Nursing V: Unit 4

The nurse is caring for a pregnant client diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis. Which scientific rationale supports the client being hospitalized for this condition? 1. The client must be treated aggressively to prevent maternal/fetal complications. 2. The nurse can force the client to drink fluids and avoid nausea and vomiting. 3. The client will be dehydrated and there won't be sufficient blood flow to the baby. 4. Pregnant clients historically are afraid to take the antibiotics as ordered.

1. A pregnant client diagnosed with a UTI will be admitted for aggressive IV antibiotic therapy. After symptoms subside, the client will be sent home to complete the course of treatment with oral medications.

The nurse is caring for the client recovering from a percutaneous renal biopsy. Which data indicate the client is complying with client teaching? 1. The client is lying flat in the supine position. 2. The client continues oral fluids restriction while on bedrest. 3. The client uses the bedside commode to urinate. 4. The client refuses to ask for any pain medication.

1. The client needs to lie flat on the back to apply pressure to prevent bleeding.

The nurse is planning the care of a postoperative client with an ileal conduit. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care? 1. Provide meticulous skin care and pouching. 2. Apply sterile drainage bags daily. 3. Monitor the pH of the urine weekly. 4. Assess the stoma site every day.

1. Urine is acidic, and the abdominal wall tissue is not designed to tolerate acidic environments. The stoma is pouched so urine will not touch the skin.

Which information regarding the care of a cutaneous ileal conduit should the nurse discuss with the client? 1. Teach the client to instill a few drops of vinegar into the pouch. 2. Tell the client the stoma should be slightly dusky colored. 3. Inform the client large clumps of mucus are expected. 4. Tell the client it is normal for the urine to be pink or red in color.

1. Vinegar will act as a deodorizing agent in the pouch and help prevent a strong urine smell.

The nurse is preparing the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply. 1. Monitor vital signs every two (2) hours until stable. 2. Measure the client's oral intake and urinary output daily. 3. Administer mouth care when bathing the client. 4. Weigh the client weekly in the same clothing at the same time. 5. Assess skin turgor and mucous membranes every shift.

1. Vital signs should be monitored every two (2) hours until stable and more frequently if the client is unstable. 5. Skin turgor and mucous membranes should be assessed every shift or more often depending on the client's condition.

The nurse is preparing the discharge teaching plan for the male client with a left-sided nephrectomy. Which statement indicates the teaching is effective? 1. "I can't wait to start back to work next week, I really need the money." 2. "I will take my temperature and if it is above 101 I will call my doctor." 3. "I am glad I won't have to keep track of how much I urinate in the day." 4. "I am happy I will be able eat what I usually eat, I don't like this food."

2. The client or family needs to contact the surgeon if the client develops chills, flank pain, decreased urinary output, or fever.

The nurse in the dialysis center is initiating the morning dialysis run. Which client should the nurse assess first? 1. The client who has hemoglobin of 9.8 g/dL and hematocrit of 30%. 2. The client who does not have a palpable thrill or auscultated bruit. 3. The client who is complaining of being exhausted and is sleeping. 4. The client who did not take antihypertensive medication this morning.

2. This client's dialysis access is compromised and he or she should be assessed first.

Which modifiable risk factor should the nurse identify for the development of cancer of the bladder in a client? 1. Previous exposure to chemicals. 2. Pelvic radiation therapy. 3. Cigarette smoking. 4. Parasitic infections of the bladder.

3. Cigarette smoke contains more than 400 chemicals, 17 of which are known to cause cancer. The risk is directly proportional to the amount of smoking.

Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess? 1. The client will void a minimum of 30 mL per hour. 2. The client will have elastic skin turgor. 3. The client will have no adventitious breath sounds. 4. The client will have a serum creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL.

3. The client with fluid volume excess has too much fluid. Excess fluid is reflected by adventitious breath sounds. Therefore, an expected outcome is to have no excess fluid, as evidenced by normal, clear breath sounds.

The nurse is caring for the client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is experiencing metabolic acidosis. Which statement best describes the scientific rationale for metabolic acidosis in this client? 1. There is an increased excretion of phosphates and organic acids, which leads to an increase in arterial blood pH. 2. A shortened life span of red blood cells because of damage secondary to dialysis treatments in turn leads to metabolic acidosis. 3. The kidney cannot excrete increased levels of acid because they cannot excrete ammonia or cannot reabsorb sodium bicarbonate. 4. An increase in nausea and vomiting causes a loss of hydrochloric acid and the respiratory system cannot compensate adequately.

3. This is the correct scientific rationale for metabolic acidosis occurring in the client with CKD.

The client from a long-term care facility is admitted to the medical unit with a fever, hot flushed skin, and clumps of white sediment in the indwelling catheter. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? 1. Start an IV with a 20-gauge catheter. 2. Initiate antibiotic therapy IVPB. 3. Collect a urine specimen for culture. 4. Change the indwelling catheter.

4. Unless the nurse can determine the catheter has been inserted within a few days, the nurse should replace the catheter and then get a specimen. This will provide the most accurate specimen for analysis.

The elderly client recovering from a prostatectomy has been experiencing stress incontinence. Which independent nursing intervention should the nurse discuss with the client? 1. Establish a set voiding frequency of every two (2) hours while awake. 2. Encourage a family member to assist the client to the bathroom to void. 3. Apply a transurethral electrical stimulator to relieve symptoms of urinary urgency. 4. Discuss the use of a "bladder drill," including a timed voiding schedule.

4. Use of the bladder training drill is helpful in stress incontinence. The client is instructed to void at scheduled intervals. After consistently being dry, the interval is increased by 15 minutes until the client reaches an acceptable interval.

The client diagnosed with a fluid and electrolyte disturbance in the emergency department is exhibiting peaked T waves on the STAT electrocardiogram. Which interventions should the nurse implement? List in order of priority. 1. Assess the client for leg and muscle cramps. 2. Check the serum potassium level. 3. Notify the health-care provider. 4. Arrange for a transfer to the telemetry floor. 5. Administer Kayexalate, a cation resin.

