OB/GYN Penny Questions

All of the following statements are true of endovaginal imaging except: a. endovaginal imaging requires a full urinary bladder b. endovainal imaging leads to reduced waiting time for the patient and quicker medical management c. endovaginal imaging offers improved resolution of the endometrium, uterus, and ovaries, especially in the obese patient d. endovaginal imaging is contraindicated for pediatric patients, and for those with an intact hymen

a. endovaginal imaging requires a full urinary bladder

Which of the following laboratory tests may be used as a tumor marker for an ovarian dysgerminoma? a. lactate dehydrogenase b. alpha-fetoprotein c. cancer antigen CA 125 d. Tamoxifan

a. lactate dehydrogenase

The pelvic muscle group that is located between the coccyx and the pubis is the: a. levator ani muscle b. rectus abdominis muscle c. obturator internus muscles d. piriformis muscle

a. levator ani muscle

What artifact could be noted emanating from air or gas within the endometrium in a patient with endometritis? a. ring down b. mirror image c. posterior enhancement d. absent doppler signal

a. ring down

The space of Retzius is located: a. between the uterus and bladder b. between the bladder and ilium c. along the lateral aspect of the uterus d. between the bladder and pubic bone

between the bladder and pubic bone

Which of the following definitions best describes the term adnexa? a. the area posterior to the uterus, between the uterus and rectum b. the area located posterior to the broad ligaments and adjacent to the uterus c. the area anterior to the uterus, between the uterus and urinary bladder d. the area lateral to the iliac crest and posterior to the pubic symphysis

b. the area located posterior to the broad ligaments and adjacent to the uterus

Which of the following statements is not true concerning transabdominal pelvic imaging? a. Transabdominal imaging of the pelvis provides a global view of the entire pelvis b. Transabdominal imaging lacks the detail of endovaginal imaging c. obese patients and patients with a retroverted or retroflexed uterus present a unique challenge to the transabdominal technique d. transabdominal imaging is contraindicated for pediatric patients

d. transabdominal imaging is contraindicated for pediatric patients

The anterior CDS is also referred to as the: a. space of retzius b. rectouterine pouch c. pouch of douglas d. vesicouterine pouch

d. vesicouterine pouch

Endovaginal transducers may be cleaned by submerging in a(n) _______ - based solution. a. glutaraldehyde b. ascites c. formaldehyde d. alcohol

a. glutaraldehyde

The innominate bones of the pelvis consist of the: a. ischium, ilium, and pubic bones b. ilium, sacrum, and coccyx c. sacrum, coccyx, and pubic bones d. sacrum, ischium, and ilium bones

a. ischium, ilium, and pubic bones

The inner mucosal lining of the uterus is the: a. myometrium b. endometirum c. serosal layer d. perimetrium

b. endometirum

Amenorrhea is defined as: a. the first menstrual cycle b. excessive bleeding after the cycle c. lack of menstrual flow d. painful menstrual flow

c. lack of menstrual flow

All of the following are associated with acute pelvic pain, except: a. pelvic inflammatory disease b. ruptured ovarian hemorrhagic cyst c. perforated IUD d. Asherman syndrome

d. Asherman syndrome

Which of the following would typically not be associated with amenorrhea? a. asherman syndrome b. polycystic ovarian disease c. pregnancy d. adenomyosis

d. adenomyosis

Peritoneal spaces located posterior to the broad ligament are referred to as the: a. recouterine spaces b. anterior CDS c. lateral CDS d. adnexa

d. adnexa

Which of the following is best defined as intermenstrual bleeding? a. dysmenorrhea b. menorrhagia c. menometrohaggia d. metrorrhagia

d. metrorrhagia

Causes of postmenopausal bleeding include all of the following except: a. Asherman Syndrome b. Endometrial atrophy c. Endometrial hyperplasia d. Intracavity fibroids

a. Asherman Syndrome

The anechoic midline brain structures located between the frontal horns of the lateral ventrices is the: a. CSP b. Cavum vergae c. corpus callosum d. fourth ventricle

a. CSP

Which of the following most often leads to an elevation of CA-125? a. Ovarian Carcinoma b. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome c. Ovarian Torsion d. Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome

a. Ovarian Carcinoma

Which of the following would most likely be associated with hirituism? a. PCOS b. Meigs syndrome c. adenomyosis d. adenomyomatosis

a. PCOS

The sonographic "string of pearls" sign is indicative of: a. Polycystic ovary syndrome b. Tubo ovarian disease c. PID d. OHS

a. Polycystic ovary syndrome

Which of the following statements would be considered an acceptable disadvantage of endovaginal imaging? a. endovaginal imaging has a limited field of view b. the resolution of endovaginal imaging is reduced compared to transabdominal imaging c. endovaginal is more time consuming than transabdominal imaging d. endovaginal imaging can be performed only by female sonographers

a. endovaginal imaging has a limited field of view

The "keyhole" sign describes the sonographic findings of a(n): a. enlarged bladder and dilated urethra b. bilateral renal agenesis c. unilateral renal agenesis d. dilation of the renal pelvis and proximal ureter

a. enlarged bladder and dilated urethra

What form of permanent birth control would be seen sonographically as echogenic, linear structures within the lumen of both isthmic portions of Fallopian tubes: a. essure devices b. paragards c. lippes loops d. mirenas

a. essure devices

What is the name of the dominant follicle prior to ovulation? a. graafian b. corpus luteum c. morula d. corpus albicans

a. graafian

Which of the following is not consistent with the diagnosis of nonimmune hydrops? a. hypoplastic mandible b. pleural effusion c. Ascites d. Subcutaneous edema

a. hypoplastic mandible

The "I" in OEIS complex stands for: a. imperforate anus b. ilial dysfunction c. irregular bladder enlargement d. iniencephaly

a. imperforate anus

Which of the following would be most likely fetal cranial findings with TORCH infections? a. intracranial calcifications b. cerebral atrophy c. porencephaly d. scaphocephaly

a. intracranial calcifications

Which of the following best describes a choledochal cyst? a. it is the cystic dilatation of the common bile duct b. it is the herniation of the abdominal contents into the umbilical cord c. it is the congenital absence of the cystic duct d. it is the inflammation of the biliary tree caused by extrinsic obstruction

a. it is the cystic dilatation of the common bile duct

During which phase of the endometrial cycle would the endometrium yield the three line sign? a. late proliferative b. early proliferative c. early secretory d. late secretory

a. late proliferative

Abnormally heavy and prolonged menstrual flow between periods is termed: a. menometrorrhagia b. menarche c. menorrhagia d. dysmenorrhea

a. menometrorrhagia

Which of the following could also be described as intermenstrual bleeding? a. metrorrhagia b. polymenorrhea c. menometrorrhagia d. menorrhagia

a. metrorrhagia

Twins that have a threat of being conjoined are: a. mono mono b. mono di c. di d. di di

a. mono mono

The most common form of monozygotic twins is: a. monochorionic diamniotic b. dichorionic monoamniotic c. monochorionic monoamniotic d. none of the above

a. monochorionic diamniotic

Pelvic bones, when visualized on sonography will produce: a. posterior shadowing b. posterior enhancement c. mirror image artifact d. minimal enhancement

a. posterior shadowing

Which of the following would cause a bladder outlet obstruction? a. posterior urethral valves b. fetal ovarian cyst c. pelviectasis d. pelvocaliectasis

a. posterior urethral valves

Pregnancy-induced maternal high blood pressure and excess protein in the urine after 20 weeks' gestation is termed: a. preeclampsia b. gestational diabetes c. eclampsia d. gestational trophoblastic disease

a. preeclampsia

Causes of female infertility include all of the following except: a. previous IUD devices b. polycystic ovary syndrome c. asherman syndrome d. endometriosis

a. previous IUD devices

The clinical manifestations of supine hypotensive syndrome include all of the following except: a. proteinuria b. tachycardia c. nausea d. pallor

a. proteinuria

Precocious puberty is best defined as: a. pubertal development before the age of 8 b. pubertal development before the age of 13 c. excessive hair growth in girls in areas where hair growth is normally negligible d. changes within the female that are caused by increased levels of Alpha fetal protein

a. pubertal development before the age of 8

The placenta is considered too thick when it measures? a. > 4mm b. > 4cm c. > 8mm d. > 3.5cm

b. > 4cm

A large, mostly cystic mass containing a thick, midline septation is noted in the cervical spine region of a fetus. This most likely represents a(n): a. Saccrococcygeal teratoma b. Cystic hygroma c. Cephalocele d. Anophthalmia

b. Cystic hygroma

Which of the following would most likely lead to the development of endometrial adhesions? a. endometrial carcinoma b. D&C c. Pregnancy d. Adenomyosis

b. D&C

What would increase a patient's likelihood of suffering from thromboembolism? a. polycystic ovary disease b. ERT c. endometrial carcinoma d. endometrial atrophy

b. ERT

The most accurate measurement for estimating gestational age is: a. BPD b. HC c. Transcerebellar measurement d. lateral vent

b. HC

The malignant ovarian tumor with gastrintestinal origin is the: a. Brenner tumor b. Krukenberg tumor c. yolk sac tumor d. granulosa cell tumor

b. Krukenberg tumor

Which of the following would not be normally located within the midline of the fetal brain? a. CSP b. Lobes of the thalamus c. Third ventricle d. Falx cerebi

b. Lobes of the thalamus

Which of the following diagnostic tests is used to evaluate emitted radiation from the patient to assess the function of organs? a. MRI b. Nuc Med c. Radiography d. CT

b. Nuc Med

Which of the following could be described as an infection of the female genital tract that may involve the ovaries, uterus, and/or fallopian tubes? a. pseudomyxoma peritoni b. PID c. Polycystic ovarian disease d. ovarian torsion

b. PID

Webbed fingers or toes are termed: a. Clinodactyly b. Syndactyly c. Polydacyly d. Whren sydrome

b. Syndactyly

An increased nuchal fold is most likely associated with: a. Dandy Walker syndrome b. T 21 c. T 13 d. Nuchal Cord

b. T 21

Widened pelvic angles and duodenal atresia are most consistent with the sonographic markers for: a. T 8 b. T 21 c. T 18 d. T 13

b. T 21

All of the following are associated with an abnormal NT except: a. T 21 b. T16 c. T18 d. Turners

b. T16

What is the most common cause of hydronephrosis in the neonate and the most common form of fetal renal obstruction? a. UVJ obstruction b. UPJ obstruction c. Vesicoureteral reflux d. Urethral atresia

b. UPJ obstruction

IUGR is defined as: a. a small for dates fetus b. a fetus that falls below the 10th percentile for gestational age c. a fetus that is immunocompromised and had decreased umbilical cord Doppler ratios for gestational age d. a fetus that fall below the fifth percentile for gestational age

b. a fetus that falls below the 10th percentile for gestational age

A disorder that results in abnormal bone growth and dwarfism is: a. osteogenesis imperfecta b. achondroplasia c. radial ray defect d. caudal regression syndrome

b. achondroplasia

What doppler artifact occurs when the doppler sampling rate is not high enough to display the dopper shift frequency? a. doppler noise b. aliasing c. twinkle artifact d. absent doppler signal

b. aliasing

Which of the following would not typically produce an elevation in hCG? a. down syndrome b. anembryonic pregnancy c. triploidy d. molar pregnancy

b. anembryonic pregnancy

Which of the following would be least likely associated with an elevated MSAFP? a. pentalogy of cantrell b. anorectal atresia c. gastroschisis d. omphalocele

b. anorectal atresia

For the normal biophysical profile, the amniotic fluid pocket should measure: a. greater than 4 cm in two perpendicular planes b. at least 1 cm in two perpendicular planes c. greater than 5 cm in two perpendicular planes d. at least 3 cm in two perpendicular planes

b. at least 1 cm in two perpendicular planes

The tricuspid valve is located: a. between the right atrium and the left atrium b. between the right ventricle and the right atrium c. between the left ventricle and the left atrium d. between the left atrium and the aorta

b. between the right ventricle and the right atrium

Which of the following is a benign congenital neck cysts found most often near the angle of the mandible? a. epignathus b. brachial cleft cyst c. thyroglossal duct cyst d. fetal goiter

b. brachial cleft cyst

Rounded head shape is referred to as: a. dolichocephaly b. brachycephaly c. cebocephaly d. craniosynostosis

b. brachycephaly

The inner membrane surrounding the fetus is referred to as: a. placenta b. chorion c. amnion d. yolk sac

b. chorion

The outer membrane of the gestation is referred to as: a. placenta b. chorion c. amnion d. yolk sac

b. chorion

With a normal pregnancy, the first structure noted within the decidualized endometrium is the: a. yolk sac b. chorionic sac c. amnionic cavity d. embryo

b. chorionic sac

An abnormal division in the lip is referred to as: a. micrognathia b. cleft lip c. anophthalmia d. cebocephaly

b. cleft lip

Normally, the S/D ratio: a. increases with advancing gestation b. decreases with advancing gestation c. reverses occasionally during a normal pregnancy d. has an absent diastolic component

b. decreases with advancing gestation

The visualization of the fetal stomach within the fetal chest is most indicative of: a. pulmonary sequestration b. diaphragmatic hernia c. turner syndrome d. CAM

b. diaphragmatic hernia

Twins that result from the fertilization of two ovum are called: a. diamniotic b. dizygotic c. monozygotic d. monochorionic

b. dizygotic

Fraternal twins result from: a. monozygotic twinning b. dizygotic twinning c. heterotopic pregnancies d. monochorionic pregnancies

b. dizygotic twinning

What is the fetal shunt that connects the pulmonary artery to the aortic arch? a. foramen ovale b. ductus arteriosis c. ductus venosis d. foramen od bochdalek

b. ductus arteriosis

The "double bubble" sign is indicative of: a. esophageal atresia b. duodenal atresia c. hydrocephalus d. anorectal atresia

b. duodenal atresia

All of the following are characteristics of spina bifida occulta except: a. closed defect b. elevated MSAFP c. sacral dimple d. hemangioma

b. elevated MSAFP

A patient presents to the sonography department with compaints of infertility and painful menstrual cycles. Sonographically, you discover a cystic mass on the ovary consisting of low level echoes. Based on the clinical and sonographic findings, what is the most likely diagnosis? a. cystic teratoma b. endometrioma c. PID d. OHS

b. endometrioma

All of the following are associated with spina bifida except: a. splaying of the laminae b. enlarged posterior fossa c. lemon sign d. banana sign

b. enlarged posterior fossa

A 24 year old female patient presents to the sonography department for a pelvic sonogram with an indication of pelvic pain. Upon sonographic interrogation, the sonographer notes an anechoic mass within the vagina. This mass most likely represents: a. nabothian cyst b. gartner duct cyst c. dandy walker cyst d. ovarian cyst

b. gartner duct cyst

Normal ovarian flow is said to be: a. low resistant during menstruation and high resistant during the proliferative phase b. high resistant during menstruation and low resistant at the time of ovulation c. low resistant d. high resistant

b. high resistant during menstruation and low resistant at the time of ovulation

Fusion of the lower poles of the kidneys describes: a. renal agenesis b. horseshoe kidneys c. moiety d. meckel-gruber syndrome

b. horseshoe kidneys

The sonographic finding of a fluid filled cranium with absence of cerebral tissue is consistent with: a. hydrocephalus b. hydranencephaly c. holoprosencephaly d. schizencephaly

b. hydranencephaly

Anechoic fluid noted distending the uterus and cervix within a pediatric patient is termed: a. hydrocolpos b. hydrometrocolpos c. hydrometra d. hematometrocolpos

b. hydrometrocolpos

The periovulatory phase may also be referred to as the: a. early secretory phase b. late proliferative phase c. late secretory phase d. early proliferative phase

b. late proliferative phase

The blood returning from the lungs through the pulmonary veins enters into the: a. right atrium b. left atrium c. right ventricle d. left ventricle

