ob test 2

The nurse is developing a presentation for a community group of young adults discussing fetal development and pregnancy. The nurse would identify that the sex of offspring is determined at the time of: a) fertilization. b) meiosis. c) formation of morula. d) oogenesis.

fertilization. Sex determination occurs at the time of fertilization. Meiosis refers to cell division resulting in the formation of an ovum or sperm with half the number of chromosomes. The morula develops after a series of four cleavages following the formation of the zygote. Oogenesis refers to the development of a mature ovum, which has half the number of chromosomes. (less) advanced maternal age

A gravida 2 para 1 client in the 10th week of her pregnancy says to the nurse, "I've never urinated as often as I have for the past three weeks." Which response would be most appropriate for the nurse to make? a) "By the time you are 12 weeks pregnant, this frequent urination should really decrease, but it is likely to return toward the end of your pregnancy." b) "Having to urinate so often is annoying. I suggest that you watch how much fluid you are drinking and limit it." c) "Women having their second child generally don't have frequent urination. Are you experiencing any burning sensations?" d) "You shouldn't be urinating this frequently now; it usually stops by the time you're eight weeks pregnant. Is there anything else bothering you?"

"By the time you are 12 weeks pregnant, this frequent urination should really decrease, but it is likely to return toward the end of your pregnancy." As the uterus grows, it presses on the urinary bladder, causing the increased frequency of urination during the first trimester. This complaint lessens during the second trimester only to reappear in the third trimester as the fetus begins to descend into the pelvis, causing pressure on the bladder

A couple has just learned that their son will be born with Down syndrome. The nurse shows a lack of understanding when making which statement? a) "I will alert your entire family about this so you don't have to." b) "I will give you as much information as I can about this condition." c) "We have counseling services available, and I recommend them to everyone facing these circumstances." d) "I will support you in any decision that you make."

"I will alert your entire family about this so you don't have to." It is necessary to maintain confidentiality at all times, which prevents health care providers from alerting family members about any inherited characteristic unless the family member has given consent for the information to be revealed.

The nurse is seeing a client who is going to be married in a month. This client has a history of Huntington disease in her family. The genetic testing has come back, and the client has just been told she carries the gene for Huntington disease and will develop the disease when she gets older. The client asks the nurse if this information is confidential and if it will remain that way. The nurse explains to the client that her family should be told and so should her fiancé. The client forcefully tells the nurse "no." She is not going to tell either her family or her fiancé. What is the nurse's best response? a) "Have you thought about what this disease will do to the person you are going to marry and any children you may have?" b) "I will respect your wishes and keep your information confidential. I do wish you would reconsider though" c) "I am ethically bound to tell your family and your fiancé." d) "Your information will remain confidential until the geneticist reviews everything. Then he will have to tell your family."

"I will respect your wishes and keep your information confidential. I do wish you would reconsider though" The nurse must honor the client's wishes while explaining to the client the potential benefit this information may have for other family members. The other answers are incorrect because the nurse has to honor the wishes of her client.

You are caring for a couple who are trying to get pregnant and have not been able to for over a year. You explain to the couple that diagnostic testing usually begins on the male partner, as these tests are easier. The couple asks what kind of problems a man can have that can cause infertility. What should be the nurse's response? a) "Men can have increased prolactin levels that decrease sperm viability." b) "Men can have problems that increase the temperature around their testicles, which decreases the quality of their semen." c) "Men may not have enough estrogen and FSH in their bodies to maintain testicular function." d) "Men may ejaculate into the bladder instead of the vagina."

"Men can have problems that increase the temperature around their testicles, which decreases the quality of their semen." Men may be affected by varicoceles, varicose veins around the testicle, which decrease semen quality by increasing testicular temperature. Retrograde ejaculation or ejaculation into the bladder is assessed by urinalysis after ejaculation. Blood tests for male partners may include measuring testosterone; FSH and LH (both of which are involved in maintaining testicular function); and prolactin levels. Therefore options

A couple is seeking guidance for their inability to conceive a child after trying for 15 months. They are morbidly obese but state they have friends with the same weight problem who have had no difficulty conceiving. What education can the nurse provide this couple to increase their chances of success? a) "Obesity may interfere with effective penetration and deposition of sperm. We will look at several factors to discover what issues you may be encountering." b) "If you have been trying for this long without success, something must be wrong. So we will need to run a series of tests to see what that is." c) "Being this overweight is unhealthy for you and for any child that you may bring into the world. Before you consider conceiving, you should lose weight." d) "Weight has no bearing on the ability to conceive. Something else must be going on with your reproductive organs."

"Obesity may interfere with effective penetration and deposition of sperm. We will look at several factors to discover what issues you may be encountering." Extreme obesity in a male may interfere with effective penetration and deposition of sperm, compromising the ability to conceive

The nurse is teaching a prenatal class about preparing for their expanding families. What is helpful advice from the nurse? a) "The hormones of pregnancy may cause anxiety or depression postpartum." b) "Caring for your new infant is instinctual and will come naturally to you." c) "Your old coping methods will adequately get you through this period of adjustment." d) "Expect your other children to react positively to their new brother/sister."

"The hormones of pregnancy may cause anxiety or depression postpartum." The "raging hormones"of pregnancy can keep the woman slightly out of touch with her usual methods of coping. Although she may normally interact and communicate in quite mature ways, during a pregnancy, she may become depressed, anxious, withdrawn, or angry as she accomplishes her own developmental tasks. Siblings often react to a pregnancy by regression in behavior and attitude because they fear that they will be replaced or unloved. In addition to anticipatory guidance concerning the alterations in family structure and functioning, prenatal preparation for first-time parents involves learning the basics of infant care and preparing for infant feeding, particularly for women who plan to breastfeed

A client at 36 weeks' gestation comes in for her weekly primary care provider visit. She tells the nurse, "I am having contractions, but they are irregular and go away when I rest. Do you think I am going into labor?" The best response by the nurse would be: a) "I think we better send you to the hospital for admission. You could be in labor." b) "These are called Braxton-Hicks contractions and are preparing your body for labor but are not 'true' labor contractions." c) "It is too early for you too be in labor. Something may be wrong with the pregnancy." d) "I think you are going into labor. We may need to give you medications to stop the contractions."

"These are called Braxton-Hicks contractions and are preparing your body for labor but are not 'true' labor contractions." Braxton-Hicks contractions prepare the body for labor. They are usually irregular in frequency and duration, with fewer than five contractions occurring in 1 hour. They are also short but may be painful. They may begin as early as the second trimester, especially for women who have had babies before, but are more common in the third trimester. They often resolve with position changes, a hot shower, hydration, or relaxation

A pregnant client is scheduled to undergo chorionic villi sampling (CVS) to rule out any birth defects. Ideally, when should this testing be completed? a) 5 to 6 weeks of gestation b) 10 to 12 weeks of gestation c) 7 to 9 weeks of gestation d) 4 to 5 weeks of gestation

10 to 12 weeks of gestation Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is typically performed between 10 to 12 weeks' gestation. Sometimes it may be offered up to 14 weeks. The test is not conducted before 10 weeks' gestation

Subfertility/infertility is said to exist when a couple has failed to achieve pregnancy after how many months of unprotected sexual intercourse?