In order of priority: 1, 2, 3, 5, 4. 1. The nurse should assess to determine if the client is symptomatic of hyperkalemia. 2. A peaked T wave is indicative of hyperkalemia; therefore, the nurse should obtain a potassium level. 3. Hyperkalemia is a life-threatening situation because of the risk of cardiac dysrhythmias; therefore, the nurse should notify the health-care provider. 5. Kayexalate is a medication that will help remove potassium through the gastrointestinal system and should be administered to decrease the potassium level. 4. The client should be monitored continuously for cardiac dysrhythmias, so a transfer to the telemetry unit is warranted.

The client with a continent urinary diversion is being discharged. Which discharge instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? 1. Have the client demonstrate catheterizing the stoma. 2. Instruct the client on how to pouch the stoma. 3. Explain the use of a bedside drainage bag at night. 4. Tell the client to call the HCP if the temperature is 99°F or less.

1. A continent urinary diversion is a surgical procedure in which a reservoir is created to hold urine until the client can self-catheterize the stoma. The nurse should observe the client's technique before discharge.

The client asks, "What does an elevated PSA test mean?" On which scientific rationale should the nurse base the response? 1. An elevated PSA can result from several different causes. 2. An elevated PSA can be only from prostate cancer. 3. An elevated PSA can be diagnostic for testicular cancer. 4. An elevated PSA is the only test used to diagnose BPH.

1. An elevated PSA can be from urinary retention, BPH, prostate cancer, or prostate infarct.

Which statement indicates the client diagnosed with calcium phosphate renal calculi understands the discharge teaching for ways to prevent future calculi formation? 1. "I should increase my fluid intake, especially in warm weather." 2. "I should eat foods containing cocoa and chocolate." 3. "I will walk about a mile every week and not exercise often." 4. "I should take one (1) vitamin a day with extra calcium."

1. An increased fluid intake ensuring 2 to 3 L of urine a day prevents the stone-forming salts from becoming concentrated enough to precipitate.

Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement for the client with a left nephrectomy? 1. Assess the intravenous fluids for rate and volume. 2. Change surgical dressing every day at the same time. 3. Monitor the client's PT/PTT/INR level daily. 4. Monitor the percentage of each meal eaten.

1. Assessing the rate and volume of intravenous fluid is the most important intervention for the client who has one (1) kidney because an overload of fluids can result in pulmonary edema.

The elderly client presents to the emergency department complaining of burning on urination with an urgency to void, and a temperature of 99.8°F. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? 1. Ask the client to provide a clean voided midstream urine for culture. 2. Insert an 18-gauge peripheral IV catheter and start normal saline fluids. 3. Arrange for the client to be admitted to the medical unit. 4. Initiate the ordered intravenous antibiotic medication.

1. Before the other options are performed the nurse should have a urine culture specimen sent to the laboratory for culture. A culture is indicated from the symptoms.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with ARF. Which laboratory values are most significant for diagnosing ARF? 1. BUN and creatinine. 2. WBC and hemoglobin. 3. Potassium and sodium. 4. Bilirubin and ammonia level.

1. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels reflect the balance between the production and excretion of urea from the kidneys. Creatinine is a by-product of the metabolism of the muscles and is excreted by the kidneys. Creatinine is the ideal substance for determining renal clearance because it is relatively constant in the body and is the laboratory value most significant in diagnosing renal failure.

The client diagnosed with CKD has a new arteriovenous fistula in the left forearm. Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1. Teach the client to carry heavy objects with the right arm. 2. Perform all laboratory blood tests on the left arm. 3. Instruct the client to lie on the left arm during the night. 4. Discuss the importance of not performing any hand exercises.

1. Carrying heavy objects in the left arm could cause the fistula to clot by putting undue stress on the site, so the client should carry objects with the right arm.

The elderly client being seen in the clinic has complaints of urinary frequency, urgency, and "leaking." Which priority intervention should the nurse implement when interviewing the client? 1. Ensure communication is nonjudgmental and respectful. 2. Set the temperature for comfort in the examination room. 3. Speak loudly to ensure the client understands the nurse. 4. Ensure the examining room has adequate lighting.

1. Clients who have urinary incontinence are often embarrassed, so it is the responsibility of the nurse to approach this subject with respect and consideration.

The client is reporting chills, fever, and left costovertebral pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse expect the HCP to prescribe first? 1. A midstream urine for culture. 2. A sonogram of the kidney. 3. An intravenous pyelogram for renal calculi. 4. A CT scan of the kidneys.

1. Fever, chills, and costovertebral pain are symptoms of a urinary tract infection (acute pyelonephritis), which requires a urine culture first to confirm the diagnosis.

The client is admitted to the emergency department after a gunshot wound to the abdomen. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement first to prevent ARF? 1. Administer normal saline IV. 2. Take vital signs. 3. Place client on telemetry. 4. Assess abdominal dressing.

1. Preventing and treating shock with blood and fluid replacement will prevent acute renal failure from hypoperfusion of the kidneys. Significant blood loss is expected in the client with a gunshot wound.

The client is diagnosed with ARF. Which signs/symptoms indicate to the nurse the client is in the recovery period? Select all that apply. 1. Increased alertness and no seizure activity. 2. Increase in hemoglobin and hematocrit. 3. Denial of nausea and vomiting. 4. Decreased urine-specific gravity. 5. Increased serum creatinine level.

1. Renal failure affects almost every system in the body. Neurologically, the client may have drowsiness, headache, muscle twitching, and seizures. In the recovery period, the client is alert and has no seizure activity. 2. In renal failure, levels of erythropoietin are decreased, leading to anemia. An increase in hemoglobin and hematocrit indicates the client is in the recovery period. 3. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea are common in the client with ARF; therefore, an absence of these indicates the client is in the recovery period.

Which information indicates to the nurse the client teaching about treatment of urinary incontinence has been effective? 1. The client prepares a scheduled voiding plan. 2. The client verbalizes the need to increase fluid intake. 3. The client explains how to perform pelvic floor exercises. 4. The client attempts to retain the vaginal cone in place the entire day.

1. Scheduled voiding allows the client to void every two (2) to three (3) hours apart, and when the client has remained consistently dry, the interval is increased by about 15 minutes.