b. left atrium

Prolapse of the pelvic organs most often involves the: a. rectus abdominis and obturator internus muscles b. levator ani and coccygeous muscles c. obturator internus and levator ani muscles d. piriformis and iliopsoas muscles

b. levator ani and coccygeous muscles

The lack of sulci within the fetal cerebrum is a reliable indicator of: a. agenesis of the corpus callosum b. lissencephaly c. schizencephay d. porencephaly

b. lissencephaly

Compared with a normal IUP, the ectopic pregnancy will have a : a. high hcg b. low hcg c. markedly elevated hcg d. high afp

b. low hcg

The second phase of the ovarian cycle is called the: a. follicular phase b. luteal phase c. secretory phase d. proliferative phase

b. luteal phase

Which of the following would increase the likelihood of developing placenta previa? a. vaginal bleeding b. previous C section c. corpus albicans d. chorioangioma

b. previous C section

What hormone, produced by the corpus luteum, maintains the thickened endometrium? a. estrogen b. progesterone c. hCG d. Luteinizing hormone

b. progesterone

Malignant ovarian tumors may leak mucinous material, and this condition is known as: a. dandy walker b. psuedomyxoma peritonei c. asherman syndrome d. Fitz Hugh Curtis Syndrome

b. psuedomyxoma peritonei

Which of the following would a newborn most likely suffer from if he or she were born prior to 32 weeks as a result of multiple gestation complications? a. ascites b. pulmonary hypoplasia c. amnionitis d. preeclampsia

b. pulmonary hypoplasia

The twin that will appear larger in TTTS is the: a. donor b. recipient c. both will be the same d. both will be demised

b. recipient

The uterine arteries supply blood to all of the following except: a. fallopian tubes b. rectum c. ovaries d. uterus

b. rectum

Which of the following are the paired anterior abdominal muscles that extend from xiphoid process of the sternum to the pubic bone? a. iliopsoas muscles b. rectus abdominis muscles c. obturator interni muscles d. piriformis muscles

b. rectus abdominis muscles

The "lying down" adrenal sign describes the sonographic findings of: a. enlarged bladder and urethra b. renal agenesis c. MCDK disease d. Posterior urethral valves

b. renal agenesis

In what location does gastroschisis occur more often: a. left lateral of the cord insertion b. right lateral of the cord insertion c. just superior to the fetal bladder d. base of the umbilical cord

b. right lateral of the cord insertion

The exaggerated distance between the first toe and the second toe is: a. trident toes b. sandal gap c. phocomelia d. mesomelia

b. sandal gap

Which of the following is the most common malignancy of the ovary? a. cystic teratoma b. serous cystadenocarcinoma c. krukenberg tumor d. sertoli-leydig cell tumor

b. serous cystadenocarcinoma

Which statement is true concerning fetal outflow tracts: a. the normal pulmonary artery should be positioned posterior to the aorta and should be visualized passing under it b. the normal pulmonary artery should be positioned anterior to the aorta and should be visualized crossing over it c. the right ventricular outflow tract leads to the aorta d. the left ventricular outflow tract leads to the pulmonary artery

b. the normal pulmonary artery should be positioned anterior to the aorta and should be visualized crossing over it

Sonographic findings of the endometrium in a patient with a history of PID, Fever, and elevated WBC count would include all of the following except: a. ring down artifact posterior to the endometrium b. thin, hyperechoic endometrium c. endometrial fluid d. thickened, irregular endometrium

b. thin, hyperechoic endometrium

The sonographic appearance of an ovarian dermoid tumor in which only the anterior elements of the mass can be seen, while the greater part of the mass is obscured by shadowing is consistent with: a. Whirlpool sign b. tip of the iceberg sign c. dermoid mesh sign d. dermoid plug sign

b. tip of the iceberg sign

A patient presents to the sonography department with a fever, chills and vaginal discharge. Sonographically, what findings would you most likely not encounter? a. CDS fluid b. uterine adhesions c. dilated uterine tubes d. ill defined uterine border

b. uterine adhesions

Fluid noted anterior to the uterus would most likely be located within the: a. pouch of douglas b. vesicouterine pouch c. space of retzius d. recouterine pouch

b. vesicouterine pouch

Advanced maternal age is considered to be: a. > 25 years of age b. > 30 years of age c. > 35 years of age d. > 32 years of age

c. > 35 years of age

The type of renal cystic disease associated with adult liver and pancreatic cysts is: a. MCDK b. ARPKD c. ADPKD d. VATER

c. ADPKD

The most common cause of hypertelorism is: a. DWM b. Anencephaly c. Anterior cephalocele d. Holoprosencephaly

c. Anterior cephalocele

The group of fetal head and brain abnormalities that often coexists with spina bifida is referred to as: a. DWM b. Budd Chiari syndrome c. Arnold Chiari II syndrome d. Amniotic band syndrome

c. Arnold Chiari II syndrome

Hepatomegaly would be seen in conjunction with: a. down syndrome b. edwards syndrome c. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome d. Hirschsprung disease

c. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

Macroglossia is most commonly found with: a. Anencephaly b. Holoprosencephaly c. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome d.Cystic Hygroma

c. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

All of the following are clinical features of an ectopic pregnancy except: a. decidual thickening b. complex FF within the pelvis c. Bilateral, multiloculated ovrian cysts d. Complex adnexal mass separate from the ipsilateral ovary

c. Bilateral, multiloculated ovrian cysts

With what procedure is placental tissue obtained? a. Amniocentesis b. Cordocentesis c. CVS d. Trophoblastic resection technique

c. CVS

There is a definite link between microtia and what syndrome? a. rays syndrome b. VACTERL syndrome c. Down Syndrome d. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome

c. Down Syndrome

Nuchal thickening is most commonly associated with: a. Patau syndrome b. Hydranencephaly c. Down syndrome d. cebocephaly

c. Down syndrome

What is another name for the most common chromosomal abnormality? a. Edwards syndrome b. Triploidy c. Down syndrome d. Turner syndrome

c. Down syndrome

Endometrial hyperplasia may be caused by all of the following except: a. HRT b. ERT c. Endometrial atrophy d. Tamoxifan

c. Endometrial atrophy

What hormone plays a major role in symptoms associated with menopause? a. hCG b. LH c. Estrogen d. CA 120

c. Estrogen

A coexisting pericardial effusion and a pleural effusion is consistent with the diagnosis of: a. ToF b. Pentalogy of Cantrell c. Fetal hydrops d. Potter syndrome

c. Fetal hydrops

What is the maternal dietary supplement that has been shown to significantly reduce the likelihood of the fetus suffering from a neural tube defect? a. AFP b. Estriol c. Folate d. Pregnancy protein A

c. Folate

Which of the following is a sex chromosome anomaly associated with hypogonadism and subnormal intelligence in males? a. Down syndrome b. Edwards syndrome c. Klinefelter syndrome d. Turner syndrome

c. Klinefelter syndrome

Numerous noncommunicating anechoic masses are noted within the left renal fossa of a fetus at 20 weeks gestation. What is the most likely etiology of these masses? a. ARPKD b. ADPKD c. MCDK disease d. Hydronephrosis

c. MCDK disease

A cisterna magna that measures 15 mm and a normal appearing cerebellum is most likely: a. Arnold Chiari II Malformation b. Schizencephaly c. Mega cisterna magna d. DWM

c. Mega cisterna magna

All of the following are sonographic findings of Arnold Chiari II malformation except: a. Enlarged massa intermedia b. Hydrocephalus c. Obliteration of the cisterna magna d. Strawberry sign

c. Obliteration of the cisterna magna

What abnormality results from the ovary twisting on its mesenteric connection? a. PID b. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome c. Ovarian Torsion d. Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome

c. Ovarian Torsion

All of the following are associated with a thick placenta except: a. fetal infections b. Rh isoimmunization c. Placental insufficiency d. multiple gestations

c. Placental insufficiency

The development of fluid filled cleft within the cerebrum is consistent with: a. holoprosencephaly b. lissencephaly c. Schizencephaly d. Hydranencephaly

c. Schizencephaly

Cleft lip, hypotelorism, and microphthalmia are all sonographic features of: a. T 21 b. T 18 c. T 13 d. Turners

c. T 13

What chromosomal anomaly is associated with echogenic bowel? a. T 18 b. T 13 c. T 21 d. Triploidy

c. T 21

Infertility is defined as: a. the inability to conceive a child after 2 years of unprotected intercourse b. The inability to conceive a child after 5 years of unprotected intercourse c. The inability to conceive a child after 1 year of unprotected intercourse d. The inability to conceive a child after 3 months of unprotected intercourse

c. The inability to conceive a child after 1 year of unprotected intercourse

A fetus with a karyotype revealing it has 69 chromosomes and sonographic findings and IUGR most likely has: a. T 21 b. T 18 c. Triploidy d. Turner syndrome

c. Triploidy

Which of the following best describes the optimal instance to take the femur length measurement? a. when the epiphyseal plates are clearly identified and the shaft is parallel to the sound beam b. When the diaphysis of the femur is parallel to the sound beam c. When the long axis of the femoral shaft is perpendicular to the sound beam d. when the femoral shaft is parallel to the sound beam

c. When the long axis of the femoral shaft is perpendicular to the sound beam

All of the following are proper techniques for providing patient care for patients during a pelvic sonogram except: a. all transducers and their cords should be cleaned before performing a pelvic sonogram b. endovaginal transducers should be cleaned with a high level disinfectant c. a probe cover should be placed on the transducer for transabdominal imaging to prevent the spread of infection d. sterile jelly should be used as a lubricant for endovaginal imaging

c. a probe cover should be placed on the transducer for transabdominal imaging to prevent the spread of infection

Acardiac twinning results from: a. poor maternal nutrition b. dizygotic gestations c. abnormal links between the placental vessels d. twin embolization syndrome

c. abnormal links between the placental vessels

What is the most common form of endometrial carcinoma? a. cystadenocarcinoma b. krukenberg tumor c. adenocarcinoma d. squamous cell carcinoma

c. adenocarcinoma

The congenital maldevelopment of the rectum and absence of the anal opening is termed: a. jejunal atresia b. intussusception c. anorectal atresia d. duodenal atresia

c. anorectal atresia

The fourth ventricle is located: a. posterior to the CSP b. Between the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles c. anterior to the cerebellar vermis d. medial to the third ventricle

c. anterior to the cerebellar vermis

The normal position of the uterus is: a. retreoverted b. retroflexed c. anteverted d. dysverted

c. anteverted

The nuchal fold measurement typically obtained: a. before 12 weeks and 6 days b. between 11 weeks and 13 weeks and 6 days c. between 15 weeks and 21 weeks d. after 24 weeks

c. between 15 weeks and 21 weeks

Doppler assessment of the middle cerebral artery: a. helps to determine whether fetal anorexia is occurring b. is valuable in diagnosing the extent of ventriculomegaly c. can evaluate the fetus for hypoxia d. is important to determine whether TORCH complications are present

c. can evaluate the fetus for hypoxia

The fetal gut develops at the end of the fifth menstrual week and can be divided into all of the following except: a. midgut b. foregut c. centralgut d. hindgut

c. centralgut

The most common placental tumor is the: a. choriocarcinoma b. maternal lake c. chorioangioma d. allantoic cyst

c. chorioangioma

Hairlike projections within the fallopian tube is termed: a. interstitia b. fimbria c. cilia d. peristalsis

c. cilia

After the graafian follicle ruptures, the remaining structure is termed the: a. graafian remnant b. corpus albicans c. corpus luteum d. theca lutein cyst

c. corpus luteum

The physiologic ovarian cyst that develops after ovulation has occurred is the: a. theca internal cyst b. graafian cyst c. corpus luteum cyst d. cystic teratoma

c. corpus luteum cyst

The structure noted within the Graafian follicle containing the developing ovum is the: a. corpus luteum b. corpus albicans c. cumulus oophorus d. theca internal cells

c. cumulus oophorus

The earliest invasive fetal karyotyping technique that can be performed is: a. amniocentesis b. cordocentesis c. cvs d. pubs

c. cvs

The sonographic examination of twins reveals a triangular extension of the placenta at the base of the membrane. This finding is indicative of: a. monochorionic monoamniotic twins b. monochorionic diamniotic twins c. dichorionic diamniotic twins d. monochorionic diamniotic twins

c. dichorionic diamniotic twins

Which of the following can occur as a result of dizygotic twinning? a. monochorionic diamniotic twinning b. monochorionic monoamniotic twins c. dichorionic diamniotic twins d. all of the above

c. dichorionic diamniotic twins

Which of the following can occur as a result of monozygotic twinning? a. monochorionic diamniotic twins b. monochorionic monoamniotic twins c. dichorionic diamniotic twins d. all of the above

c. dichorionic diamniotic twins

Ovulation induced drugs not only increase the likelihood of multiple gestations, but also increase the likelihood of? a. materal diabetes b. ovarian prolapse c. heterotopic pregnancies d. choriocarcinoma

c. heterotopic pregnancies

The occurrence of both having and intrauterine and extrauterine pregnancy at the same time describes: a. PID b. ectopic pregnancy c. heterotopic pregnancy d. molar pregnancy

c. heterotopic pregnancy

Fluid surrounding the fetal testicle is referred to as: a. hydroureter b. hydronephrosis c. hydrocele d. hydroscrotum

c. hydrocele

Fetal TORCH is frequently associated with: a. maternal hypertension b. twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome c. intracranial calcifications d. renal cystic disease

c. intracranial calcifications

Which of the following is located on both sides of the midline? a. interhemispheric fissures b. third and fourth ventricles c. lateral ventricles d. third ventricle and cerebral aqueduct

c. lateral ventricles

A 24 year old patient presents to the emergency department with severe right lower quadrant pain, nausea, vomiting. The sonographic examination reveals an enlarged ovary with no detectable Doppler signal. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. ovarian cystadenocarcinoma b. cystic teratoma c. ovarian torsion d. endometriosis

c. ovarian torsion

Absent long bones with hands and feet arising from the shoulders and hips describes: a. micromelia b. mesomelia c. phocomelia d. arthrogryposis

c. phocomelia

What is the term for conjoined twins attached at the sacral region? a. sacralpagus b. omphalopagus c. pyopagus d. thoracopagus

c. pyopagus

Absence of radius is referred to as: a. talipes equinovarus b. clubfoot c. radial ray defect d. phocomelia

c. radial ray defect

Failure of the kidneys to form is called: a. hydronephrosis b. renal dysplasia c. renal agenesis d. renal ectopia

c. renal agenesis

Rhizomelia denotes: a. long upper ext b. shortening of entire limb c. shortening of proximal segment of limb d. shortening of distal segment of limb

c. shortening of proximal segment of limb

What condition is associated with bilateral renal agenesis, oligo and fusion of the lower extremities? a. SCT b. caudal displacement syndrome c. sirenomelia d. osteogenesis imperfecta

c. sirenomelia

The "s" in the STAR criteria stands for: a. simple b. sound c. smooth walls d. septations

c. smooth

The most common sonographic appearance of pulmonary sequestration is a(n): a. dilated pulmonary artery and hypoechoic chest mass b. pleural effusion and ipsilateral hiatal hernia c. triangular, echogenic mass within the chest d. anechoic mass within the chest

c. triangular, echogenic mass within the chest

Cryptochordism describes: a. bilateral pelvic kidneys b. urethral atresia c. undescended testicles d. ovarian dysgenesis

c. undescended testicles

A velamatous cord insertion is associated with which of the following? a. placenta increta b. placental abruption c. vasa previa d. circumvallate placenta

c. vasa previa

Which of the following is a sex chromosome anomaly? a. edwards syndrome b. trisomy 13 c. down syndrome d. 45, X

d. 45, X

Which of the following is associated with enlarged echogenic kidneys and microscopic renal cysts? a. MCDK disease b. Obstructive cystic dysplasia c. Hydronephrotic syndrome d. ARPKD

d. ARPKD

All of the following are contributing factors for an ectopic pregnancy except: a. PID b. Assisted reproductive therapy c. IUCD d. Advanced paternal age

