OB test chapters 26-29
When is a prophylactic cerclage for an incompetent cervix usually placed (in weeks of gestation)? a. 12 to 14 b. 6 to 8 c. 23 to 24 d. After 24
a. 12 to 14
In caring for the woman with DIC, which order should the nurse anticipate? a. Administration of blood b. Preparation of the client for invasive hemodynamic monitoring c. Restriction of intravascular fluids d. Administration of steroids
a. Administration of blood
With regard to hemorrhagic complications that may occur during pregnancy, what information is most accurate? a. An incompetent cervix is usually not diagnosed until the woman has lost one or two pregnancies. b. Incidences of ectopic pregnancy are declining as a result of improved diagnostic techniques. c. One ectopic pregnancy does not affect a womans fertility or her likelihood of having a normal pregnancy the next time. d. Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN) is one of the persistently incurable gynecologic malignancies.
a. An incompetent cervix is usually not diagnosed until the woman has lost one or two pregnancies.
What is the highest priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant woman who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy? a. Assessing FHR and maternal vital signs b. Performing a venipuncture for hemoglobin and hematocrit levels c. Placing clean disposable pads to collect any drainage d. Monitoring uterine contractions
a. Assessing FHR and maternal vital signs
Diabetes refers to a group of metabolic diseases characterized by hyperglycemia resulting from defects in insulin action, insulin secretion, or both. Over time, diabetes causes significant changes in the microvascular and macrovascular circulations. What do these complications include? (Select all that apply.) a. Atherosclerosis b. Retinopathy c. Intrauterine fetal death (IUFD) d. Nephropathy e. Neuropathy f. Autonomic neuropathy
a. Atherosclerosis b. Retinopathy d. Nephropathy e. Neuropathy
Which information is the highest priority for the nurse to comprehend regarding the BPP? a. BPP is an accurate indicator of impending fetal well-being. b. BPP is a compilation of health risk factors of the mother during the later stages of pregnancy. c. BPP consists of a Doppler blood flow analysis and an amniotic fluid index (AFI). d. BPP involves an invasive form of an ultrasonic examination.
a. BPP is an accurate indicator of impending fetal well-being.
Which order should the nurse expect for a client admitted with a threatened abortion? a. Bed rest b. Administration of ritodrine IV c. Nothing by mouth (nil per os [NPO]) d. Narcotic analgesia every 3 hours, as needed
a. Bed rest
Approximately 10% to 15% of all clinically recognized pregnancies end in miscarriage. What are possible causes of early miscarriage? (Select all that apply.) a. Chromosomal abnormalities b. Infections c. Endocrine imbalance d. Systemic disorders e. Varicella
a. Chromosomal abnormalities c. Endocrine imbalance d. Systemic disorders e. Varicella
In caring for an immediate postpartum client, the nurse notes petechiae and oozing from her intravenous (IV) site. The client would be closely monitored for which clotting disorder? a. DIC b. Amniotic fluid embolism (AFE) c. Hemorrhage d. HELLP syndrome
a. DIC
Which statement concerning the complication of maternal diabetes is the most accurate? a. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) can lead to fetal death at any time during pregnancy. b. Hydramnios occurs approximately twice as often in diabetic pregnancies than in nondiabetic pregnancies. c. Infections occur about as often and are considered about as serious in both diabetic and nondiabetic pregnancies. d. Even mild-to-moderate hypoglycemic episodes can have significant effects on fetal well-being.
a. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) can lead to fetal death at any time during pregnancy.
