old client with a history of endometriosis presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain and nausea and vomiting. The client also reports her periods are irregular with the last one being 2 months ago. The nurse prepares to assess for which possible cause for this client's complaints?

Ectopic pregnancy The most commonly reported symptoms of ectopic pregnancy are pelvic pain and/or vaginal spotting. Other symptoms of early pregnancy, such as breast tenderness, nausea, and vomiting, may also be present. The diagnosis is not always immediately apparent because many women present with complaints of diffuse abdominal pain and minimal to no vaginal bleeding. Steps are taken to diagnose the disorder and rule out other causes of abdominal pain. Given the history of the client and the amount of pain, the possibility of ectopic pregnancy needs to be considered. A healthy pregnancy would not present with severe abdominal pain unless the client were term and she was in labor. With a molar pregnancy the woman typically presents between 8 to 16 weeks' gestation reporting painless (usually) brown to bright red vaginal bleeding. Placenta previa typically presents with painless, bright red bleeding that begins with no warning.

A pregnant woman has been admitted to the hospital due to preeclampsia with severe features. Which measure will be important for the nurse to include in the care plan?

Institute and maintain seizure precautions. The woman with preeclampsia with severe features should be maintained on complete bed rest in a dark and quiet room to avoid stimulation. The client is at risk for seizures; therefore, institution and maintenance of seizure precautions should be in place.

The nurse is caring for a pregnant client with severe preeclampsia. Which nursing intervention should a nurse perform to institute and maintain seizure precautions in this client?

Keep the suction equipment readily available. The nurse should institute and maintain seizure precautions such as padding the side rails and having oxygen, suction equipment, and call light readily available to protect the client from injury. The nurse should provide a quiet, darkened room to stabilize the client. The nurse should maintain the client on complete bed rest in the left lateral lying position and not in a supine position. Keeping the head of the bed slightly elevated will not help maintain seizure precautions.

A woman who is 10 weeks' pregnant calls the physician's office reporting "morning sickness" but, when asked about it, tells the nurse that she is nauseated and vomiting all the time and has lost 5 pounds. What interventions would the nurse anticipate for this client?

Lab work will be drawn to rule out acid-base imbalances. Morning sickness that lasts all day and is severe is called hyperemesis gravidarum. It is much more serious than "morning sickness" and can lead to significant weight loss and electrolyte imbalance. Lab work needs to be drawn to determine the extent of electrolyte loss and acid-base balance. An ultrasound is performed but it is done to determine if the mother is experiencing a molar pregnancy. Treatment for hyperemesis gravidarum requires much more care than just rest, drinking fluids and eating crackers.

A woman in labor suddenly reports sharp fundal pain accompanied by slight dark red vaginal bleeding. The nurse should prepare to assist with which situation?

Premature separation of the placenta Premature separation of the placenta begins with sharp fundal pain, usually followed by dark red vaginal bleeding. Placenta previa usually produces painless bright red bleeding. Preterm labor contractions are more often described as cramping. Possible fetal death or injury does not present with sharp fundal pain. It is usually painless.

A client at 27 weeks' gestation is admitted to the obstetric unit after reporting headaches and edema of her hands. Review of the prenatal notes reveals blood pressure consistently above 136/90 mm Hg. The nurse anticipates the health care provider will prescribe magnesium sulfate to accomplish which primary goal?

Prevent maternal seizures The primary therapy goal for any client with preeclampsia is to prevent maternal seizures. Use of magnesium sulfate is the drug therapy of choice for severe preeclampsia and is only used to manage and attempt to prevent progression to eclampsia. Magnesium sulfate therapy does not have as a primary goal of decreasing blood pressure, decreasing protein in the urine, or reversing edema.

A nurse is describing the use of Rho(D) immune globulin as the therapy of choice for isoimmunization in Rh-negative women and for other conditions to a group of nurses working at the women's health clinic. The nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the group identifies which situation as an indication for Rho(D) immune globulin?