d. Advanced paternal age

Which of the following is a genetic disorder that includes craniosynostenosis, midline facial hypoplasia, and syndactlyly? a. lobar holoprosencephaly b. beckwith-wiedemann syndrome c. arnold-chiari II malformation d. Apert Syndrome

d. Apert Syndrome

The third ventricle communicates with the fourth ventricle at the: a. foramen of magendie b. foramen of Luschka c. Foramen of Monro d. Aqueduct of Sylvius

d. Aqueduct of Sylvius

The development of adhesions within the uterine cavity is termed: a. Fitz Hugh Curtis Syndrome b. Dandy Walker Syndrome c. Stein Leventhal Syndrome d. Asherman Syndrome

d. Asherman Syndrome

What cerebral malformation is as a result of agenesis or hypoplasia of the cerebellar vermis? a.Arnold Chiari II malformation b. Schizencephaly c. Mega cisterna magna d. DWM

d. DWM

All of the following are associated with esophageal atresia except: a. Down syndrome b. VACTERL association c. Edwards syndrome d. Oligohydramnios

d. Oligohydramnios

The quadruple screen includes an analysis of all of the following except: a. hCG b. alpha-fetoprotein c. inhibin A d. PAPP-A

d. PAPP-A

Leukocytosis would most likely be associated with: a. multiple degenerating fibroids b. ovarian teratoma c. adenomyosis d. PID

d. PID

Fusion of the orbits with holoprosencephaly are associated with: a. Edwards syndrome b. Turner syndrome c. Down syndrome d. Patau syndrome

d. Patau syndrome

Which of the following is not a sonographic sign of a dichorionic diamniotic gestation? a. Twin peak sign b. Lambda sign c. Delta sign d. T sign

d. T sign

The choroid plexus cyst could be associated with an increase risk of: a. T 13 b. T 4 c. Arnold Chiari II malformation d. T18

d. T18

A cloverleaf shaped skull is related to: a. T 18 b. Meckel-Gruber syndrome c. T 13 d. Thanatophoric dysplasia

d. Thanatophoric dysplasia

A protein produced by the yolk sac and fetal liver that is found in excess in the maternal circulation in the presence of the neural tube: a. folate b. hcg c. estriol d. afp

d. afp

Which of the following would not be decreased in the presence of Edwards syndrome? a. estriol b. hCG c. alpha-Fetoprotein d. all would be decreased

d. all would be decreased

FSH is produced by the: a. ovary b. endometrium c. hypothalamus d. anterior pituitary gland

d. anterior pituitary gland

Which of the following is not associated with endometrial hyperplasia? a. tamoxifan therapy b. polycystic ovary syndrome c. ovarian thecoma d. asherman syndrome

d. asherman syndrome

All of the following are associated with polyhydramnios except: a. omphalocele b. gastroschisis c. esophageal atresia d. bilateral multicystic dysplastic kidney disease

d. bilateral multicystic dysplastic kidney disease

During a 12 week sonogram, bilateral echogenic structures are noted within the lateral ventricles of the fetal cranium. These structures most likely represent: a. cerebral tumors b. cerebral hemorrage c. anencephalic remnants d. choroid plexus

d. choroid plexus

OEIS complex is also referred to as: a. bladder exstrophy b. omphalocele c. potter syndrome d. cloacal exstrophy

d. cloacal exstrophy

Which of the following does not occur as a result of menopause? a. uterine atrophy b. decreased sexual libido c. accumulation of fat in the breasts d. cystic enlargement of the ovaries

d. cystic enlargement of the ovaries

The term that indicates the presence of two separate amniotic sacs are said to be: a. dichorionic b. bichorionic c. monoamniotic d. diamniotic

d. diamniotic

Which of the following is also referred to as trisomy 21: a. Edwards syndrome b. patau syndrome c. meckel gruber syndrome d. down syndrome

d. down syndrome

All of the following are associated with oligohydramnios except: a. bilateral renal agenesis b. infantile polycystic kidney disease c. premature rupture of membranes d. duodenal atresia

d. duodenal atresia

Which of the following is the most common renal anomaly? a. horseshoe kidneys b. pelvic kidneys c. renal agenesis d. duplex collecting system

d. duplex collecting system

The condition in which the heart is located outside the chest wall is termed: a. CAM b. coarctation of the heart c. cardiac sequestration d. ectopic cordis

d. ectopic cordis

A 35 year old patient presents to the sonography department with a history of tubal ligation and positive pregnancy test. What condition should be highly suspected? a. Asherman syndrome b. polycystic ovary syndrome c. endometriosis d. ectopic pregnancy

d. ectopic pregnancy

A 67 year old patient on HRT presents to the sonography department with abnormal uterine bleeding. Sonographically, the endometrium is diffusely thickened, contains small cystic areas, and measures 9 mm in thickness. The most likely cause of her bleeding is: a. endometrial atrophy b. asherman syndrome c. endometrial thecoma d. endometrial hyperplasia

d. endometrial hyperplasia

The congenital absence of part of the esophagus is termed: a. duodenal atresia b. VACTERL association c. down syndrome d. esophageal atresia

d. esophageal atresia

All of the following may be visualized at the correct level of the head circumference except: a. third ventricle b. thalamus c. cavum septum pellucidum d. falx cerebelli

d. falx cerebelli

What organ(s) produces amniotic fluid after 12 weeks? a. fetal liver and spleen b. fetal intestines and lungs c. fetal intestines and the liver d. fetal kidneys

d. fetal kidneys

The majority of amniotic fluid is composed of: a. fetal blood b. fetal serous fluid c. maternal serous fluid d. fetal urine

d. fetal urine

The first phase of the ovarian cycle is the: a. luteal phase b. secretory phase c. proliferative phase d. follicular phase

d. follicular phase

A reduction in the distance between the orbits is referred to as: a. anophthalmia b. micrognathia c. hypertelorism d. hypotelorism

d. hypotelorism

The most distal part of the fallopian tube is the: a. cornu b. ampulla c. interstitial d. infundibulum

d. infundibulum

Fetal presentation is determined by identifying the fetal part that is closest to the: a. placenta b. external os of the cervix c. maternal umbilicus d. internal os of the cervix

d. internal os of the cervix

The short and narrow segment of the fallopian tube distal to the interstitial segment is the: a. ampulla b. fimbria c. infundibulum d. isthmus

d. isthmus

The left ovarian vein drains directly into the: a. right renal vein b. inferior vena cava c. aorta d. left renal vein

d. left renal vein

ToF consists of all the following except: a. overriding AO root b. VSD c. pulmonary stenosis d. left ventricular hypertrophy

d. left ventricular hypertrophy

Mothers with gestational diabetes run the risk of having fetuses that are considered: a. nutritionally deficient b. acromegalic c. microsomic d. macrosomic

d. macrosomic

An omphalocele is associated with all of the following except: a. Pentalogy of Cantrell b. T 18 c. Patau syndrome d. meconium aspiration syndrome

d. meconium aspiration syndrome

What is the term for enlargement of the urinary bladder? a. posterior urethral valve b. urethral atresia c. prune belly syndrome d. megacystitis

d. megacystitis

Which of the following is not a potential cause of PID? a. IUD use b. Post abortion c. chlamydia d. pyelonephritis

d. pyelonephritis

A large space between the first and second toes is termed: a. polydactyly b. clubfoot c. ulnaration d. sandal gap

d. sandal gap

Following an intracranial hemhorrhage, a cyst is noted within the cerebrum that communicates with the lateral ventricle. This is referred to as: a.schizencephaly b. lissencephaly c. holoprosencephaly d. porencephaly

d. porencephaly

All of the following are common indications for a pelvic sonogram except: a. evaluation of congenital anomalies b. evaluation of pelvic anatomy immediately following a motor vehicle accident c. localization of an IUD d. postmenopausal bleeding

b. evaluation of pelvic anatomy immediately following a motor vehicle accident

What is the fetal presentation when the fetal buttocks are closest to the cervix? a. footling breech b. frank breech c. complete breech d. transverse

b. frank breech

Evidence of polyhydramnios should warrant a careful investigation of the fetal: a. genitourinary system b. gastrointestinal system c. extremities d. cerebrovascular system

b. gastrointestinal system

Which of the following would be best defined as abnormally heavy menstrual flow? a. menometrorrhagia b. menorrhagia c. metrorrhagia d. hypomenorrhea

b. menorrhagia

Which of the following is best described as an artifact that is produced by a strong reflector and results in a copy of the anatomy being placed deeper than the correct location? a. reverberation b. mirror image c. acoustic shadowing d. comet tail

b. mirror image

The inner layer of the wall of the fallopian tube is the: a. muscular layer b. mucosal layer c. myometrial layer d. serosal layer

b. mucosal layer

All of the following are associated with gastroschisis except: a. normal cord insertion b. multiple chromosomal abnormalities c. elevated MSAFP d. periumbilical mass

b. multiple chromosomal abnormalities

A patient presents to the sonography department for a pelvic sonogram with a history of adenomyosis that was diagnosed following an MRI of the pelvis. What are the most likely sonographic findings? a. complex, bilateral adnexal masses b. myometrial cysts with enlargement of the posterior uterine wall c. endometrial thinning and cervical dilation d. uterine atrophy with bilateral ovarian cysts

b. myometrial cysts with enlargement of the posterior uterine wall

The most common location of a cystic hygroma is within the: a. axilla b. neck c. chest d. groin

b. neck

The ovary is supplied blood by the: a. ovarian artery b. ovarian artery and uterine artery c. uterine artery d. arcuate artery

b. ovarian artery and uterine artery

All of the following adnexal masses may appear sonographically similar to a uterine leiomyoma except: a. thecoma b. paraovarian cyst c. fibroma d. granulosa cell tumor

b. paraovarian cyst

The abnormal twin in acardiac twinning is also referred to as the: a. pump twin b. parasitic twin c. stuck twin d. vanishing twin

b. parasitic twin

What is described as the number of pregnancies in which the patient has given birth to a fetus at or beyond 20 weeks gestational age or an infant weighing more than 500 g? a. gravidity b. parity c. primigravida d. primiparous

b. parity

Before 9 weeks, the fetal kidneys are located within the: a. renal fossae b. pelvis c. chest d. umbilical cord

b. pelvis

The most common location of an ectopic kidney is within the: a. lower abdomen b. pelvis c. chest d. contralateral quadrant

b. pelvis

The premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before the birth of the fetus describes: a. placenta previa b. placental abruption c. ectopic cordis d. subchorionic hamartoma

b. placental abruption

PID can lead to all of the following except: a. infertility b. polycystic ovarian disease c. ectopic pregnancy d. scar formation in the fallopian tubes

b. polycystic ovarian disease

A separate mass of nonfunctioning fetal lung tissue is referred to as: a. pulmonary adenomatoid malformation b. pulmonary sequestration c. CAM d. bat wing sign

b. pulmonary sequestration

Both the straight and spiral arteries are branches of the: a. common iliac artery b. radial artery c. arcuate artery d. external iliac artery

b. radial artery

The abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is referred to as: a. kyphosis b. scoliosis c. splaying d. achondroplasia

b. scoliosis

The ovarian cyst associated with gestational trophoblastic disease is the: a. corpus luteum cyst b. theca lutein cyst c. dermoid cyst d. paraovarian cyst

b. theca lutein cyst

The measurement of the endometrium during the early proliferative phase ranges from: a. 6-10 mm b. 8-12 mm c. 4-8 mm d. 1-2 mm

c. 4-8 mm

The hormone of the pituitary gland that stimulates follicular development of the ovary is: a. LH b. estrogen c. FSH d. GnRH

c. FSH

Which of the following would be considered the more common uterine anomaly? a. bicornis univernus b. bicornis bicollis c. uterus didelphys d. septate uterus

d. septate uterus

During a first trimester sonogram, you note a round, cystic structure within he fetal head. This most likely represents the: a. Prosencephalon b. Mesencephalon c. Rhombencephalon d. Procencephalon

c. Rhombencephalon

What chromosomal aberration is most often associated with holoprosencephaly? a. anophthalmia b. T21 c. T13 d. T18

c. T13

A strawberry skull is commonly associated with : a. T21 b. T15 c. T18 d. T13

c. T18

What ovarian mass is associated with virilization? a. krukenberg tumor b. cystic teratoma c. serous cystadenoma d. sertoli-leydig tumor

d. sertoli-leydig tumor

Which of the following would most likely involve the development of a cystic hygroma? a. Beckwith-Weidemann syndrome b. Hydranencephaly c. Turner Syndrome d. Klinefelter Syndrome

c. Turner Syndrome

What is an opening within the septum that separates the right and the left ventricles? a. endocardical cushion b. tricuspid regeneration c. VSD d. ASD

c. VSD

What artifact would be seen posterior to a tooth within a cystic teratoma? a. ring-down b. reverberation c. through transmission d. shadowing

d. shadowing

A succenturiate lobe of the placenta refers to a: a. bilobed placental lobe b. circumvallate placental lobe c. accessory lobes d. circummarginate placental lobe

c. accessory lobes

Which term relates the number of amniotic sacs? a. chorionicity b. placentation c. amnionicity d. embryology

c. amnionicity

Which of the following is considered to be the most common type of colonic atresia? a. duodenal atresia b. jejunal atresia c. anorectal atresia d. intussusception

c. anorectal atresia

The third ventricle is located: a. anterior to thalamus b. anterior to the cerebellar vermis c. between two lobes of the thalmi d. superior to the corpus callosum

c. between two lobes of the thalmi

What are the fingerlike projections of gestational tissue that attach to the decidualized endometrium? a. decidua capsularis b. decidua vera c. chorionic villi d. placental substance

c. chorionic villi

The abnormal lateral ventricle shape in which there is a small frontal horn and enlarged occipital horn is referred to as: a. cebocephaly b. banana sign c. colpocephaly d. cephalocele

c. colpocephaly

The condition in which the frontal horns are small and the occipital horns are enlarged is referred to as: a. ethmocephaly b. hydrocephalus c. colpocephaly d. encephalitis

c. colpocephaly

Which structure remains after the corpus luteum has regressed? a. theca luteal cyst b. corpus luteum of pregnancy c. corpus albicans d. cumulus oophorus

c. corpus albicans

Fusion of the orbits is termed: a. microglossia b. cebocephaly c. cyclopia d. ethmocephaly

c. cyclopia

A 25 year old patient presents to the sonography department complaining of pelvic pain, dyspareunia and oligomenorrhea. An ovarian mass, thought to be a chocolate cyst, is noted during examination. Which of the following is consistent with the sonographic appearance of a chocolate cyst? a. simple-appearing anechoic mass b. echogenic mass with posterior shadowing c. cystic mass with low-level echoes d. anechoic mass with posterior shadowing

c. cystic mass with low-level echoes

The maternal contribution to the placenta is the: a. chorionic vera b. decidua vera c. decidua basalis d. Chorion frondosum

c. decidua basalis

The first sonographically identifiable sign of pregnancy is the: a. amnion b. yolk sac c. decidual reaction d. chorionic cavity

c. decidual reaction

Twins having two placentas and two amniotic sacs are referred to as: a. Monochorionic diamniotic b. biamniotic dichorionic c. dichorionic diamniotic d.. dichorionic biamniotic

c. dichorionic diamniotic

Bladder exstrophy describes: a. absence of cloaca b. protrusion of the bladder into the umbilicus c. external position of the bladder d. enlargement of the bladder

c. external position of the bladder

Another name for pelvocaliectasis is: a. caliectasis b. hydrocele c. hydronephrosis d. pyonephrosis

c. hydronephrosis

The sonographic finding of a tubular, simple appearing, anechoic structure within the adnexa is most consistant with: a. dyspareunia b. hematometra c. hydrosalpinx d. endometritis

c. hydrosalpinx

When the sonographic three line sign is present the functional layer of the endometrium typically appears: a. anechoic b. echogenic c. hypoechoic d. complex