The nurse sees a woman for the first time when she is 30 weeks pregnant. The client has smoked throughout the pregnancy, and fundal height measurements now are suggestive of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) in the fetus. In addition to ultrasound to measure fetal size, what is another tool useful in confirming the diagnosis? a. Doppler blood flow analysis b. Contraction stress test (CST) c. Amniocentesis d. Daily fetal movement counts
a. Doppler blood flow analysis
Cell-free deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) screening is a new method of noninvasive prenatal testing (NIPT) that has recently become available in the clinical setting. This technology can provide a definitive diagnosis of which findings? (Select all that apply.) a. Fetal Rh status b. Fetal gender c. Maternally transmitted gene disorder d. Paternally transmitted gene disorder e. Trisomy 21
a. Fetal Rh status b. Fetal gender d. Paternally transmitted gene disorder e. Trisomy 21
Which assessments are included in the fetal BPP? (Select all that apply.) a. Fetal movement b. Fetal tone c. Fetal heart rate d. AFI e. Placental grade
a. Fetal movement b. Fetal tone c. Fetal heart rate d. AFI
A serious but uncommon complication of undiagnosed or partially treated hyperthyroidism is a thyroid storm, which may occur in response to stress such as infection, birth, or surgery. What are the signs and symptoms of this emergency disorder? (Select all that apply.) a. Fever b. Hypothermia c. Restlessness d. Bradycardia e. Hypertension
a. Fever c. Restlessness
A woman with severe preeclampsia has been receiving magnesium sulfate by intravenous infusion for 8 hours. The nurse assesses the client and documents the following findings: temperature of 37.1 C, pulse rate of 96 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, BP of 155/112 mm Hg, 3+ DTRs, and no ankle clonus. The nurse calls the provider with an update. The nurse should anticipate an order for which medication? a. Hydralazine b. Magnesium sulfate bolus c. Diazepam d. Calcium gluconate
a. Hydralazine
What is the most common medical complication of pregnancy? a. Hypertension b. Hyperemesis gravidarum c. Hemorrhagic complications d. Infections
a. Hypertension
Which major neonatal complication is carefully monitored after the birth of the infant of a diabetic mother? a. Hypoglycemia b. Hypercalcemia c. Hypobilirubinemia d. Hypoinsulinemia
a. Hypoglycemia
Which intervention is most important when planning care for a client with severe gestational hypertension? a. Induction of labor is likely, as near term as possible. b. If at home, the woman should be confined to her bed, even with mild gestational hypertension. c. Special diet low in protein and salt should be initiated. d. Vaginal birth is still an option, even in severe cases.
a. Induction of labor is likely, as near term as possible.
Which neonatal complications are associated with hypertension in the mother? a. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) and prematurity b. Seizures and cerebral hemorrhage c. Hepatic or renal dysfunction d. Placental abruption and DIC
a. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) and prematurity
A client who has undergone a D&C for early pregnancy loss is likely to be discharged the same day. The nurse must ensure that her vital signs are stable, that bleeding has been controlled, and that the woman has adequately recovered from the administration of anesthesia. To promote an optimal recovery, what information should discharge teaching include? (Select all that apply.) a. Iron supplementation b. Resumption of intercourse at 6 weeks postprocedure c. Referral to a support group, if necessary d. Expectation of heavy bleeding for at least 2 weeks e. Emphasizing the need for rest
a. Iron supplementation c. Referral to a support group, if necessary e. Emphasizing the need for rest
Screening at 24 weeks of gestation reveals that a pregnant woman has gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). In planning her care, the nurse and the client mutually agree that an expected outcome is to prevent injury to the fetus as a result of GDM. This fetus is at the greatest risk for which condition? a. Macrosomia b. Congenital anomalies of the central nervous system c. Preterm birth d. Low birth weight
a. Macrosomia
Of these psychosocial factors, which has the least negative effect on the health of the mother and/or fetus? a. Moderate coffee consumption b. Moderate alcohol consumption c. Cigarette smoke d. Emotional distress
a. Moderate coffee consumption
Transvaginal ultrasonography is often performed during the first trimester. While preparing a 6-week gestational client for this procedure, she expresses concerns over the necessity for this test. The nurse should explain that this diagnostic test may be indicated for which situations? (Select all that apply.) a. Multifetal gestation b. Obesity c. Fetal abnormalities d. Amniotic fluid volume e. Ectopic pregnancy
a. Multifetal gestation b. Obesity c. Fetal abnormalities e. Ectopic pregnancy
Which analysis of maternal serum may predict chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus? a. Multiple-marker screening b. L/S ratio c. BPP d. Blood type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal serum
a. Multiple-marker screening
A woman is undergoing a nipple-stimulated CST. She is having contractions that occur every 3 minutes. The fetal heart rate (FHR) has a baseline heart rate of approximately 120 beats per minute without any decelerations. What is the correct interpretation of this test? a. Negative b. Positive c. Satisfactory d. Unsatisfactory
a. Negative
The reported incidence of ectopic pregnancy has steadily risen over the past 2 decades. Causes include the increase in sexually transmitted infections (STIs) accompanied by tubal infection and damage. The popularity of contraceptive devices such as the IUD has also increased the risk for ectopic pregnancy. The nurse suspects that a client has early signs of ectopic pregnancy. The nurse should be observing the client for which signs or symptoms? (Select all that apply.) a. Pelvic pain b. Abdominal pain c. Unanticipated heavy bleeding d. Vaginal spotting or light bleeding e. Missed period
a. Pelvic pain b. Abdominal pain d. Vaginal spotting or light bleeding e. Missed period
Which adverse prenatal outcomes are associated with the HELLP syndrome? (Select all that apply.) a. Placental abruption b. Placenta previa c. Renal failure d. Cirrhosis e. Maternal and fetal death
a. Placental abruption c. Renal failure e. Maternal and fetal death
IUGR is associated with which pregnancy-related risk factors? (Select all that apply.) a. Poor nutrition b. Maternal collagen disease c. Gestational hypertension d. Premature rupture of membranes e. Smoking
a. Poor nutrition b. Maternal collagen disease c. Gestational hypertension e. Smoking
What is the correct definition of a spontaneous termination of a pregnancy (abortion)? a. Pregnancy is less than 20 weeks. b. Fetus weighs less than 1000 g. c. Products of conception are passed intact. d. No evidence exists of intrauterine infection.
