OB Exam 1

Which of the following is a common barbiturate used in labor? 1. Seconal 2. Valium 3. Phenergan 4. Vistaril

1. Seconal

The charge nurse is looking at the charts of laboring clients. Which client is in greatest need of further intervention? 1. Woman at 7 cm, fetal heart tones auscultated every 90 minutes 2. Woman at 10 cm and pushing, external fetal monitor applied 3. Woman with meconium-stained fluid, internal fetal scalp electrode in use 4. Woman in preterm labor, external monitor in place

: 1 Explanation: 1. During active labor, the fetal heart tones should be auscultated every 30 minutes; every 90 minutes is not frequent enough.

Which client requires immediate intervention by the labor and delivery nurse? 1. Client at 8 cm, systolic blood pressure has increased 35 mm Hg 2. Client who delivered 1 hour ago with WBC of 50,000 3. Client at 5 cm with a respiratory rate of 22 between contractions 4. Client in active labor with polyuria

: 2 Explanation: 2. The white blood cell (WBC) count increases to 25,000/mm3 to 30,000/mm3 during labor and early postpartum. This count is abnormally high, and requires further assessment and provider notification.

The nurse auscultates the FHR and determines a rate of 112 beats/min. Which action is appropriate? 1. Inform the maternal client that the rate is normal. 2. Reassess the FHR in 5 minutes because the rate is low. 3. Report the FHR to the doctor immediately. 4. Turn the maternal client on her side and administer oxygen.

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. A fetal heart rate of 112 beats/min. falls within the normal range of 110-160 beats/min., so there is no need to inform the doctor.

A cesarean section is ordered for a pregnant client. Because the client is to receive general anesthesia, what is the primary danger with which the nurse is concerned? 1. Fetal depression 2. Vomiting 3. Maternal depression 4. Uterine relaxation

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. A primary danger of general anesthesia is fetal depression. The depression in the fetus is directly proportional to the depth and duration of the anesthesia.

How would the nurse best analyze the results from a client's sonogram that shows the fetal shoulder as the presenting part? 1. Breech, transverse 2. Breech, longitudinal 3. Breech, frank 4. Vertex, transverse

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. A shoulder presentation is one type of breech presentation, and is also called a transverse lie.

To reduce possible side effects from a cesarean section under general anesthesia, clients are routinely given which type of medication? 1. Antacids 2. Tranquilizers 3. Antihypertensives 4. Anticonvulsants

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Antacids are routinely administered before surgery for a cesarean section.

A nurse needs to evaluate the progress of a woman's labor. The nurse obtains the following data: cervical dilatation 6 cm; contractions mild in intensity, occurring every 5 minutes, with a duration of 30-40 seconds. Which clue in this data does not fit the pattern suggested by the rest of the clues? 1. Cervical dilatation 6 cm 2. Mild contraction intensity 3. Contraction frequency every 5 minutes 4. Contraction duration 30-40 seconds

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Cervical dilatation of 6 cm indicates the active phase of labor. During this phase the cervix dilates from about 4 to 7 cm and contractions and pain intensify.

The client has been pushing for 3 hours, and the fetus is making a slow descent. The partner asks the nurse whether pushing for this long is normal. How should the nurse respond? 1. "Your baby is taking a little longer than average, but is making progress." 2. "First babies take a long time to be born. The next baby will be easier." 3. "The birth would go faster if you had taken prenatal classes and practiced." 4. "Every baby is different; there really are no norms for labor and birth."

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Establishing rapport and a trusting relationship and providing information that is true is best response.

A nurse is checking the postpartum orders. The doctor has prescribed bed rest for 6-12 hours. The nurse knows this is an appropriate order if the client had which type of anesthesia? 1. Spinal 2. Pudendal 3. General 4. Epidural

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Following the birth, the woman may be kept flat. Although the effectiveness of the supine position to avoid headache following a spinal is controversial, the physician's orders may include lying flat for 6 to 12 hours.

The nurse is caring for a laboring client with thrombocytopenia. During labor, it is determined that the client requires a cesarean delivery. The nurse is preparing the client for surgery, and should instruct the client that the recommended method of anesthesia is which of the following? 1. General anesthesia 2. Epidural anesthesia 3. Spinal anesthesia 4. Regional anesthesia

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. General anesthesia will be recommended. Women with thrombocytopenia should avoid regional blocks.

An analgesic medication has been administered intramuscularly to a client in labor. How would the nurse evaluate if the medication was effective? 1. The client dozes between contractions. 2. The client is moaning during contractions. 3. The contractions decrease in intensity. 4. The contractions decrease in frequency.

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. If the client dozes between contractions, the analgesic is effective. Analgesics decrease discomfort and increase relaxation.

A client delivered 30 minutes ago. Which postpartal assessment finding would require close nursing attention? 1. A soaked perineal pad since the last 15-minute check 2. An edematous perineum 3. The client experiencing tremors 4. A fundus located at the umbilicus

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. If the perineal pad becomes soaked in a 15-minute period or if blood pools under the buttocks, continuous observation is necessary. As long as the woman remains in bed during the first hour, bleeding should not exceed saturation of one pad.

A woman in active labor is given nalbuphine hydrochloride (Nubain) 14 mg IV for pain relief. Half an hour later, her respirations are at 8 per minute. The physician would likely order which medication for this client? 1. Narcan 2. Reglan 3. Benadryl 4. Vistaril

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Narcan is useful for respiratory depression caused by nalbuphine (Nubain).

The nurse administered oxytocin 20 units at the time of placental delivery. Why was this primarily done? 1. To contract the uterus and minimize bleeding 2. To decrease breast milk production 3. To decrease maternal blood pressure 4. To increase maternal blood pressure

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Oxytocin is given to contract the uterus and minimize bleeding.

The nurse is preparing to assess the fetus of a laboring client. Which assessment should the nurse perform first? 1. Perform Leopold maneuvers to determine fetal position. 2. Count the fetal heart rate between, during, and for 30 seconds following a uterine contraction (UC). 3. Dry the maternal abdomen before using the Doppler. 4. The diaphragm should be cooled before using the Doppler.

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Performing Leopold maneuvers is the first step.

The nurse is inducing the labor of a client with severe preeclampsia. As labor progresses, fetal intolerance of labor develops. The induction medication is turned off, and the client is prepared for cesarean birth. Which statement should the nurse include in her preoperative teaching? 1. "Because of your preeclampsia you are at higher risk for hypotension after an epidural anesthesia." 2. "Because of your preeclampsia you might develop hypertension after a spinal anesthesia." 3. "Because of your preeclampsia your baby might have decreased blood pressure after birth." 4. "Because of your preeclampsia

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Pregnancies complicated by preeclampsia are high-risk situations. The woman with mild preeclampsia usually may have the analgesia or anesthesia of choice, although the incidence of hypotension with epidural anesthesia is increased. If hypotension occurs with the epidural block, it provides further stress on an already compromised cardiovascular system.

The laboring client's fetal heart rate baseline is 120 beats per minute. Accelerations are present to 135 beats/min. During contractions, the fetal heart rate gradually slows to 110, and is at 120 by the end of the contraction. What nursing action is best? 1. Document the fetal heart rate. 2. Apply oxygen via mask at 10 liters. 3. Prepare for imminent delivery. 4. Assist the client into Fowler's position.

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. The described fetal heart rate has a normal baseline; the presence of accelerations indicates adequate fetal oxygenation, and early decelerations are normal. No intervention is necessary.

To identify the duration of a contraction, the nurse would do which of the following? 1. Start timing from the beginning of one contraction to the completion of the same contraction. 2. Time between the beginning of one contraction and the beginning of the next contraction. 3. Palpate for the strength of the contraction at its peak. 4. Time from the beginning of the contraction to the peak of the same contraction.

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. The duration of each contraction is measured from the beginning of the contraction to the completion of the contraction.

The fetal heart rate baseline is 140 beats/min. When contractions begin, the fetal heart rate drops suddenly to 120, and rapidly returns to 140 before the end of the contraction. Which nursing intervention is best? 1. Assist the client to change position. 2. Apply oxygen to the client at 2 liters per nasal cannula. 3. Notify the operating room of the need for a cesarean birth. 4. Determine the color of the leaking amniotic fluid.

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. The fetus is exhibiting variable decelerations, which are caused by cord compression. Sometimes late or variable decelerations are due to the supine position of the laboring woman. In this case, the decrease in uterine blood flow to the fetus may be alleviated by raising the woman's upper trunk or turning her to the side to displace pressure of the gravid uterus on the inferior vena cava.