c. hypoechoic

A group of anomalies characterized by a small or an absent left ventricle is: a. turner syndrome b. hypoplastic right heart syndrome c. hypoplastic left heart syndrome d. coarctation of the aorta

c. hypoplastic left heart syndrome

A group of anomalies characterized by a small or an absent right ventricle is: a. turner syndrome b. hypoplastic left heart syndrome c. hypoplastic right heart syndrome d. coarctation of the aorta

c. hypoplastic right heart syndrome

What is a gynecologic procedure to remove an endometrial polyp? a. hysterectomy with myomectomy b. histogram with myomectomy c. hysteroscopy with polypectomy d. hysteroscopy with polyp myomectomy

c. hysteroscopy with polypectomy

The vagina is located _____ to the uterus: a. anterior b. posterior c. inferior d. medial

c. inferior

The right ovarian vein drains directly into the: a. right renal vein b. aorta c. inferior vena cava d. common iliac vein

c. inferior vena cava

The uterine artery branches off the: a. abdominal aorta b. uterine plexus c. internal iliac artery d.round ligament

c. internal iliac artery

Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating ovarian volume? a. length x width x height x 0.6243 b. length x width x height x 0.3899 c. length x width x height x 0.5233 d. ovarian volume cannot be calculated

c. length x width x height x 0.5233

What would be most likely confused for a uterine leiomyoma? a. placental infarct b. chorioangioma c. myometrial contraction d. placenta previa

c. myometrial contraction

All of the following are sonographic signs of Ebstein anomaly except: a. enlarged right atrium b. fetal hydrops c. narrowing of the aortic arch d. malpositioned tricuspid valve

c. narrowing of the aortic arch

The anechoic space along the posterior aspect of the fetal neck is the: a. nuchal fold b. nuchal cord c. nuchal translucency d. rhombencephalon

c. nuchal translucency

The muscle located lateral to the ovaries is the: a. iliopsoas muscle b. rectus abdominis muscle c. obturator internus muscle d. piriformis muscle

c. obturator internus muscle

What would be a predisposing condition that would increase the risk for suffering from ovarian torsion? a. hirsutism b. excessive exercise c. ovarian mass d. sonohysterography

c. ovarian mass

What structure produces hormones that directly act upon the endometrium to produce varying thickness and sonographic appearances? a. hypothalamus b. adrenal glands c. ovary d. uterus

c. ovary

Which of the following locations for an ectopic pregnancy would be likely? a. isthmus of the tube b. ampulla of the tube c. ovary d. interstitial of the tube

c. ovary

What leiomyoma location would have an increased risk to undergo torsion? a. subserosal b. intracavity c. pedunculated d. submucosal

c. pedunculated

Which of the following artifacts is caused by attenuation of the sound beam? a. reverberation artifact b. comet tail artifact c. posterior shadowing d. posterior enhancement

c. posterior shadowing

The moderator band is located within the: a. right atrium b. left atrium c. right ventricle d. left ventricle

c. right ventricle

Polycystic ovarian syndrome may also be referred to as: a. Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome b. Plateau syndrome c. stein leventhal syndrome d. asherman syndrome

c. stein leventhal syndrome

The breast cancer treatment drug that may alter the sonographic appearance of the endometrium is: a. progesterone b. estrogenate c. tamoxifen d. CA 125

c. tamoxifen

Leiomyosarcoma of the uterus denotes: a. The benign invasion of endometrial tissue into the myometrium b. the ectopic location of endometrial tissue in the adnexa c. the malignant counterpart of a fibroid d. an anechoic, simple cyst located within the cervix

c. the malignant counterpart of a fibroid

Which of the following is an estrogen producing ovarian tumor? a. cystic teratoma b. fibroma c. thecoma d. endometrioma

c. thecoma

Which of the following ovarian tumors would be most likely to cause postmenopausal bleeding? a. cystic teratoma b. endometrioma c. thecoma d. fibroma

c. thecoma

Theca lutein cysts would most likely be linked with a molar pregnancy and: a. down syndrome b. IUGR c. triploidy d. monosomy x

c. triploidy

When does the Centers for Disease Control recommend that alcohol based handrub not be used by the sonographer? a. after performing a sonogram b. before performing a sonogram c. when your hands are visibly soiled d. between patients

c. when your hands are visibly soiled

What structure lies within the extraembryonic coleum? a. gestational sac b. embryo c. yolk sac d. amnion

c. yolk sac

NT measures are typically obtained between: a. 1 and 5 weeks b. 5 and 8 weeks c. 8 and 11 weeks d. 11 and 14 weeks

d. 11 and 14 weeks

Normally, physiologic bowel herniation resolves by: a. 8 weeks b. 10 weeks c. 24 weeks d. 12 weeks

d. 12 weeks

The average menstrual cycle lasts: a. 45 days b. 24 days c. 26 days d. 28 days

d. 28 days

TRAP syndrome may also be referred to as: a. TTRS b. Vanishing twin syndrome c. Twin embolization syndrome d. Acardiac twinning

d. Acardiac twinning

The most common cause of hydrocephalus in utero is: a. cerebral hemorrhage b. Holoprosencephaly c. Brain Tumors d. Aqueductal stenosis

d. Aqueductal stenosis

Assisted reproductive therapy can result in all of the following except: a. heterotopic pregnancy b. multiple gestations c. OHS d. Asherman syndrome

d. Asherman syndrome

The growth disorder syndrome synonymous with organ, skull, and tongue enlargement is: a. Klinefelter syndrome b. Apert syndrome c. Meckel-Gruber syndrome d. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

d. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

In VACTERL association with spina bifida except: a. cerebellar b. C-spine c. Cranial d. Cardiac

d. Cardiac

Typically, the first sonographic manifestation of TTTS is: a. Oligohydramnios b. Polyhydramnios c. Dichorionic twinning d. Discordant fetal growth

d. Discordant fetal growth

The double fold of the dura matter that divides the cerebral hemispheres is the: a. cerebellum b. CSP c. Corpus callosum d. Falx cerebri

d. Falx cerebri

What cerebral abnormality are atypical facial features most commonly associated with? a. DWM b. Schizencephaly c. Lissencephaly d. Holoprosencephaly

d. Holoprosencephaly

The paired embryonic ducts that develop into the female urogenital tract are the: a. fallopian ducts b. wolffian ducts c. gartner ducts d. Mullerian ducts

d. Mullerian ducts

A female patient presents to the sonography department with a clinical history of Clomid treatment. She is complaining of nausea, vomiting and abdominal distension. What circumstance is most likely causing her clinical symptoms? a. Stein Leventhal Syndrome b. Polycystic ovary syndrome c. Fitz Hugh Curtis Syndrome d. OHS

d. OHS

Sonographically, you visualize a mass extending from the distal spine of a fetus. This mass could be all of the following except: a. SCT b. Meningocele c. Meningomyelocele d. Phocomeningocele

d. Phocomeningocele

Which of the following is also referred to as Patau syndrome? a. T 18 b. T 21 c. T 12 d. T 13

d. T 13

The breast cancer drug that inhibits the effects of estrogen in the breast is: a. CA 125 b. Methotrexate c. RA 916 d. Tamoxifin

d. Tamoxifin

An anechoic mass is noted within the umbilical cord during a routine sonographic examination. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. hemangioma b. vasa previa c. chorioangioma d. allantoic cyst

d. allantoic cyst

The disorder associated with fetal amputations is: a. achondroplasia b. osteogenesis imperfecta c. thanatophoric dysplasia d. amniotic band syndrome

d. amniotic band syndrome

The most common site of fertilization is within the: a. isthmus of the uterine tube b. uterine fundus c. cornu of the uterine tube d. ampulla of the uterine tube

d. ampulla of the uterine tube

The most common location of an ectopic pregnancy is: a. ovary b. interstitial portion of the uterine tube c. cornual portion of the uterine tube d. ampullary portion of the uterine tube

d. ampullary portion of the uterine tube

A cystic hygroma is the result of: a. alcohol consumption in the first trimester b. an abnormal development of the roof of the fourth ventricle c. occlusion of the internal carotid arteries d. an abnormal accumulation of lymphatic fluid within the soft tissue

d. an abnormal accumulation of lymphatic fluid within the soft tissue

Which of the following best describes hypospadias? a. OEIS complex in the presence of a hydrocele b. the chronic obstruction of the renal pelvis and urethra c. the underdevelopment of the scrotum in the presence of a hydrocele d. an abnormal ventral curvature of the penis

d. an abnormal ventral curvature of the penis

Which of the following sonographic findings would not increase the likelihood of an ovarian malignancy? a. septation measuring >3 mm in thickness b. irregular borders c. solid wall nodule d. anechoic components with acoustic enhancement

d. anechoic components with acoustic enhancement

The peripheral arteries of the uterus are the: a. radial arteries b. spiral arteries c. straight arteries d. arcuate arteries

d. arcuate arteries

What abnormality results in limitation of fetal limbs as a result of joint contractures? a. acromegaly b. radial ray defect c. achondrogenesis d. arthrogryposis

d. arthrogryposis

Fetal meconium typically consists of all of the following except: a. skin b. hair c. bile d. blood

d. blood

All of the following are sonographic findings consistent with adenomyosis except: a. diffuse, enlarged uterus b. myometrial cysts c. hypoechoic areas adjacent to the endometrium d. complex adnexal mass

d. complex adnexal mass

The area of attachment of the fallopian tubes within the uterus is the: a. fundus b. corpus c. isthmus d. cornua

d. cornua

Endometrial polyps are associated with all of the following except: a. intermenstrual bleeding b. tamoxifan therapy c. prolapse through the cervix d. coronary heart disease

d. coronary heart disease

The most common pelvic mass associated with pregnancy is the: a. uterine leiomyoma b. dermoid cyst c. theca luteum cyst d. corpus luteum cyst

d. corpus luteum cyst

The maternal serum screening of a mother with a fetus with T18 will reveal? a. decreased hcg, elevated afp and normal estriol b. increased hcg, afp and estriol c. increased afp, hcg and decreased estriol d. decreased hcg, afp and estriol

d. decreased hcg, afp and estriol

Which of the following is a tumor of ectopic endometrial tissue? a. brenner tumor b. cystic teratoma c. yolk sac tumor d. endometrioma

d. endometrioma

The presence of functional, ectopic, endometrial tissue outside the uterus is termed: a. adenomyosis b. asherman syndome c. Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome d. endometriosis

d. endometriosis

Biophysical profile scoring is conducted: a. until the fetus cooperates b. for 10 min c. for 45 min d. for 30 min

d. for 30 min

The most common form of diaphragmatic hernia is the: a. foramen of morgagni b. foramen of magendie c. foramen of luschka d. foramen of bochdalek

d. foramen of bochdalek

Pentalogy of Cantrell includes all of the following findings except: a. cardiovascular malformations b. diaphragmatic malformations c. omphalocele d. gastroschisis

d. gastroschisis

Another name for the chorionic sac is the: a. chorionic cavity b. extraembryonic coelom c. amniotic sac d. gestational sac

d. gestational sac

The hormone produced by the trophoblastic cells of the early placenta is: a. estrogen b. FSH c. LH d. hCG

d. hCG

The trophoblastic cells produce: a. estrogen b. progesterone c. follicle stimulating hormone d. hCG

d. hCG

What hormone maintains the corpus luteum during pregnancy? a. estrogen b. progesterone c. FSH d. hCG

d. hCG

Which hormone maintains the corpus luteum during pregnancy? a. FSH b. LH c. Progesterone d. hCG

d. hCG

A 13 year old girl presents to the sonography department with a history of cyclic pain, abdominal swelling and amenorrhea. Sonographically, you visualize an enlarged uterus and a distended vagina that contains anechoic fluid with debris. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. cervical stenosis b. adenomyosis c. endometriosis d. hematocolpos

d. hematocolpos

The most common abnormality of the fetal liver is: a. gallstones b. hepatocellular lymphadenopathy c. cirrhosis d. hepatomegaly

d. hepatomegaly

A functional bowel disorder within the fetus that is caused by the absence of intestinal nerves is found in: a. gastroschisis b. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome c. omphalocele d. hirschsprung disease

d. hirschsprung disease

What is the most common fetal abnormality noted during an obstetric sonogram? a. anencephaly b. spina bifida c. cleft lip d. hydronephrosis

d. hydronephrosis

Which of the following would be the least likely clinical finding for a patient with endometriosis? a. pelvic pain b. dysmenorrhea c. painful bowel movements d. hyperandrogenism

d. hyperandrogenism

Pelvic bones, when visualized on sonography, will appear: a. anechoic b. hypoechoic c. dark d. hyperechoic

d. hyperechoic

Which of the following would be best defined as regularly timed menses but light flow? a. menometrorrhagia b. menorrhagia c. metrorrhagia d. hypomenorrea

d. hypomenorrea

The location of a fibroid within the myometrium is termed: a. submucosal b. intracavity c. subserosal d. intramural

d. intramural

The first menstrual cycle is termed: a. amenorrhea b. metrorrhagia c. mittelschmerz d. menarche

d. menarche

Cessation of menstruation with advanced age is termed: a. asherman disease b. premenopausal syndrome c. perimenopausal syndrome d. menopause

d. menopause

What is often used to medically treat an ectopic pregnancy? a. dilatation and curettage b. dilatation and evacuation c. open surgery d. methotrexate

d. methotrexate

Which of the following would not be a cause of AUB? a. endometrial hyperplasia b. hypothyroidism c. adenomyosis d. ovarian torsion

d. ovarian torsion

The muscles that may be confused with the ovaries on a pelvic sonogram include the: a. rectus abdominis and obturator internus muscles b. levator ani and coccygeous muscles c. obturator internus and levator ani muscles d. piriformis and iliopsoas

d. piriformis and iliopsoas

The "lying down" adrenal sign would be seen in all of the following situations except: a. unilateral renal agenesis b. bilateral renal agenesis c. potter syndrome d. pyelectasis

d. pyelectasis

Measurement of the endometrium should include: a. the uterine cavity only b. the deep myometrial echoes and both basal layers c. the distance from the basal layer to the functional layer d. the measurement from the basal layer to the basal layer

d. the measurement from the basal layer to the basal layer

All of the following are clinical findings with endometrial hyperplasia except: a. obesity b. polycystic ovary syndrome c. abnormal uterine bleeding d. thickened endometrium

d. thickened endometrium

A patient presents to the sonography department with a history of chlamydia and suspected PID. Which of the following would be indicative of the typical sonographic findings of PID? a. enlarged cervix, thin endometrium, and theca luteum cysts b. Atrophic uterus, free fluid, and small ovaries c. bilateral, cystic enlargement of the ovaries with no detectable flow d. thickened irregular endometrium, CDS fluid and complex adnexal masses

d. thickened irregular endometrium, CDS fluid and complex adnexal masses

What structure within the female pelvis lies posterior to the urinary bladder and anterior to the rectum? a. broad ligament b. rectus abdominus muscle c. space of retzius d. uterus

d. uterus

The sonographic appearance of a 59 year old woman on HRT is: a. hypoechoic and thickened b. hyperechoic and thickened c. cystic areas within a thickened endometrium d. variable depending upon the menstrual cycle

d. variable depending upon the menstrual cycle

The abnormal insertion of the umbilical cord into the membranes beyond the placental edge is termed: a. placenta previa b. placental abruption c. marginal insertion d. velamentous insertion

d. velamentous insertion

A patient presents with an elevated serum AFP. Which of the following would be most likely? a. ovarian fibroma b. ovarian thecoma c. cystic teratoma d. yolk sac tumor

d. yolk sac tumor

What fetal suture is located within the frontal bone along the midline of the forehead? a. squamosal suture b. sagittal suture c. lambdoidal suture d. metopic suture

metopic suture

All of the following statements concerning PID are true except: a. PID is typically a unilateral condition b. PID can be caused by douching c. PID can lead to a turbo-ovarian abscess d. Dyspareunia is a clinical finding in acute PID