12 months

A male client has undergone a semen analysis for evaluation of fertility. The nurse understands that which sperm count would suggest infertility? a) 75 million/mL b) 100 million /mL c) 50 million/mL d) 18 million/mL

18 million/mL A sperm count of fewer than 20 million spermatozoa per milliliter results in infertility. Normal sperm count ranges on average from 60 to 100 million /mL.

A client who is 4 months pregnant is at the prenatal clinic for her initial visit. Her history reveals she has 7-year-old twins who were born at 34 weeks gestation, a 2-year-old son born at 39 weeks gestation, and a spontaneous abortion 1 year ago at 6 weeks gestation. Using the GTPAL method, the nurse would document her obstetric history as: 3 2 1 0 3. 3 1 2 2 3. 4 1 1 1 3.

4 1 1 1 3 G #of pregnancys T #of term pregnancys P #of preterm A # before 20weeks L # of living kids

A couple comes to the clinic for preconception counseling and care. As part of the visit, the nurse teaches the couple about fertilization and initial development, stating that the zygote formed by the union of the ovum and sperm consists of how many chromosomes? a) 44 b) 23 c) 46 d) 22

46 With fertilization, the ovum, containing 23 chromosomes, and the sperm, containing 23 chromosomes, join, forming a zygote with a diploid number or 46 chromosomes

A friend tells the nurse that she is going to use a home pregnancy test to determine whether she is pregnant or not. Which precaution would the nurse give her? a) Wait until after two missed menstrual periods. b) Refrain from eating for 4 hours before testing. c) Use a diluted urine specimen. d) A positive home pregnancy test can have a false positive.

A positive home pregnancy test can have a false positive. Although home pregnancy tests are very accurate, they may still have false positives, and the client needs to seek prenatal care and confirmation from her health care provider. Diluting the urine, waiting to miss a second period, or eating before the test would have no effect. The tests look for HCG, which is not affected

Which postpartum complication is the nurse most likely to see in a mother who abuses marijuana? a) Infection b) Postpartum hemorrhage c) Inadequate milk production d) Hemorrhoids

A woman who frequently uses marijuana may have a reduction in milk production

Why is it important for the nurse to obtain a baseline blood pressure and carefully monitor a pregnant adolescent's blood pressure carefully at each visit? a) Adolescents eat more junk food than the average woman. b) Adolescents may have low blood pressure, which is more common than in older women. c) Adolescents are more prone to pregnancy-induced hypertension than the average woman. d) Adolescents do not take prescribed antihypertensive medication on a regular basis.

Adolescents are more prone to pregnancy-induced hypertension than the average woman. Because adolescents are more prone to pregnancy-induced hypertension than the average woman, establishing a baseline blood pressure is important. It is particularly important if an adolescent has not had her blood pressure measured since a preschool or school-age checkup as long as 10 years earlier

A pregnant client has heard about Down syndrome and wants to know about the risk factors associated with it. What would the nurse include as a risk factor? a) advanced maternal age b) family history of condition c) recurrent miscarriages d) advanced paternal age

Advanced maternal age is one the most important factors that increases the risk of an infant being born with Down syndrome. Down syndrome is not associated with advanced paternal age, recurrent miscarriages, or family history of Down syndrome

A nursing student correctly identifies that a person's outward appearance or expression of genes is referred to as the: a) genome. b) phenotype. c) allele. d) genotype.

Alleles are two like genes. Phenotype refers to a person's outward appearance or the expression of genes. Genotype refers to his or her actual gene composition. Genome is the complete set of genes present in a person trisomy numeric abnormality.

A young woman is newly married and is seeking advice on contraception. She is in a monogamous relationship and would like a temporary contraceptive, as she plans to have children in the future. Her husband dislikes the feel of condoms. Also, she mentions that she typically experiences dysmenorrhea and has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections. Which method should the nurse recommend? a) diaphragm b) oral contraceptive c) postcoital douching d) vasectomy

An oral contraceptive would be the best choice of those listed for this client, as it is a temporary contraceptive that also can help relieve dysmenorrhea. Postcoital douching is ineffective as a contraceptive measure as sperm may be present in cervical mucus as quickly as 90 seconds after ejaculation. Diaphragms are contraindicated for women with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections. Vasectomy is a permanent measure and thus inappropriate in this situation

A client desires protection from unwanted pregnancies. However, the client does not enjoy sex when her partner wears a male condom. Also, the client experiences breast tenderness, headache, and nausea after taking oral contraceptives. Which method would be the most likely choice for the couple to help them enhance their sexual experience as well as prevent any side effects? a) natural membrane condom b) transdermal contraceptive c) polyurethane condom d) ethinyl estradiol

Application of transdermal contraceptive patches to the skin would most likely be the option for this couple. These patches will not hamper the sexual experience nor cause side effects such as those caused by oral contraceptives. Natural membrane and polyurethane condoms are forms of male condoms, which the client does not like. Ethinyl estradiol is a combined oral contraceptive, which would most likely cause the client to experience breast tenderness, headache, and nausea

A woman has just learned that she is pregnant and would like to know how soon she can find out via ultrasound the sex of her fetus. The nurse should respond with which of the following? a) At about 6 months b) At about 2 months c) Fetal gender can only be determined by analysis of maternal serum d) At about 4 months

At about 4 months Although fetal gender is usually determined by an ultrasound screen at about 4 months, it can be determined as early as 7 weeks by analysis of maternal serum.

A male client visits a fertility clinic after one year of attempting unsuccessfully to impregnate his wife. What is a risk factor associated with male infertility? a) sperm density about 20 million/mL b) morphology of sperm within normal limits c) no or few sperm cells produced d) 2 to 5 mL of semen ejaculated

Azospermia or oligospermia (no or few sperm cells produced) is a risk factor affecting male infertility. Normally, the volume of semen ejaculated needs to be about 2-5 mL, with a density of sperm at about 20 million/mL. In addition to the number of sperm, the motility (movement), viability, and morphology (shape) of the sperm must be within normal limits

A nurse is instructing a woman on BBT method for fertility awareness. Which information would the nurse provide? a) Temperature should be taken prior to any activity every morning. b) It is the best method for predicting ovulation. c) It depends on the average temperature taken each morning. d) It can be taken with any type of thermometer.