What is the major adverse side effect of epidural anesthesia? 1. Maternal hypotension 2. Decrease in variability of the FHR 3. Vertigo 4. Decreased or absent respiratory movements

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. The major adverse effect of epidural anesthesia is maternal hypotension caused by a spinal blockade, which lowers peripheral resistance, decreases venous return to the heart, and subsequently lessens cardiac output and lowers blood pressure.

After administration of an epidural anesthetic to a client in active labor, it is most important to assess the mother immediately for which of the following? 1. Hypotension 2. Headache 3. Urinary retention 4. Bradycardia

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. The most common complication of an epidural is maternal hypotension.

The laboring client is complaining of tingling and numbness in her fingers and toes, dizziness, and spots before her eyes. The nurse recognizes that these are clinical manifestations of which of the following? 1. Hyperventilation 2. Seizure auras 3. Imminent birth 4. Anxiety

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. These symptoms all are consistent with hyperventilation.

By inquiring about the expectations and plans that a laboring woman and her partner have for the labor and birth, the nurse is primarily doing which of the following? 1. Recognizing the client as an active participant in her own care. 2. Attempting to correct any misinformation the client might have received. 3. Acting as an advocate for the client. 4. Establishing rapport with the client.

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Understanding the couple's expectations and plans helps the nurse provide optimal nursing care and facilitate the best possible birth experience.

The laboring client presses the call light and reports that her water has just broken. What would the nurse's first action be? 1. Check fetal heart tones. 2. Encourage the mother to go for a walk. 3. Change bed linens. 4. Call the physician.

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. When the membranes rupture, the nurse notes the color and odor of the amniotic fluid and the time of rupture and immediately auscultates the FHR.

Two hours after delivery, a client's fundus is boggy and has risen to above the umbilicus. What is the first action the nurse would take? 1. Massage the fundus until firm 2. Express retained clots 3. Increase the intravenous solution 4. Call the physician

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. When the uterus becomes boggy, pooling of blood occurs within it, resulting in the formation of clots. Anything left in the uterus prevents it from contracting effectively. Thus if it becomes boggy or appears to rise in the abdomen, the fundus should be massaged until firm.

The client has asked the nurse why her cervix has only changed from 1 to 2 cm in 3 hours of contractions occurring every 5 minutes. What is the nurse's best response to the client? 1. "Your cervix has also effaced, or thinned out, and that change in the cervix is also labor progress." 2. "When your perineal body thins out, your cervix will begin to dilate much faster than it is now." 3. "What did you expect? You've only had contractions for a few hours. Labor takes time." 4. "The hormones that cause labor to begin are just getting to be at levels that will change your cervix."

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. With each contraction, the muscles of the upper uterine segment shorten and exert a longitudinal traction on the cervix, causing effacement. Effacement is the taking up (or drawing up) of the internal os and the cervical canal into the uterine side walls.

A cesarean section is ordered for the laboring client with whom the nurse has worked all shift. The client will receive general anesthesia. The nurse knows that potential complications of general anesthesia include which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Fetal depression that is directly proportional to the depth and duration of the anesthesia 2. Poor fetal metabolism of anesthesia, which inhibits use with preterm infants 3. Uterine relaxation 4. Increased gastric motility 5. Itching of the face and neck

Answer: 1, 2, 3 Explanation: 1. A primary danger of general anesthesia is fetal depression, because the medication reaches the fetus in about 2 minutes. The depression is directly proportional to the depth and duration of anesthesia. 2. The poor fetal metabolism of general anesthetic agents is similar to that of analgesic agents administered during labor. General anesthesia is not advocated when the fetus is considered to be at high risk, particularly in preterm birth. 3. Most general anesthetic agents cause some degree of uterine relaxation.

The labor nurse would not encourage a mother to bear down until the cervix is completely dilated, to prevent which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only for all correct choices and no incorrect choices. Select all that apply. 1. Maternal exhaustion 2. Cervical edema 3. Tearing and bruising of the cervix 4. Enhanced perineal thinning 5. Having to perform an episiotomy

Answer: 1, 2, 3 Explanation: 1. If the cervix is not completely dilated, maternal exhaustion can occur. 2. If the cervix is not completely dilated, cervical edema can occur. 3. If the cervix is not completely dilated, tearing and bruising of the cervix can occur.

The nurse is caring for a client who is having fetal tachycardia. The nurse knows that possible causes include which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Maternal dehydration 2. Maternal hyperthyroidism 3. Fetal hypoxia 4. Prematurity 5. Anesthesia or regional analgesia

Answer: 1, 2, 3, 4 Explanation: 1. Maternal dehydration can cause fetal tachycardia. 2. Maternal hyperthyroidism can cause fetal tachycardia. 3. Fetal tachycardia can indicate fetal hypoxia. 4. Prematurity can cause fetal tachycardia.

Childbirth preparation offers several advantages including which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only for all correct choices and no incorrect choices. Select all that apply. 1. It helps a pregnant woman and her support person understand the choices in the birth setting. 2. It promotes awareness of available options. 3. It provides tools for a pregnant woman and her support person to use during labor and birth. 4. Women who receive continuous support during labor require more analgesia, and have more cesarean and instrument births. 5. Each method has been shown to shorten labor.

Answer: 1, 2, 3, 5 Explanation: 1. Childbirth preparation offers several advantages. It helps a pregnant woman and her support person understand the choices in the birth setting, promotes awareness of available options, and provides tools for them to use during labor and birth. 2. Childbirth preparation offers several advantages. It helps a pregnant woman and her support person understand the choices in the birth setting, promotes awareness of available options, and provides tools for them to use during labor and birth. 3. Childbirth preparation offers several advantages. It helps a pregnant woman and her support person understand the choices in the birth setting, promotes awareness of available options, and provides tools for them to use during labor and birth. 5. Childbirth preparation offers several advantages. Each method has been shown to shorten labor.

Upon assessing the FHR tracing, the nurse determines that there is fetal tachycardia. The fetal tachycardia would be caused by which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Early fetalhypoxia 2. Prolonged fetal stimulation 3. Fetal anemia 4. Fetal sleep cycle 5. Infection

Answer: 1, 2, 3, 5 Explanation: 1. Early fetal hypoxia can cause fetal tachycardia. 2. Prolonged fetal stimulation can cause fetal tachycardia. 3. Fetal anemia can cause fetal tachycardia. 5. Infection can cause fetal tachycardia.

For what common side effects of epidural anesthesia should the nurse watch? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Elevated maternal temperature 2. Urinary retention 3. Nausea 4. Long-term back pain 5. Local itching

Answer: 1, 2, 3, 5 Explanation: 1. Elevated maternal temperature is a potential side effect of epidural anesthesia. 2. Urinary retention is a potential side effect of epidural anesthesia. 3. Nausea is a potential side effect of epidural anesthesia. 5. Pruritus may occur at any time during the epidural infusion. It usually appears first on the face, neck, or torso and is generally the result of the agent used in the epidural infusion. Benadryl, an antihistamine, can be administered to manage pruritus.

The nurse is teaching a class on reading a fetal monitor to nursing students. The nurse explains that bradycardia is a fetal heart rate baseline below 110 and can be caused by which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Maternal hypotension 2. Prolonged umbilical cord compression 3. Fetal dysrhythmia 4. Central nervous system malformation 5. Late fetal asphyxia

Answer: 1, 2, 3, 5 Explanation: 1. Maternal hypotension results in decreased blood flow to the fetus. 2. Cord compression can cause fetal bradycardia. 3. This will cause fetal bradycardia if there is a fetal heart block. 5. This is a depression of myocardial activity.

) The nurse has completed the physical assessment of a client in early labor, and proceeds with the social assessment. A social history of the client would include which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Use of drugs and alcohol 2. Family violence or sexual assault 3. Current living situation 4. Type of insurance 5. Availability of resources

Answer: 1, 2, 3, 5 Explanation: 1. Risk factors such as the use of drugs or alcohol during the pregnancy can influence the labor and birth. 2. It is imperative to ask the woman about domestic violence and to assess any degree of psychologic or physical harm, either potential or real. 3. A social assessment includes asking about the woman's current living situation. This dialog provides an opportunity for the nurse to continue to build support, to provide information when requested, and to be direct yet supportive. 5. A social assessment includes asking about resources available to the family.

Premonitory signs of labor include which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only for all correct choices and no incorrect choices. Select all that apply. 1. Braxton Hicks contractions 2. Cervical softening and effacement 3. Weight gain 4. Rupture of membranes 5. Sudden loss of energy

Answer: 1, 2, 4 Explanation: 1. A premonitory sign of labor includes Braxton Hicks contractions. 2. A premonitory sign of labor includes cervical softening and effacement. 4. A premonitory sign of labor includes rupture of membranes.