a. PID is typically a unilateral condition

Nonimmune hydrops is assocated with all of the following except: a. RH isoimmunization b. pleural effusion c. turner syndrome d. fetal infections

a. RH isoimmunization

Monozygotic twins result from: a. a single zygote that splits b. two zygotes that are fertilized by the same sperm c. two morulla d. a single zygote that is fertilized by two sperm

a. a single zygote that splits

The artifact seen posterior to solid structures such as fetal bone is referred to as: a. acoustic shadowing b. posterior enhancement c. reverberation artifact d. edge artifact

a. acoustic shadowing

What is defined as the area located posterior to the broad ligaments and adjacent to the uterus, which contains the ovaries and fallopian tubes? a. adnexa b. paraovarian c. pouch of douglas d. space of retzius

a. adnexa

The sonographic pelvic examination of a female patient reveals an extensive amount of ascites. In the transverse plane you visualize two echogenic structures extending from the side walls of the uterus to the pelvic side walls bilaterally. These structures are most likely the: a. broad ligaments b. cardinal ligaments c. ovarian ligaments d. uterosacral ligaments

a. broad ligaments

At what level is the nuchal fold measurement obtained? a. cavum septum pellucidum b. occipital horns of the lateral ventricle c. brain stem d. foramen magna

a. cavum septum pellucidum

The normal umbilical cord insertion point into the placenta is: a. central b. superior margin c. inferior margin d. lateral margin

a. central

Which of the following forms of fetal presentation is the most common? a. cephalic b. complete breech c. frank breech d. transverse

a. cephalic

The structure located between the two lobes of the cerebellum is the: a. cerebellar vermis b. cerebellar tonsils c. falx cerebri d. corpus callosum

a. cerebellar vermis

A malignant form of GTD is: a. choriocarcinoma b. hydatiform mole c. anembryonic d. hydropic villi

a. choriocarcinoma

Which term relates to the number of placentas? a. chorionicity b. zygocity c. amnionicity d. cleavage

a. chorionicity

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome could be described as: a. clinical findings of GB disease as a result of PID b. The presence of uterine fibroids and adenomyosis in the gravid uterus c. coexisting intrauterine and extrauterine pregnancies d. The presence of pyosalpinx, hydrosalpinx and endometritis

a. clinical findings of GB disease as a result of PID

Facial anomalies, when discovered, should prompt the sonographer to analyze the brain closely for signs of: a. holoprosencephaly b. DWM c. Schizencephaly d. Hydranencephaly

a. holoprosencephaly

The "sunburst" of the cerebral sulci is a sonographic finding of: a. DWM b. Agenesis of the corpus callosum c. colpocephaly d. hydranencephaly

b. Agenesis of the corpus callosum

A lemon shaped skull is related to: a. T 21 b. Arnold Chiari II malformation c. Thanantophoric dysplasia d. Beckwith-Wiedermann syndrome

b. Arnold Chiari II malformation

Which of the following will also typically be absent with agenesis of the corpus callosum? a. cerebellar vermis b. CSP c. Third vent d. Fourth vent

b. CSP

The condition associated with the absence of the sacrum and coccyx: a. LBWC b. Caudal regression syndrome c. Thanatophoric dwarfism d. heterozygous achondroplasia

b. Caudal regression syndrome

The form of inheritance in which at least one parent has to be a carrier of an abnormal gene for it to be passed to the fetus is: a. achondrophasia b. autosomal dominant c. inherited dominant d. inherited recessive

b. autosomal dominant

The renal cystic disease that results in the development of cysts late in adulthood is: a. multicystic dysplastic renal disease b. autosomal dominant polycystic disease c. autosomal recessive polycystic disease d. obstructive cystic dysplasia

b. autosomal dominant polycystic disease

Twins whose bodies are connected at some point are: a. fraternal b. conjoined c. identical d. stuck

b. conjoined

The band of tissue that allows communication between the right and left cerebral hemispheres is the: a. falx b. corpus callosum c. cerebellar vermis d. CSP

b. corpus callosum

The temporary endocrine gland that results from the rupture of the graafian follicle is the: a. corpus albicans b. corpus luteum c. cumulus oophorus d. trophoblastic cells

b. corpus luteum

Sonographically, a normal appearing 7 week IUP is identified. Within the adnexa, an ovarian cystic structure with a thick hyperechoic rim is also discovered. What does this ovarian mass most likely represent? a. theca lutein cyst b. corpus luteum cyst c. corpus albicans d. ectopic pregnancy

b. corpus luteum cyst

What is a treatment that separates abnormal placental vascular connections between twins that are suffering from TTTS? a. cleavage-laser resection treatment b. endoscopic-guided laser photocoagulation c. endemic translocation of placental vessels d. circumvallate resection of shared placental vascular

b. endoscopic-guided laser photocoagulation

All of the following sonographic features of pentalogy of Cantrell except: a. omphalocele b. gastroschisis c. cleft sternum d. diaphragmatic defect

b. gastroschisis

What condition is pregnancy induced maternal high blood pressure and excess protein in the urine after 20 weeks gestation? a. gestational diabetes b. preeclampsia c. porencephaly d. maternal mirror syndrome

b. preeclampsia

Which of the following would increase the likelihood of a fetus developing sirenomelia and caudal regression syndrome? a. previous c section b. preexisting maternal diabetes c. previous ectopic pregnancy d. elevated hcg

b. preexisting maternal diabetes

What substance does hysterosalpingography utilize for the visualization of the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes? a. saline b. radiographic contrast c. water d. betadine

b. radiographic contrast

Which of the following would be most indicative of a leiomyosarcoma? a. vaginal bleeding b. rapid growth c. dysuria d. large hypoechoic mass

b. rapid growth

All of the following would be associated with oligohydramnios except: a. bilateral MCDK disease b. unilateral renal agenesis c. bilateral renal agenesis d. arpkd

b. unilateral renal agenesis

An 84- year - old patient presents to the sonography department with sudden onset of vaginal bleeding. Her endometrim thickness should not exceed: a. 6 mm b. 8 mm c. 5 mm d. 3 mm

c. 5 mm

What measurement should the renal pelvis not exceed prior to 20 weeks' gestation? a. 2 mm b. 10 mm c. 7 mm d. 1.2 cm

c. 7 mm

What is used as a tumor marker for endometrial carcioma? a. CR 124 b. CE 125 c. CA 125 d. CA 45

c. CA 125

Enlargement of the frontal horns and narrowing of the occipital horns is termed: a. Holoprosencephaly b. DWM c. Colpocephaly d. Apert Syndrome

c. Colpocephaly

Which hormone released by the ovary during the proliferative phase stimulates endometrial thickening? a. FSH b. LH c. Estrogen d. Progesterone

c. Estrogen

The dominant follicle prior to ovulation is termed the: a. Graafian follicle b. Ovarian hyper follicle c. corpus luteum d. corpus albicans

a. Graafian follicle

The syndrome associated with an occipital cephalocele, cystic renal disease, and polydactyly: a. Meckel-Gruber syndrome b. Potter syndrome c. VACTERL syndrome d. Sirenomelia syndrome

a. Meckel-Gruber syndrome

A 22 week fetus with clinodactyly, an echogenic intracardiac focus and hyperechoic bowel is noted during a screening ob exam. These findings are most consistent with: a. T 21 b. T 13 c. Monosomy X d. T 18

a. T 21

What is macroglossia most often associated with? a. T 21 b. T 18 c. Triploidy d. Turners

a. T 21

The lemon sign denotes: a. an abnormal shape of the fetal skull b. a normal shape of the cerebellum c. an abnormal shape of the cerebellum d. a normal shape of the fetal skull

a. an abnormal shape of the fetal skull

Prune belly syndrome is caused by: a. an enlarged bladder b. unilateral renal agenesis c. bilateral renal agenesis d. hypospadias

a. an enlarged bladder

What is the stage of the conceptus that implants within the decidualized endometrium? a. blastocyst b. morula c. zygote d. ovum

a. blastocyst

Talipes equinovarus is associated with: a. clubfoot b. syndactyly c. Rhizomelia d. Rockerbottom feet

a. clubfoot

The fingerlike extensions of the fallopian tube are called: a. fimbria b. infundibulum c. cilia d. isthmus

a. fimbria

The paired muscles that are located lateral to the uterus and anterior to the iliac crest are the: a. iliopsoas muscles b. rectus abdominis muscles c. obturator interni muscles d. piriformis muscles

a. iliopsoas muscles

Identical twins result from: a. monozygotic twinning b. dizygotic twinning c. heterotopic pregnancies d. monochorionic pregnancies

a. monozygotic twinning

All of the following are clinical findings associated with leiomyoma except: a. myometrial cysts b. infertility c. palpable pelvic mass d. menorrhagia

a. myometrial cysts

Patients with OHS are at increased risk for: a. ovarian torsion b. chlamydia c. gonorrhea d. vaginitis

a. ovarian torsion

Complex appearing fluid within the fallopian tubes seen with PID is most likely: a. pyosalpinx b. pyometra c. hydrosalpinx d. hematometra

a. pyosalpinx

The hormone that surges at ovulation is: a. GnRH b. LH c. Aldosterone d. Progesterone

b. LH

The most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding is: a. endometrial carcinoma b. endometrial atrophy c. endometrial leiomyoma d. cervical carcinoma

b. endometrial atrophy

An oral teratoma is referred to as: a. macroglossia b. epignathus c. micrognathia d. ethmocephaly

b. epignathus

Which of the following is defined as excessive hair growth in women in areas where hair growth is normally negligible? a. dyspareunia b. hirsutism c. meigs syndrome d. polycystic ovary syndrome

b. hirsutism

What is the typical sonographic appearance of the endometrium during the secretory phase? a. anechoic and thin b. hyperechoic and thick c. hypoechoic and thin d. echogenic basal layer and hypoechoic functional layer

b. hyperechoic and thick

All of the following would be associated with a lower than normal hCG level except: a. ectopic pregnancy b. molar pregnancy c. blighted ovum d. spontaneous abortion

b. molar pregnancy

Which form of monozygotic twinning is least common? a. Monochorionic diamniotic b. monochorionic monoamniotic c. dichorionic diamniotic d. dichorionic biamniotic

b. monochorionic monoamniotic

The corpus luteum primarily releases: a. estrogen b. progesterone c. LH d. FSH

b. progesterone

What is another name for adhesions within the endometrial cavity? a. endometritis b. synechiae c. septation d. mural nodules

b. synechiae

The most common initial clinical presentation of PID is: a. endometritis b. Tubo ovarian abscess c. Vagnitis d. Pyosalpinx

c. Vagnitis

The "keyhole" sign would be seen in all of the following except: a. urethral atresia b. prune belly syndrome c. autosomal dominant polycystic renal disease d. posterior urethral valves

c. autosomal dominant polycystic renal disease

What is the term for the fetal presentation that is head down? a. breech b. crown c. cephalic d. vertical

c. cephalic

Which of the following is defined as pain during intercourse? a. dysuria b. dysmenorrhea c. dyspareunia d. hirsutism

c. dysparenunia

Difficult or painful intercourse is referred to as: a. dysuria b. dysmenorrhea c. dyspareunia d. hydrocolpos

c. dyspareunia

Something that is idiopathic is said to be: a. caused by a functional abnormality b. related to fetal development c. from an unknown cause d. found incidentally

c. from an unknown cause

The layer of the endometrium that is significantly altered as a result of hormonal stimulation during the menstrual cycle is the: a. myometrium b. endometrial cavity c. functional layer d. basal layer

c. functional layer

What structure may be noted on the ovary just prior to ovulation? a. corpus albicans b. corpus luteum c. graafian follicle d. blastocyst

c. graafian follicle

The superior portion of the cervix is the: a. cornu b. corpus c. internal os d. external os

c. internal os

An endometrioma most likely appears as a: a. simple, anechoic mass with through transmission b. complex mass with internal shadowing components c. mostly cystic mass with low level echoes d. solid, hypoechoic shadowing mass

c. mostly cystic mass with low level echoes

The optimal scan plane to visualize micrognathia is: a. transverse b. axial c. sagittal d. coronal

c. sagittal

A sonographic examination was performed on a pregnancy patient who complained of vaginal bleeding. Sonographically, a crescent shaped anechoic area is noted adjacent to the gestational sac. The gestational sac contained a 6-week single live IUP. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. ectopic pregnancy b. molar pregnancy c. subchorionic hemorrhage d. anembryonic gestation

c. subchorionic hemorrhage

The reduction in blood return to the maternal heart caused by the gravid uterus compressing the maternal inferior vena cava describes: a. edwards syndrom b. pulmonary obstructive syndrome c. supine hypotensive syndrome d. recumbent hypotensive syndrome

c. supine hypotensive syndrome

What term is defined as fusion of the digits: a. clinodactyly b. polydactyly c. syndactyly d. rhizodactyly

c. syndactyly

A molar pregnancy, omphalocele, and small low-set ears are found most often with: a. T 21 b. T 18 c. T 13 d. Triploidy

d. Triploidy

The outer layer of the endometrium is the: a. myometrium b. endometrial cavity c. functional layer d. basal layer

d. basal layer

IUGR is evident when the EFW is: a. above the 90th percentile b. below the 90th percentile c. above the 10th percentile d. below the 10th percentile

d. below the 10th percentile

The best description for endometrial polyps is: a. malignant nodules that cause bleeding b. benign lesions associated with cervical stenosis c. malignant nodules that are associated with endometrial atrophy d. benign nodules of hyperplastic endometrial tissue

d. benign nodules of hyperplastic endometrial tissue

All of the following are observed during a biophysical profile except: a. fetal tone b. thoracic movement c. fetal breathing d. fetal circulation

d. fetal circulation

The abdominal circumference should include all of the following except: a. fetal stomach b. fetal T spine c. umbilical vein d. fetal kidneys

d. fetal kidneys

What laboratory value would be most useful to evaluate in a patient with suspected internal hemorrhage? a. WBC b. lactate dehydrogenase c. amylase d. hematocrit

d. hematocrit

What is an anomaly of the spine in which there is absence of all or part of a vertebral body and posterior element: a. kyphosis b. scoliosis c. kyphoscoliosis d. hemivertebra

d. hemivertebra

Which of the following would be least likely associated with immune hydrops? a. fetal hepatomegaly b. fetal splenomegaly c. anasarca d. leiomyoma

d. leiomyoma

The most common malignant adrenal pediatric tumor is the: a. nephroblastoma b. pheochromocytome c. hepatoblastoma d. neuroblastoma

d. neuroblastoma

When the ovary is in the luteal phase, the endometrium is in the: a. early proliferative b. periovulatory c. late proliferative d. secretory

d. secretory

What congenital malformation of the uterus is common and has a clear association with an increased risk for spontaneous abortion? a. anteflexed uterus b. levoverted uterus c. dextroverted uterus d. septate uterus

d. septate uterus

An absent sacrum and coccyx is referred to as: a. sirenomelia b. caudal regression syndrome c. achondroplasia d. radial ray defect

c. achondroplasia

The mitral valve is located: a. between the right atrium and the left atrium b. between the right ventricle and the right atrium c. between the left ventricle and left atrium d. between the left atrium and aorta

c. between the left ventricle and left atrium

Which of all of the following would be most likely associated with oligohydramnios? a. duodenal atresia b. hepatomegaly c. bilateral renal agenesis d. physiologic bowel herniation

c. bilateral renal agenesis

What is another name for an endometrioma? a. dermoid b. teratoma c. chocolate cyst d. string of pearl

c. chocolate cyst

Pyelectasis refers to: a. enlargement of the urinary bladder, ureter, and renal calices b. dilation of ureter c. dilation of renal pelvis d. enlargement of the ureter only

c. dilation of renal pelvis

All of the following are sonographic features of alobar holoprosencephaly except: a. cyclopia b. monoventricle c. dorsal cyst d. fused thalamus

c. dorsal cyst

With which of the following syndromes is brachycephaly associated with most often? a. edwards syndrome b. patau syndrome c. down syndrome d. turner syndrome

c. down syndrome

Cloacal exstrophy is associated with all of the following except: a. omphalocele b. spina bifida c. encephalocele d. imperforate anus

c. encephalocele

The most common female genital tract malignancy is: a. ovarian carcinoma b. cervical carcinoma c. endometrial carcinoma d. pelvic inflammatory disease

c. endometrial carcinoma

Pus within the Fallopian tube is termed: A) Hematosalpinx B) Pyosalpinx C) Hydrosalpinx D) Hemosalpinx