The nurse is developing a nursing care plan for the client diagnosed with CKD. Which nursing problem is priority for the client? 1. Low self-esteem. 2. Knowledge deficit. 3. Activity intolerance. 4. Excess fluid volume.

4. Excess fluid volume is priority because of the stress placed on the heart and vessels, which could lead to heart failure, pulmonary edema, and death.

The client returned from surgery after having a TURP and has a P 110, R 24, BP 90/40, and cool and clammy skin. Which interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply. 1. Assess the urine in the continuous irrigation drainage bag. 2. Decrease the irrigation fluid in the continuous irrigation catheter. 3. Lower the head of the bed while raising the foot of the bed. 4. Contact the surgeon to give an update on the client's condition. 5. Check the client's postoperative creatinine and BUN.

1. The nurse should assess the drain postoperatively. 3. The head of the bed should be lowered and the foot should be elevated to shunt blood to the central circulating system. 4. The surgeon needs to be notified of the change in condition.

The client diagnosed with cancer of the bladder is scheduled to have a cutaneous urinary diversion procedure. Which preoperative teaching intervention specific to the procedure should be included? 1. Demonstrate turn, cough, and deep breathing. 2. Explain a bag will drain the urine from now on. 3. Instruct the client on the use of a PCA pump. 4. Take the client to the ICD so the client can become familiar with it.

2. A urinary diversion procedure involves the removal of the bladder. In a cutaneous procedure, the ureters are implanted in some way to allow for stoma formation on the abdominal wall, and the urine drains into a pouch. There are numerous methods used for creating the stoma.

The client diagnosed with renal calculi is admitted to the medical unit. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? 1. Monitor the client's urinary output. 2. Assess the client's pain and rule out complications. 3. Increase the client's oral fluid intake. 4. Use a safety gait belt when ambulating the client.

2. Assessment is the first part of the nursing process and is priority. The renal colic pain can be so intense it can cause a vaso-vagal response, with resulting hypotension and syncope.

The client diagnosed with ARF is placed on bedrest. The client asks the nurse, "Why do I have to stay in bed? I don't feel bad." Which scientific rationale supports the nurse's response? 1. Bedrest helps increase the blood return to the renal circulation. 2. Bedrest reduces the metabolic rate during the acute stage. 3. Bedrest decreases the workload of the left side of the heart. 4. Bedrest aids in reduction of peripheral and sacral edema.

2. Bedrest reduces exertion and the metabolic rate, thereby reducing catabolism and subsequent release of potassium and accumulation of endogenous waste products (urea and creatinine).

The client is experiencing urinary incontinence. Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1. Teach the client to drink prune juice weekly. 2. Encourage the client to eat a high-fiber diet. 3. Discuss the need to urinate every six (6) hours. 4. Explain the importance of wearing cotton underwear.

2. Clients experiencing incontinence should eat a high-fiber diet to avoid constipation, which increases pressure on the bladder, which may increase incontinence.

The client is one (1) day postoperative TURP. Which task should the nurse delegate to the UAP? 1. Increase the irrigation fluid to clear clots from the tubing. 2. Elevate the scrotum on a towel roll for support. 3. Change the dressing on the first postoperative day. 4. Teach the client how to care for the continuous irrigation catheter.

2. Elevating the scrotum on a towel for support is a task that can be delegated to the UAP.

The nurse is caring for a client with chronic pyelonephritis. Which assessment data support the diagnosis of chronic pyelonephritis? 1. The client has fever, chills, flank pain, and dysuria. 2. The client complains of fatigue, headaches, and increased urination. 3. The client had a group B beta-hemolytic strep infection last week. 4. The client has an acute viral pneumonia infection.

2. Fatigue, headache, and polyuria as well as loss of weight, anorexia, and excessive thirst are symptoms of chronic pyelonephritis.

The nurse writes the client problem of "fluid volume excess" (FVE). Which intervention should be included in the plan of care? 1. Change the IV fluid from 0.9% NS to D5W. 2. Restrict the sodium in the client's diet. 3. Monitor blood glucose levels. 4. Prepare the client for hemodialysis.

2. Fluid volume excess refers to an isotonic expansion of the extracellular fluid by an abnormal expansion of water and sodium. Therefore, sodium is restricted to allow the body to excrete the extra volume.

The client diagnosed with ARF is admitted to the intensive care department and placed on a therapeutic diet. Which diet is most appropriate for the client? 1. A high-potassium and low-calcium diet. 2. A low-fat and low-cholesterol diet. 3. A high-carbohydrate and restricted-protein diet. 4. A regular diet with six (6) small feedings a day.

3. Carbohydrates are increased to provide for the client's caloric intake and protein is restricted to minimize protein breakdown and to prevent accumulation of toxic waste products.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out ARF. Which condition predisposes the client to developing prerenal failure? 1. Diabetes mellitus. 2. Hypotension. 3. Aminoglycosides. 4. Benign prostatic hypertrophy.

2. Hypotension, which causes a decreased blood supply to the kidney, is one of the most common causes of prerenal failure (before the kidney).

The nurse observes red urine and several large clots in the tubing of the normal saline continuous irrigation catheter for the client who is one (1) day postoperative TURP. Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1. Remove the indwelling catheter. 2. Titrate the NS irrigation to run faster. 3. Administer protamine sulfate IVP. 4. Administer vitamin K slowly.

2. Increasing the irrigation fluid will flush out the clots and blood.

The nurse is discussing kidney transplants with clients at a dialysis center. Which population is less likely to participate in organ donation? 1. Caucasian. 2. African American. 3. Asian. 4. Hispanic.

2. Many in the African American culture believe the body must be kept intact after death, and organ donation is rare among African Americans. This is also why a client of African American descent will be on a transplant waiting list longer than people of other races. This is because of tissue-typing compatibility. Remember, this does not apply to all African Americans; every client is an individual.

Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement for the client diagnosed with rule-out renal calculi? 1. Assess the client's neurological status every two (2) hours. 2. Strain all urine and send any sediment to the laboratory. 3. Monitor the client's creatinine and BUN levels. 4. Take a 24-hour dietary recall during the client interview.

2. Passing a renal stone may negate the need for the client to have lithotripsy or a surgical procedure. Therefore, all urine must be strained, and a stone, if found, should be sent to the laboratory to determine what caused the stone.