a. Pregnancy is less than 20 weeks.
What nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia? a. Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability b. Risk for altered gas exchange c. Risk for deficient fluid volume, related to increased sodium retention secondary to the administration of magnesium sulfate d. Risk for increased cardiac output, related to the use of antihypertensive drugs
a. Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability
Which information is an important consideration when comparing the CST with the NST? a. The NST has no known contraindications. b. The CST has fewer false-positive results when compared with the NST. c. The CST is more sensitive in detecting fetal compromise, as opposed to the NST. d. The CST is slightly more expensive than the NST
a. The NST has no known contraindications.
One of the most important components of the physical assessment of the pregnant client is the determination of BP. Consistency in measurement techniques must be maintained to ensure that the nuances in the variations of the BP readings are not the result of provider error. Which techniques are important in obtaining accurate BP readings? (Select all that apply.) a. The client should be seated. b. The clients arm should be placed at the level of the heart. c. An electronic BP device should be used. d. The cuff should cover a minimum of 60% of the upper arm. e. The same arm should be used for every reading.
a. The client should be seated. b. The clients arm should be placed at the level of the heart. e. The same arm should be used for every reading.
The client is being induced in response to worsening preeclampsia. She is also receiving magnesium sulfate. It appears that her labor has not become active, despite several hours of oxytocin administration. She asks the nurse, Why is this taking so long? What is the nurses most appropriate response? a. The magnesium is relaxing your uterus and competing with the oxytocin. It may increase the duration of your labor. b. I don't know why it is taking so long. c. The length of labor varies for different women. d. Your baby is just being stubborn.
a. The magnesium is relaxing your uterus and competing with the oxytocin. It may increase the duration of your labor.
A pregnant womans BPP score is 8. She asks the nurse to explain the results. How should the nurse respond at this time? a. The test results are within normal limits. b. Immediate delivery by cesarean birth is being considered. c. Further testing will be performed to determine the meaning of this score. d. An obstetric specialist will evaluate the results of this profile and, within the next week, will inform you of your options regarding delivery.
a. The test results are within normal limits.
A 39-year-old primigravida woman believes that she is approximately 8 weeks pregnant, although she has had irregular menstrual periods all her life. She has a history of smoking approximately one pack of cigarettes a day; however, she tells the nurse that she is trying to cut down. Her laboratory data are within normal limits. What diagnostic technique would be useful at this time? a. Ultrasound examination b. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening c. Amniocentesis d. Nonstress test (NST)
a. Ultrasound examination
A client asks her nurse, My doctor told me that he is concerned with the grade of my placenta because I am overdue. What does that mean? What is the nurses best response? a. Your placenta changes as your pregnancy progresses, and it is given a score that indicates how well it is functioning. b. Your placenta isnt working properly, and your baby is in danger. c. We need to perform an amniocentesis to detect if you have any placental damage. d. Dont worry about it. Everything is fine.
a. Your placenta changes as your pregnancy progresses, and it is given a score that indicates how well it is functioning.