B) Pyosalpinx

What is the most common form of GTD? a. Complete Molar Pregnancy b. Partial Molar Pregnancy c. Invasive Mole d. Choriocarcinoma

a. Complete Molar Pregnancy

All of the following would be an indication for a third trimester sonogram except: a. evaluate NT b. Evaluate fetal presentation c. evaluate fetal growth d. evaluate gestational age

a. evaluate NT

In VACTERL association, the letter L stands for: a. limb b. lung c. liver d. larynx

a. limb

Fetal stool is termed: a. plicae b. meconium c. laguna d. lanugo

b. meconium

With Rh isoimmunization, the maternal antibodies cross the placenta and destroy the fetal: a. spleen b. red blood cells c. liver d. white blood cells

b. red blood cells

The cervix should measure at least _____ in length. a. 4 cm b. 5 cm c. 3 cm d. 8 mm

c. 3 cm

What hormone maintains the thickness of the endometrium after ovulation? a. LH b. Estrogen c. Progesterone d. FSH

c. Progesterone

The rigid region of the uterus located between the vagina and the isthmus is the: a. cornu b. corpus c. cervix d. fundus

c. cervix

The inferior portion of the cervix closest to the vagina is the: a. cornu b. internal os c. external os d. inferior fornix

c. external os

A normal shaped skull is termed: a. dolichocephaly b. brachycephaly c. mesocephaly d. scaphocephaly

c. mesocephaly

A 26 year old patient presents to the sonography department with a history of infertility and oligomenorrhea. Sonographically, you discover that the ovaries are enlarged and contain multiple, small follicles along their periphery, with prominent echogenic stromal elements. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. ovarian torsion b. OHS c. PID d. PCOS

d. PCOS

Unopposed estrogen therapy has been shown to increase the risk for developing: a. alzheimer disease b. colon cancer c. coronary heart disease d. endometrial carcinoma

d. endometrial carcinoma

An EIF is most often seen within the: a. right atrium b. left atrium c. right ventricle d. left ventricle

d. left ventricle

All of the following would be relevant lab tests to evaluate before performing a routine pelvic sonogram except? a. HCG b. hematocrit c. WBC d. lipase

d. lipase

All of the following may be sonographic findings in the presence of an ectopic pregnancy except: a. pseudogestatinal sac b. corpus luteum cyst c. adnexal ring d. low beta hCG

d. low beta hCG

All of the following are consistent with a complete hydatiform mole except: a. heterogeneous mass within endometrium b. bilateral theca lutein cysts c. hyperemesis gravidarum d. low hCG

d. low hCG

Which of the following is the most likely metastatic location for GTD? a. rectum b. pancreas c. spleen d. lungs

d. lungs

An unusual protuberance of the tongue is termed: a. epignathus b. macrognathia c. pharyngoglossia d. macroglossia

d. macroglossia

The thalamic tissue located within the third ventricle of the brain that can become enlarged with arnold chiari II malformation is the: a. corpus callosum b. cerebellar vermis c. cavum septum pellucidum d. massa intermedia

d. massa intermedia

Pools of maternal blood noted within the placental substance are referred to as: a. accessory lobes b. decidual casts c. chorioangiomas d. maternal lakes

d. maternal lakes

Penetration of the placenta beyond the uterine wall would be referred to as: a. placenta accrete b. placenta increta c. placenta previa d. placenta percreta

d. placenta percreta

The accumulation of fluid around the lungs is termed: a. ascites b. extracorporeal effusion c. peripleural fluid d. pleural effusion

d. pleural effusion

Which of the following would be the least likely to cause abdominal distension? a. ascites b. multiple leiomyoma c. ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome d. polycystic ovarian disease

d. polycystic ovarian disease

The first phase of the endometrial cycle is the: a. secretory phase b. follicular phase c. luteal phase d. proliferative phase

d. proliferative phase

What is the term for underdevelopment of the lungs? a. pulmonary atresia b. pulmonary stenosis c. pulmonary agenesis d. pulmonary hypoplasia

d. pulmonary hypoplasia

Obstruction at the level of the UPJ would lead to dilation of the: a. renal pelvis and bladder b. bladder and ureter c. ureter and renal pelvis d. renal pelvis and calices

d. renal pelvis and calices

What other term is used to describe the space of Retzius? a. posterior CDS b. anterior CDS c. murphy pouch d. retropubic space

d. retropubic space

Which of the following would be caused by a large acoustic interface and subsequent production of false echoes? a. posterior shadowing b. acoustic enhancement c. mirror image d. reverberation

d. reverberation

The sonographic evidence of a hyperemic fallopian tube is consistent with: a. pyosalpinx b. hydrosalpinx c. endometritis d. salpingitis

d. salpingitis

All of the following are clinical findings consistent with a complete molar pregnancy except: a. vaginal bleeding b. hypertension c. uterine enlargement d. small for dates

d. small for dates

The arteries within the functional layer of the endometrium that are altered by the hormones of the ovary and are shed with menstruation are the: a. arcuate arteries b. radial arteries c. straight arteries d. spiral arteries

d. spiral arteries

Excessive hair growth in women in areas where hair growth is normally negligible would be seen with : a. ectopic pregnancy b. Fitz Curtis Hugh Sydrome c. asherman syndrome d. stein leventhal syndrome

d. stein leventhal syndrome

The pelvic ligament that provides support to the ovary to the pelvic side wall is the: a. cardinal ligament b. ovarian ligament c. broad ligament d. suspensory ligament of the ovary

d. suspensory ligament of the ovary

All of the following are associated with amniotic band syndrome except: a. amputation of fetal parts b. anencephaly c. facial clefting d. synechiae

d. synechiae

A cloverleaf skull and hydrocephalus is seen with: a. achondrogenesis b. osteogenesis imperfecta c. sirenomelia d. thanatophoric dysplasia

d. thanatophoric dysplasia

Which of the following is a true statement about the fetal heart? a. the apex of the heart will be angled to the right of the midline b. the apex of the heart is the portion closest to the spine c. the normal fetal heart will fill approximately two third of the fetal chest d. the chamber closest to the fetal spine is the left atrium

d. the chamber closest to the fetal spine is the left atrium

Which of the following is not a true statement about the normal fetal heart? a. the ventricular septum should be uninterrupted and of equal thickness to the left ventricular wall b. there is a normal opening within the atrial septum c. between the right ventricle and the right atrium, one should visualize the tricuspid valve d. the mitral valve is positioned closer to the cardiac apex than the tricuspid valve

d. the mitral valve is positioned closer to the cardiac apex than the tricuspid valve

Twins having two placentas and one amniotic sac are referred to as: a. monochorionic diamniotic b. monoamniotic dichorionic c. dichorioic monoamniotic d. this does not occur

d. this does not occur

When the placenta completely covers the internal os it is referred to as: a. low lying previa b. marginal previa c. partial previa d. total previa

d. total previa

The pelvic ligament that provides support to the ovary and extends from the lateral surface of the ovary to the uterus is the: A) Cardinal ligament B) Ovarian ligament C) Broad ligament D) Suspensory ligament of the ovary

B) Ovarian ligament

Which of the following is also referred to as a chocolate cyst? a. endometrioma b. endometroid c. cystic teratoma d. androblastoma

a. endometrioma

What is the most likely pulsed Doppler characteristic of endometrial cancer? a. low impedence flow b. high impedence flow c. absent systolic flow d. converse diastolic flow

a. low impedence flow

Which of the following is described as the situation in which the placental edge extends into the lower uterine segment but ends more than 2cm away from the internal os? a. low lying placenta b. marginal placenta c. partial previa d. total previa

a. low lying placenta

The term for small eyes is: a. microphthalmia b. micrognathia c. microcephaly d. microglossia

a. microphthalmia

Mothers with pregestational diabetes as opposed to gestational diabetes, have an increased risk of a fetus with: a. neural tube defects b. proteinuria c. TORCH d. Diethylstilbestrol

a. neural tube defects

All of the following are associated with omphalocele except: a. normal cord insertion b. multiple chromosomal anomalies c. elevated MSAFP d. periumbilical mass

a. normal cord insertion

What ovarian tumor will most likely have a moth eaten appearance on sonography? a. cystic teratoma b. serous cystadenocarcinoma c. krukenberg tumor d. sertoli-leydig cell tumor

c. krukenberg tumor

The most common fetal cardiac tumor is: a. rhabdomyoma b. chordae tendineae c. cardiomyoma d. CAM

a. rhabdomyoma

The second phase of the endometrial cycle is the: a. secretory phase b. follicular phase c. luteal phase d. proliferative phase

a. secretory phase

A 55 year old patient presents to the sonography department with a history of pelvic pressure, abdominal swelling and abnormal uterine bleeding. A pelvic sonogram reveals a large multiloculated cystic mass with papillary projections. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. serous cystadenocarcinoma b. cystic teratoma c. androblastoma d. dysgerminoma

a. serous cystadenocarcinoma

Which of the following is true for the diagnosis of clubfoot? a. the metatarsals and toes lie in the same plane as the tibia and fibula b. the metatarsals are perpendicular to the tibia and fibula c. the carpals and metacarpals lie in the same plane as the tibia and fibula d. the tibia, fibula and patella are perpendicular to the femur

a. the metatarsals and toes lie in the same plane as the tibia and fibula

The urinary bladder, uterus, and ovaries are located within the: a. true pelvis b. false pelvis

a. true pelvis

The measurement obtained between the lateral walls of the orbits is referred to as the: a. interocular b. binocular diameter c. ocular diameter d. biparietal diameter

b. binocular diameter

What is considered the most dependent part of the peritoneal cavity? a. space of retzius b. anterior CDS c. pouch of douglas d. rectovessicular pouch

c. pouch of douglas

The removal of tissue from the endometrium by scraping is termed: a. dilation b. curettage c. sonohysterography d. hysteroscopy

b. curettage

Blood within the fallopian tube is termed: a. hydrosalpinx b. hematosalpinx c. pyosalpinx d. hemosalpinx

b. hematosalpinx

The presence of pus within the uterus defines: a. pyosalpinx b. pyometra c. pyocolpos d. pyomyoma

b. pyometra

Fertilization typically occurs within _______ after ovulation. a. 40 b. 12 c. 24 d. 56

c. 24

Absence of the skull is: a. hydranencephaly b. schizencephaly c. acrania d. ventriculomegaly

c. acrania

The normal gestational sac will grow: a. 2 mm per day b. 3 mm per day c. 1 cm per day d. 1 mm per day

d. 1 mm per day

An omphalocele may contain? a. fetal liver b. ascites c. fetal colon d. all of the above

d. all of the above

All of the following are characteristics of spina bifida cystica except: a. banana sign b. lemon sign c. enlarged massa intermedia d. normal MSAFP

d. normal MSAFP

Congenital malformation of the uterus that results in complete duplication of the genital tract is: a. unicornuate uterus b. bicornis bicollis c. uterus didelphys d. subseptate uterus

c. uterus didelphys

The interthalmic adhesion (massa intermedia) passes through the: a. 3rd vent b. 4th vent c. cisterna magna d. CSP

a. 3rd vent

Normal diploid cells have how many chromosomes? a. 46 b. 23 c. 21 d. 69

a. 46

With what structure does the posterior fossa cyst associated with DWM communicate? a. 4th b. 3rd c. cerebellar vermis d. cerebral aqueduct

a. 4th

The measurement that should be carefully scrutinized in cases of IUGR is the: a. AC b. Femur Length c. Biparietal diameter d. HC

a. AC

Which of the following lab findings would not be consistent with T 21? a. High AFP b. Low estriol c. High hCG d. Low PAPP-A

a. High AFP

The two hormones produced by the anterior pituitary gland that impact the menstrual cycle are: a. LH and FSH b. LH and estrogen c. Progesterone and estrogen d. FSH and progesterone

a. LH and FSH

Fetal lung maturity can be assessed using the: a. LS ratio b. systolic to diastolic ratio c. estriol to AFP ratio d. lung size formula

a. LS ratio

Which of the following laboratory values would be significant in the detection of an abdominal wall defect? a. MSAFP b. Human chorionic gonadotropin c. maternal serum amylase d. estradiol

a. MSAFP

All of the following are signs of Arnold Chiari II malformation except: a. S shaped spine b. banana sign c. lemon sign d. colpocephaly

a. S shaped spine

Absent nasal bones and an increased nuchal fold measurement are most consistent with the sonographic markers for: a. T 21 b. T 13 c. Triploidy d. T 18

a. T 21

An absent or hypoplastic nasal bone is most likely associated with: a. T 21 b. T 15 c. T 18 d. Turners syndrome

a. T 21

Which of the following is most often associated with duodenal atresia? a. T 21 b. T 18 c. T 13 d. Triploidy

a. T 21

An EIF would most likely be associated with: a. T21 b. T13 c. T8 d. Turner syndrome

a. T21

The demise of a twin during the second or third trimester can lead to: a. TTTS b. Twin embolization syndrome c. Twin peak sign d. Acardiac twin

a. TTTS

The shunting of blood from one twin to the other is termed: a. TTTS b. Twin embolization syndrome c. Twin peak sign d. conjoined twins

a. TTTS

All of the following are sonographic findings of a tubo ovarian abscess except: a. The presence of 10 or more small cysts along the periphery of the ovary b. CDS fluid c. thickened irregular endometrium d. fusion of the pelvic organs as a conglomerated mass

a. The presence of 10 or more small cysts along the periphery of the ovary

Eventration of the diaphragm is best described as: a. a lack of muscle in the dome of the diaphragm b. a defect in the anterior lateral wall of the diaphragm c. a defect in the posterolateral wall of the diaphragm d. congenital absence of the diaphragm

a. a lack of muscle in the dome of the diaphragm

All of the following are produced by the placenta except: a. alpha-fetoprotein b. hCG c. PAPP-A d. Inhibin A

a. alpha-fetoprotein

The absence of menstrual bleeding is termed: a. amenorrhea b. dysmenorrhea c. oligomenorrhea d. polymenorrhea

a. amenorrhea

Which of the following is typically not a clinical complaint of women who are suffering from adenomyosis? a. amenorrhea b. dysmenorrhea c. dyspareunia d. menometrorrhagia

a. amenorrhea

The pelvic ligament that extends from the lateral aspect of the uterus to the side walls of the pelvis is: a. broad ligament b. ovarian ligament c. piriformis ligament d. external iliac artery

a. broad ligament

The ligament that houses the vasculature of the uterus is the: a. cardinal ligament b. ovarian ligament c. broad ligament d. suspensory ligament of the ovary

a. cardinal ligament

What structure shunts blood into the IVC from the umbilical vein? a. ductus venosus b. ductus arteriosus c. foramen ovale d. foramen of luschka

a. ductus venosus

Which of the following would be most likely associated with an excessive amount of amniotic fluid? a. duodenal atresia b. hepatomegaly c. bilateral renal agenesis d. physiologic bowel herniation

a. duodenal atresia

The ovarian tumor associated with an elevated serum lactate dehydrogenase is the: a. dysgerminoma b. sertoli-leydig cell tumor c. serous cystadenocarcinoma d. mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

a. dysgerminoma

Which of the following is best defined as difficult or painful menstruation? a. dysmenorrhea b. dysparenuia c. dysuria d. menorrhagia

a. dysmenorrhea

What term is used to describe painful intercourse? a. dyspareunia b. dysuria c. dysmenorrhea d. dysconception