BBT is the basal body temperature method and requires the women to take her temperature and record it every morning, first activity of the day before exiting the bed or other activities. A digital thermometer and using the same thermometer every day for accuracy should be taught

A 44-year-old client is experiencing postpartum hemorrhaging soon after the birth of her first child. She is frightened and asks the nurse what could be causing it. Which of the following should the nurse mention to the client? a) Because of her age, the client is more likely to develop hemophilia, which predisposes her to postpartum hemorrhaging b) Because of her age, the client is more likely to experience a uterus not contracting as readily in the postpartum period, which predisposes her to postpartum hemorrhaging c) Because of her age, the client is more likely to have a diet deficient in vitamin K, which predisposes her to postpartum hemorrhaging d) Because of her age, the client is more likely to have gestational hypertension, which predisposes her to postpartum hemorrhaging

Because of her age, the client is more likely to experience a uterus not contracting as readily in the postpartum period, which predisposes her to postpartum hemorrhaging Correct Explanation: Just as the cervix may not dilate as readily during labor due to inelasticity, the uterus may not contract as readily in the postpartum period. The result of this puts women over 40 at higher risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Hemophilia, vitamin K deficiency, and gestational hypertension are not indicated in the scenario and are less likely causes of postpartum hemorrhaging in this client

A client in the clinic requests birth control pills to prevent pregnancy. Upon taking a sexual history, the nurse realizes that the client has multiple partners. Which type of contraception would be the best for the nurse to suggest? a) calendar method b) natural method c) birth control pills d) condoms

Because this client has multiple partners, there is concern over risk for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) as well as pregnancy. Condoms are the only contraception that protects against STIs, which is an important concern if the client is not in a monogamous relationship

A nursing student is preparing an oral presentation about autosomal recessive inheritance. What must occur for an offspring to demonstrate signs and symptoms of the disorder with this type of inheritance? a) The mother must be a carrier. b) Both parents must be heterozygous carriers. c) The father must be affected by the disease. d) One parent must have the disease.

Both parents must be heterozygous carriers.Autosomal recessive inheritance occurs when two copies of the mutant or abnormal gene in the homozygous state are necessary to produce the phenotype. In other words, two abnormal genes are needed for the individual to demonstrate signs and symptoms of the disorder. Both parents of the affected person must be heterozygous carriers of the gene (clinically normal, but carriers of the gene).

A 41-year-old client in week 11 of her pregnancy has arrived for a prenatal visit. Which of the following assessments should the nurse offer to the client specifically because of the client's age? a) Chromosomal assessment b) Blood pressure measurement c) Nutrition assessment d) Blood glucose level

Chromosomal assessment Because the risk for Down syndrome is higher in older women than in younger women, offer a quad-screen or an integrated screen (sometimes referred to as a sequential screen) in order to detect if an open spinal cord or chromosomal defect could be present in the fetus. Blood pressure measurement, blood glucose level, and nutrition assessment are all normal assessments that should be made for any pregnant client, not specifically for those who are over age 40. (

A 40-year-old female client with a chronic pelvic infection expresses her desire to conceive post-treatment. When discussing this with the client the nurse keeps in mind that the client is at increased risk for which of the following? a) Decreased menses b) Symptoms of menopause c) Ectopic pregnancy d) Gestational diabetes

Chronic pelvic infection increases the risk for narrowed or blocked fallopian tubes. It decreases the possibility of fertility or increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy. Only in case of a premature ovarian failure will the client experience symptoms of menopause earlier than expected. A client with hyperthyroidism will experience decreased or absent menses. The client with chronic pelvic infection is not susceptible to gestational diabetes. Clients with multiple gestations are more susceptible to gestational diabetes

Amanda is about 16 weeks pregnant and is concerned because she feels her "abdomen" contracting. She calls the primary care provider's office and speaks to the nurse. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to Amanda's concern? a) "You have nothing to be concerned about. I am sure you are not feeling contractions at this point in your pregnancy." b) "You need to go to the emergency room right away." c) "What you are feeling are called Braxton Hicks contractions. They are considered practice contractions during pregnancy." d) "You need to come to the office to be examined."

Correct response: "What you are feeling are called Braxton Hicks contractions. They are considered practice contractions during pregnancy." Explanation: Braxton Hicks contractions are the painless, intermittent, "practice" contractions of pregnancy.

A couple wants to start a family. They are concerned that their child will be at risk for cystic fibrosis because they each have a cousin with cystic fibrosis. They are seeing a nurse practitioner for preconceptual counseling. What would the nurse practitioner tell them about cystic fibrosis? a) It is passed by mitochondrial inheritance. b) It is an autosomal dominant disorder. c) It is an autosomal recessive disorder. d) It is an X-linked inherited disorder.

Cystic fibrosis is autosomal recessive. Nurses also consider other issues when assessing the risk for genetic conditions in couples and families. For example, when obtaining a preconception or prenatal family history, the nurse asks if the prospective parents have common ancestors. This is important to know because people who are related have more genes in common than those who are unrelated, thus increasing their chance for having children with autosomal recessive inherited condition such as cystic fibrosis. Mitochondrial inheritance occurs with defects in energy conversion and affects the nervous system, kidney, muscle, and liver. X-linked inheritance, which has been inherited from a mutant allele of the mother, affects males. Autosomal dominant is an X-linked dominant genetic disease

As part of the assessment of a client's health history during the first prenatal visit, the nurse is having the client complete a 24-hour recall to establish what and how much the woman is eating. In which section of the health history should the nurse record this information? Day history/social profile Demographic data History of past illnesses

Day history and social profile along with other indie that the other reports such has daily activities nutrition elemnation sleep interperson interest and menstral information about length, heavy light, and the date of the last one

Use of which drug is associated with the highest risk of placental abruption? a) Cocaine b) Heroin c) Marijuana d) Alcohol

Explanation: Because cocaine is a potent vasoconstrictor, it can cause the placenta to prematurely separate from the wall of the uterus, causing placental abruption

A 26-year old mother of three children tells the nurse at her annual check-up that she does not want to have any more children; however, her religion forbids the use of contraceptive devices. Which of the following methods would be the best option for this client? a) Rhythm method b) Intrauterine device c) Hormonal method d) Diaphragm

Fertility awareness methods (FAMs) include the rhythm method, which involves limiting sexual intercourse to the time during the woman's menstrual cycle when she is most likely to be infertile. This method does not involve contraceptive devices. Barrier methods, such as diaphragms and IUDs interfere with conception by physically preventing sperm from fertilizing ova. Barriers work through mechanical and chemical means. Hormonal methods of birth control alter a woman's normal hormone level to prevent ovulation and thus the chances for conception

After the nurse describes fetal circulation to a pregnant woman, the woman asks why her fetus has a different circulation pattern than hers. When responding to the client, the nurse integrates understanding of what information? a) Fetal heart rates are rapid and circulation time is double that of adults. b) Fetal blood is thicker than that of adults and needs different pathways. c) Fetal blood has a higher oxygen saturation and circulates more slowly. d) Fetal circulation carries highly oxygenated blood to vital areas first.

Fetal circulation carries highly oxygenated blood to vital areas first while shunting it away from less vital ones. Fetal blood is not thicker than that of adults. Large volumes of oxygenated blood are not needed because the placenta essentially takes over the functions of the lung and liver during fetal life. Although fetal heart rates normally range from 120 to 160 beats per minute, circulation time is not doubled

When developing a teaching plan for a couple considering contraception options, the nurse would include which statement? a) "The best contraceptive is one that you will use correctly and consistently." b) "You should select one that is considered to be 100% effective." c) "The best one is the one that is the least expensive and most convenient." d) "A good contraceptive doesn't require a primary care provider's prescription."