The nurse is caring for a client in labor. Which signs and symptoms would indicate the client is progressing into the second stage of labor? Note: Credit will be given only for all correct choices and no incorrect choices. Select all that apply. 1. Bulging perineum 2. Increased bloody show 3. Spontaneous rupture of the membranes 4. Uncontrollable urge to push 5. Inability to breathe through contractions

Answer: 1, 2, 4 Explanation: 1. As the fetal head continues its descent, the perineum begins to bulge, flatten, and move anteriorly. 2. Bloody show increases as a woman enters the second stage of labor. 4. As the fetal head descends, the woman has the urge to push because of pressure of the fetal head on the sacral and obturator nerves.

A full-term infant has just been born. Which interventions should the nurse perform first? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Placing the infant in a radiant-heated unit 2. Suctioning the infant with a bulb syringe 3. Wrapping the infant in a blanket 4. Evaluating the newborn using the Apgar system 5. Offering a feeding of 5% glucose water

Answer: 1, 2, 4 Explanation: 1. If the newborn is placed in a radiant-heated unit, he or she is dried, laid on a dry blanket, and left uncovered under the radiant heat. 2. Newborns are suctioned with a bulb syringe to clear mucus from the newborn's mouth. 4. The purpose of the Apgar score is to evaluate the physical condition of the newborn at birth.

The nurse is caring for a client who is showing a sinusoidal fetal heart rate pattern on the monitor. The nurse knows that possible causes for this pattern include which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Fetal anemia 2. Chronic fetal bleeding 3. Maternal hypotension 4. Twin-to-twin transfusion 5. Umbilical cord occlusion

Answer: 1, 2, 4, 5 Explanation: 1. Fetal anemia can cause a sinusoidal heart rate. 2. Chronic fetal bleeding can cause a sinusoidal heart rate. 4. Twin-to-twin transfusion will cause a sinusoidal heart rate. 5. Umbilical cord occlusion can cause a sinusoidal fetal heart rate.

The nurse is assessing a client before administering an analgesic. What are some of the factors the nurse should consider? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. The client is willing to receive medication after being advised about it. 2. The client's vital signs are stable. 3. The partner agrees to use of the medication. 4. The client has no known allergies to the medication. 5. The client is aware of the contraindications of the medication.

Answer: 1, 2, 4, 5 Explanation: 1. Medication should be explained to the client before it is administered. 2. Vital signs need to be stable before any analgesic medication is administered. 4. Ask the client about allergies before administering any medications. 5. Clients should always be aware of the contraindications of the medication.

When caring for a 13-year-old client in labor, how would the nurse provide sensitive care? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Using simple and concrete instructions 2. Providing soothing encouragement and comfort measures 3. Making all decisions for the client when she expresses a feeling of helplessness 4. Deciding whom the client should allow in the room 5. Providing encouragement and support of the client's decisions

Answer: 1, 2, 5 Explanation: 1. A client at this developmental stage will need concrete and simplified instructions. 2. Touch, soothing encouragement, and measures to promote her comfort help her maintain control and meet her needs for dependence. 5. Establishing rapport without recrimination will provide emotional support and encouragement.

The client presents to the labor and delivery unit stating that her water broke 2 hours ago. Indicators of normal labor include which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Fetal heart rate of 130 with average variability 2. Blood pressure of 130/80 3. Maternal pulse of 160 4. Protein of +1 in urine 5. Odorless, clear fluid on underwear

Answer: 1, 2, 5 Explanation: 1. Fetal heart rate (FHR) of 110-160 with average variability is a normal indication. 2. Maternal vital sign of blood pressure below 140/90 is a normal indication. 5. Fluid clear and without odor if membranes ruptured is a normal indication.

Fetal factors that possibly indicate electronic fetal monitoring include which of the following? 1. Meconium passage 2. Multiple gestation 3. Preeclampsia 4. Grand multiparity 5. Decreased fetal movement

Answer: 1, 2, 5 Explanation: 1. Meconium passage is an indicator for electronic fetal monitoring. 2. Multiple gestation is an indicator for electronic fetal monitoring. 5. Decreased fetal movement is an indicator for electronic fetal monitoring.

3) A client in labor is requesting pain medication. The nurse assesses her labor status first, focusing on which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Contraction pattern 2. Amount of cervical dilatation 3. When the labor began 4. Whether the membranes are intact or ruptured 5. Fetal presenting part

Answer: 1, 2, 5 Explanation: 1. The client should have a good contraction pattern before receiving an analgesic. 2. The nurse should evaluate the amount of cervical dilatation before analgesic medication is administered. 5. If normal parameters are absent or if nonreassuring maternal or fetal factors are present, the nurse may need to complete further assessments with the physician/CNM.

A client had an epidural inserted 2 hours ago. It is functioning well, the client is stable, and labor is progressing. Which parts of the nurse's assessment have the highest priority? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Assess blood pressure every hour. 2. Assess the pulse rate every hour. 3. Palpate the bladder. 4. Auscultate the lungs. 5. Assess the reflexes.

Answer: 1, 3 Explanation: 1. Blood pressure should be monitored every 1 to 2 minutes for the first 10 minutes and then every 5 to 15 minutes until the block wears off because hypotension is the most common side effect of epidural anesthesia. 3. Nursing care following an epidural block includes frequent assessment of the bladder to avoid bladder distention. Catheterization may be necessary, because most women are unable to void.

Before performing Leopold maneuvers, what would the nurse do? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Have the client empty her bladder. 2. Place the client in Trendelenburg position. 3. Have the client lie on her back with her feet on the bed and knees bent. 4. Turn the client to her left side. 5. Have the client lie flat with her ankles crossed.

Answer: 1, 3 Explanation: 1. The woman should have recently emptied her bladder before performing Leopold maneuvers. 3. The woman should lie on her back with her abdomen uncovered. To aid in relaxation of the abdominal wall, the shoulders should be raised slightly on a pillow and the knees drawn up a little.

When general anesthesia is necessary for a cesarean delivery, what should the nurse be prepared to do? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Administer an antacid to the client. 2. Place a wedge under her thigh. 3. Apply cricoid pressure during anesthesia intubation. 4. Preoxygenate for 3-5 minutes before anesthesia. 5. Place a Foley catheter in the client's bladder.

Answer: 1, 3, 4, 5 Explanation: 1. Prophylactic antacid therapy is given to reduce the acidic content of the stomach before general anesthesia. 3. During the process of rapid induction of anesthesia, the nurse applies cricoid pressure. 4. The woman should be preoxygenated with 3 to 5 minutes of 100% oxygen. 5. Urinary retention can be treated with the placement of an indwelling Foley catheter.

Usually, the family is advised to arrive at the birth setting at the beginning of the active phase of labor or when which of the following occur? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Rupture of membranes (ROM) 2. Increased fetal movement 3. Decreased fetal movement 4. Any vaginal bleeding 5. Regular, frequent uterine contractions (UCs)

Answer: 1, 3, 4, 5 Explanation: 1. The family is advised to arrive at the birth setting at the beginning of the active phase of labor or when the membranes rupture. 3. The family is advised to arrive at the birth setting at the beginning of the active phase of labor or when there is decreased fetal movement. 4. The family is advised to arrive at the birth setting at the beginning of the active phase of labor or when there is any vaginal bleeding. 5. The family is advised to arrive at the birth setting at the beginning of the active phase of labor or when there are regular, frequent uterine contractions.

A first-time 22-year-old single labor client, accompanied by her boyfriend, is admitted to the labor unit with ruptured membranes and mild to moderate contractions. She is determined to be 2 centimeters dilated. Which nursing diagnoses might apply during the current stage of labor? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Fear/Anxiety related to discomfort of labor and unknown labor outcome 2. Knowledge, Deficient, related to lack of information about pushing methods 3. Pain, Acute, related to uterine contractions, cervical dilatation, and fetal descent 4. Pain, Acute, related to perineal trauma 5. Coping: Family, Compromised, related to labor process

Answer: 1, 3, 5 Explanation: 1. A Fear/Anxiety diagnosis would apply to the first stage of labor for a first-time labor client. 3. Contractions become more regular in frequency and duration, increasing discomfort and pain. 5. The woman and her boyfriend are about to undergo one of the most meaningful and stressful events in life together. Physical and psychologic resources, coping mechanisms, and support systems will all be challenged.

A clinic nurse is preparing diagrams of pelvic shapes. Which pelvic shapes are considered least adequate for vaginal childbirth? Note: Credit will be given only for all correct choices and no incorrect choices. Select all that apply. 1. Android 2. Anthropoid 3. Gynecoid 4. Platypelloid 5. Lambdoidal suture

Answer: 1, 4 Explanation: 1. In the android and platypelloid types, the pelvic diameters are diminished. Labor is more likely to be difficult (longer) and a cesarean birth is more likely. 4. In the android and platypelloid types, the pelvic diameters are diminished. Labor is more likely to be difficult (longer) and a cesarean birth is more likely.