a. dyspareunia

The most common cause of pelvic pain with pregnancy is: a. ectopic b. heterotopic c. missed abortion d. molar pregnancy

a. ectopic

The dominant follicle prior to ovulation is termed the: a. graafian follicle b. corpus albicans c. corpus luteum d. medulla

a. graafian follicle

The number of pregnancies is defined as: a. gravidity b. parity c. primigravida d. primiparous

a. gravidity

The triple screen typically includes an analysis of: a. hCG, afp, estriol b. fetal NT, afp, inhibin A c. hCG, afp, inhibin A d. hcg, afp, PAPP-A

a. hCG, afp, estriol

A 38 year old female patient presents to the sonography department for a pelvic sonogram with an indication of pelvic pain. Upon sonography interrogation, the sonographer notes an anechoic mass within the cervix. This mass most likely represents a : a. nabothian cyst b. benign follicular cyst c. dermoid cyst d. gartner duct cyst

a. nabothian cyst

Conjoined twins that are attached at the abdomen are referred to as: a. omphalopagus b. thoracopagus c. ileopagus d. craniopagus

a. omphalopagus

Which of the following is associated with the "whirlpool sign": a. ovarian torsion b. hydrosalpinx c. ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome d. ovarian carcinoma

a. ovarian torsion

The migration of the embryologic bowel into the base of the umbilical cord at 9 weeks is referred to as: a. physiologic bowel herniation b. pseudo-omphalocele c. omphalocele d. gastroschisis

a. physiologic bowel herniation

Having more than the normal number of digits is: a. polydactyly b. clinodactyly c. multidigitopia d. sirenomelia

a. polydactyly

An excessive amount of amniotic fluid is termed: a. polyhydramnios b. oligohydramnios c. esophageal atresia d. amniotic fluid index

a. polyhydramnios

Which of the following would increase the risk of a patient developing endometrial cancer? a. unopposed ERT b. multiparity c. osteoporosis d. endometrial atrophy

a. unopposed ERT

Doppler sonography reveals vascular structures coursing over the internal os of the cervix. This finding is indicative of: a. vasa previa b. placenta previa c. placenta increta d. abruptio placentae

a. vasa previa

Dangling choroid sign is associated with: a. ventriculomegaly b. hydranencephaly c. lissencephaly d. meckel-gruber syndrome

a. ventriculomegaly

What structure connects the embryo to the yolk sac? a. vitelline duct b. yolk stalk c. amnion d. chorionic stalk

a. vitelline duct

The first structure noted within the gestational sac is the: a. yolk sac b. embryo c. decidual reaction d. chorionic sac

a. yolk sac

The second trimester usually refers to weeks: a. 12-26 b. 13-26 c. 10-28 d. 26-42

b. 13-26

Ovulation typically occurs on day __ of the menstrual cycle: a. 12 b. 14 c. 16 d. 1

b. 14

The fetal stomach should be visualized by week? a. 6 weeks b. 14 weeks c. 20 weeks d. 18 weeks

b. 14 weeks

Which of the following should not be included in the correct level for an HC measurement? a. Falx cerebri b. 4th vent c. thalamus d. CSP

b. 4th vent

The thickness of the nuchal fold in the second trimester should not exceed; a. 3 mm b. 6 mm c. 10 mm d. 12 mm

b. 6 mm

Precocious puberty is defined as the development of pubic hair, breasts and the genitals before the age of: a. 13 b. 8 c. 5 d. 10

b. 8

An asymptomatic 65 year old patient presents to the sonography department with pelvic pain but no vaginal bleeding. Her endometrial thickness should not exceed: a. 6 mm b. 8 mm c. 5 mm d. 3 mm

b. 8 mm

The fetal lip typically closes by: a. 18 weeks b. 8 weeks c. 13 weeks d. 6 weeks

b. 8 weeks

The most common non lethal form of skeletal dysplasia: a. achondrogenesis b. achondroplasia c. thanatophoric dysplasia d. osteogenesis imperfecta

b. achondroplasia

The most severe form of holoprosencephaly is: a. lobar b. alobar c. semilobar d. lobular

b. alobar

What is an inherited disorder in which mucus secreting organs such as lungs, pancreas, and other digestive organs produce thick and sticky secretions instead of normal secretions? a. hirschsprung disease b. cystic fibrosis c. multiple sclerosis d. turner syndrome

b. cystic fibrosis

Which of the following is associated with echogenic bowel? a. fetal anemia b. cystic fibrosis c. radial ray syndrome d. portal hypertension

b. cystic fibrosis

Typically with a miscarriage, the serum hCG value will be: a. elevated b. decreased c. this laboratory d. unchanged

b. decreased

All of the following are clinical or sonographic findings consistent with LBW complex except: a. ventral wall defects b. decreased MSAFP c. Marked scoliosis d. shortened umbilical cord

b. decreased MSAFP

The dilation of the renal collecting system secondary to the obstruction of normal urine flow defines: a. nephrocalcinosis b. hydronephrosis c. renal calculi d. urinary stasis

b. hydronephrosis

An increase distance between the orbits is referred to as: a. hypotelorism b. hypertelorism c. anophthalmia d. micrognathia

b. hypertelorism

What is the radiographic procedure used to evaluate the patency of the fallopian tubes? a. sonohysterography b. hysteryosalpingography c. hysteroscopy d. hysteroscopic fallopian septoplasty

b. hysteryosalpingography

Having the same echogenicity means: a. anechoic b. isoechoic c. echogenic d. hypoechoic

b. isoechoic

What section of the uterus is also referred to as the lower uterine segment: a. cervix b. isthmus c. fundus d. cornu

b. isthmus

Which of the following is said to be a common cause of DUB? a. hursutism b. polycystic ovary syndrome c. fibroids d. pelvic inflammatory disease

b. polycystic ovary syndrome

Duodenal atresia and esophageal atresia are associated with: a. oligohydramnios b. polyhydramnios c. normal amniotic fluid index d. anhydramnios

b. polyhydramnios

What is defined as frequent regular cycles but less than 21 days apart? a. hypomenorrhea b. polymenorrhea c. menorrhagia d. cryptomenorrhea

b. polymenorrhea

Fluid noted posterior to the uterus would most likely be located within the: a. space of retzius b. pouch of douglas c. anterior CDS d. adnexa

b. pouch of douglas

A myelomeningocele is associated with: a. down syndrome b. spina bifida c. Edwards syndrome d. Patau syndrome

b. spina bifida

The arteries that directly supply blood to the functional layer of the endometrium are the: a. radial arteries b. spiral arteries c. straight arteries d. arcuate arteries

b. spiral arteries

Upon sonographic evaluation of a patient complaining of abnormal distension, you visualize a large, hypoechoic mass distorting the anterior border of the uterus. What is the most likely location of this mass? a. intramural b. subserosal c. submucosal d. intracavitary pedunculated

b. subserosal

Which of the following best describes transposition of the great vessels?: a. the aorta rises from the left ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the right ventricle b. the aorta rises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle c. the aortic arch is narrowed and positioned anterior to the pulmonary vein d. the presence of an omphalocele and ectopic cordis

b. the aorta rises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle

The structure created by the union of sperm and egg is the: a. blastocyst b. zygote c. morula d. ampulla

b. zygote

Increased S/D ratio is associated with all of the following except: a. IUGR b. Placental insufficiency c. allantoic cysts d. perinatal mortality

c. allantoic cysts

Absence of menstruation is referred to as: a. dysuria b. dysmenorrhea c. amenorrhea d. menorrhagia

c. amenorrhea

All of the following are associated with a thin placenta except: a. preeclampsia b. IUGR c. fetal hydrops d. long-standing diabetes

c. fetal hydrops

Sonographically, which of the following would most likely be confused for a pedunculated fibroid tumor because of its solid appearing structure? a. Serous cystadenoma b. mucinous cystadenoma c. fibroma d. theca lutein cyst

c. fibroma

With what ovarian tumor is Meigs syndrome most likely associated? a. dysgerminoma b. cystic teratoma c. fibroma d. yolk sac tumor

c. fibroma

What is the normal opening in the lower middle third of the atrial septum? a. foramen of magendie b. foramen of monro c. foramen ovale d. ductus arteriosus

c. foramen ovale

The recesses of the vagina are the: a. cornu b. isthmi c. fornices d. parity

c. fornices

Which of the following would be the least likely indication for a first-trimester sonogram? a. evaluate pelvic pain b. define the cause of vaginal bleeding c. gender identification d. diagnosis of multiple gestations

c. gender identification

Pelvic muscles appear: a. echogenic b. anechoic c. hypoechoic d. complex

c. hypoechoic

Another name for Patau syndrome is: a. T 21 b. T 16 c. T 18 d. T 13

d. T 13

the true pelvis is delineated from the false pelvis by the: a. space of retzius b. adnexa c. linea terminalis d. iliac crest

c. linea terminalis

In the TPAL designation the "L" refers to: a. living children b. lethal anomalies c. live births d. lost pregnancies

c. live births

All of the following are sonographic findings of esophageal atresia except: a. absent stomach b. polyhydramnios c. macrosomia d. IUGR

c. macrosomia

A structural abnormality that results from a abnormal development describes: a. syndrome b. chromosomal deviation c. malformation d. congenital misrepresentation

c. malformation

Insertion of the umbilical cord at the edge of the placenta is referred to as: a. velamentous cord insertion b. partial cord insertion c. marginal cord insertion d. nuchal cord insertion

c. marginal cord insertion

Sirenomelia is commonly referred to as: a. radial ray defect b. rhizomelia c. mermaid syndrome d. rockerbottom feet

c. mermaid syndrome

What is the most common fetal renal tumor? a. neuroblastoma b. nephroblastoma c. mesoblastic nephroma d. wilms tumor

c. mesoblastic nephroma

A small mandible is termed: a. macroglossia b. epignathus c. micrognathia d. ethmocephaly

c. micrognathia

What is the term for a smaller than normal ear? a. microphthalmia b. micronatia c. microtia d. micrognathia

c. microtia

All of the following are characteristic sonographic findings of achondrogenesis except: a. micromelia b. absent mineralization of the pelvis c. multiple dislocated joints d. polyhydramnios

c. multiple dislocated joints

The surgical removal of a fibroid is termed: a. Hysterosonogram b. total abdominal hysterectomy c. myomectomy d. uterine artery embolization

c. myomectomy

One of the most common causes of painless vaginal bleeding in the second and third trimesters is: a. spontaneous abortion b. abruptio placentae c. placenta previa d. placenta accreta

c. placenta previa

The sonographic "bat-wing" sign is indicative of: a. pericardial effusion b. pulmonary atresia c. pleural effusion d. endocardial cushion defects

c. pleural effusion

Factors that increase the likelihood of having multiple gestation's include all of the following except: a. advanced maternal age b. ovulation inducing drugs c. poor nutritional state d. maternal predisposition for twins

c. poor nutritional state

Another name for the recouterine pouch is the: a. space of retzius b. pouch of retzius c. pouch of douglas d. anterior CDS

c. pouch of douglas

The cisterna magna should not exceed: a. 4 mm b. 2 mm c. 8 mm d. 10 mm

d. 10 mm

The fetal heart is fully formed by: a. 2 weeks b. 4 weeks. c. 8 weeks d. 10 weeks

d. 10 weeks

Which of the following may also be referred to as Turner Syndrome: a. Down Syndrome b. T 15 c. T 13 d. Monosomy X

d. Monosomy X

Which of the following is considered to be the most common cardiac defect? a. hypoplastic right heart syndrome b. transposition of the great vessels c. hypoplastic left heart syndrome d. VSD

d. VSD

Which of the following is not a component of prune belly syndrome? a. megacystitis b. undescended testicle c. dilated urinary bladder and urethra d. abdominal muscle hypertrophy

d. abdominal muscle hypertrophy

The absence of the eyes is termed: a. agyria b. epignathus c. hypoterlorism d. anophthalmia

d. anophthalmia

Psuedoprecocious puberty may be associated with all of the following except: a. ovarian tumor b. adrenal tumor c. liver tumor d. brain tumor

d. brain tumor

The fetal contribution of the placenta is the: a. chorionic vera b. decidua vera c. decidua basalis d. chorion frondosum

d. chorion frondosum

The most superior and widest portion of the uterus is the: a. corpus b. isthmus c. cervix d. fundus

d. fundus

All of the following are clinical features of placental abruption except: a. vaginal bleeding b. uterine tenderness c. abdominal pain d. funneling of the cervix

d. funneling of the cervix

Hepatomegaly would least likely be associated with: a. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome b. fetal anemia c. intrauterine growth restriction d. gastroschisis

d. gastroschisis

What term relates to the number of pregnancies a patient has had? a. para b. menarche c. menorrhagia d. gravida

d. gravida

The malignant ovarian mass that is associated with psuedomyxoma peritonei is the: a. dysgerminoma b. sertoli-leydig cell tumor c. serous cystadenocarcinoma d. mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

d. mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

During an 18 week sonogram, multiple cysts of varying sizes are noted within the renal fossa of a male fetus. Which of the following would be an associated finding: a. megacystitis b. ovarian dysgenesis c. hypospadias d. normal amniotic fluid level

d. normal amniotic fluid level

Sonographic findings of OHS include all of the following except: a. cystic enlargement of the ovaries b. ascites c. pleural effusions d. oliguria

d. oliguria

The normal heart will fill approximately ____ of the fetal chest. a. one half b. one fourth c. one fifth d. one third

d. one third

Leiomyomas that project from a stalk are termed: a. submucosal b. intramural c. subserosal d. pedunculated

d. pedunculated

An abnormal connection between the esophagus and trachea is termed: a. esophageal duodenal herniation b. double bubble sign c. esophageal atresia d. tracheoesophageal fistula

d. tracheoesophageal fistula

Monosomy X refers to: a. edwards b. patau c. downs d. turners

d. turners

The normal umbilical cord has: a. one vein and one artery b. two veins and two arteries c. two veins and one artery d. two arteries and one vein

d. two arteries and one vein

Bilateral Choroid plexus cysts, micrognathia and rocker bottom feet are sonographic findings of a 27 week fetus with an omphalocele. These findings are consistent with: a. T 21 b. T 13 c. Triploidy d. T 18

d. T 18

Which of the following conditions does not affect the orbits? a. cebocephaly b. cyclopia c. ethmocephaly d. epignathus

d. epignathus

Echogenic small bowel is most often associated with? a. Down syndrome b. Edwards syndrome c. Patau syndrome d. Turner syndrome

a. Down syndrome

The hormone produced by the hypothalamus that controls the release of the hormones for menstruation by the anterior pituitary gland is: a. FSH b. Estrogen c. GnRH d. LH

a. FSH

The development of adhesions between the liver and the diaphragm as a result of PID is termed: a. Fits Hugh Curtis Syndrome b.Dandy Walker syndrome c. Stein Leventhal syndrome d. Asherman syndrome

a. Fits Hugh Curtis Syndrome

Close set eyes and a nose with a single nostril is termed: a. cebocephaly b. cyclopia c. ethmocephaly d. epignathus

a. cebocephaly

The ovarian mass that contains fat, sebum and teeth is the: a. dermoid b. fibroma c. mucinous cystadenoma d. yolk sac tumor

a. dermoid

Asymmetry in fetal weight between twins is indicative of: a. discordant growth b. preeclampsia c. dichorionic diamniotic twinning d. intrauterine infections

a. discordant growth

In the first trimester. hCG levels will: a. double every 48 hours b. triple every 24 hours c. double every 24 hours d. double every 12 hours

a. double every 48 hours

A 60 year old patient presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of vaginal bleeding. The sonographic examination reveals an endometrium of 4 mm. There are no other significant sonographic findings. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. endometrial atrophy b. endometrial carcinoma c. endometrial polyp d. cervical stenosis

a. endometrial atrophy

An increase in the number of endometrial cells is termed: a. endometrial hyperplasia b. endometrial atrophy c. endometrial carcinoma d. polyps