The male client diagnosed with metastatic cancer of the bladder is emaciated and refuses to eat. Which nursing action is an example of the ethical principle of paternalism? 1. The nurse allows the client to talk about not wanting to eat. 2. The nurse tells the client if he does not eat, a feeding tube will be placed. 3. The nurse consults the dietitian about the client's nutritional needs. 4. The nurse asks the family to bring favorite foods for the client to eat.

2. Paternalism is deciding for the client what is best, similar to a parent making decisions for a child. Feeding a client, as with a feeding tube, without the client wishing to eat is paternalism.

The male client diagnosed with CKD secondary to diabetes has been receiving dialysis for 12 years. The client is notified he will not be placed on the kidney transplant list. The client tells the nurse he will not be back for any more dialysis treatments. Which response by the nurse is most therapeutic? 1. "You cannot just quit your dialysis. This is not an option." 2. "You're angry at not being on the list, and you want to quit dialysis?" 3. "I will call your nephrologist right now so you can talk to the HCP." 4. "Make your funeral arrangements because you are going to die."

2. Reflecting the client's feelings and restating them are therapeutic responses the nurse should use when addressing the client's issues.

The clinic nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with chronic pyelonephritis who is prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim), a sulfa antibiotic, twice a day for 90 days. Which statement is the scientific rationale for prescribing this medication? 1. The antibiotic will treat the bladder spasms that accompany a urinary tract infection. 2. If the urine cannot be made bacteria free, the Bactrim will suppress bacterial growth. 3. In three (3) months, the client should be rid of all bacteria in the urinary tract. 4. The HCP is providing the client with enough medication to treat future infections.

2. Some clients develop a chronic infection and must receive antibiotic therapy as a routine daily medication to suppress the bacterial growth. The prescription will be refilled after the 90 days and continued.

The nurse is caring for an elderly client who has an indwelling catheter. Which data warrant further investigation? 1. The client's temperature is 98°F. 2. The client has become confused and irritable. 3. The client's urine is clear and light yellow. 4. The client feels the need to urinate.

2. When an elderly client's mental status changes to confused and irritable, the nurse should seek the etiology, which may be a UTI secondary to an indwelling catheter. Elderly clients often do not present with classic signs and symptoms of infection.

The client diagnosed with ARF is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer to help decrease the potassium level? 1. Erythropoietin. 2. Calcium gluconate. 3. Regular insulin. 4. Osmotic diuretic.

3. Regular insulin, along with glucose, will drive potassium into the cells, thereby lowering serum potassium levels temporarily.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client diagnosed with ARF. Which statement is an appropriate outcome for the client? 1. Monitor intake and output every shift. 2. Decrease of pain by three (3) levels on a 1-to-10 scale. 3. Electrolytes are within normal limits. 4. Administer enemas to decrease hyperkalemia.

3. Renal failure causes an imbalance of electrolytes (potassium, sodium, calcium, phosphorus). Therefore, the desired client outcome is electrolytes within normal limits.

The client diagnosed with renal calculi is scheduled for lithotripsy. Which postprocedure nursing task is the most appropriate to delegate to the UAP? 1. Monitor the amount, color, and consistency of urine output. 2. Teach the client about care of the indwelling Foley catheter. 3. Assist the client to the car when being discharged home. 4. Take the client's postprocedural vital signs.

3. The UAP could assist the client to the car once the discharge has been completed.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephrotic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care? 1. Monitor the urine for bright-red bleeding. 2. Evaluate the calorie count of the 500-mg protein diet. 3. Assess the client's sacrum for dependent edema. 4. Monitor for a high serum albumin level.

3. The classic sign/symptom of nephrotic syndrome is dependent edema located on the client's sacrum and ankles.

The nurse is discharging a client with a healthcare facility acquired urinary tract infection. Which information should the nurse include in the discharge teaching? 1. Limit fluid intake so the urinary tract can heal. 2. Collect a routine urine specimen for culture. 3. Take all the antibiotics as prescribed. 4. Tell the client to void every five (5) to six (6) hours.

3. The client should be taught to take all the prescribed medication anytime a prescription is written for antibiotics.

The client is diagnosed with a uric acid stone. Which foods should the client eliminate from the diet to help prevent reoccurrence? 1. Beer and colas. 2. Asparagus and cabbage. 3. Venison and sardines. 4. Cheese and eggs.

3. Venison, sardines, goose, organ meats, and herring are high-purine foods, which should be eliminated from the diet to help prevent uric acid stones.

The nurse is caring for clients on a renal surgery unit. After the afternoon report, which client should the nurse assess first? 1. The male client who just returned from a CT scan who states he left his glasses in the x-ray department. 2. The client who is one (1) day postoperative and has a moderate amount of serous drainage on the dressing. 3. The client who is scheduled for surgery in the morning and wants an explanation of the operative procedure before signing the permit. 4. The client who had ileal conduit surgery this morning and has not had any drainage in the drainage bag.

4. An ileal conduit is a procedure diverting urine from the bladder and provides an alternate cutaneous pathway for urine to exit the body. Urinary output should always be at least 30 mL/hr. This client should be assessed to make sure the stents placed in the ureters have not become dislodged or blocked.

The client diagnosed with CKD is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which assessment data warrant immediate intervention by the nurse? 1. Inability to auscultate a bruit over the fistula. 2. The client's abdomen is soft, is nontender, and has bowel sounds. 3. The dialysate being removed from the client's abdomen is clear. 4. The dialysate instilled was 1,500 mL and removed was 1,500 mL.

4. Because the client is in ESRD, fluid must be removed from the body, so the output should be more than the amount instilled. These assessment data require intervention by the nurse.

Which data support to the nurse the client's diagnosis of acute bacterial prostatitis? 1. Terminal dribbling. 2. Urinary frequency. 3. Stress incontinence. 4. Sudden fever and chills.

4. Clients with acute bacterial prostatitis will frequently experience a sudden onset of fever and chills. Clients with chronic prostatitis have milder symptoms.