STIs Indications for Rho(D) immune globulin include isoimmunization, ectopic pregnancy, chorionic villus sampling, amniocentesis, prenatal hemorrhage, molar pregnancy, maternal trauma, percutaneous umbilical sampling, therapeutic or spontaneous abortion, fetal death, or fetal surgery.

The nurse is caring for a woman at 32 weeks' gestation with severe preeclampsia. Which assessment finding should the nurse prioritize after the administration of hydralazine to this client?

Tachycardia Hydralazine reduces blood pressure but is associated with adverse effects such as palpitation, tachycardia, headache, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. It does not cause gastrointestinal bleeding, blurred vision (halos around lights), or sweating. Magnesium sulfate may cause sweating.

The nurse is preparing discharge instructions for several clients after their admission for emergent care of a pregnancy complication. The nurse will stress the importance of frequent and continuous office visits to the client with:

a molar pregnancy. Molar pregnancies can indicate the possibility of developing malignancy. The woman will need close observation and follow-up for a year, every 1 to 2 weeks for hCG levels to detect cancer. A follow-up visit after an ectopic pregnancy or a complete spontaneous abortion (miscarriage) are typically scheduled at 6 weeks, not monthly. A woman who is Rh negative does not need a follow-up visit because of her Rh status, but would be scheduled as per routine postpartum visits.

\The nurse is required to assess a pregnant client who is reporting vaginal bleeding. Which nursing action is the priority?

assessing the amount and color of the bleeding When the woman arrives and is admitted, assessing her vital signs, the amount and color of the bleeding, and current pain rating on a scale of 1 to 10 are the priorities. Assessing the signs of shock, monitoring uterine contractility, and determining the amount of funneling are not priority assessments when a pregnant woman complaining of vaginal bleeding is admitted to the hospital.

A nurse is assessing a pregnant client for the possibility of preexisting conditions that could lead to complications during pregnancy. The nurse suspects that the woman is at risk for hydramnios based on which preexisting condition? hypertension late maternal age diabetes isoimmunization

diabetes

A woman is being closely monitored and treated for severe preeclampsia with magnesium sulfate. Which finding would alert the nurse to the development of magnesium toxicity in this client?

diminished reflexes Diminished or absent reflexes occur when a client develops magnesium toxicity. Elevated liver enzymes are unrelated to magnesium toxicity and may indicate the development of HELLP syndrome. The onset of seizure activity indicates eclampsia. A serum magnesium level of 6.5 mEq/L would fall within the therapeutic range of 4 to 7 mEq/L.

A nurse is conducting a refresher program for a group of perinatal nurses. Part of the program involves a discussion of HELLP. The nurse determines that the group needs additional teaching when they identify which aspect as a part of HELLP?

elevated lipoproteins The acronym HELLP represents hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. This syndrome is a variant of preeclampsia/eclampsia syndrome that occurs in 10% to 20% of clients whose diseases are labeled as severe.

A client in her 20th week of gestation develops HELLP syndrome. What are features of HELLP syndrome? Select all that apply. elevated liver enzymes low platelet count hyperthermia hemolysis leukocytosis

elevated liver enzymes low platelet count hemolysis The HELLP syndrome is a syndrome involving hemolysis (microangiopathic hemolytic anemia), elevated liver enzymes, and a low platelet count. Hyperthermia and leukocytosis are not features of HELLP syndrome.

A woman with an incomplete abortion is to receive misoprostol. The woman asks the nurse, "Why am I getting this drug?" The nurse responds to the client, integrating understanding that this drug achieves which effect?

ensures passage of all the products of conception Misoprostol is used to stimulate uterine contractions and evacuate the uterus after an abortion to ensure passage of all the products of conception. Rho(D) immune globulin is used to suppress the immune response and prevent isoimmunization.