A 41-week pregnant multigravida arrives at the labor and delivery unit after a NST indicated that her fetus could be experiencing some difficulties in utero. Which diagnostic tool yields more detailed information about the condition of the fetus? a. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies b. Biophysical profile (BPP) c. MSAFP screening d. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)
b. Biophysical profile (BPP)
Which maternal condition always necessitates delivery by cesarean birth? a. Marginal placenta previa b. Complete placenta previa c. Ectopic pregnancy d. Eclampsia
b. Complete placenta previa
Preconception counseling is critical in the safe management of diabetic pregnancies. Which complication is commonly associated with poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy? a. Frequent episodes of maternal hypoglycemia b. Congenital anomalies in the fetus c. Hydramnios d. Hyperemesis gravidarum
b. Congenital anomalies in the fetus
An 18-year-old client who has reached 16 weeks of gestation was recently diagnosed with pregestational diabetes. She attends her centering appointment accompanied by one of her girlfriends. This young woman appears more concerned about how her pregnancy will affect her social life than her recent diagnosis of diabetes. A number of nursing diagnoses are applicable to assist in planning adequate care. What is the most appropriate diagnosis at this time? a. Risk for injury, to the fetus related to birth trauma b. Deficient knowledge, related to diabetic pregnancy management c. Deficient knowledge, related to insulin administration d. Risk for injury, to the mother related to hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia
b. Deficient knowledge, related to diabetic pregnancy management
A 26-year-old primigravida has come to the clinic for her regular prenatal visit at 12 weeks. She appears thin and somewhat nervous. She reports that she eats a well-balanced diet, although her weight is 5 pounds less than it was at her last visit. The results of laboratory studies confirm that she has a hyperthyroid condition. Based on the available data, the nurse formulates a plan of care. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for the client at this time? a. Deficient fluid volume b. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements c. Imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements d. Disturbed sleep pattern
b. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements
Which nursing intervention is necessary before a first-trimester transabdominal ultrasound? a. Place the woman on nothing by mouth (nil per os [NPO]) for 12 hours. b. Instruct the woman to drink 1 to 2 quarts of water. c. Administer an enema. d. Perform an abdominal preparation
b. Instruct the woman to drink 1 to 2 quarts of water.
In contrast to placenta previa, what is the most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae? a. Bleeding b. Intense abdominal pain c. Uterine activity d. Cramping
b. Intense abdominal pain
The nurse who is caring for a woman hospitalized for hyperemesis gravidarum would expect the initial treatment to involve what? a. Corticosteroids to reduce inflammation b. Intravenous (IV) therapy to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances c. Antiemetic medication, such as pyridoxine, to control nausea and vomiting d. Enteral nutrition to correct nutritional deficits
b. Intravenous (IV) therapy to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances
What is the correct terminology for an abortion in which the fetus dies but is retained within the uterus? a. Inevitable abortion b. Missed abortion c. Incomplete abortion d. Threatened abortion
b. Missed abortion
A new mother with a thyroid disorder has come for a lactation follow-up appointment. Which thyroid disorder is a contraindication for breastfeeding? a. Hyperthyroidism b. PKU c. Hypothyroidism d. Thyroid storm
b. PKU
The nurse is planning the care for a laboring client with diabetes mellitus. This client is at greater risk for which clinical finding? a. Oligohydramnios b. Polyhydramnios c. Postterm pregnancy d. Chromosomal abnormalities
b. Polyhydramnios
Which laboratory marker is indicative of DIC? a. Bleeding time of 10 minutes b. Presence of fibrin split products c. Thrombocytopenia d. Hypofibrinogenemia
b. Presence of fibrin split products
Which clinical finding is a major use of ultrasonography in the first trimester? a. Amniotic fluid volume b. Presence of maternal abnormalities c. Placental location and maturity d. Cervical length
b. Presence of maternal abnormalities
The client being cared for has severe preeclampsia and is receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion. Which new finding would give the nurse cause for concern? a. Sleepy, sedated affect b. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute c. DTRs of 2 d. Absent ankle clonus
b. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
A client with maternal phenylketonuria (PKU) has come to the obstetrical clinic to begin prenatal care. Why would this preexisting condition result in the need for closer monitoring during pregnancy? a. PKU is a recognized cause of preterm labor. b. The fetus may develop neurologic problems. c. A pregnant woman is more likely to die without strict dietary control. d. Women with PKU are usually mentally handicapped and should not reproduce.
b. The fetus may develop neurologic problems
A perinatal nurse is giving discharge instructions to a woman, status post suction, and curettage secondary to a hydatidiform mole. The woman asks why she must take oral contraceptives for the next 12 months. What is the best response by the nurse? a. If you get pregnant within 1 year, the chance of a successful pregnancy is very small. Therefore, if you desire a future pregnancy, it would be better for you to use the most reliable method of contraception available. b. The major risk to you after a molar pregnancy is a type of cancer that can be diagnosed only by measuring the same hormone that your body produces during pregnancy. If you were to get pregnant, then it would make the diagnosis of this cancer more difficult. c. If you can avoid a pregnancy for the next year, the chance of developing a second molar pregnancy is rare. Therefore, to improve your chance of a successful pregnancy, not getting pregnant at this time is best. d. Oral contraceptives are the only form of birth control that will prevent a recurrence of a molar pregnancy.
b. The major risk to you after a molar pregnancy is a type of cancer that can be diagnosed only by measuring the same hormone that your body produces during pregnancy. If you were to get pregnant, then it would make the diagnosis of this cancer more difficult.