For a contraceptive to be most effective, the client must be able to use it correctly and consistently. Even if a method is considered 100% effective, it is not the best choice if the couple does not use it correctly or consistently. Cost is a consideration, but the least expensive method is not necessarily the best choice. The need for a prescription is not relevant to the couple's choice

A client has been confirmed to be pregnant. She gives a history of two previous full-term normal pregnancies. How will the nurse classify the client's pregnancy history? G3, P0 G3, P2 G2, P1 G2, P3

G3, P2 G is for total # of pregnancys including current one and P is the # of babies born past 20 weeks

During a routine prenatal visit, a client, 36 weeks pregnant, states she has difficulty breathing and feels like her pulse rate is really fast. The nurse finds her pulse to be 100 beats per minute (increased from baseline readings of 70 to 74 beats per minute) and irregular, with bilateral crackles in the lower lung bases. The nurse would develop a plan of care identifying interventions to promote which area as the priority? tissue perfusion gas exchange activity anxiety

Has exchange r/t lung sounds. Women usually have an increased from baseline by 10-15 beats a min while pregnant but lungs should be clear

A clinic nurse explains to a client who is undergoing an infertility workup that the patency of her fallopian tubes will be checked. Which test is currently used to do this? a) computed tomography scan b) hysterosalpingography c) magnetic resonance imaging d) uterine biopsy

Hysterosalpingography is radiologic examination with radiopaque contrast of the fallopian tubes. It is widely used to assess the patency of the fallopian tubes in women who are subfertile

An intrauterine device has been inserted into a client as a requested birth control method. What is an advantage of intrauterine devices (IUDs)? a) decreased incidence of tubal pregnancies b) decreased incidence of pelvic inflammatory disease c) protection against sexually transmitted infections d) continuous protection without client's active participation

IUDs provide continuous protection without the need for the client's active participation. IUDs give no protection against sexually transmitted infections and may cause an increased incidence of pelvic inflammatory disease and tubal pregnancies

A young woman comes to the free clinic asking for birth control pills. Which factor best indicates that another type of contraception would be better for this client? a) frequency of sexual encounters b) cost of the pills c) age of her partner d) history of noncompliance with medications

If a woman has a history of poor compliance with medication, it might not be realistic for her to plan on taking an oral contraceptive every day

A nurse is helping a couple choose a contraception method that is right for them. Which is the least likely factor the nurse should consider? a) whether the method will affect sexual enjoyment b) ability to use a method correctly c) the popularity of the method among the couple's friends d) financial factors

Important things to consider when helping a couple to choose a method that will be right for them include the following: personal values, ability to use a method correctly, whether the method will affect sexual enjoyment, financial factors, whether a couple's relationship is short-term or long-term, prior experiences with contraception, and future plans. The popularity of the method is the least likely factor the nurse should consider

A new patient has come to the clinic. While the nurse is taking the patient's history, the patient tells the nurse she is trying to get pregnant and she is very fearful she will have another miscarriage. She states she has lost two pregnancies and she shares with the nurse that she does not know why she lost the babies. Based on this patient's history, what recommendation should the nurse make at the present time? a) Instruct her to continue to try to get pregnant b) Instruct her on chromosome testing studies c) Tell her to have an amniocentesis with the next pregnancy d) Let the patient know that her loss may not occur again

Instruct her on chromosome testing studies At the present time, the nurse should instruct the woman on chromosome studies. Chromosome studies may be needed at any age, depending on the indication. Two common indications are a suspected diagnosis such as Down syndrome and a history of two or more unexplained pregnancy losses, which the woman has described. The other answers are incorrect because instructing the woman to continue to try to get pregnant is redundant. The woman has already said she is trying to get pregnant. She should have an amniocentesis with the next pregnancy, but this is not as imperative as the chromosome studies. Telling the patient she will not experience another loss would be a belittling response. It is her choice to have the chromosome studies, but it is important that the nurse explain all the risks surrounding pregnancy and pregnancy loss based on the patient's history.

Inability to conceive can be very stressful on a couple. What is one psychological aspect of infertility? a) Emotional stability b) Couple becomes closer c) Loss of intimacy d) Growth of intimacy

Intimacy, love, and support—essential components of a couple's sexual relationship—may be lost because intercourse takes on a clinical and mechanical tone

A female patient had a tubal ligation 8 years ago. She has remarried, would like to have a pregnancy with her current husband, and is requesting a surgical procedure to reopen the tubes. What does the nurse inform her the success rate would be for this procedure? a) The success rate of the operation is not greater than 20% to 30%. b) The success rate of the operation is not greater than 50% to 60%. c) There is no possibility that the surgery would be a success after this length of time. d) The success rate of the operation is not greater than 70% to 80%.

Ligated fallopian tubes can be reopened surgically, but the success of the operation is not greater than 70% to 80%.

A nurse is taking a health history and social profile from a newly pregnant patient and asks the patient about physical activity. The nurse specifically investigates if the patient goes hiking or camping. The main reason the nurse asks about these activities is for which of the following? To determine if the patient is active To assess the patient's risk for Lyme disease To evaluate the patient's potential for exposure to shingles To better understand the patient's likes and dislikes

Lyme disease

A woman is to receive methotrexate and misoprostol to terminate a first-trimester pregnancy. When preparing the teaching plan for this client, the nurse understands that misoprostol works by: a) blocking the action of progesterone on the endometrium. b) acting as a toxin to the trophoblastic tissue. c) causing uterine contractions to expel the uterine contents. d) dilating the cervix.

Misoprostol works by causing uterine contractions, which help to expel the uterine contents. It has no effect on cervical dilation. Methotrexate is toxic to the trophoblastic tissue. Mifepristone blocks the action of progesterone, which is responsible for preparing the endometrium for implantation and then maintenance of the pregnancy

A woman in the 15th week of gestation is planning on terminating the pregnancy. The procedure done for second trimester terminations is which of the following? a) hysterotomy b) dilatation and extraction c) menstrual extraction d) dilatation and curettage

Most second-trimester terminations (12 to 16 weeks' gestation) are done by dilatation and vacuum extraction. A dilatation and curettage is done when a pregnancy is less than 13 weeks. If the gestational age for a pregnancy is more than 16 weeks, a hysterotomy is done. A menstrual extraction is the simplest of all and is performed on the basis of 5 to 7 weeks after the last menstrual period

A community health nurse is visiting a 16-year-old new mother. The nurse explains to the client and her mother the genetic screening that is required by the state's law. The client asks why it is important to have the testing done on the infant. What is the nurse's best response? a) "Genetic testing is a way to determine the rate of infectious disease." b) "This testing is required and you will not be able to refuse it. It usually is free so there is no reason to refuse it." c) "It is important to test newborns for PKU, congenital hypothyroidism, and galactosemia." d) "PKU, congenital hypothyroidism, and galactosemia are conditions that could result in disability or death if untreated."

PKU, congenital hypothyroidism, and galactosemia are conditions that could result in disability or death if untreated The first aim is to improve management, that is, identify people with treatable genetic conditions that could prove dangerous to their health if left untreated. The other answers are incorrect because genetic testing does not determine the rate of infectious disease. The other answers do not adequately explain the rationale for newborn testing

A woman in her 15th week of pregnancy is about to undergo amniocentesis. Which nursing intervention should be made first? a) Place the client in supine position. b) Obtain a signed consent form. c) Observe the fetal heart rate monitor. d) Have the client void.