The nurse is teaching a prenatal class about false labor. The nurse should teach clients that false labor most likely will include which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only for all correct choices and no incorrect choices. Select all that apply. 1. Contractions that do not intensify while walking 2. An increase in the intensity and frequency of contractions 3. Progressive cervical effacement and dilatation 4. Pain in the abdomen that does not radiate 5. Contractions are at regular intervals

Answer: 1, 4 Explanation: 1. True labor contractions intensify while walking. 4. The discomfort of true labor contractions usually starts in the back and radiates around to the abdomen.

A client who is having false labor most likely would have which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only for all correct choices and no incorrect choices. Select all that apply. 1. Contractions that do not intensify while walking 2. An increase in the intensity and frequency of contractions 3. Progressive cervical effacement and dilatation 4. Pain in the abdomen that does not radiate 5. Contractions that lessen with rest and warm tub baths

Answer: 1, 4, 5 Explanation: 1. True labor contractions intensify while walking. 4. True labor results in progressive dilation, increased intensity and frequency of contractions, and pain in the back that radiates to the abdomen. 5. In true labor, contractions do not lessen with rest and warm tub baths.

The nurse is caring for a client in the transition phase of labor and notes that the fetal monitor tracing shows average short-term and long-term variability with a baseline of 142 beats per minute. What actions should the nurse take in this situation? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Provide caring labor support. 2. Administer oxygen via face mask. 3. Change the client's position. 4. Speed up the client's intravenous. 5. Reassure the client and her partner that she is doing fine.

Answer: 1, 5 Explanation: 1. The tracing is normal, so the nurse can continue support of the labor. 5. The nurse can reassure the client at this time, as the tracing is normal.

Narcotic analgesia is administered to a laboring client at 10:00 a.m. The infant is delivered at 12:30 p.m. What would the nurse anticipate that the narcotic analgesia could do? 1. Be used in place of preoperative sedation 2. Result in neonatal respiratory depression 3. Prevent the need for anesthesia with an episiotomy 4. Enhance uterine contractions

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. Analgesia given too late is of no value to the woman and may cause neonatal respiratory depression.

Upon delivery of the newborn, what nursing intervention most promotes parental attachment? 1. Placing the newborn under the radiant warmer. 2. Placing the newborn on the mother's abdomen. 3. Allowing the mother a chance to rest immediately after delivery. 4. Taking the newborn to the nursery for the initial assessment.

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. As the baby is placed on the mother's abdomen or chest, she frequently reaches out to touch and stroke her baby. When the newborn is placed in this position, the father or partner also has a very clear, close view and can also reach out to touch the baby.

The labor and delivery nurse is reviewing charts. The nurse should inform the supervisor about which client? 1. Client at 5 cm requesting labor epidural analgesia 2. Client whose cervix remains at 6 cm for 4 hours 3. Client who has developed nausea and vomiting 4. Client requesting her partner to stay with her

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. Average cervical change in the active phase of the first stage of labor is 1.2 cm/hour; thus, this client's lack of cervical change is unexpected, and should be reported to the supervisor.

A woman in labor asks the nurse to explain the electronic fetal heart rate monitor strip. The fetal heart rate baseline is 150 with accelerations to 165, variable decelerations to 140, and moderate long-term variability. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching? 1. "The most important part of fetal heart monitoring is the absence of variable decelerations." 2. "The most important part of fetal heart monitoring is the presence of variability." 3. "The most important part of fetal heart monitoring is the fetal heart rate baseline." 4. "The most important part of fetal heart monitoring is the depth of decelerations."

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. Baseline variability is a reliable indicator of fetal cardiac and neurologic function and well-being. The opposing "push-pull" balancing between the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system directly affects the FHR.

The laboring client is having moderately strong contractions lasting 60 seconds every 3 minutes. The fetal head is presenting at a -2 station. The cervix is 6 cm and 100% effaced. The membranes spontaneously ruptured prior to admission, and clear fluid is leaking. Fetal heart tones are in the 140s with accelerations to 150. Which nursing action has the highest priority? 1. Encourage the husband to remain in the room. 2. Keep the client on bed rest at this time. 3. Apply an internal fetal scalp electrode. 4. Obtain a clean-catch urine specimen.

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. Because the membranes are ruptured and the head is high in the pelvis at a -2 station, the client should be maintained on bed rest to prevent cord prolapse.

A client is admitted to the labor unit with contractions 1-2 minutes apart lasting 60-90 seconds. The client is apprehensive and irritable. This client is most likely in what phase of labor? 1. Active 2. Transition 3. Latent 4. Second

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. During transition, contractions have a frequency of 1 1/2 to 2 minutes, a duration of 60 to 90 seconds, and are strong in intensity. When the woman enters the transition phase, she may demonstrate significant anxiety.

The client at 39 weeks' gestation is undergoing a cesarean birth due to breech presentation. General anesthesia is being used. Which situation requires immediate intervention? 1. The baby's hands and feet are blue at 1 minute after birth. 2. The fetal heart rate is 70 prior to making the skin incision. 3. Clear fluid is obtained from the baby's oropharynx. 4. The neonate cries prior to delivery of the body.

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. Fetal bradycardia occurs when the fetal heart rate falls below 110 beats/minute during a 10-minute period of continuous monitoring. When fetal bradycardia is accompanied by decreased variability, it is considered ominous and could be a sign of fetal compromise.

The client is in the second stage of labor. The fetal heart rate baseline is 170, with minimal variability present. The nurse performs fetal scalp stimulation. The client's partner asks why the nurse did that. What is the best response by the nurse? 1. "I stimulated the top of the fetus's head to wake him up a little." 2. "I stimulated the top of the fetus's head to try to get his heart rate to accelerate." 3. "I stimulated the top of the fetus's head to calm the fetus down before birth." 4. "I stimulated the top of the fetus's head to find out whether he is in distress."

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. Fetal scalp stimulation is done when there is a question regarding fetal status. An acceleration indicates fetal well-being.

A client arrives in the labor and delivery unit and describes her contractions as occurring every 10-12 minutes, lasting 30 seconds. She is smiling and very excited about the possibility of being in labor. On exam, her cervix is dilated 2 cm, 100% effaced, and -2 station. What best describes this labor? 1. Second phase 2. Latent phase 3. Active phase 4. Transition phase

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. In the early or latent phase of the first stage of labor, contractions are usually mild. The woman feels able to cope with the discomfort. The woman is often talkative and smiling and is eager to talk about herself and answer questions.

The laboring client and her partner have arrived at the birthing unit. Which step of the admission process should be undertaken first? 1. The sterile vaginal exam 2. Welcoming the couple 3. Auscultation of the fetal heart rate 4. Checking for ruptured membranes

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. It is important to establish rapport and to create an environment in which the family feels free to ask questions. The support and encouragement of the nurse in maintaining a caring environment begin with the initial admission.

A client calls the labor and delivery unit and tells the nurse that she is 39 weeks pregnant and that over the last 4 or 5 days, she has noticed that although her breathing has become easier, she is having leg cramps, a slight amount of edema in her lower legs, and an increased amount of vaginal secretions. The nurse tells the client that she has experienced which of the following? 1. Engagement 2. Lightening 3. Molding 4. Braxton Hicks contractions

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. Lightening describes the effect occurring when the fetus begins to settle into the pelvic inlet.

The laboring client brought a written birth plan indicating that she wanted to avoid pain medications and an epidural. She is now at 6 cm and states, "I can't stand this anymore! I need something for pain! How will an epidural affect my baby?" What is the nurse's best response? 1. "The narcotic in the epidural will make both you and the baby sleepy." 2. "It is unlikely that an epidural will decrease your baby's heart rate." 3. "Epidurals tend to cause low blood pressure in babies after birth." 4. "I can't get you an epidural, because of your birth plan."

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. Maternal hypotension results in uteroplacental insufficiency in the fetus, which is manifested as late decelerations on the fetal monitoring strip. The risk of hypotension can be minimized by hydrating the vascular system with 500 to 1000 mL of IV solution before the procedure and changing the woman's position and/or increasing the IV rate afterward.

A client received epidural anesthesia during the first stage of labor. The epidural is discontinued immediately after delivery. This client is at increased risk for which problem during the fourth stage of labor? 1. Nausea 2. Bladder distention 3. Uterine atony 4. Hypertension

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. Nursing care following an epidural block includes frequent assessment of the bladder to avoid bladder distention.