A nurse is monitoring a client with PROM who is in labor and observes meconium in the amniotic fluid. What does the observation of meconium indicate?

fetal distress related to hypoxia When meconium is present in the amniotic fluid, it typically indicates fetal distress related to hypoxia. Meconium stains the fluid yellow to greenish brown, depending on the amount present. A decreased amount of amniotic fluid reduces the cushioning effect, thereby making cord compression a possibility. A foul odor of amniotic fluid indicates infection. Meconium in the amniotic fluid does not indicate CNS involvement.

A novice nurse asks to be assigned to the least complex antepartum client. Which condition would necessitate the least complex care requirements?

gestational hypertension Hypertensive disorders represent the most common complication of pregnancy. Gestational hypertension is elevated blood pressure without proteinuria, other signs of preeclampsia, or preexisting hypertension. Placental abruption (abruptio placentae), a separation of the placenta from the uterine wall; placenta previa (placenta covering the cervical os); and preeclampsia are high-risk, potentially life-threatening conditions for the fetus and mother during labor and birth.

The nurse is assessing a client at 12 weeks' gestation at a routine prenatal visit who reports something "does not feel right." Which set of assessment findings should the nurse prioritize?

gestational hypertension, hyperemesis gravidarum, absence of fetal heart rate (FHR) The early development of gestational hypertension/preeclampsia, hyperemesis gravidarum, and the absence of fetal heart rate (FHR) are suspicious for gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD). The elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) lead to severe morning sickness. There is no fetus, so FHR, quickening, and evidence of a fetal skeleton would not be seen. The abdominal enlargement is greater than expected for pregnancy dates, but hCG, not human placental lactogen (hPL), levels are increased. Although the other findings are also concerning, they would be evaluated after the client was evaluated for potential GTD.

A nurse is taking a history of a client at 5 weeks' gestation in the prenatal clinic; however, the client is reporting dark brown vaginal discharge, nausea, and vomiting. Which diagnosis should the nurse suspect?

gestational trophoblastic disease This client has risk factors of a "molar" pregnancy: nausea and vomiting at an early gestational week and dark brown vaginal discharge. The early nausea/vomiting can be due to a high hCG level, which is a sign of gestational trophoblastic disease. There is only one sign/symptom of hyperemesis gravidarum. Placenta previa is marked by bright red bleeding and tends to happen later in gestation. There are no data to support any psychosis at this stage.

A client has been admitted with placental abruption (abruptio placentae). She has lost 1,200 ml of blood, is normotensive, and ultrasound indicates approximately 30% separation. The nurse documents this as which classification of abruptio placentae?

grade 2 The classifications for placental abruption (abruptio placentae) are: grade 1 (mild) - minimal bleeding (less than 500 ml), 10% to 20% separation, tender uterus, no coagulopathy, signs of shock or fetal distress; grade 2 (moderate) - moderate bleeding (1,000 to 1,500 ml), 20% to 50% separation, continuous abdominal pain, mild shock, normal maternal blood pressure, maternal tachycardia; grade 3 (severe) - absent to moderate bleeding (more than 1,500 ml), more than 50% separation, profound shock, dark vaginal bleeding, agonizing abdominal pain, decreased blood pressure, significant tachycardia, and development of disseminated intravascular coagulopathy. There is no grade 4.

A woman at 8 weeks' gestation is admitted for ectopic pregnancy. She is asking why this has occurred. The nurse knows that which factor is a known risk factor for ectopic pregnancy?

history of endometriosis The nurse needs to complete a full history of the client to determine if she had any other risk factors for an ectopic pregnancy. Adhesions, scarring, and narrowing of the tubal lumen may block the zygote's progress to the uterus. Any condition or surgical procedure that can injure a fallopian tube increases the risk. Examples include salpingitis, infection of the fallopian tube, endometriosis, history of prior ectopic pregnancy, any type of tubal surgery, congenital malformation of the tube, and multiple abortions (elective terminations of pregnancy). Conditions that inhibit peristalsis of the tube can result in tubal pregnancy. A high number of pregnancies, multiple gestation pregnancy, and the use of oral contraceptives are not known risk factors for ectopic pregnancy.