A pregnant woman is being discharged from the hospital after the placement of a cervical cerclage because of a history of recurrent pregnancy loss, secondary to an incompetent cervix. Which information regarding postprocedural care should the nurse emphasize in the discharge teaching? a. Any vaginal discharge should be immediately reported to her health care provider. b. The presence of any contractions, rupture of membranes (ROM), or severe perineal pressure should be reported. c. The client will need to make arrangements for care at home, because her activity level will be restricted. d. The client will be scheduled for a cesarean birth.
b. The presence of any contractions, rupture of membranes (ROM), or severe perineal pressure should be reported.
A 26-year-old pregnant woman, gravida 2, para 1-0-0-1, is 28 weeks pregnant when she experiences bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. On her arrival at the hospital, which diagnostic procedure will the client most likely have performed? a. Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity b. Transvaginal ultrasound for placental location c. Contraction stress test (CST) d. Internal fetal monitoring
b. Transvaginal ultrasound for placental location
In terms of the incidence and classification of diabetes, which information should the nurse keep in mind when evaluating clients during their ongoing prenatal appointments? a. Type 1 diabetes is most common. b. Type 2 diabetes often goes undiagnosed. c. GDM means that the woman will receive insulin treatment until 6 weeks after birth. d. Type 1 diabetes may become type 2 during pregnancy
b. Type 2 diabetes often goes undiagnosed.
An MSAFP screening indicates an elevated level of alpha-fetoprotein. The test is repeated, and again the level is reported as higher than normal. What is the next step in the assessment sequence to determine the well-being of the fetus? a. PUBS b. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies c. BPP for fetal well-being d. Amniocentesis for genetic anomalies
b. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies
A laboring woman with no known risk factors suddenly experiences spontaneous ROM. The fluid consists of bright red blood. Her contractions are consistent with her current stage of labor. No change in uterine resting tone has occurred. The fetal heart rate (FHR) begins to decline rapidly after the ROM. The nurse should suspect the possibility of what condition? a. Placenta previa b. Vasa previa c. Severe abruptio placentae d. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
b. Vasa previa
While working with the pregnant client in her first trimester, what information does the nurse provide regarding when CVS can be performed (in weeks of gestation)? a. 4 b. 8 c. 10 d. 14
c. 10
The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG) has developed a comprehensive list of risk factors associated with the development of preeclampsia. Which client exhibits the greatest number of these risk factors? a. 30-year-old obese Caucasian with her third pregnancy b. 41-year-old Caucasian primigravida c. 19-year-old African American who is pregnant with twins d. 25-year-old Asian American whose pregnancy is the result of donor insemination
c. 19-year-old African American who is pregnant with twins
The indirect Coombs test is a screening tool for Rh incompatibility. If the titer is greater than ______, amniocentesis may be a necessary next step. a. 1:2 b. 1:4 c. 1:8 d. 1:12
c. 1:8
A client in the third trimester has just undergone an amniocentesis to determine fetal lung maturity. Which statement regarding this testing is important for the nurse in formulating a care plan? a. Because of new imaging techniques, an amniocentesis should have been performed in the first trimester. b. Despite the use of ultrasonography, complications still occur in the mother or infant in 5% to 10% of cases. c. Administration of Rho(D) immunoglobulin may be necessary. d. The presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid is always a cause for concern.
c. Administration of Rho(D) immunoglobulin may be necessary.
At 35 weeks of pregnancy, a woman experiences preterm labor. Although tocolytic medications are administered and she is placed on bed rest, she continues to experience regular uterine contractions and her cervix is beginning to dilate and efface. What is an important test for fetal well-being at this time? a. PUBS b. Ultrasound for fetal size c. Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity d. NST
c. Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity
Which statement most accurately describes the HELLP syndrome? a. Mild form of preeclampsia b. Diagnosed by a nurse alert to its symptoms c. Characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets d. Associated with preterm labor but not perinatal mortality
c. Characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets
A woman arrives for evaluation of signs and symptoms that include a missed period, adnexal fullness, tenderness, and dark red vaginal bleeding. On examination, the nurse notices an ecchymotic blueness around the womans umbilicus. What does this finding indicate? a. Normal integumentary changes associated with pregnancy b. Turner sign associated with appendicitis c. Cullen sign associated with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy d. Chadwick sign associated with early pregnancy
c. Cullen sign associated with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy
During a prenatal visit, the nurse is explaining dietary management to a woman with pregestational diabetes. Which statement by the client reassures the nurse that teaching has been effective? a. I will need to eat 600 more calories per day because I am pregnant. b. I can continue with the same diet as before pregnancy as long as it is well balanced. c. Diet and insulin needs change during pregnancy. d. I will plan my diet based on the results of urine glucose testing.
c. Diet and insulin needs change during pregnancy.