Four minutes after the birth of a baby, there is a sudden gush of blood from the mother's vagina, and about 8 inches of umbilical cord slides out. What action should the nurse take first? 1. Place the client in McRoberts position. 2. Watch for the emergence of the placenta. 3. Prepare for the delivery of an undiagnosed twin. 4. Place the client in a supine position.

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. Signs of placental separation usually appear around 5 minutes after birth of the infant, but can take up to 30 minutes to manifest. These signs are (1) a globular-shaped uterus, (2) a rise of the fundus in the abdomen, (3) a sudden gush or trickle of blood, and (4) further protrusion of the umbilical cord out of the vagina.

The laboring client is at 7 cm, with the vertex at a +1 station. Her birth plan indicates that she and her partner took Lamaze prenatal classes, and they have planned on a natural, unmedicated birth. Her contractions are every 3 minutes and last 60 seconds. She has used relaxation and breathing techniques very successfully in her labor until the last 15 minutes. Now, during contractions, she is writhing on the bed and screaming. Her labor partner is rubbing the client's back and speaking to her quietly. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse incorporate into the plan of care for this client? 1. Fear/Anxiety related to discomfort of labor and unknown labor outcome 2. Pain, Acute, related to uterine contractions, cervical dilatation, and fetal descent 3. Coping: Family, Compromised, related to labor process 4. Knowledge, Deficient, related to lack of information about normal labor process and comfort measures

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. The client is exhibiting signs of acute pain, which is both common and expected in the transitional phase of labor.

The nurse is admitting a client to the birthing unit. What question should the nurse ask to gain a better understanding of the client's psychosocial status? 1. "How did you decide to have your baby at this hospital?" 2. "Who will be your labor support person?" 3. "Have you chosen names for your baby yet?" 4. "What feeding method will you use for your baby?"

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. The expectant mother's partner or support person is an important member of the birthing team, and assessments of the couple's coping, interactions, and teamwork are integral to the nurse's knowledge base. The nurse's physical presence with the laboring woman provides the best opportunity for ongoing assessment.

A laboring client has received an order for epidural anesthesia. In order to prevent the most common complication associated with this procedure, what would the nurse expect to do? 1. Observe fetal heart rate variability 2. Hydrate the vascular system with 500-1000 mL of intravenous fluids 3. Place the client in the semi-Fowler's position 4. Teach the client appropriate breathing techniques

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. The risk of hypotension can be minimized by hydrating the vascular system with 500 to 1000 mL of IV solution before the procedure and changing the woman's position and/or increasing the IV rate afterward.

The neonate was born 5 minutes ago. The body is bluish. The heart rate is 150. The infant is crying strongly. The infant cries when the sole of the foot is stimulated. The arms and legs are flexed, and resist straightening. What should the nurse record as this infant's Apgar score? 1. 7 2. 8 3. 9 4. 10

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. The strong cry earns 2 points. The crying with foot sole stimulation earns 2 points. The limb flexion and resistance earn 2 points each. Bluish color earns 0 points. The Apgar score is 8.

The client at 40 weeks' gestation reports to the nurse that she has had increased pelvic pressure and increased urinary frequency. Which response by the nurse is best? 1. "Unless you have pain with urination, we don't need to worry about it." 2. "These symptoms usually mean the baby's head has descended further." 3. "Come in for an appointment today and we'll check everything out." 4. "This might indicate that the baby is no longer in a head-down position."

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. This is the best response because it most directly addresses what the client has reported.

The nurse is working with a pregnant adolescent. The client asks the nurse how the baby's condition is determined during labor. The nurse's best response is that during labor, the nurse will do which of the following? 1. Check the client's cervix by doing a pelvic exam every 2 hours. 2. Assess the fetus's heart rate with an electronic fetal monitor. 3. Look at the color and amount of bloody show that the client has. 4. Verify that the client's contractions are strong but not too close together.

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. This statement best answers the question the client has asked.

Before applying a cord clamp, the nurse assesses the umbilical cord. The mother asks why the nurse is doing this. What should the nurse reply? 1. "I'm checking the blood vessels in the cord to see whether it has one artery and one vein." 2. "I'm checking the blood vessels in the cord to see whether it has two arteries and one vein." 3. "I'm checking the blood vessels in the cord to see whether it has two veins and one artery." 4. "I'm checking the blood vessels in the cord to see whether it has two arteries and two veins."

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. Two arteries and one vein are present in a normal umbilical cord.

A client has just arrived in the birthing unit. What steps would be most important for the nurse to perform to gain an understanding of the physical status of the client and her fetus? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Check for ruptured membranes and apply a fetal scalp electrode. 2. Auscultate the fetal heart rate between and during contractions. 3. Palpate contractions and resting uterine tone. 4. Assess the blood pressure, temperature, respiratory rate, and pulse rate. 5. Perform a vaginal exam for cervical dilation, and perform Leopold maneuvers.

Answer: 2, 3 Explanation: 2. Fetal heart rate auscultation gives information about the physical status of the fetus. 3. Contraction palpation provides information about the frequency, duration, and intensity of the contractions.

The nurse knows that which of the following are advantages of spinal block? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct answers and no incorrect answers are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Intense blockade of sympathetic fibers 2. Relative ease of administration 3. Maternal compartmentalization of the drug 4. Immediate onset of anesthesia 5. Larger drug volume

Answer: 2, 3, 4 Explanation: 2. One of advantages of spinal block is the relative ease of administration. 3. One of the advantages of spinal block is the maternal compartmentalization of the drug. 4. One of the advantages of spinal block is the immediate onset of anesthesia.

The nurse is aware of the different breathing techniques that are used during labor. Why are breathing techniques used during labor? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. They are a form of anesthesia. 2. They are a source of relaxation. 3. They increase the ability to cope with contractions. 4. They are a source of distraction. 5. They increase a woman's pain threshold.

Answer: 2, 3, 4, 5 Explanation: 2. When used correctly, breathing techniques can encourage relaxation. 3. When used correctly, breathing techniques can enhance the ability to cope with uterine contractions. 4. When used correctly, breathing techniques provide some distraction from the pain. 5. When used correctly, breathing techniques increase a woman's pain threshold.

The nurse determines that a client is carrying her fetus in the vertical (longitudinal) lie. The nurse's judgment should be questioned if the fetal presenting part is which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only for all correct choices and no incorrect choices. Select all that apply. 1. Sacrum 2. Left arm 3. Mentum 4. Left scapula 5. Right scapula

Answer: 2, 4, 5 Explanation: 2. A fetus with an arm presenting is likely in a horizontal lie. 4. A fetus with a left scapula presenting is in a horizontal lie. 5. A fetus with a right scapula presenting is in a horizontal lie.

An anesthesiologist informs the nurse that a client scheduled for a caesarean section will be having general anesthesia with postoperative self-controlled analgesia. For which clients would a general anesthesia be recommended? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. The client with a history of hypertension 2. The client who has had a lower back fusion 3. The client who is 13 years old 4. The client who is allergic to morphine sulfate 5. The client who has had surgery for scoliosis

Answer: 2, 5 Explanation: 2. Contraindications for epidural block include patients with previous back surgery. 5. Contraindications for epidural block include patients with previous back surgery.

The primary physician orders a narcotic analgesic for a client in labor. Which situations would lead the nurse to hold the medication? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Contraction pattern every 3 minutes for 60 seconds 2. Fetal monitor tracing showing late decelerations 3. Client sleeping between contractions 4. Blood pressure 150/90 5. Blood pressure 80/42

Answer: 2, 5 Explanation: 2. Maternal hypotension results in uteroplacental insufficiency in the fetus, which is manifested as late decelerations on the fetal monitoring strip. 5. This would be a contraindication, as a narcotic can lower the blood pressure even more.

The primary care provider is performing a fetal scalp stimulation test. What result would the nurse hope to observe? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Spontaneous fetal movement 2. Fetal heart acceleration 3. Increase in fetal heart variability 4. Resolution of late decelerations 5. Reactivity associated with the stimulation

Answer: 2, 5 Explanation: 2. The fetal heart rate should accelerate with stimulation. 5. There will be some reaction with the stimulation.

The nurse is aware that a fetus that is not in any stress would respond to a fetal scalp stimulation test by showing which change on the monitor strip? 1. Late decelerations 2. Early decelerations 3. Accelerations 4. Fetal dysrhythmia

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. A fetus that is not experiencing stress responds to scalp stimulation with an acceleration of the FHR.

The nurse is preparing a client education handout on the differences between false labor and true labor. What information is most important for the nurse to include? 1. True labor contractions begin in the back and sweep toward the front. 2. False labor often feels like abdominal tightening, or "balling up." 3. True labor can be diagnosed only if cervical change occurs. 4. False labor contractions do not increase in intensity or duration.