a. endometrial hyperplasia

A 34 year old patient presents to the sonography department for an endovaginal sonogram complaining of intermenstrual bleeding. The sonographic findings include a focal irregularity and enlargement of one area of the endometrium. The most likely diagnosis is: a. endometrial polyps b. endometrial carcinoma c. endometrial atrophy d. intramural leiomyoma

a. endometrial polyps

Which of the following is also referred to as trisomy 13? a. down syndrome b. edwards syndrome c. turner syndrome d. patau syndrome

d. patau syndrome

What is described as the absence of the pulmonary valve, which in turn prohibits blood flow from the right ventricle into the pulmonary artery and essentially to the lungs? a. pulmonary atresia b. pulmonary stenosis c. pulmonary sequestration d. pulmonary effusion

a. pulmonary atresia

Which vessels supply blood to the deeper layers of the myometrium? a. radial arteries b. spiral arteries c. straight arteries d. arcuate arteries

a. radial arteries

Which of the following fibroid locations would most likely result in abnormal uterine bleeding because of its relationship with the endometrium? a. submucosal b. intramural c. subserosal d. subserosal pedunculated

a. submucosal

Placenta accrete denotes: a. the abnormal attachment of the placenta to the myometrium b. the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall c. the invasion of the placenta into the myometrium d. the condition of having the fetal vessels rest over the internal os

a. the abnormal attachment of the placenta to the myometrium

OHS can cause multiple large follicles to develop on the ovaries termed: a. theca lutein cysts b. chocolate cysts c. corpus luteum cysts d. dermoid cysts

a. theca lutein cysts

The embryonic heart begins as: a. two tubes b. four tubes c. eight tubes d. one tube

a. two tubes

The herniation of he bowel into the base of the umbilical cord before 12 weeks is termed: a. gastroschisis b. omphalocele c. hernia umbilicus d. physiologic herniation

d. physiologic herniation

The bilateral muscles that are located posterior to and extend from the sacrum to the femoral greater trochanter are the: a. levator ani muscles b. rectus abdominis muscles c. obturator internus muscles d. piriformis muscles

d. piriformis muscles

Painless second trimester vaginal bleeding is most often associated with: a. placental abruption b. ectopic pregnancy c. miscarriage d. placenta previa

d. placenta previa

The longest and most tortuous sepment of the fallopian tube is the: a. fimbria b. ampulla c. isthmus d. interstitial

b. ampulla

All of the following complications are associated with multiple gestations except: a. preterm delivery b. high birth weight c. maternal anemia d. maternal preeclampsia

b. high birth weight

The uterine position in which the corpus tilts forward and comes in contact with the cervix describes: A) Anteflexion B) Anteversion C) Retroflexion D) Retroversion

A) Anteflexion

What term describes the echogenicity of a simple ovarian cyst? a. anechoic b. hypoechoic c. echogenic d. hyperechoic

a. anechoic

The right ovarian artery branches off of the: a. aorta b. right renal artery c. uterine artery d. internal iliac artery

a. aorta

The largest part of the uterus is the: a. corpus b. isthmus c. cervix d. fundus

a. corpus

The cystic mass commonly noted with a pregnancy is the: a. corpus luteum b. dermoid cyst c. dysgerminoma d. serous cystadenoma

a. corpus luteum

Tamoxifan effects on the endometrium will sonographically appear as: a. cystic changes within a thickened endometrium b. cystic areas within a thin endometrium c. thin endometrium d. No apparent effect on endometrial thickness or appearance

a. cystic changes within a thickened endometrium

Which of the following would result in compensatory hypertrophy? a. unilateral renal agenesis b. bilateral renal agenesis c. pelvic kidney d. horseshoe kidney

a. unilateral renal agenesis

The bending of the fifth digit toward the fourth digit is called: a. syndactyly b. clinodactyly c. polydactyly d. stabodactyly

b. clinodactyly

The abdominal aorta bifurcates into: a. internal iliac arteries b. common iliac arteries c. ovarian arteries d. external iliac arteries

b. common iliac arteries

Painful and difficult menstruation is termed: a. menorrhagia b. dysmenorrhea c. metrorrhagia d. amenorrhea

b. dysmenorrhea

Which of the following would be most difficult to detect sonographically? a. cleft lip/palate b. Isolated cleft lip c. Isolated cleft palate d. Isolated median cleft

c. Isolated cleft palate

With endometrial atrophy, the endometrial thickness should not exceed: a. 6 mm b. 8 mm c. 5 mm d. 3 mm

d. 3 mm

LH is produced by the: a. ovary b. endometrium c. hypothalamus d. anterior pituitary gland

d. anterior pituitary gland

Stein Leventhal syndrome is related to all of the following except: a. infertility b. anovulatory cysts c. hirsutism d. ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

d. ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

During a pelvic sonogram you visualize a small cyst located adjacent to the ovary. What is the most likely etiology of this cyst? a. dermoid cyst b. ovarian cystadenoma c. endometrioma d. paraovarian cyst

d. paraovarian cyst

Possible benefits of ERT include all of the following except: a. reduction in oseoporosis risk b. reduction in colon cancer risk c. reduction in heart disease risk d. reduction in endometrial cancer risk

d. reduction in endometrial cancer risk

A patient presents to the sonography department with a history of uterine prolapsed. Which of the following best describes this disorder? a. A condition that results from the weakening of the pelvic diaphragm muscles and allows for the displacement of the uterus, often through the vagina. b. A congenital anomaly that results in the duplication of the uterus. c. A condition that results in the abdominal invasion of the myometrium through the bladder wall leading to hematuria. d. An abnormality that describes the inversion of the myometrium and endometrium.

a. A condition that results from the weakening of the pelvic diaphragm muscles and allows for the displacement of the uterus, often through the vagina.

The protein that is produced by the yolk sac, fetal gastrointestinal tract, and the feta liver is: a. AFP b. hCG c. PAPP-A d. Inhibin A

a. AFP

Which protein is not produced by the developing placenta? a. AFP b. hCG c. Estriol d. PAPP-A

a. AFP

The triple screen includes: a. AFP, estriol, hcg b. AFP, amniotic fluid index, hcg c. AFP, estriol, PAPP-A d. PAPP-A, inhibin A, hcg

a. AFP, estriol, hcg

Which of the following would be the most likely cause of bilateral, enlarged echogenic fetal kidneys and oligohydramnios? a. ARPKD b. MCKD c. renal cystic dysplasia d. ADPKD

a. ARPKD

All of the following are sonographic features of holoprosencephaly except: a. cystic hygroma b. proboscis with cyclopia c. fused thalamus d. monoventricle

a. cystic hygroma

The most common benign ovarian tumor is the: a. cystic teratoma b. mucinous teratoma c. fibroma d. sertoli-leydig cell tumor

a. cystic teratoma

The most common cause of cardiac malposition is: a. diaphragmatic hernia b. omphalocele c. gastroschisis d. pulmonary hypoplasia

a. diaphragmatic hernia

The term that indicates the presence of two separate placentas is: a. dichorionic b. bichorionic c. monoamniotic d. diamniotic

a. dichorionic

The sonographic findings of an endometrial polyps may include: a. diffuse thickening of the endometrium b. menometrorrhagia c. intermenstrual bleeding d. infertility

a. diffuse thickening of the endometrium

Pelvocaliectasis refers to: a. dilation of the renal pelvis and calices b. enlargement of the fetal pelvis c. ectopic location of the kidney within the pelvis d. dilation of the ureter within the pelvis

a. dilation of the renal pelvis and calices

A strawberry skull is associated with: a. edwards syndrome b. turner syndrome c. down syndrome d. patau syndrome

a. edwards syndrome

Typically, with anencephaly, the MSAFP value will be: a. elevated b. decreased c. this laboratory finding is not helpful d. unchanged

a. elevated

Typically, with gastroschisis, the MSAFP will be: a. elevated b. decreased c. this laboratory finding is not helpful d. unchanged

a. elevated

Ectopic endometrial tissue within the uterus that leads to AUB is termed: a. endometriosis b. adenomyosis c. fibroids d. endometrial hyperplasia

a. endometriosis

The isolated enlargement of the fetal thyroid is referred to as: a. fetal goiter b. cystic hygroma c. lymphangioma d. cervical teratoma

a. fetal goiter

Which of the following is not part of the biophysical profile? a. fetal swallowing b. flexion of the limb c. amniotic fluid d. fetal breathing

a. fetal swallowing

Which of the following would not increase the likelihood of multiple gestations? a. gestational diabetes b. maternal age of > 40 years c. maternal history of twins d. ART

a. gestational diabetes

Blood accumulation within the uterus is termed: a. hematometra b. hydrometra c. asherman syndrome d. endometrial carcinoma

a. hematometra

The placenta releases _______ to maintain the corpus luteum. a. human chorionic gonadotropin b. follicle-stimulating hormone c. luteinizing hormone d. gonadotropin-stimulating hormone

a. human chorionic gonadotropin

Which of the following would be described as functional cysts that are found in the presence of elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin? a. theca lutein cysts b. chocolate cysts c. corpus luteum cysts d. endometrial cysts

a. theca lutein cysts

The demise of a twin can lead to the development of neurologic complications in the living twin as a result of: a. twin embolization syndrome b. TTTS c. TRAP syndrome d. Dichorionicity

a. twin embolization syndrome

A change in menstrual bleeding associated with lesions within the uterus relates to: a. DUB b. AUB c. pelvic inlammatory disease d. fibroids

b. AUB

The narrowing of the aortic arch is indicative of: a. TOF b. Coarctation of the aorta c. ebstein anomaly d. hypoplastic right heart syndrome

b. Coarctation of the aorta

Amenorrhea, hirsutism and obesity describe the clinical features of: a. Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome b. Stein Leventhal syndrome c. Asherman syndrome d. Endometriosis

b. Stein Leventhal syndrome

A simple fluid accumulation within the vagina secondary to an imperforate hymen is: a. hydrometrocolpos b. hydrocolpos c. hematometra d. hematocolpos

b. hydrocolpos

Which of the following are fetal rhabdomyomas associated with? a. tracheoesophageal fistulas b. tuberous sclerosis c. eventration of the diaphragm d. tuberculosis

b. tuberous sclerosis

Which of the following would be least likely associated with an elevation in MSAFP? a. anencephaly b. turner syndrome c. spina bifida d. myelomeningocele

b. turner syndrome

Congenital maldevelopment of the proximal portion of the small intestine is termed: a. VACTERL association b. esophageal atresia c. duodenal atresia d. jejunal atresia

c. duodenal atresia

Asherman syndrome is associated with: a. uterine leiomyoma b. endometrial polyps c. endometrial adhesions d. ovarian fibroma

c. endometrial adhesions

A 68 year old patient presents to the sonography department complaining of vaginal bleeding. The most likely cause of her bleeding is: a. endometrial carcinoma b. endometrial polyps c. endometrial atrophy d. endometrial fibroids

c. endometrial atrophy

Tamoxifan has been linked with all of the following except: a. endometrial polyps b. endometrial hyperplasia c. endometrial leiomyoma d. endometrial carcinoma

c. endometrial leiomyoma

A 38 year old pregnant woman presents to the sonography department for an obstetrical sonogram with abnormal maternal serum screening. Her Alpha fetoprotein and estriol are low, while her human chorionic gonadotropin is elevated. These laboratory findings are most consistent with: a. Edwards syndrome b. Patau syndrome c. Triploidy d. Down syndrome

d. Down syndrome

What is the opening located right anteromedially within the diaphragm? a. Foramen of Bochdalek b. Foramen of Morgagni c. Foramen of Monro d. Foramen ovale

d. Foramen ovale

All of the following are associated with omphalocele except: a. T 18 b. Pentalogy of Cantrell c. IUGR d. Hirschsprung disease

d. Hirschsprung disease

Which of the following hormones is released by the ovary during the second half of the menstrual cycle? a. LH b. FSH c. hCG d. Progesterone

d. Progesterone

Cyclopia would most likely be associated with? a. T 8 b. T 21 c. T 18 d. T 13

d. T 13

Sonographically you identify a fetus with fusion of the thalami and a monoventricle. Which chromosomal abnormality would be most likely? a. T 8 b. T 21 c. T 18 d. T 13

d. T 13

Micrognathia is a condition found in: a. DWM b. Hydranencephaly c. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome d. T 18

d. T 18

The most frequently encountered chromosomal abnormality associated with holoprosencephaly is: a. Triploidy b. Trisomy 21 c. Trisomy 18 d. Trisomy 13

d. Trisomy 13

All of the following are associated with duodenal atresia except: a. T 21 b. Esophageal atresia c. VACTERL association d. Turner syndrome

d. Turner syndrome

Webbing of the neck and short stature is found in infertile female patients with a history of: a. T 21 b. Triploidy c. T 13 d. Turner syndrome

d. Turner syndrome

Non immune hydrops and ovarian dysgenesis are found in fetuses affected by: a. T 21 b. T 18 c. T 13 d. Turners

d. Turners

All of the following are considered risk factors for PID except: a. IUD b. Multiple sexual partners c. Post childbirth d. Uterine leiomyoma

d. Uterine leiomyoma

Achondroplasia is associated with all of the following except: a. frontal bossing b. flattened nasal bridge c. trident hand d. absent mineralization of the skull

d. absent mineralization of the skull

Which of the following artifacts is produced when the sound beam is barely attenuated through a fluid or a fluid containing structure? a. reverberation artifact b. comet tail artifact c. posterior shadowing d. acoustic enhancement

d. acoustic enhancement

The invasion of the endometrial tissue into the myometrium of the uterus is referred to as: a. amenorrhea b. endometriosis c. adenomyomatosis d. adenomyosis

d. adenomyosis

The birth defect in which the sex of the fetus cannot be determined defines: a. renal agenesis b. ovarian dysgenesis c. clitorinegaly d. ambiguous genitalia

d. ambiguous genitalia

A group of abnormalities associated with the entrapment of fetal parts and fetal amputation is: a. cystic hygroma b. edwards syndrome c. ethmocephaly d. amniotic band syndrome

d. amniotic band syndrome

The segment of the fallopian tube where fertilization typically occurs is the: a. cornu b. fimbria c. interstitial d. ampulla

d. ampulla

A bell shaped chest and multiple fetal fractures are indicative of: a. thanantophoric dysplasia b. caudal regression syndrome c. achondrogenesis d. osteogenesis imperfecta

d. osteogenesis imperfecta

Upon sonographic interrogation of a 28 week pregnancy, you note that when pressure is applied to the fetal skull, the skull can be easily distorted. This is sonographic evidence of: a. thanantophoric dysplasia b. caudal regression syndrome c. achondrogenesis d. osteogenesis imperfecta

d. osteogenesis imperfecta

What is it called when a twin fetus, suffering from TTTs, experiences severe oligohydramnios and becomes closely adhered to the uterine wall? a. acardiac monster b. vanishing twin c. acardiac twin d. stuck twin

d. stuck twin

A 31 year old patient presents to the sonography department for a saline infusion sonohystogram complaining of intermenstrual bleeding and infertility. Sonographically, a mass is demonstrated emanating from the myometrium and distorting the endometrial cavity. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. endometrial polyp b. endometrial carcinoma c. endometrial hyperplasia d. submucosal leiomyoma

d. submucosal leiomyoma

The ovarian cysts that are most often bilateral and are associated with markedly elevated levels of hCG are the: a. corpus luteum cysts b. paraovarian cysts c. granulosa cell cysts d. theca lutein cysts

d. theca lutein cysts

An obstruction at the ureterovesicular junction would lead to dilation of the: a. bladder and urethra b. bladder, urethra and ureters c. bladder, urethra, ureters and renal collecting system d. ureter and renal collecting system

d. ureter and renal collecting system

The best way to communicate with a patient who speaks a language other than you is: a. use sign language b. use proper body cues c. use an online search engine d. use a trained medical interpreter

d. use a trained medical interpreter