A primigravida is being monitored at the prenatal clinic for preeclampsia. Which finding is of greatest concern to the nurse? a. Blood pressure (BP) increase to 138/86 mm Hg b. Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks c. Dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine d. Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day
c. Dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine
A number of metabolic changes occur throughout pregnancy. Which physiologic adaptation of pregnancy will influence the nurses plan of care? a. Insulin crosses the placenta to the fetus only in the first trimester, after which the fetus secretes its own. b. Women with insulin-dependent diabetes are prone to hyperglycemia during the first trimester because they are consuming more sugar. c. During the second and third trimesters, pregnancy exerts a diabetogenic effect that ensures an abundant supply of glucose for the fetus. d. Maternal insulin requirements steadily decline during pregnancy.
c. During the second and third trimesters, pregnancy exerts a diabetogenic effect that ensures an abundant supply of glucose for the fetus.
To manage her diabetes appropriately and to ensure a good fetal outcome, how would the pregnant woman with diabetes alter her diet? a. Eat six small equal meals per day. b. Reduce the carbohydrates in her diet. c. Eat her meals and snacks on a fixed schedule. d. Increase her consumption of protein.
c. Eat her meals and snacks on a fixed schedule.
Women with mild gestational hypertension and mild preeclampsia can be safely managed at home with frequent maternal and fetal evaluation. Complete or partial bed rest is still frequently ordered by some providers. Which complication is rarely the result of prolonged bed rest? a. Thrombophlebitis b. Psychologic stress c. Fluid retention d. Cardiovascular deconditioning
c. Fluid retention
Which finding on a prenatal visit at 10 weeks of gestation might suggest a hydatidiform mole? a. Complaint of frequent mild nausea b. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg c. Fundal height measurement of 18 cm d. History of bright red spotting for 1 day, weeks ago
c. Fundal height measurement of 18 cm
In the past, factors to determine whether a woman was likely to develop a high-risk pregnancy were primarily evaluated from a medical point of view. A broader, more comprehensive approach to high-risk pregnancy has been adopted today. Four categories have now been established, based on the threats to the health of the woman and the outcome of pregnancy. Which category should not be included in this group? a. Biophysical b. Psychosocial c. Geographic d. Environmental
c. Geographic
What condition indicates concealed hemorrhage when the client experiences abruptio placentae? a. Decrease in abdominal pain b. Bradycardia c. Hard, boardlike abdomen d. Decrease in fundal height
c. Hard, boardlike abdomen
The labor of a pregnant woman with preeclampsia is going to be induced. Before initiating the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion, the nurse reviews the womans latest laboratory test findings, which reveal a platelet count of 90,000 mm3 , an elevated aspartate aminotransaminase (AST) level, and a falling hematocrit. The laboratory results are indicative of which condition? a. Eclampsia b. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) syndrome c. Hemolysis, elevated liver enzyme levels, and low platelet levels (HELLP) syndrome d. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia
c. Hemolysis, elevated liver enzyme levels, and low platelet levels (HELLP) syndrome
Hypothyroidism occurs in 2 to 3 pregnancies per 1000. Because severe hypothyroidism is associated with infertility and miscarriage, it is not often seen in pregnancy. Regardless of this fact, the nurse should be aware of the characteristic symptoms of hypothyroidism. Which do they include? (Select all that apply.) a. Hot flashes b. Weight loss c. Lethargy d. Decrease in exercise capacity e. Cold intolerance
c. Lethargy d. Decrease in exercise capacity e. Cold intolerance
A 30-year-old gravida 3, para 2-0-0-2 is at 18 weeks of gestation. Which screening test should the nurse recommend be ordered for this client? a. BPP b. Chorionic villi sampling c. MSAFP screening d. Screening for diabetes mellitus
c. MSAFP screening
The management of the pregnant client who has experienced a pregnancy loss depends on the type of miscarriage and the signs and symptoms. While planning care for a client who desires outpatient management after a first-trimester loss, what would the nurse expect the plan to include? a. Dilation and curettage (D&C) b. Dilation and evacuation (D&E) c. Misoprostol d. Ergot products
c. Misoprostol
Which preexisting factor is known to increase the risk of GDM? a. Underweight before pregnancy b. Maternal age younger than 25 years c. Previous birth of large infant d. Previous diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus
c. Previous birth of large infant
A woman with worsening preeclampsia is admitted to the hospitals labor and birth unit. The physician explains the plan of care for severe preeclampsia, including the induction of labor, to the woman and her husband. Which statement by the husband leads the nurse to believe that the couple needs further information? a. I will help my wife use the breathing techniques that we learned in our childbirth classes. b. I will give my wife ice chips to eat during labor. c. Since we will be here for a while, I will call my mother so she can bring the two boys 2 years and 4 years of age to visit their mother. d. I will stay with my wife during her labor, just as we planned.