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Cervical change is the only factor that actually distinguishes false from true labor. The contractions of true labor produce progressive dilatation and effacement of the cervix. The contractions of false labor do not produce progressive cervical effacement and dilatation.

The client in early labor asks the nurse what the contractions are like as labor progresses. What would the nurse respond? 1. "In normal labor, as the uterine contractions become stronger, they usually also become less frequent." 2. "In normal labor, as the uterine contractions become stronger, they usually also become less painful." 3. "In normal labor, as the uterine contractions become stronger, they usually also become longer in duration." 4. "In normal labor, as the uterine contractions become stronger, they usually also become shorter in duration."

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. During the active and transition phases, contractions become more frequent, are longer in duration, and increase in intensity.

Persistent early decelerations are noted. What would the nurse's first action be? 1. Turn the mother on her left side and give oxygen. 2. Check for prolapsed cord. 3. Do nothing. This is a benign pattern. 4. Prepare for immediate forceps or cesarean delivery.

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Early decelerations are considered benign, and do not require any intervention.

The laboring client with meconium-stained amniotic fluid asks the nurse why the fetal monitor is necessary, as she finds the belt uncomfortable. Which response by the nurse is most important? 1. "The monitor is necessary so we can see how your labor is progressing." 2. "The monitor will prevent complications from the meconium in your fluid." 3. "The monitor helps us to see how the baby is tolerating labor." 4. "The monitor can be removed, and oxygen given instead."

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) provides a continuous tracing of the fetal heart rate (FHR), allowing characteristics of the FHR to be observed and evaluated.

A client dilated to 5 cm has just received an epidural for pain. She complains of feeling lightheaded and dizzy within 10 minutes after the procedure. Her blood pressure was 120/80 before the procedure and is now 80/52. In addition to the bolus of fluids she has been given, which medication is preferred to increase her BP? 1. Epinephrine 2. Terbutaline 3. Ephedrine 4. Epifoam

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Ephedrine is the medication of choice to increase maternal blood pressure.

The client with a normal pregnancy had an emergency cesarean birth under general anesthesia 2 hours ago. The client now has a respiratory rate of 30, pale blue nail beds, a pulse rate of 110, and a temperature of 102.6°F, and is complaining of chest pain. The nurse understands that the client most likely is experiencing which of the following? 1. Pulmonary embolus 2. Pneumococcal pneumonia 3. Pneumonitis 4. Gastroesophageal reflux disease

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Even when food and fluids have been withheld, the gastric juice produced during fasting is highly acidic and can produce chemical pneumonitis if aspirated. This pneumonitis is known as Mendelson syndrome. The signs and symptoms are chest pain, respiratory distress, cyanosis, fever, and tachycardia. Women undergoing emergency cesarean births appear to be at considerable risk for adverse events.

Which of the following is a major side effect of butorphanol tartrate (Stadol)? 1. Blurred vision 2. Agitation 3. Feelings of dysphoria 4. Drowsiness

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Feelings of dysphoria are a major side effect of Stardol.

The client is being admitted to the birthing unit. As the nurse begins the assessment, the client's partner asks why the fetus's heart rate will be monitored. After the nurse explains, which statement by the partner indicates a need for further teaching? 1. "The fetus's heart rate will vary between 110 and 160." 2. "The heart rate is monitored to see whether the fetus is tolerating labor." 3. "By listening to the heart, we can tell the gender of the fetus." 4. "After listening to the heart rate, you will contact the midwife."

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Fetal heart rate is not a predictor of gender.

The nurse is providing preoperative teaching to a client for whom a cesarean birth under general anesthesia is scheduled for the next day. Which statement by the client indicates that she requires additional information? 1. "General anesthesia can be accomplished with inhaled gases." 2. "General anesthesia usually involves administering medication into my IV." 3. "General anesthesia will provide good pain relief after the birth." 4. "General anesthesia takes effect faster than an epidural

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. General anesthesia provides no pain relief after birth, as regional anesthesia does.

A client's labor has progressed so rapidly that a precipitous birth is occurring. What should the nurse do? 1. Go to the nurse's station and immediately call the physician. 2. Run to the delivery room for an emergency birth pack. 3. Stay with the client and ask auxiliary personnel for assistance. 4. Hold back the infant's head forcibly until the physician arrives for the delivery.

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. If birth is imminent, the nurse must not leave the client alone.

The labor and delivery nurse is preparing a prenatal class about facilitating the progress of labor. Which of the following frequent responses to pain should the nurse indicate is most likely to impede progress in labor? 1. Increased pulse 2. Elevated blood pressure 3. Muscle tension 4. Increased respirations

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. It is important for the woman to relax each part of her body. Be alert for signs of muscle tension and tightening. Dissociative relaxation, controlled muscle relaxation, and specified breathing patterns are used to promote birth as a normal process.

Two hours after an epidural infusion has begun, a client complains of itching on her face and neck. What should the nurse do? 1. Remove the epidural catheter and apply a Band-Aid to the injection site. 2. Offer the client a cool cloth and let her know the itching is temporary. 3. Recognize that this is a common side effect, and follow protocol for administration of Benadryl. 4. Call the anesthesia care provider to re-dose the epidural catheter.

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Itching is a side effect of the medication used for an epidural infusion. Benadryl, an antihistamine, can be administered to manage pruritus.

The nurse is analyzing several fetal heart rate patterns. The pattern that would be of most concern to the nurse would be which of the following? 1. Moderate variability 2. Early decelerations 3. Late decelerations 4. Accelerations

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency. The late deceleration pattern is considered a nonreassuring sign.

The labor and delivery nurse is assigned to four clients in early labor. Which electronic fetal monitoring finding would require immediate intervention? 1. Early decelerations with each contraction 2. Variable decelerations that recover to the baseline 3. Late decelerations with minimal variability 4. Accelerations

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Late decelerations are considered a nonreassuring fetal heart rate (FHR) pattern, and therefore require immediate intervention.

The client presents to the labor and delivery unit stating that her water broke 2 hours ago. Barring any abnormalities, how often would the nurse expect to take the client's temperature? 1. Every hour 2. Every 2 hours 3. Every 4 hours 4. Every shift

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Maternal temperature is taken every 4 hours unless it is above 37.5°C. If elevated, it is taken every hour.

After noting meconium-stained amniotic fluid and fetal heart rate decelerations, the physician diagnoses a depressed fetus. The appropriate nursing action at this time would be to do what? 1. Increase the mother's oxygen rate. 2. Turn the mother to the left lateral position. 3. Prepare the mother for a higher-risk delivery. 4. Increase the intravenous infusion rate.

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Meconium-stained fluid and heart rate decelerations are indications that delivery is considered higher-risk.

After nalbuphine hydrochloride (Nubain) is administered, labor progresses rapidly, and the baby is born less than 1 hour later. The baby shows signs of respiratory depression. Which medication should the nurse be prepared to administer to the newborn? 1. Fentanyl (Sublimaze) 2. Butorphanol tartrate (Stadol) 3. Naloxone (Narcan) 4. Pentobarbital (Nembutal)

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Narcan is useful for respiratory depression caused by nalbuphine (Nubain). Respiratory depression in the mother or fetus/newborn can be improved by the administration of naloxone (Narcan), which is a specific antagonist for this agent.

The client at 39 weeks' gestation calls the clinic and reports increased bladder pressure but easier breathing and irregular, mild contractions. She also states that she just cleaned the entire house. Which statement should the nurse make? 1. "You shouldn't work so much at this point in pregnancy." 2. "What you are describing is not commonly experienced in the last weeks." 3. "Your body may be telling you it is going into labor soon." 4. "If the bladder pressure continues, come in to the clinic tomorrow."

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. One of the premonitory signs of labor is lightening: The fetus begins to settle into the pelvic inlet (engagement). With fetal descent, the uterus moves downward, and the fundus no longer presses on the diaphragm, which eases breathing.

A young adolescent is transferred to the labor and delivery unit from the emergency department. The client is in active labor, but did not know she was pregnant. What is the most important nursing action? 1. Determine who might be the father of the baby for paternity testing. 2. Ask the client what kind of birthing experience she would like to have. 3. Assess blood pressure and check for proteinuria. 4. Obtain a Social Services referral to discuss adoption.

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Preeclampsia is more common among adolescents than in young adults, and is potentially life-threatening to both mother and fetus. This assessment is the highest priority.

A client who wishes to have an unmedicated birth is in the transition stage. She is very uncomfortable and turns frequently in the bed. Her partner has stepped out momentarily. How can the nurse be most helpful? 1. Talk to the client the entire time. 2. Turn on the television to distract the client. 3. Stand next to the bed with hands on the railing next to the client. 4. Sit silently in the room away from the bed.