Obtain a signed consent form. Nursing responsibilities for assessment procedures include seeing a signed consent form has been obtained as needed (necessary if the procedure poses any risk to the mother or fetus that would not otherwise be present, as is the case with amniocentesis). All of the answers are nursing interventions that should be made before or during amniocentesis, but having the client sign a consent form should be completed before the others

A client is beginning to take a combined oral contraceptive. Which of the following side effects will the nurse caution the client might be expected? Select all that apply. a) Headache b) Weight loss c) Breast tenderness d) Nausea e) Frequent urinary tract infections

The main side effects that women may experience are nausea, weight gain, headache, breast tenderness, breakthrough bleeding, monilial vaginal infections, mild hypertension, and depression

The majority of pregnancy terminations are done in cases in which the pregnancy threatens the mother's life. a) True b) False

The majority of pregnancy terminations are done for the following reasons: the pregnancy is unwanted because a woman chooses not to have a child at this time in her life for such reasons as being too young, not wanting to be a single parent, wanting no more children, having financial difficulties, or from failed contraception.

A 39-year-old woman is pregnant with her first child and appears to be thrilled about it. Now in her second trimester, she talks enthusiastically with the nurse about the latest maternity clothes she has bought and models them for the nurse. She also discusses the latest trends in health foods, which she has adopted since learning of her pregnancy. The nurse recognizes which primary emotional response to pregnancy in this client? a) introversion b) stress c) emotional lability d) narcissism

Self-centeredness (narcissism) may be an early reaction to pregnancy. A woman who previously was barely conscious of her body, who dressed in the morning with little thought about what to wear, suddenly begins to concentrate on these aspects of her life. She dresses so her pregnancy will or will not show. There is no evidence in this scenario of stress, introversion, or emotional lability

A pregnant woman of Jewish descent comes to the clinic for counseling and tells the nurse that she is worried her baby may be born with a genetic disorder. Which disease does the nurse identify to be a risk for this client's baby based on the family's ancestry? a) sickle cell anemia b) Tay-Sachs c) Down syndrome d) b-thalassemia

Sickle cell anemia occurs most often in African Americans, Tay-Sachs disease occurs most often in people of Jewish ancestry. B-thalassemia is a blood dyscrasia that occurs frequently in families of Greek or Italian heritage. Down syndrome is not attributed to Jewish ancestry genetic disorders

A couple is considering vasectomy as a contraception option. However, the husband is nervous about how such a procedure would affect his sexual functioning. Which information should the nurse mention to the man? a) The man will no longer produce testosterone. b) The man will continue to ejaculate sperm. c) The man will still have full erection capacity. d) The man will no longer ejaculate seminal fluid.

Some men resist the concept of vasectomy because they are not sufficiently aware of their anatomy to know exactly what the procedure will involve. They can be assured vasectomy does not interfere with the production of sperm; the testes continue to produce sperm as always, but the sperm simply do not pass beyond the plugged vas deferens and are absorbed at that point. The man will still have full erection capacity and continue to produce testosterone. Because he also continues to form seminal fluid, he will ejaculate seminal fluid; it will just not contain sperm

Which of the following is important for the nurse to do to provide emotional support when working with a subfertile couple? a) Speak separately with each partner so both will feel more free to talk. b) Speak only with both partners present so they will feel more comfortable. c) Speak both separately and together with both partners. d) Only speak with the woman who is the patient.

Speak both separately and together with both partners. Talking with both partners together may be advantageous, because this may make them feel more comfortable to discuss their problem. On the other hand it is important to spend time alone with each partner, in case there is something one person wants to discuss privately. Both partners are the patient in this case

A nursing instructor is teaching about subfertility to nursing students and perceives their understanding when they define subfertility existing when a pregnancy has not occurred after how much time of engaging in unprotected coitus? a) 9 months b) 12 months c) 18 months d) 6 months

Subfertility is said to exist when a pregnancy has not occurred after at least 1 year of engaging in unprotected sex

When describing the characteristics of the amniotic fluid to a pregnant woman, which would the nurse include? a) It limits fetal movement in utero. b) It is usually an acidic fluid. c) It is composed primarily of organic substances. d) The amount gradually fluctuates during pregnancy.

The amount gradually fluctuates during pregnancy. Amniotic fluid is alkaline. Amniotic fluid is composed of 98% water and 2% organic matter. Amniotic fluid volume gradually fluctuates throughout pregnancy. Sufficient amounts promote fetal movement to enhance musculoskeletal development.

A nurse is instructing a client on birth control methods. The client asks about the cervical mucus method. When should the nurse tell the client she is fertile in relation to her mucus? a) Cervical mucus is not a reliable indicator. b) when it does not stretch c) when it is thin, watery, and copious d) when it is thick

The cervical mucus method relies on the changes that occur naturally with ovulation. Before ovulation, cervical mucus is thick and does not stretch when pulled. With ovulation, the mucus becomes thin, copious, watery, transparent, and stretchy

A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic for a refill of his antihypertensive medication tenormin (Atenolol). He tells the nurse that since he has been taking the medication, he cannot sustain an erection. What type of erectile dysfunction is this patient experiencing? a) Secondary erectile dysfunction b) Stress erectile dysfunction c) Primary erectile dysfunction d) Premature ejaculation

The condition is secondary erectile dysfunction, because the man has been able to achieve erections in the past but now has difficulty

A couple comes to the clinic and informs the nurse that they have been trying to conceive for 6 months with no success. The husband states that they have coitus at least 5 or 6 times per week to optimize their chance of success. What can the nurse educate the couple about frequency of coitus? a) The couple should consider decreasing the frequency of coitus to 2 to 3 times per week to increase the male partner's sperm count. b) The male partner should check his sperm count each time he has coitus to ensure an adequate count. c) The couple should have coitus only when the female partner is ovulating. d) The couple should continue to have unprotected coitus daily to improve the chance of conception

The couple should consider decreasing the frequency of coitus to 2 to 3 times per week to increase the male partner's sperm count. Couples who engage in coitus daily, hoping to cause impregnation, may actually have more difficulty conceiving than those who space coitus to every other day. This is because too frequent coitus can lower a man's sperm count to a level below optimal fertility

The nurse discusses various contraceptive methods with a client and her partner. Which method would the nurse explain as being available only with a prescription? a) condom b) diaphragm c) basal body temperature d) spermicide

The diaphragm is available only by prescription and must be professionally fitted by a health care provider. Condoms and spermicides are available over the counter. Basal body temperature requires the use of a special thermometer that is available over the counter

Nurses are expected to know how to use the first genetic test. What is it? a) the family history b) the physical assessment c) the psychosocial assessment d) the developmental assessment

The family history is considered the first genetic test. It is expected that all nurses will know how to use this genetic tool. The other answers are incorrect because the developmental, physical, and psychosocial assessments are not the first genetic test

A female client comes to the clinic and asks the nurse what would be the most cost effective method for her to determine her ovulation patterns. What is the best response by the nurse? a) "The least costly method would be to purchase a commercial kit from the store to assess the upsurge of LH that occurs just after ovulation." b) "The least costly method would be a surgical procedure to determine if your fallopian tubes are blocked." c) "The least costly method to determine ovulation patterns is to record the basal body temperature for at least 4 months." d) "The least costly method would be to purchase an at-home testing kit for sperm motility

The least costly way to determine a woman's ovulation pattern is to ask her to record her basal body temperature (BBT) for at least 4 months.