c. Since we will be here for a while, I will call my mother so she can bring the two boys 2 years and 4 years of age to visit their mother.
A woman who is 30 weeks of gestation arrives at the hospital with bleeding. Which differential diagnosis would not be applicable for this client? a. Placenta previa b. Abruptio placentae c. Spontaneous abortion d. Cord insertion
c. Spontaneous abortion
Which information should nurses provide to expectant mothers when teaching them how to evaluate daily fetal movement counts (DFMCs)? a. Alcohol or cigarette smoke can irritate the fetus into greater activity. b. Kick counts should be taken every hour and averaged every 6 hours, with every other 6-hour stretch off. c. The fetal alarm signal should go off when fetal movements stop entirely for 12 hours. d. A count of less than four fetal movements in 1 hour warrants future evaluation.
c. The fetal alarm signal should go off when fetal movements stop entirely for 12 hours.
Which statement regarding the laboratory test for glycosylated hemoglobin Alc is correct? a. The laboratory test for glycosylated hemoglobin Alc is performed for all pregnant women, not only those with or likely to have diabetes. b. This laboratory test is a snapshot of glucose control at the moment. c. This laboratory test measures the levels of hemoglobin Alc, which should remain at less than 7%. d. This laboratory test is performed on the womans urine, not her blood.
c. This laboratory test measures the levels of hemoglobin Alc, which should remain at less than 7%.
A woman arrives at the emergency department with complaints of bleeding and cramping. The initial nursing history is significant for a last menstrual period 6 weeks ago. On sterile speculum examination, the primary care provider finds that the cervix is closed. The anticipated plan of care for this woman would be based on a probable diagnosis of which type of spontaneous abortion? a. Incomplete b. Inevitable c. Threatened d. Septic
c. Threatened
A pregnant woman has been receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion for treatment of severe preeclampsia for 24 hours. On assessment, the nurse finds the following vital signs: temperature 37.3 C, pulse rate 88 beats per minute, respiratory rate 10 breaths per minute, BP 148/90 mm Hg, absent deep tendon reflexes (DTRs), and no ankle clonus. The client complains, Im so thirsty and warm. What is the nurses immediate action? a. To call for an immediate magnesium sulfate level b. To administer oxygen c. To discontinue the magnesium sulfate infusion d. To prepare to administer hydralazine
c. To discontinue the magnesium sulfate infusion
What is the primary purpose for magnesium sulfate administration for clients with preeclampsia and eclampsia? a. To improve patellar reflexes and increase respiratory efficiency b. To shorten the duration of labor c. To prevent convulsions d. To prevent a boggy uterus and lessen lochial flow
c. To prevent convulsions
The nurse is preparing to administer methotrexate to the client. This hazardous drug is most often used for which obstetric complication? a. Complete hydatidiform mole b. Missed abortion c. Unruptured ectopic pregnancy d. Abruptio placentae
c. Unruptured ectopic pregnancy
A woman with gestational diabetes has had little or no experience reading and interpreting glucose levels. The client shows the nurse her readings for the past few days. Which reading signals the nurse that the client may require an adjustment of insulin or carbohydrates? a. 75 mg/dl before lunch. This is low; better eat now. b. 115 mg/dl 1 hour after lunch. This is a little high; maybe eat a little less next time. c. 115 mg/dl 2 hours after lunch. This is too high; it is time for insulin. d. 50 mg/dl just after waking up from a nap. This is too low; maybe eat a snack before going to sleep.
d. 50 mg/dl just after waking up from a nap. This is too low; maybe eat a snack before going to sleep.