A nurse is providing care to a client who has been diagnosed with a common benign form of gestational trophoblastic disease. The nurse identifies this as:

hydatidiform mole Gestational trophoblastic disease comprises a spectrum of neoplastic disorders that originate in the placenta. The two most common types are hydatidiform mole (partial or complete) and choriocarcinoma. Hydatidiform mole is a benign neoplasm of the chorion in which the chorionic villi degenerate and become transparent vesicles containing clear, viscid fluid. Ectopic pregnancy, placenta accreta, and hydramnios fall into different categories of potential pregnancy complications.

A 25-year-old client at 22 weeks' gestation is noted to have proteinuria and dependent edema on her routine prenatal visit. Which additional assessment should the nurse prioritize and convey to the RN or health care provider?

initial BP 100/70 mm Hg; current BP 140/90 mm Hg A proteinuria of trace to 1+ and a rise in blood pressure to above 140/90 mm Hg is a concern the client may be developing preeclampsia. The blood pressures noted in the other options are not indicative of developing preeclampsia. The edema would not necessarily be indicative of preeclampsia; however, edema of the face and hands would be a concerning sign for severe preeclampsia.

Which measure would the nurse include in the plan of care for a woman with prelabor rupture of membranes if her fetus's lungs are mature?

labor induction With prelabor rupture of membranes (PROM) in a woman whose fetus has mature lungs, induction of labor is initiated. Reducing physical activity, observing for signs of infection, and giving corticosteroids may be used for the woman with PROM when the fetal lungs are immature.

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a pregnant client. The physical exam reveals that the placenta is implanted near the internal os but does not reach it. The nurse interprets this as which condition?

low-lying placenta Placenta previa is currently classified with two terms: "placenta previa" and "low-lying placenta." If the placental edge is less than 2 cm from the internal os but does not cover it, the placenta is reported as low-lying. If the placental edge covers the internal os, it is labeled as a placenta previa. Placenta accreta spectrum includes three conditions. Accreta is the most common and is a condition in which the placenta attaches itself too deeply into the wall of the uterus but does not penetrate the uterine muscle. Placenta increta occurs when the placenta invades the myometrium, and placenta percreta occurs when it has extended through the myometrium and uterine serosa and adjacent tissue.

A 24-year-old client presents in labor. The nurse notes there is an order to administer Rho(D) immune globulin after the birth of her infant. When asked by the client the reason for this injection, which reason should the nurse point out?

prevent maternal D antibody formation. Because Rho(D) immune globulin contains passive antibodies, the solution will prevent the woman from forming long-lasting antibodies which may harm a future fetus. The administration of Rho(D) immune globulin does not promote the formation of maternal D antibodies; it does not stimulate maternal D immune antigens or prevent fetal Rh blood formation.

A nurse is caring for a client undergoing treatment for ectopic pregnancy. Which symptom is observed in a client if rupture or hemorrhaging occurs before the ectopic pregnancy is successfully treated?

phrenic nerve irritation The symptoms if rupture or hemorrhaging occurs before successfully treating the pregnancy are lower abdomen pain, feelings of faintness, phrenic nerve irritation, hypotension, marked abdominal tenderness with distension, and hypovolemic shock. Painless bright red vaginal bleeding occurring during the second or third trimester is the clinical manifestation of placenta previa. Fetal distress and tetanic contractions are not the symptoms observed in a client if rupture or hemorrhaging occurs before successfully treating an ectopic pregnancy.

A nursing instructor identifies which factor as increasing the chances of infection when coupled with prolonged labor?

premature rupture of membranes The risk for infection increases during prolonged labor particularly in association with premature rupture of membranes. The other options do not increase the risk of infection during labor.