The client is admitted with a serum sodium level of 110 mEq/L. Which nursing intervention should be implemented? 1. Encourage fluids orally. 2. Administer 10% saline solution IVPB. 3. Administer antidiuretic hormone intranasally. 4. Place on seizure precautions.

4. Clients with sodium levels less than 120 mEq/L are at risk for seizures as a complication. The lower the sodium level, the greater the risk of a seizure.

The female client in an outpatient clinic is being sent home with a diagnosis of urinary tract infection (UTI). Which instruction should the nurse teach to prevent a recurrence of a UTI? 1. Clean the perineum from back to front after a bowel movement. 2. Take warm tub baths instead of hot showers daily. 3. Void immediately preceding sexual intercourse. 4. Avoid coffee, tea, colas, and alcoholic beverages.

4. Coffee, tea, cola, and alcoholic beverages are urinary tract irritants.

The nurse and a licensed practical nurse (LPN) are caring for a group of clients. Which intervention should be assigned to the LPN? 1. Assessment of the client who has had a Kock pouch procedure. 2. Monitoring of the postop client with a WBC of 22,000/mm3. 3. Administration of the prescribed antineoplastic medications. 4. Care for the client going for an MRI of the kidneys.

4. It is in the scope of practice for the LPN to care for this client.

The client with possible renal calculi is scheduled for a renal ultrasound. Which intervention should the nurse implement for this procedure? 1. Ask if the client is allergic to shellfish or iodine. 2. Keep the client NPO eight (8) hours prior to the ultrasound. 3. Ensure the client has a signed informed consent form. 4. Explain the test is noninvasive and there is no discomfort.

4. No special preparation is needed for this noninvasive, nonpainful test. A conductive gel is applied to the back or flank and then a transducer is applied, which produces sound waves, resulting in a picture.

The nurse caring for a client diagnosed with CKD writes a client problem of "noncompliance with dietary restrictions." Which intervention should be included in the plan of care? 1. Teach the client the proper diet to eat while undergoing dialysis. 2. Refer the client and significant other to the dietitian. 3. Explain the importance of eating the proper foods. 4. Determine the reason for the client not adhering to the diet.

4. Noncompliance is a choice the client has a right to make, but the nurse should determine the reason for the noncompliance and then take appropriate actions based on the client's rationale. For example, if the client has financial difficulties, the nurse may suggest how the client can afford the proper foods along with medications, or the nurse may be able to refer the client to a social worker.

The client diagnosed with ARF has a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. Which collaborative treatment should the nurse anticipate for the client? 1. Administer a phosphate binder. 2. Type and crossmatch for whole blood. 3. Assess the client for leg cramps. 4. Prepare the client for dialysis.

4. Normal potassium level is 3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L. A level of 6.8 mEq/L is life threatening and could lead to cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the client may be dialyzed to decrease the potassium level quickly. This requires a health-care provider order, so it is a collaborative intervention.

The client is diagnosed with an acute episode of ureteral calculi. Which client problem is priority when caring for this client? 1. Fluid volume loss. 2. Knowledge deficit. 3. Impaired urinary elimination. 4. Alteration in comfort.

4. Pain is priority. The pain can be so severe a sympathetic response may occur, causing nausea; vomiting; pallor; and cool, clammy skin.

The nurse is inserting an indwelling catheter into a female client. Which interventions should be implemented? Rank in the order of performance. 1. Explain the procedure to the client. 2. Set up the sterile field. 3. Inflate the catheter bulb. 4. Place absorbent pads under the client. 5. Clean the perineum from clean to dirty with Betadine.

In order of performance: 1, 4, 2, 3, 5. 1. The procedure should be explained to the client. 4. Incontinence pads should be placed under the client before beginning the sterile part of the procedure. 2. The sterile field must be set up prior to checking the bulb and cleaning the client's perineum. 3. The bulb of the catheter should be tested to make sure it will inflate and deflate prior to inserting the catheter into the client. 5. During the procedure, the perineum is swiped with Betadine swabs from front to back and also down the middle, then side to side with new swabs (clean to dirty).

Which statement indicates discharge teaching has been effective for the client who is postoperative TURP? 1. "I will call the surgeon if I experience any difficulty urinating." 2. "I will take my Proscar daily, the same as before my surgery." 3. "I will continue restricting my oral fluid intake." 4. "I will take my pain medication routinely even if I do not hurt."

1. This indicates the teaching is effective.

Which nursing intervention is most important before attempting to catheterize a client? 1. Determine the client's history of catheter use. 2. Evaluate the level of anxiety of the client. 3. Verify the client is not allergic to latex. 4. Assess the client's sensation level and ability to void.

3. The nurse should always assess for allergies to latex prior to inserting a latex catheter or using a drainage system because, if the client is allergic to latex, use of it could cause a life-threatening reaction.

The client had surgery to remove a kidney stone. Which laboratory assessment data warrant immediate intervention by the nurse? 1. A serum potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L. 2. A urinalysis shows microscopic hematuria. 3. A creatinine level of 0.8 mg/100 mL. 4. A white blood cell count of 14,000/mm3.

4. The white blood cell count is elevated; normal is 5,000 to 10,000/mm3.

Which nursing diagnosis is priority for the client who has undergone a TURP? 1. Potential for sexual dysfunction. 2. Potential for an altered body image. 3. Potential for chronic infection. 4. Potential for hemorrhage.

4. This is a potentially life-threatening problem.

The nurse identifies the concepts of elimination and immunity for a female client diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. Which discharge instructions should the nurse provide the client? Select all that apply. 1. Teach the client to wipe from front to back after voiding. 2. Encourage the client to drink cranberry juice each morning. 3. Inform the client that frequent episodes of incontinence are expected. 4. Discuss the signs and symptoms of a recurrent infection. 5. Have the client fill a container of water to sip until at least 2,000 mL is consumed. 6. Request that the client sit in a tub of warm water twice a day for 25 minutes.

1. A female client should be taught to wipe the meatus and vaginal area from front to back to avoid contaminating the urethra (urinary orifice) with fecal matter. 2. Cranberry juice is acidic and changes the pH of the urine, making the environment less conducive to bacterial growth. 4. The client should be taught about the signs and symptoms of a UTI so she can know when to notify the HCP. 5. The client should increase the intake of water to at least 200 mL/24 hours in order to flush the bacteria from the urinary system.