A woman at 39 weeks of gestation with a history of preeclampsia is admitted to the labor and birth unit. She suddenly experiences increased contraction frequency of every 1 to 2 minutes, dark red vaginal bleeding, and a tense, painful abdomen. Which clinical change does the nurse anticipate? a. Eclamptic seizure b. Rupture of the uterus c. Placenta previa d. Abruptio placentae
d. Abruptio placentae
The client has been on magnesium sulfate for 20 hours for the treatment of preeclampsia. She just delivered a viable infant girl 30 minutes ago. What uterine findings does the nurse expect to observe or assess in this client? a. Absence of uterine bleeding in the postpartum period b. Fundus firm below the level of the umbilicus c. Scant lochia flow d. Boggy uterus with heavy lochia flow
d. Boggy uterus with heavy lochia flow
Which statement best describes chronic hypertension? a. Chronic hypertension is defined as hypertension that begins during pregnancy and lasts for the duration of the pregnancy. b. Chronic hypertension is considered severe when the systolic BP is higher than 140 mm Hg or the diastolic BP is higher than 90 mm Hg. c. Chronic hypertension is general hypertension plus proteinuria. d. Chronic hypertension can occur independently of or simultaneously with preeclampsia.
d. Chronic hypertension can occur independently of or simultaneously with preeclampsia.
A woman arrives at the clinic seeking confirmation that she is pregnant. The following information is obtained: She is 24 years old with a body mass index (BMI) of 17.5. She admits to having used cocaine several times during the past year and occasionally drinks alcohol. Her blood pressure is 108/70 mm Hg. The family history is positive for diabetes mellitus and cancer. Her sister recently gave birth to an infant with a neural tube defect (NTD). Which characteristics places this client in a high-risk category? a. Blood pressure, age, BMI b. Drug and alcohol use, age, family history c. Family history, blood pressure (BP), BMI d. Family history, BMI, drug and alcohol abuse
d. Family history, BMI, drug and alcohol abuse
A 32-year-old primigravida is admitted with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Which information assists the nurse in developing the plan of care? a. Bed rest and analgesics are the recommended treatment. b. She will be unable to conceive in the future. c. A D&C will be performed to remove the products of conception. d. Hemorrhage is the primary concern.
d. Hemorrhage is the primary concern.
The nurse who elects to practice in the area of womens health must have a thorough understanding of miscarriage. Which statement regarding this condition is most accurate? a. A miscarriage is a natural pregnancy loss before labor begins. b. It occurs in fewer than 5% of all clinically recognized pregnancies. c. Careless maternal behavior, such as poor nutrition or excessive exercise, can be a factor in causing a miscarriage. d. If a miscarriage occurs before the 12th week of pregnancy, then it may be observed only as moderate discomfort and blood loss.
d. If a miscarriage occurs before the 12th week of pregnancy, then it may be observed only as moderate discomfort and blood loss.
Nurses should be aware of the strengths and limitations of various biochemical assessments during pregnancy. Which statement regarding monitoring techniques is the most accurate? a. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is becoming more popular because it provides early diagnosis. b. MSAFP screening is recommended only for women at risk for NTDs. c. PUBS is one of the triple-marker tests for Down syndrome. d. MSAFP is a screening tool only; it identifies candidates for more definitive diagnostic procedures
d. MSAFP is a screening tool only; it identifies candidates for more definitive diagnostic procedures
The nurse has evaluated a client with preeclampsia by assessing DTRs. The result is a grade of 3+. Which DTR response most accurately describes this score? a. Sluggish or diminished b. Brisk, hyperactive, with intermittent or transient clonus c. Active or expected response d. More brisk than expected, slightly hyperactive
d. More brisk than expected, slightly hyperactive
Which physiologic alteration of pregnancy most significantly affects glucose metabolism? a. Pancreatic function in the islets of Langerhans is affected by pregnancy. b. Pregnant women use glucose at a more rapid rate than nonpregnant women. c. Pregnant women significantly increase their dietary intake. d. Placental hormones are antagonistic to insulin, thus resulting in insulin resistance
d. Placental hormones are antagonistic to insulin, thus resulting in insulin resistance
How does the nurse document a NST during which two or more FHR accelerations of 15 beats per minute or more occur with fetal movement in a 20-minute period? a. Nonreactive b. Positive c. Negative d. Reactive
d. Reactive
In comparing the abdominal and transvaginal methods of ultrasound examination, which information should the nurse provide to the client? a. Both require the woman to have a full bladder. b. The abdominal examination is more useful in the first trimester. c. Initially, the transvaginal examination can be painful. d. The transvaginal examination allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater detail.
d. The transvaginal examination allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater detail.
A woman with preeclampsia has a seizure. What is the nurses highest priority during a seizure? a. To insert an oral airway b. To suction the mouth to prevent aspiration c. To administer oxygen by mask d. To stay with the client and call for help
d. To stay with the client and call for help