A teenage male client asks the nurse if there is any 100% effective method of birth control and protection against sexually transmitted disease. Which should the nurse mention to him? a) Continual abstinence b) Birth control pills c) Condoms d) Intrauterine device

The nurse should explain to him that the only 100% effective method of birth control and protection against sexually transmitted diseases is continual abstinence. Condom effectiveness ranges from about 85% to 98% and protects against HIV and other STIs. Birth control pills range in effectiveness between 95% and 99% for contraception, but they offer no protection against STIs. Intrauterine devices are 97% to 99% effective as contraceptives, but they offer no protection against STIs

The nurse should carefully screen a client who insists on using only combined oral contraceptives for which contraindication? a) impaired absorption b) use of alcohol c) deep vein thrombosis d) gastrointestinal disease

The nurse should screen the client for deep vein thrombosis (DVT), migraine headaches, neurological symptoms, coronary artery disease or cerebral vascular disease, severe diabetes, hypertension, liver disease, breast or endometrial cancer, and unexplained vaginal bleeding when combined oral contraceptives are used. Gastrointestinal diseases are contraindicated in the use of progestin-only pills. Combined oral contraceptives are not contraindicated in clients who drink alcohol. Impaired absorption is a contraindication for the use of progestin-only pill

The fetus receives blood flow from the mother via the placenta and umbilical cord. What is the route of fetal circulation through the umbilical cord? a) The one umbilical vein carries oxygen rich blood to the fetus from the placenta. b) The two umbilical arteries carry waste products from the placenta to the fetus. c) The two umbilical veins carry waste products from the fetus to the placenta. d) The one umbilical artery carries oxygen rich blood to the fetus from the placenta.

The one umbilical vein carries oxygen rich blood to the fetus from the placenta There are two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein. The arteries carry waste from the fetus to the placenta; the vein carries oxygenated blood to the fetus from the placenta

How can the nurse determine that a patient who reports using cocaine has an actual substance dependence? a) The patient uses the drug on weekends when she does not have to work. b) The patient has used the drug on a few occasions for "fun." c) The patient has withdrawal symptoms when she stops taking the drug. d) The patient has been having trouble maintaining her role obligations

The patient has withdrawal symptoms when she stops taking the drug. A person is substance dependent when she has withdrawal symptoms following discontinuation of the substance, combined with abandonment of important activities, spending increased time in activities related to substance use, using substances for a longer time than planned, or continued use despite worsening problems because of substance use

A nurse is reviewing sperm count results for a couple trying to conceive. Which results would concern the nurse? a) 10 million per mL of seminal fluid b) 40 million per mL of seminal fluid c) 20 million per mL of seminal fluid d) 30 million per mL of seminal fluid

The sperm count is the number of sperm in a single ejaculation or in a milliliter of semen. The minimum sperm count considered normal is 20 million per milliliter of seminal fluid, or 50 million per ejacula

Many couples attempt to influence the gender of the child they are trying to conceive by using special sexual positions, eating special food, or having intercourse at specific times. None of these are factors in the determination of the gender of the conceptus. What has research shown about gender determination? a) Female gametes can have either X or Y chromosomes b) There is a 50-50 chance of having a male or a female c) Male gametes carry only Y chromosomes d) Female determines the sex of the conceptus

There is a 50-50 chance of having a male or a female Sex determination occurs at the time of fertilization based on the inheritance of X or Y chromosomes. Because the spermatozoon can have either an X or a Y chromosome, the male gamete is responsible for fetal sex determination. Research indicates that there is an approximately 50-50 chance of either occurrence

What should the nurse explain to the pregnant client about the importance of the fetal stage of development? a) Cellular division and implantation occur during this stage of development. b) The fetus is ready for to be born. c) There can be no damage to the fetus if the mother drinks alcohol at this stage. d) There is additional growth and development of the organs and body systems.

There is additional growth and development of the organs and body systems. The fetal stage is from the beginning of the ninth week after fertilization and continues until birth. At this time, the developing human is called a fetus. During the fetal stage, there is additional growth and maturation of the organs and body systems

Smoking may be a cause of ectopic (tubal) pregnancy. a) False b) True

True

Women having in vitro fertilization (IVF) can have both the egg and sperm examined for genetic disorders of single gene or chromosome concerns before implantation. a) True b) False

True

What medication can the nurse tell the patient that, when taken as directed, is non-teratogenic and safe during pregnancy? a) Coumadin b) Dllantin c) Tylenol d) Tetracycline

Tylenol Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a medication that, when taken as directed, is non-teratogenic.

A pregnant woman has come to the clinic for her first prenatal visit. The nurse informs the woman that the physician will do a pelvic examination at this time and that she should go empty her bladder. What is the primary reason the nurse instructs the patient to empty her bladder? A CBC might be needed. Urinating now might help to prevent an infection. The pregnant woman's bladder does not hold much urine, so this will prevent an accident.

Urinating now will allow easier identification of organs.

A 22-year-old female client asks about forms of chemical barrier contraception. The nurse tells the client that which is a form of a chemical barrier contraceptive?

Vaginal foam is a chemical barrier contraceptive. It offers added contraceptive protection when used with mechanical barriers. Cervical caps, diaphragms, and female condoms are physical, not chemical, barriers

Two parents with two recessive genes each for six toes have what chance they will have a child with six toes? a) 50% b) 25% c) 100% d) 75%

When two carrier parents have children together, they have a 25% chance of having a child who inherits the gene mutation from each parent and who will have the condition.

The nurse in a primary care clinic and a client have come to see the primary care provider because she is getting married and wants to have a prenuptial gynecologic examination. After the exam the nurse asks about the woman's plan to have a family. The woman responds, "Why do I have to plan for a family?" What would be the nurses's best response? a) Families are always best when pregnancies are not planned. b) An unwanted pregnancy can always be aborted. c) The couple can control the time between births when they plan their family. d) The couple can decide on a method of birth control.

Women and couples can avoid unwanted pregnancies, bring about wanted births, and control the intervals between births.

A client who is 37 years of age presents to the health care clinic for her first prenatal checkup. Due to her advanced age, the nurse should prepare to talk with the client about her increased risk for what complication? a) incompetent cervix b) genetic disorders c) gestational diabetes d) preterm labor

Women over the age of 35 are at increased risk of having a fetus with an abnormal karyotype or other genetic disorders. Gestational diabetes, an incompetent cervix, and preterm labor are risks for any pregnant woman

When discussing rest and sleep with a pregnant woman, the nurse would suggest which position for napping? on her stomach with a pillow under her breasts on her side with the weight of the uterus on the bed on her back with a pillow under her knees and hips on her back with a pillow under her head

You selected: on her side with the weight of the uterus on the bed So that the pressure is off of the vena cava and returns blood flow

Which task is the most important task of the first trimester of pregnancy? a) making plans for the baby b) accepting the pregnancy c) accepting a coming child d) sharing time with a significant other

accepting the pregnancy Before a fetus moves, adjusting to pregnancy is a primary task; later, adjusting to having a baby becomes the primary task.