The nurse and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are caring for clients on a medical floor. Which nursing task is most appropriate for the nurse to delegate? 1. Collect a clean voided midstream urine specimen. 2. Evaluate the client's eight (8)-hour intake and output. 3. Assist in checking a unit of blood prior to hanging. 4. Administer a cation-exchange resin enema.

1. The UAP can collect specimens. Collecting a midstream urine specimen requires the client to clean the perineal area, to urinate a little, and then collect the rest of the urine output in a sterile container.

The nurse is developing a care map to care for a client diagnosed with chronic renal failure (CRF) on hemodialysis. Which interrelated concepts should be included in the map? Select all that apply. 1. Fluid and electrolytes. 2. Hematologic regulation. 3. Digestion. 4. Metabolism. 5. Mobility. 6. Nutrition.

1. The balance of fluids and electrolytes is regulated by the kidneys. 2. Hematologic regulation is an interrelated concept because the client on dialysis does not have a functioning kidney to produce erythropoietin to stimulate the bone marrow to produce red blood cells. In addition, removal of the entire circulating blood three (3) times a week through the dialysis machine places stress on the red blood cells and they do not last as long as in a normal body. 6. Nutrition is an issue because the client must adhere to a restricted diet to decrease the amount of toxic metabolites not being eliminated through the kidneys.

Which intervention should the nurse include when preparing a teaching plan for the client with chronic prostatitis? 1. Sit in a warm sitz bath for 10 to 20 minutes several times daily. 2. Sit in the chair with the feet elevated for two (2) hours daily. 3. Drink at least 3,000 mL of oral fluids, especially tea and coffee, daily. 4. Stop broad-spectrum antibiotics as soon as the symptoms subside.

1. The client should sit in a warm sitz bath for 10 to 20 minutes several times each day to provide comfort and assist with healing.

The client diagnosed with cancer of the bladder is undergoing intravesical chemotherapy. Which instruction should the nurse provide the client about the pretherapy routine? 1. Instruct the client to remain NPO after midnight before the procedure. 2. Explain the use of chemotherapy in bladder cancer. 3. Teach the client to administer Neupogen, a biologic response modifier. 4. Have the client take Tylenol, an analgesic, before coming to the clinic.

1. The client will have medication instilled in the bladder, which must remain in the bladder for a prescribed length of time. For this reason, the client must remain NPO before the procedure.

The client diagnosed with renal calculi is scheduled for a 24-hour urine specimen collection. Which interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply. 1. Check for the ordered diet and medication modifications. 2. Instruct the client to urinate, and discard this urine when starting collection. 3. Collect all urine during 24 hours and place in appropriate specimen container. 4. Insert an indwelling catheter in client after having the client empty the bladder. 5. Instruct the UAP to notify the nurse when the client urinates.

1. The health-care provider may order certain foods and medications when obtaining a 24-hour urine collection to evaluate for calcium oxalate or uric acid. 2. When the collection begins, the client should completely empty the bladder and discard this urine. The test is started after the bladder is empty. 3. All urine for 24 hours should be saved and put in a container with preservative, refrigerated, or placed on ice as indicated. Not following specific instructions will result in an inaccurate test result.

Which intervention should the nurse include when assessing the client for urinary retention? Select all that apply. 1. Inquire if the client has the sensation of fullness. 2. Percuss the suprapubic region for a dull sound. 3. Scan the bladder with the ultrasound scanner. 4. Palpate from the umbilicus to the suprapubic area. 5. Auscultate the two (2) lower abdominal quadrants.

1. The nurse needs to assess the client's sensation of needing to void or feeling of fullness. 2. A dull sound heard when percussing the bladder indicates it is filled with urine. 3. A portable bladder scan is used to assess for the presence of urine, rather than using a straight catheter. 4. A distended bladder can be palpated.

The client receiving dialysis is complaining of being dizzy and light-headed. Which action should the nurse implement first? 1. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position. 2. Turn off the dialysis machine immediately. 3. Bolus the client with 500 mL of normal saline. 4. Notify the health-care provider as soon as possible.

1. The nurse should place the client's chair with the head lower than the body, which will shunt blood to the brain; this is the Trendelenburg position.

The client diagnosed with chronic renal failure (CRF) is prescribed hemodialysis on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday. Which interventions should the dialysis nurse implement? Select all that apply. 1. Weigh the client before and after each treatment. 2. Discuss the recommended fluid restriction. 3. Provide potato chips or pretzels as a snack. 4. Monitor the hemodialysis access site continuously. 5. Keep up a lively conversation during the treatments.

1. These are called the pre- and post-weights. The pre-weight is used to determine the amount of fluid to be removed during the treatment and the post-weight is used to determine if the goal was met. 2. Clients experiencing renal failure are not processing the fluids in their body. Fluid restrictions are prescribed to allow for some fluid so the client does not become dehydrated but limited so the heart is not overtaxed, causing the client to go into heart failure. 4. The client's entire blood supply is being removed from the body and then returned after being filtered. The client could bleed to death in a matter of minutes if the access becomes dislodged.

The female client diagnosed with bladder cancer who has a cutaneous urinary diversion states, "Will I be able to have children now?" Which statement is the nurse's best response? 1. "Cancer does not make you sterile, but sometimes the therapy can." 2. "Are you concerned you can't have children?" 3. "You will be able to have as many children as you want." 4. "Let me have the chaplain come to talk with you about this."

1. This client is asking for information and should be provided factual information. The surgery will not make the client sterile, but chemotherapy can induce menopause and radiation therapy to the pelvis can render a client sterile.

Which client should the nurse not assign to a UAP working on a surgical floor? 1. The client with a suprapubic catheter inserted yesterday. 2. The client who has had an indwelling catheter for the past week. 3. The client who is on a bladder-training regimen. 4. The client who had a catheter removed this morning and is being discharged.

1. This client requires the most skill and knowledge because this client has the greatest potential for an infection; therefore, the client should not be assigned to a UAP.