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Standing next to the bed is supportive without being irritating. The laboring woman fears being alone during labor. The woman's anxiety may be decreased when the nurse remains with her.

An expectant father has been at the bedside of his laboring partner for more than 12 hours. An appropriate nursing intervention would be to do which of the following? 1. Insist that he leave the room for at least the next hour. 2. Tell him he is not being as effective as he was, and that he needs to let someone else take over. 3. Offer to remain with his partner while he takes a break. 4. Suggest that the client's mother might be of more help.

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Support persons frequently are reluctant to leave the laboring woman to take care of their own needs. The laboring woman often fears being alone during labor. Even though there is a support person available, the woman's anxiety may be decreased when the nurse remains with her while he takes a break.

A laboring client asks the nurse, "Why does the physician want to use an intrauterine pressure catheter (IUPC) during my labor?" The nurse would accurately explain that the best rationale for using an IUPC is which of the following? 1. The IUPC can be used throughout the birth process. 2. A tocodynamometer is invasive. 3. The IUPC provides more accurate data than does the tocodynamometer. 4. The tocodynamometer can be used only after the cervix is dilated 2 cm.

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. The IUPC has several benefits over an external tocotransducer or palpation. Because the IUPC is inserted directly into the uterus, it provides near-exact pressure measurements for contraction intensity and uterine resting tone. The increased sensitivity of the IUPC allows for very accurate timing of uterine contractions (UCs).

The student nurse is to perform Leopold maneuvers on a laboring client. Which assessment requires intervention by the staff nurse? 1. The client is assisted into supine position, and the position of the fetus is assessed. 2. The upper portion of the uterus is palpated, then the middle section. 3. After determining where the back is located, the cervix is assessed. 4. Following voiding, the client's abdomen is palpated from top to bottom.

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. The cervical exam is not part of Leopold maneuvers. Abdominal palpation is the only technique used for Leopold maneuvers.

The nurse has just palpated contractions and compares the consistency to that of the forehead to estimate the firmness of the fundus. What would the intensity of these contractions be identified as? 1. Mild 2. Moderate 3. Strong 4. Weak

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. The consistency of strong contractions is similar to that of the forehead.

The nurse is aware that labor and birth will most likely proceed normally when the fetus is in what position? 1. Right-acromion-dorsal-anterior 2. Right-sacrum-transverse 3. Occiput anterior 4. Posterior position

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. The most common fetal position is occiput anterior. When this position occurs, labor and birth are likely to proceed normally.

A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit with contractions that are regular, are 2 minutes apart, and last 60 seconds. She reports that her labor began about 6 hours ago, and she had bloody show earlier that morning. A vaginal exam reveals a vertex presenting, with the cervix 100% effaced and 8 cm dilated. The client asks what part of labor she is in. The nurse should inform the client that she is in what phase of labor? 1. Latent phase 2. Active phase 3. Transition phase 4. Fourth stage

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. The transition phase begins with 8 cm of dilatation, and is characterized by contractions that are closer and more intense.

A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit with contractions that are 2 minutes apart, lasting 60 seconds. She reports that she had bloody show earlier that morning. A vaginal exam reveals that her cervix is 100 percent effaced and 8 cm dilated. The nurse knows that the client is in which phase of labor? 1. Active 2. Latent 3. Transition 4. Fourth

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. The transition phase begins with 8 cm to 10 cm of dilatation, and contractions become more frequent, are longer in duration, and increase in intensity.

The nurse is admitting a client to the labor and delivery unit. Which aspect of the client's history requires notifying the physician? 1. Blood pressure 120/88 2. Father a carrier of sickle-cell trait 3. Dark red vaginal bleeding 4. History of domestic abuse

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Third-trimester bleeding is caused by either placenta previa or abruptio placentae. Dark red bleeding usually indicates abruptio placentae, which is life-threatening to both mother and fetus.

At 1 minute after birth, the infant has a heart rate of 100 beats per minute, and is crying vigorously. The limbs are flexed, the trunk is pink, and the feet and hands are cyanotic. The infant cries easily when the soles of the feet are stimulated. How would the nurse document this infant's Apgar score? 1. 7 2. 8 3. 9 4. 10

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Two points each are scored in each of the categories of heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. One point is scored in the category of skin color. The total Apgar would be 9.

The labor and birth nurse is admitting a client. The nurse's assessment includes asking the client whom she would like to have present for the labor and birth, and what the client would prefer to wear. The client's partner asks the nurse the reason for these questions. What would the nurse's best response be? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. "These questions are asked of all women. It's no big deal." 2. "I'd prefer that your partner ask me all the questions, not you." 3. "A client's preferences for her birth are important for me to understand." 4. "Many women have beliefs about childbearing that affect these choices." 5. "I'm gathering information that the nurses will use after the birth."

Answer: 3, 4 Explanation: 3. The nurse incorporates the family's expectations into the plan of care to be culturally appropriate and to facilitate the birth. 4. The nurse incorporates the family's expectations into the plan of care to be culturally appropriate and to facilitate the birth.

The nurse is caring for laboring clients. Which women are experiencing problems related to a critical factor of labor? Note: Credit will be given only for all correct choices and no incorrect choices. Select all that apply. 1. Woman at 7 cm, fetus in general flexion 2. Woman at 3 cm, fetus in longitudinal lie 3. Woman at 4 cm, fetus with transverse lie 4. Woman at 6 cm, fetus at -2 station, mild contractions 5. Woman at 5 cm, fetal presenting part is right shoulder

Answer: 3, 4, 5 Explanation: 3. A transverse lie occurs when the cephalocaudal axis of the fetal spine is at a right angle to the woman's spine and is associated with a shoulder presentation and can lead to complications in the later stages of labor. 4. Station refers to the relationship of the presenting part to an imaginary line drawn between the ischial spines of the maternal pelvis. If the presenting part is higher than the ischial spines, a negative number is assigned, noting centimeters above zero station. A -2 station is high in the pelvis. Contractions should be strong to cause fetal descent. Mild contractions will not move the baby down or open the cervix. This client is experiencing a problem between the maternal pelvis and the presenting part. 5. When the fetal shoulder is the presenting part, the fetus is in a transverse lie and the acromion process of the scapula is the landmark. This type of presentation occurs less than 1% of the time. This client is experiencing a problem between the maternal pelvis and the presenting part.

An abbreviated systematic physical assessment of the newborn is performed by the nurse in the birthing area to detect any abnormalities. Normal findings would include which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Skin color: Body blue with pinkish extremities 2. Umbilical cord: two veins and one artery 3. Respiration rate of 30-60 irregular 4. Temperature of above 36.5°C (97.8°F) 5. Sole creases that involve the heel

Answer: 3, 4, 5 Explanation: 3. Normal findings would include a respiration rate of 30-60 irregular. 4. Normal findings would include temperature of above 36.5°C (97.8°F). 5. Normal findings would include sole creases that involve the heel.

The midwife performs a vaginal exam and determines that the fetal head is at a -2 station. What does this indicate to the nurse about the birth? 1. The birth is imminent. 2. The birth is likely to occur in 1-2 hours. 3. The birth will occur later in the shift. 4. The birth is difficult to predict.

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. A -2 station means that the fetus is 2 cm above the ischial spines. The ischial spines as a landmark have been designated as zero station. If the presenting part is higher than the ischial spines, a negative number is assigned, noting centimeters above zero station. With the fetus's head that high in the pelvis, it is difficult to predict when birth will occur.

The nurse is preparing to assess a laboring client who has just arrived in the labor and birth unit. Which statement by the client indicates that additional education is needed? 1. "You are going to do a vaginal exam to see how dilated my cervix is." 2. "The reason for a pelvic exam is to determine how low in the pelvis my baby is." 3. "When you check my cervix, you will find out how thinned out it is." 4. "After you assess my pelvis, you will be able to tell when I will deliver."

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. An experienced labor and birth nurse can estimate the time of delivery based on the cervix, fetal position, station, and contraction pattern. However, during a pelvic exam, no information is obtained about contractions. The nurse will not have enough information following the cervical exam to estimate time of birth.

Toward the end of the first stage of labor, a pudendal block is administered transvaginally. What will the nurse anticipate the client's care will include? 1. Monitoring for hypotension every 15 minutes 2. Monitoring FHR every 15 minutes 3. Monitoring for bladder distention 4. No additional assessments

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. Because a pudendal block is done using a local anesthetic, there is no need for additional monitoring of the mother or the fetus.

As compared with admission considerations for an adult woman in labor, the nurse's priority for an adolescent in labor would be which of the following? 1. Cultural background 2. Plans for keeping the infant 3. Support persons 4. Developmental level

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. Because her cognitive development is incomplete, the younger adolescent may have fewer problem-solving capabilities. The very young woman needs someone to rely on at all times during labor. She may be more childlike and dependent than older teens.