A woman at 35 weeks' gestation with severe polyhydramnios is admitted to the hospital. The nurse recognizes that which concern is greatest regarding this client?

preterm rupture of membranes followed by preterm birth Even with precautions, in most instances of polyhydramnios, there will be preterm rupture of the membranes because of excessive pressure, followed by preterm birth. The other answers are less concerning than preterm birth in this pregnancy.

The nurse is caring for a client with preeclampsia and understands the need to auscultate this client's lung sounds every 2 hours to detect which condition?

pulmonary edema In the hospital, monitor blood pressure at least every 4 hours for mild preeclampsia and more frequently for severe disease. In addition, it is important to auscultate the lungs every 2 hours. Adventitious sounds may indicate developing pulmonary edema.

The following hourly assessments are obtained by the nurse on a client with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate: 97.3oF (36.2oC), HR 88, RR 12 breaths/min, BP 148/110 mm Hg. What other priority physical assessments by the nurse should be implemented to assess for potential toxicity?

reflexes Reflex assessment is part of the standard assessment for clients on magnesium sulfate. The first change when developing magnesium toxicity may be a decrease in reflex activity. The health care provider needs to be notified immediately. A change in lung sounds and oxygen saturation are not indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity. Hourly blood draws to gain information on the magnesium sulfate level are not indicated.

The nurse is appraising the medical record of a pregnant client who is resting in a darkened room and receiving betamethasone and magnesium sulfate. The nurse recognizes the client is being treated for which condition?

severe preeclampsia This woman is in severe preeclampsia and must be monitored for progression to eclampsia. The administration of magnesium sulfate is to relax the skeletal muscles and raise the threshold for a seizure. The administration of the betamethasone is to try and hasten the maturity of the fetus's lungs for birth for a preterm fetus. The scenario described does not indicate a client with hypertension, gestational diabetes, or post-term (>42 weeks) pregnancy.

A 44-year-old client has lost several pregnancies over the last 10 years. For the past 3 months, she has had fatigue, nausea, and vomiting. She visits the clinic and takes a pregnancy test; the results are positive. Physical examination confirms a uterus enlarged to 13 weeks' gestation; fetal heart tones are heard. Ultrasound reveals that the client is experiencing some bleeding. Considering the client's prenatal history and age, what does the nurse recognize as the greatest risk for the client at this time?

spontaneous abortion (miscarriage) The client's advanced maternal age (pregnancy in a woman 35 years or older) increases her risk for spontaneous abortion (miscarriage). Hypertension, preterm labor, and prematurity are risks as this pregnancy continues. Her greatest risk at 13 weeks' gestation is losing this pregnancy.

A pregnant woman has arrived to the office reporting vaginal bleeding. Which finding during the assessment would lead the nurse to suspect an inevitable spontaneous abortion (miscarriage)?

strong abdominal cramping Strong abdominal cramping is associated with an inevitable spontaneous abortion (miscarriage). Slight vaginal bleeding early in pregnancy and a closed cervical os are associated with a threatened abortion. With an inevitable abortion, passage of the products of conception may occur. No fetal tissue is passed with a threatened abortion.

A nurse is caring for a pregnant client admitted with mild preeclampsia. Which assessment finding should the nurse prioritize?

urine output of less than 15 ml/hr Severe preeclampsia may develop suddenly and bring with it high blood pressure of more than 160/110 mm Hg, proteinuria of more than 500 mg in 24 hours, oliguria of less than 15 ml/hr, cerebral and visual symptoms, and rapid weight gain. Mild facial edema or hand edema occurs with mild preeclampsia. A urinary output of 15 ml/hr would result in an output of 360 ml/24 hours, which would be below the recommended range and should be reported. Ankle edema of 1+ could be related to regular pregnancy and not necessarily just severe preeclampsia. A finding of 3+ to 4+ pitting edema would be more alarming and require intervention.