The client diagnosed with chronic renal failure (CRF) is prescribed a 60-gm protein, 2,000-mg sodium diet. Which food choices indicate the client understands the dietary restrictions? 1. A 4-ounce grilled chicken breast, broccoli, and small glass of unsweet tea. 2. Baked potato with chopped ham and sour cream, 12-ounce steak, and beer. 3. Double patty cheeseburger, french fries, and saccharin sweet Kool Aid. 4. Roast beef sandwich, potato chips, and soft drink.

1. This meal has a small portion of protein and does not contain sodium if the client does not add salt.

The nurse is caring for a client with a TURP. Which expected outcome indicates the client's condition is improving? 1. The client is using the maximum amount allowed by the PCA pump. 2. The client's bladder spasms are relieved by medication. 3. The client's scrotum is swollen and tender with movement. 4. The client has passed a large, hard, brown stool this morning.

2. Bladder spasms are common, but being relieved with medication indicates the condition is improving.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with chronic renal failure (CRF). Which antecedents would the nurse assess? Select all that apply. 1. Current diet. 2. Diabetes. 3. Hypertension. 4. Fluid restriction. 5. Race.

2. Diabetes is a leading cause of renal failure caused by the macrovascular changes that occur when the blood glucose levels are high. 3. Hypertension is also a leading cause of renal failure because hypertension narrows the renal artery and decreases the blood flow to the kidney. 5. Race is an antecedent because genetics are a risk factor for CRF. Non-Caucasians are more at risk for developing CRF, especially when the client has a comorbid condition such as diabetes or hypertension.

The nurse is discussing how to prioritize care with the UAP. Which client should the nurse instruct the UAP to see first? 1. The immobile client who needs sequential compression devices removed. 2. The elderly woman who needs assistance ambulating to the bathroom. 3. The surgical client who needs help changing the gown after bathing. 4. The male client who needs the intravenous catheter discontinued.

2. The elderly woman may have age-related changes (decreased bladder capacity, weakened urinary sphincter, shortened urethra) causing urinary urgency or incontinence. The elderly client is at risk for falling while attempting to get to the bathroom, so this client should be seen first.

Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to assess for the client diagnosed with a ureteral renal stone? 1. Dull, aching flank pain and microscopic hematuria. 2. Nausea; vomiting; pallor; and cool, clammy skin. 3. Gross hematuria and dull suprapubic pain with voiding. 4. The client will be asymptomatic.

2. The severe flank pain associated with a stone in the ureter often causes a sympathetic response with associated nausea; vomiting; pallor; and cool, clammy skin.

The UAP tells the nurse the client with ARF has a white crystal-like layer on top of the skin. Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1. Have the assistant apply a moisture barrier cream to the skin. 2. Instruct the UAP to bathe the client in cool water. 3. Tell the UAP not to turn the client in this condition. 4. Explain this is normal and do not do anything for the client.

2. These crystals are uremic frost resulting from irritating toxins deposited in the client's tissues. Bathing in cool water will remove the crystals, promote client comfort, and decrease the itching resulting from uremic frost.

The nurse is preparing a teaching care plan for the client diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. Which intervention should the nurse include? 1. Stop steroids if a moon face develops. 2. Provide teaching for taking diuretics. 3. Increase the intake of dietary sodium. 4. Report a decrease in daily weight.

2. Treatment includes diuretics to eliminate dependent edema, usually in the ankles and sacrum. Medication teaching is an appropriate intervention.

The client with a history of renal calculi calls the clinic and reports having burning on urination, chills, and an elevated temperature. Which instruction should the nurse discuss with the client? 1. Increase water intake for the next 24 hours. 2. Take two (2) Tylenol to help decrease the temperature. 3. Come to the clinic and provide a urinalysis specimen. 4. Use a sterile 4 × 4 gauze to strain the client's urine.

3. A urinalysis can assess for hematuria, the presence of white blood cells, crystal fragments, or all three, which can determine if the client has a urinary tract infection or possibly a renal stone, with accompanying signs/symptoms of UTI.

The nurse is preparing a plan of care for the client diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. Which statement is an appropriate long-term goal? 1. The client will have a blood pressure within normal limits. 2. The client will show no protein in the urine. 3. The client will maintain normal renal function. 4. The client will have clear lung sounds.

3. A long-term complication of glomerulonephritis is it can become chronic if unresponsive to treatment, and this can lead to end-stage renal disease. Maintaining renal function is an appropriate long-term goal.

The elderly client is diagnosed with chronic glomerulonephritis. Which laboratory value indicates to the nurse the condition has become worse? 1. The blood urea nitrogen is 15 mg/dL. 2. The creatinine level is 1.2 mg/dL. 3. The glomerular filtration rate is 40 mL/min. 4. The 24-hour creatinine clearance is 100 mL/min.

3. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is approximately 120 mL/min. If the GFR is decreased to 40 mL/min, the kidneys are functioning at about one-third filtration capacity.

The male client diagnosed with CKD has received the initial dose of erythropoietin, a biologic response modifier, one (1) week ago. Which complaint by the client indicates the need to notify the health-care provider? 1. The client complains of flu-like symptoms. 2. The client complains of being tired all the time. 3. The client reports an elevation in his blood pressure. 4. The client reports discomfort in his legs and back.

3. After the initial administration of erythropoietin, a client's antihypertensive medications may need to be adjusted. Therefore, this complaint requires notification of the HCP. Erythropoietin therapy is contraindicated in clients with uncontrolled hypertension.

The client is admitted to a nursing unit from a long-term care facility with a hematocrit of 56% and a serum sodium level of 152 mEq/L. Which condition is a cause for these findings? 1. Overhydration. 2. Anemia. 3. Dehydration. 4. Renal failure.

3. Dehydration results in concentrated serum, causing laboratory values to increase because the blood has normal constituents but not enough volume to dilute the values to within normal range or possibly lower.

The laboratory data reveal a calcium phosphate renal stone for a client diagnosed with renal calculi. Which discharge teaching intervention should the nurse implement? 1. Encourage the client to eat a low-purine diet and limit foods such as organ meats. 2. Explain the importance of not drinking water two (2) hours before bedtime. 3. Discuss the importance of limiting vitamin D-enriched foods. 4. Prepare the client for extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL).