The nurse is caring for a laboring client. A cervical exam indicates 8 cm dilation. The client is restless, frequently changing position in an attempt to get comfortable. Which nursing action is most important? 1. Leave the client alone so she can rest. 2. Ask the family to take a coffee-and-snack break. 3. Encourage the client to have an epidural for pain. 4. Reassure the client that she will not be left alone.

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. Because the client is in the transitional phase of the first stage of labor, she will not want to be left alone; staying with the client and reassuring her that she will not be alone are the highest priorities at this time.

A client is having contractions that last 20-30 seconds and that are occurring every 8-20 minutes. The client is requesting something to help relieve the discomfort of contractions. What should the nurse suggest? 1. That a mild analgesic be administered 2. An epidural 3. A local anesthetic block 4. Nonpharmacologic methods of pain relief

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. For this pattern of labor, nonpharmacologic methods of pain relief should be suggested. These can include back rubs, providing encouragement, and clean linens.

The nurse has presented a session on pain relief options to a prenatal class. Which statement indicates that additional teaching is needed? 1. "An epidural can be continuous or can be given in one dose." 2. "A spinal is usually used for a cesarean birth." 3. "Pudendal blocks are effective when a vacuum is needed." 4. "Local anesthetics provide good labor pain relief."

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. Local anesthetics are not used for labor pain relief. They are used prior to episiotomy and for laceration repair.

The client has stated that she wants to avoid an epidural and would like an unmedicated birth. Which nursing action is most important for this client? 1. Encourage the client to vocalize during contractions. 2. Perform vaginal exams only between contractions. 3. Provide a CD of soft music with sounds of nature. 4. Offer to teach the partner how to massage tense muscles.

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. Massage is helpful for many clients, especially during latent and active labor. Massage can increase relaxation and therefore decrease tension and pain.

A woman is in labor. The fetus is in vertex position. When the client's membranes rupture, the nurse sees that the amniotic fluid is meconium-stained. What should the nurse do immediately? 1. Change the client's position in bed. 2. Notify the physician that birth is imminent. 3. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per minute. 4. Begin continuous fetal heart rate monitoring.

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid is an abnormal fetal finding, and is an indication for continuous fetal monitoring.

The nurse has just palpated a laboring woman's contractions. The uterus cannot be indented during a contraction. What would the intensity of these contractions best be characterized as? 1. Weak 2. Mild 3. Moderate 4. Strong

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. Strong intensity exists when the uterine wall cannot be indented.

When comparing the anterior and posterior fontanelles of a newborn, the nurse knows that both are what? 1. Both are approximately the same size 2. Both close within 12 months of birth 3. Both are used in labor to identify station 4. Both allow for assessing the status of the newborn after birth

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. The anterior and posterior fontanelles are clinically useful in identifying the position of the fetal head in the pelvis and in assessing the status of the newborn after birth.

During the fourth stage of labor, the client's assessment includes a BP of 110/60, pulse 90, and the fundus is firm midline and halfway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus. What is the priority action of the nurse? 1. Turn the client onto her left side. 2. Place the bed in Trendelenburg position. 3. Massage the fundus. 4. Continue to monitor.

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. The client's assessment data are normal for the fourth stage of labor, so monitoring is the only action necessary. During the fourth stage of labor, the mother experiences a moderate drop in both systolic and diastolic blood pressure, increased pulse pressure, and moderate tachycardia.

During a maternal assessment, the nurse determines the fetus to be in a left occiput anterior (LOA) position. Auscultation of the fetal heart rate should begin in what quadrant? 1. Right upper quadrant 2. Left upper quadrant 3. Right lower quadrant 4. Left lower quadrant

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. The fetal heart rate (FHR) is heard most clearly at the fetal back. Thus, in a cephalic presentation, the FHR is best heard in the lower quadrant of the maternal abdomen.

While caring for a client in labor, the nurse notices during a vaginal exam that the fetus's head has rotated internally. What would the nurse expect the next set of cardinal movements for a fetus in a vertex presentation to be? 1. Flexion, extension, restitution, external rotation, and expulsion 2. Expulsion, external rotation, and restitution 3. Restitution, flexion, external rotation, and expulsion 4. Extension, restitution, external rotation, and expulsion

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. The fetus changes position in the following order: descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, restitution, external rotation, and expulsion.

A client has just been admitted for labor and delivery. She is having mild contractions lasting 30 seconds every 15 minutes. The client wants to have a medication-free birth. When discussing medication alternatives, the nurse should be sure the client understands which of the following? 1. In order to respect her wishes, no medication will be given. 2. Pain relief will allow a more enjoyable birth experience. 3. The use of medications allows the client to rest and be less fatigued. 4. Maternal pain and stress can have a more adverse effect on the fetus than would a small amount of analgesia.

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. The nurse can explain to the couple that, although pharmacologic agents do affect the fetus, so do the pain and stress experienced by the laboring mother. If the woman's pain and anxiety are more than she can cope with, the adverse physiologic effects on the fetus may be as great as would occur with the administration of a small amount of an analgesic agent. Once the effects are explained, however, it is still the client's choice whether to receive medication.

Prior to receiving lumbar epidural anesthesia, the nurse would anticipate placing the laboring client in which position? 1. On her right side in the center of the bed with her back curved 2. Lying prone with a pillow under her chest 3. On her left side with the bottom leg straight and the top leg slightly flexed 4. Sitting on the edge of the bed

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. The woman is positioned on her left or right side, at the edge of the bed with the assistance of the nurse, with her legs slightly flexed, or she is asked to sit on the edge of the bed.

Why is it important for the nurse to assess the bladder regularly and encourage the laboring client to void frequently? 1. A full bladder impedes oxygen flow to the fetus. 2. Frequent voiding prevents bruising of the bladder. 3. Frequent voiding encourages sphincter control. 4. A full bladder can impede fetal descent.

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. The woman should be encouraged to void because a full bladder can interfere with fetal descent. If the woman is unable to void, catheterization may be necessary.

The charge nurse has received the shift change report. Which client requires immediate intervention? 1. Woman at 6 cm undergoing induction of labor, strong contractions every 3 minutes 2. Woman at 4 cm whose fetus is in a longitudinal lie with a cephalic presentation 3. Woman at 10 cm and fetus at +2 station experiencing a strong expulsion urge 4. Woman at 3 cm screaming in fear because her mother died during childbirth

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. This client is most likely fearful that she will die during labor because her mother died during childbirth. This client requires education and a great deal of support, and is therefore the top priority.

The nurse is orienting a new graduate nurse to the labor and birth unit. Which statement indicates that teaching has been effective? 1. "When a client arrives in labor, a urine specimen is obtained by catheter to check for protein and ketones." 2. "When a client arrives in labor, she will be positioned supine to facilitate a normal blood pressure." 3. "When a client arrives in labor, her prenatal record is reviewed for indications of domestic abuse." 4. "When a client arrives in labor, a vaginal exam is performed unless birth appears to be imminent."

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. Unless delivery seems imminent because the client is bearing down or contractions are very close and strong, the vaginal exam is performed after the vital signs are obtained.

After several hours of labor, the electronic fetal monitor (EFM) shows repetitive variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate. The nurse would interpret the decelerations to be consistent with which of the following? 1. Breech presentation 2. Uteroplacental insufficiency 3. Compression of the fetal head 4. Umbilical cord compression

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. Variable decelerations occur when there is umbilical cord compression.

During the initial intrapartal assessment of a client in early labor, the nurse performs a vaginal examination. The client's partner asks why this pelvic exam needs to be done. The nurse should explain that the purpose of the vaginal exam is to obtain information about which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Uterine contraction pattern 2. Fetal position 3. Presence of the mucous plug 4. Cervical dilation and effacement 5. Presenting part

Answer: 4, 5 Explanation: 4. The vaginal examination of a laboring client obtains information about the station of the presenting part and the dilation and effacement of the cervix. 5. The vaginal examination of a laboring client obtains information about the fetal presenting part.

A woman who is 40 weeks pregnant calls the labor suite to ask whether she should be evaluated. Which statements by the client indicate she is likely in labor? Note: Credit will be given only for all correct choices and no incorrect choices. Select all that apply. 1. "The contractions are 5-20 minutes apart." 2. "I had pink discharge on the toilet paper." 3. "I have had cramping for the past 3-4 hours." 4. "The contractions start in my back and then go to my abdomen and are very intense." 5. "The contractions hurt more when I walk."

Answer: 4, 5 Explanation: 4. This is a sign of true labor. The contractions increase in duration and intensity and begin in the back and radiate around to the abdomen. 5. It is a sign of true labor when the client is unable to walk during the contraction.