Cystic fibrosis is an example of which type of inheritance? a) multifactorial b) autosomal dominant c) autosomal recessive d) X-linked recessive

autosomal recessive Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive inherited condition. Huntington disease would be an example of an autosomal dominant inherited condition. Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive inherited condition. Cleft lip is a multifactorial inherited condition.

As a pregnant woman lies on the examining table, she grows very short of breath and dizzy. This phenomenon probably happens because: a) her cerebral arteries are growing congested with blood. b) blood is trapped in the vena cava in a supine position. c) sympathetic nerve responses cause dyspnea when a woman lies supine. d) the uterus requires more blood in a supine position.

blood is trapped in the vena cava in a supine position. Supine hypotension syndrome, or an interference with blood return to the heart, occurs when the weight of the fetus rests on the vena cava. Cerebral arteries should not be affected. Mean arterial pressure is high enough to maintain perfusion of the uterus in any orientation. The sympathetic nervous system will not be affected by the supine position

In caring for a fully immunized pregnant woman who is a nurse in a family health practice, the obstetric nurse should remind the patient that she must not come in contact with patients who have symptoms that could indicate which infection? a) Chickenpox b) Measles c) Diptheria d) Smallpox

chickenpox Chicken pox can be teratogenic to the fetus and exposure may have a significant impact on the fetus and may cause defects. The fetus receives passive immunity from the mother for measles, diphtheria, and small pox

During a prenatal class for a group of new mothers, the nurse is describing the hormones produced by the placenta. What hormones would the nurse include? Select all that apply. a) estriol b) human chorionic somatomammotropin c) relaxin d) progestin e) prolactin

estriol • relaxin • progestin • human chorionic somatomammotropin Estriol, relaxin, progestin, and human chorionic somatomammotropin are secreted by the placenta. Prolactin is secreted after delivery for breastfeeding.

Prenatal testing is used to assess for genetic risks and to identify genetic disorders. In explaining to a couple about an elevated alpha-fetoprotein screening test result, the nurse would discuss the need for: a) special care needed for a Down syndrome infant. b) immediate termination of the pregnancy based on results. c) further, more definitive evaluations to conclude anything. d) a more specific determination of the acid-base status.

further, more definitive evaluations to conclude anything. Explanation: Increased maternal serum alpha fetoprotein levels may indicate a neural tube defect, Turner syndrome, tetralogy of Fallot, multiple gestation, omphalocele, gastroschisis, or hydrocephaly. Therefore, additional information and more specific determinations need to be done before any conclusion can be made. Down syndrome is associated with decreased maternal serum alpha fetoprotein levels. This type of testing provides no information about the acid-base status of the fetus. Immediate termination is not warranted; more information is needed

Prenatal testing is used to assess for genetic risks and to identify genetic disorders. In explaining to a couple about an elevated alpha-fetoprotein screening test result, the nurse would discuss the need for: a) special care needed for a Down syndrome infant. b) further, more definitive evaluations to conclude anything. c) immediate termination of the pregnancy based on results. d) a more specific determination of the acid-base status.

further, more definitive evaluations to conclude anything. Increased maternal serum alpha fetoprotein levels may indicate a neural tube defect, Turner syndrome, tetralogy of Fallot, multiple gestation, omphalocele, gastroschisis, or hydrocephaly. Therefore, additional information and more specific determinations need to be done before any conclusion can be made. Down syndrome is associated with decreased maternal serum alpha fetoprotein levels. This type of testing provides no information about the acid-base status of the fetus. Immediate termination is not warranted; more information is needed

After teaching a pregnant woman about the hormones produced by the placenta, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the woman identifies which hormone produced as being the basis for pregnancy tests? a) estrogen (estriol) b) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) c) human placental lactogen (hPL) d) progesterone (progestin)

human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) The placenta produces hCG, which is the basis for pregnancy tests. This hormone preserves the corpus luteum and its progesterone production so that the endometrial lining is maintained. Human placental lactogen modulates fetal and maternal metabolism and participates in the development of the breasts for lactation. Estrogen causes enlargement of the woman's breasts, uterus, and external genitalia and stimulates myometrial contractility. Progesterone maintains the endometrium

A woman is undergoing testing which provides a picture-like analysis of the number, form, and size of the woman's chromosomes. The nurse identifies this as: a) phenotype. b) karyotyping. c) genome. d) genotype.

karyotyping.Karyotyping is a pictorial analysis of the number, form, and size of an individual's chromosomes. Genome is a representation of a person's genetic blueprint. Genotype refers to the specific genetic makeup or gene pairs inherited from one's parents. Phenotype refers to the observed outward characteristics of an individual

A woman is taking vaginal progesterone suppositories during her first trimester because her body does not produce enough of it naturally. She asks the nurse what function this hormone has in her pregnancy. What should the nurse explain is the primary function of progesterone? a) regulates maternal glucose, protein, and fat levels b) contributes to mammary gland development c) ensures the corpus luteum of the ovary continues to produce estrogen d) maintains the endometrial lining of the uterus during pregnancy

maintains the endometrial lining of the uterus during maintains the endometrial lining of the uterus during pregnancy Progesterone is necessary to maintain the endometrial lining of the uterus during pregnancy. It is human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) that acts to ensure the corpus luteum of the ovary continues to produce estrogen and progesterone. Estrogen contributes to mammary gland development, and human placental lactogen regulates maternal glucose, protein, and fat levels

The nurse explains to a pregnant woman that the germ layers that develop in the embryo and become different organs and tissues consist of which layers? Select all that apply. a) subcutaneous b) mesoderm c) endoderm d) ectoderm e) epithileum

mesoderm endoderm ecoderm The three germ layers in the embryo are the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. The others are layers of the skin.