3. Dietary changes for preventing renal stones include reducing the intake of the primary substance forming the calculi. In this case, limiting vitamin D will inhibit the absorption of calcium from the gastrointestinal tract.

The nurse is observing the UAP providing direct care to a client with an indwelling catheter. Which data warrant immediate intervention by the nurse? 1. The UAP secures the tubing to the client's leg with tape. 2. The UAP provides catheter care with the client's bath. 3. The UAP puts the collection bag on the client's bed. 4. The UAP cares for the catheter after washing the hands.

3. The drainage bag should be kept below the level of the bladder to prevent reflux of urine into the renal system; it should not be placed on the bed.

Which intervention should the nurse implement first for the client who has had an incontinent episode? 1. Palpate the client's bladder to assess for urinary retention. 2. Obtain a bedside commode for the client. 3. Assist the client with changing the wet clothes. 4. Request the UAP to change the client's linens.

3. The nurse should first assist the client in getting out of the wet clothes prior to any other action. Wet clothes are embarrassing to the client and can lead to skin breakdown.

Which intervention should the nurse implement for the client who has had an ileal conduit? 1. Pouch the stoma with a one (1)-inch margin around the stoma. 2. Refer the client to the United Ostomy Association for discharge teaching. 3. Report to the health-care provider any decrease in urinary output. 4. Monitor the stoma for signs and symptoms of infection every shift.

3. The output should be monitored to detect a decreased amount, indicating an obstruction from edema or ureteral stenosis. Any decrease should be reported to the health-care provider.

The nurse is examining a 15-year-old female who is complaining of pain, frequency, and urgency when urinating. After asking the parent to leave the room, which question should the nurse ask the client? 1. "When was your last menstrual cycle?" 2. "Have you noticed any change in the color of the urine?" 3. "Are you sexually active?" 4. "What have you taken for the pain?"

3. These are symptoms of cystitis, a bladder infection, which may be caused by sexual intercourse as a result of the introduction of bacteria into the urethra during the physical act. A teenager may not want to divulge this information in front of the parent.

The client diagnosed with cancer of the bladder states, "I have young children. I am too young to die." Which statement is the nurse's best response? 1. "This cancer is treatable and you should not give up." 2. "Cancer occurs at any age. It is just one of those things." 3. "You are afraid of dying and what will happen to your children." 4. "Have you talked to your children about your dying?"

3. This is an example of restating, a therapeutic technique used to clarify the client's feelings and encourage a discussion of those feelings.

The client who is postoperative TURP asks the nurse, "When will I know if I will be able to have sex after my TURP?" Which response is most appropriate by the nurse? 1. "You seem anxious about your surgery." 2. "Tell me about your fears of impotency." 3. "Potency can return in six (6) to eight (8) weeks." 4. "Did you ask your doctor about your concern?"

3. This is usually the length of time clients need to wait prior to having sexual intercourse; this is the information the client wants to know.

The client receiving hemodialysis is being discharged home from the dialysis center. Which instruction should the nurse teach the client? 1. Notify the HCP if oral temperature is 102°F or greater. 2. Apply ice to the access site if it starts bleeding at home. 3. Keep fingernails short and try not to scratch the skin. 4. Encourage the significant other to make decisions for the client.

3. Uremic frost, which results when the skin attempts to take over the function of the kidneys, causes itching, which can lead to scratching, possibly resulting in a break in the skin.

The client is in the intensive care department (ICD) after a motor-vehicle accident in which the client lost an estimated three (3) units of blood. Which action by the nurse could prevent the client from developing acute renal failure? 1. Take and document the client's vital signs every hour. 2. Assess the client's dressings every two (2) hours. 3. Check the client's urinary output every shift. 4. Maintain the client's blood pressure greater than 100/60.

4. Maintaining the client's blood pressure to greater than 100/60 ensures perfusion of the kidneys. Acute renal failure occurs when the kidneys have not been adequately perfused. Vasopressor drips are used to maintain the BP.

The nurse is admitting a client diagnosed with acute renal failure (ARF). Which question is most important for the nurse to ask during the admission interview? 1. "Have you recently traveled outside the United States?" 2. "Did you recently begin a vigorous exercise program?" 3. "Is there a chance you have been exposed to a virus?" 4. "What over-the-counter medications do you take regularly?"

4. Medications such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and some herbal remedies are nephrotoxic; therefore, asking about medications is appropriate.

The client is two (2) days postureterosigmoidostomy for cancer of the bladder. Which assessment data warrant notification of the HCP by the nurse? 1. The client complains of pain at a "3," 30 minutes after being medicated. 2. The client complains it hurts to cough and deep breathe. 3. The client ambulates to the end of the hall and back before lunch. 4. The client is lying in a fetal position and has a rigid abdomen.

4. The client is drawn up in a position that relieves pressure off the abdomen; a rigid abdomen is an indicator of peritonitis, a medical emergency.

Which intervention should the nurse implement when caring for the client with a nephrostomy tube? 1. Change the dressing only if soiled by urine. 2. Clean the end of the connecting tubing with Betadine. 3. Clean the drainage system every day with bleach and water. 4. Assess the tube for kinks to prevent obstruction.

4. The nephrostomy tube should never be clamped or have kinks because an obstruction can cause pyelonephritis.

The client with a TURP who has a continuous irrigation catheter complains of the need to urinate. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? 1. Call the surgeon to inform the HCP of the client's complaint. 2. Administer the client a narcotic medication for pain. 3. Explain to the client this sensation happens frequently. 4. Assess the continuous irrigation catheter for patency.

4. The nurse should always assess any complaint before dismissing it as a commonly occurring problem.

The client diagnosed with a urinary tract infection has a blood pressure of 83/56 mm Hg and a pulse of 122 bpm. Which should the nurse implement first? 1. Notify the health-care provider (HCP). 2. Hang the IVPB antibiotic at the prescribed rate. 3. Check the laboratory work to determine if the urine culture has been completed. 4. Increase the normal saline IV fluids from keep open to 150 mL/hour on the IV pump.

4. This is septic shock and not fluid volume shock but the circulatory system is still compromised. Increasing the fluid volume will support the client's BP until the IVPB is infused.