A nurse in a fertility clinic counsels a subfertile couple to have intercourse daily. a) yes b) no

no

The nurse is advising a pregnant woman during her first prenatal visit regarding the frequency of future visits. Which schedule is recommended for prenatal care? once every 3 weeks for the first 28 weeks, then every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, and then weekly until the birth once every 4 weeks for the first 28 weeks, then every 3 weeks until 36 weeks, and then every 2 weeks until the birth once every 4 weeks for the first 28 weeks, then every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, and then weekly until the birth once every 4 weeks for the first 36 weeks, then weekly until the birth

once every 4 weeks for the first 28 weeks, then every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, and then weekly until the birth

Amniotic fluid is produced throughout the pregnancy by the fetal membranes. Amniotic fluid has four major functions. What is one of these functions? a) restriction of movement b) provide fluid to keep the fetus hydrated c) physical protection d) medium in which to test organ maturity

physical protection Amniotic fluid serves four main functions for the fetus: physical protection, temperature regulation, provision of unrestricted movement, and symmetrical growth

Which structure supplies the fetus with nutrients? a) yolk sac b) placenta c) amnion d) chorion

placenta The placenta is a flat, round structure attached to the fetus by the umbilical cord. Blood is passed through the umbilical cord, and the placenta is the organ responsible for supplying nutrients and oxygenated blood to the fetus via the umbilical cord. The amnion and chorion are parts of the placenta. The human yolk sac is a membrane outside the embryo that is connected by a tube (the yolk stalk) though the umbilical opening to the embryo's midgut. The yolk sac serves as an early site for the formation of blood and in time is incorporated into the primitive gut of the embryo

After teaching a class on the stages of fetal development, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the group identifies which stages? Select all that apply. a) placental b) umbilical c) preembryonic d) fetal e) embryonic

preembryonic • embryonic • fetal The three stages of fetal development are the preembryonic, embryonic, and fetal stage. Placental and umbilical are not stages of fetal development.

At each prenatal visit, a client provides a urine sample to the health care provider. What is this urine sample tested for at each visit? protein and glucose glucose and white blood cells protein and albumin white blood cells and albumin

protein and glucose

A male patient comes to the clinic and informs the primary care provider that he and his wife are trying unsuccessfully to conceive. He adds that he cannot get an erection and believes this problem started when he began taking blood pressure medicine. What type of erectile dysfunction would be suspected? a) tertiary erectile dysfunction b) secondary erectile dysfunction c) sterility d) primary erectile dysfunction

secondary erectile dysfunction Erectile dysfunction after previously being able to achieve ejaculation is referred to as secondary erectile dysfunction. Primary erectile dysfunction is when a man has never been able to achieve an erection. There is no tertiary erectile dysfunction. Sterility refers to an inability to conceive

A couple informs the nurse that they have not been able to conceive for the last year. During assessment, the nurse learns that the couple has a 3-year-old daughter and 7-year-old son. They report having had no problems getting pregnant the other times. Which type of fertility is this couple exhibiting? a) sterility b) fertility c) secondary subfertility d) primary subfertility

secondary subfertility Subfertility exists when a pregnancy has not occurred after at least 1 year of unprotected coitus. In primary subfertility there have been no previous conception; in secondary subfertility there has been a previous viable pregnancy, but the couple cannot currently conceive. Sterility is the inability to conceive because of a known condition such as the absence of a uterus

If a woman has a hip contracture, which position would be best for a vaginal delivery? a) Semi-Fowler b) Lithotomy c) Sims' d) Knee-chest

sims A woman with a hip contracture would be unable to perform the lithotomy position. The best position for her for delivery would be Sims', or the dorsal recumbent position.

While talking with a pregnant woman who has undergone genetic testing, the woman informs the nurse that her baby will be born with Down syndrome. The nurse understands that Down syndrome is an example of: a) chromosomal deletion. b) X-linked recessive inheritance. c) multifactorial inheritance. d) trisomy numeric abnormality.

trisomy numeric abnormality.Down syndrome is an example of a chromosomal abnormality involving the number of chromosomes, in particular chromosome 21, in which the individual has three copies of that chromosome. Multifactorial inheritance gives rise to disorders such as cleft lip, congenital heart disease, neural tube defects, and pyloric stenosis. X-linked recessive inheritance is associated with disorders such as hemophilia. Chromosomal deletion is involved with disorders such as cri du chat syndrome

Couples who engage in coitus daily, hoping to cause early impregnation, may actually have more difficulty conceiving than those who space coitus to every other day. a) False b) True

true

A client who has just given a blood sample for pregnancy testing in the health care provider's office asks the nurse what method of confirming pregnancy is the most accurate. The nurse explains the difference between presumptive symptoms, probable signs, and positive signs. What should the nurse mention as an example of a positive sign, which may be used to diagnose pregnancy? a) laboratory test of a blood serum specimen for hCG b) laboratory test of a urine specimen for hCG c) visualization of the fetus by ultrasound d) absence of a period

visualization of the fetus by ultrasound There are only three documented or positive signs of pregnancy: 1) demonstration of a fetal heart separate from the mother's, 2) fetal movements felt by an examiner, and 3) visualization of the fetus by ultrasound. The absence of a period is an example of a presumptive symptom, which is a symptom that, when taken as a single entity, could easily indicate other conditions. Laboratory tests of either urine or blood serum for human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) are examples of probable signs of pregnancy, which are objective and so can be verified by an examiner.

A fertilized ovum is known as which structure? a) chorion b) embryo c) zygote d) fetus

zygote A fertilized ovum is known as a zygote and is the beginning of potential individual human development. The developing human organism is known as an embryo from the time it implants on the uterine wall until the eighth week after inception and as a fetus from the beginning of the ninth week after fertilization through birth. The chorion is the outermost cell layer that surrounds the embryo and fluid cavity. (

A woman is preparing for therapeutic insemination because she has been unable to conceive with her husband for more than 18 months. What must she do in preparation for the therapeutic insemination? (Select all that apply.) a) Record her basal body temperature (BBT). b) Use an ovulation predictor kit. c) Take Clomid. d) Assess her cervical mucus. e) Douche prior to the procedure.

• Record her basal body temperature (BBT). • Assess her cervical mucus. • Use an ovulation predictor kit. To prepare for therapeutic insemination, a woman must record her BBT, assess her cervical mucus, or use an ovulation predictor kit to predict her likely day of ovulation. On the day after ovulation, the selected sperm are instilled into her cervix using a device similar to a cervical cap or diaphragm, or they are injected directly into the uterus using a flexible catheter. (less)

Choice Multiple question - Select all answer choices that apply. As part of her physical examination of a pregnant client, the nurse examines the woman's breasts. Which are healthy breast changes that indicate pregnancy? Select all that apply. areolae darken overall breast size increases blue streaking of veins becomes prominent montgomery tubercles become prominent breasts become softer in consistency

• areolae darken • overall breast size increases • blue streaking of veins becomes prominent • montgomery tubercles become prominent

The nurse is examining a woman who came to the clinic because she thinks she is pregnant. Which data collected by the nurse are presumptive signs of her pregnancy? Select all that apply. a) hydatidiform mole b) morning sickness c) breast changes d) ultrasound pictures e) fetal heartbeat f) amenorrhea

• breast changes • amenorrhea • morning sickness Presumptive signs are possible signs of pregnancy that appear in the first trimester, often only noted subjectively by the mother (e.g., breast changes, amenorrhea, morning sickness). Probable signs are signs that appear in the first and early second trimesters, seen via objective criteria, but can also be indicators of other conditions (e.g., hydatidiform mole). Positive signs affirm that proof exists that there is a developing fetus in any trimester and are objective criteria seen by a trained observer or diagnostic study, (e.g., ultrasound.)

After teaching a class on the stages of fetal development, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the group identifies which stages? Select all that apply. a) placental b) fetal c) embryonic d) umbilical e) preembryonic

• fetal • embryonic • preembryonic The three stages of fetal development are the preembryonic, embryonic, and fetal stage. Placental and umbilical are not stages of fetal development.