Online Practice Exam #2
You are billing an insurance company for the following medication: 60 tabs with an AWP of $590 for 1,000 tablets with a 6% markdown and a $5 dispensing fee. How much should be billed to the insurance company? A. $38.28 B. $32.14 C. $41.80 D. $61.30
A. $38.28
A prescription calls for 25mg of a medication t.i.d. for 7 days. The stock solution is composed of a 100mg/3mL. How many Liters of the stock solution is needed for the order? A. 0.01575 B. 12.50 C. 15.75 D. 0.1575
A. 0.01575
The percent equivalent of a 1:125 ratio is: A. 0.8% B. 8.0% C. 12.5% D. 0.08%
A. 0.8%
How much dextrose is in a 900mL solution of D5W? A. 45 g B. 90 g C. 180 g D. 500 g
A. 45 g
Which of these drug classes is known to cause a persistent, dry cough? A. ACE inhibitors B. Nitrates C. Bisphosphonates D. 5-alpha reductase inhibitors
A. ACE inhibitors
Which of the following potential hazards are addressed by OSHA regulations? A. All of these potential hazards are addressed by OSHA regulations. B. Exposure to hazardous chemicals. C. Exposure to bloodborne pathogens. D. Exposure to wet surfaces and potential slip and falls.
A. All of these potential hazards are addressed by OSHA regulations.
Which of the following drugs is classified as an antipyretic medicine? A. Aspirin B. Warfarin C. Heparin D. Morphine
A. Aspirin
Medicines with the prefix -lol are members of which drug class? A. Beta-blockers B. Diuretics C. Nitrates D. Alpha blockers
A. Beta-blockers
Which of the following is a characteristic of disinfectant? A. Destroy or remove harmful microorganisms B. Reduce the number of bacteria C. Destroy fungi and viruses D. Destroy bacterial and fungal spores
A. Destroy or remove harmful microorganisms
Which of the following medications can be used to treat hypertension and benign prostatic hypertrophy? A. Doxazosin B. Carvedilol C. Amlodipine D. Nifedipine
A. Doxazosin
Drugs that block the PDE5 enzyme are used in the treatment of which condition? A. Erectile dysfunction B. Angina C. Asthma / COPD D. Psoriasis
A. Erectile dysfunction
What is the name of the type of error that occurs when something is performed incorrectly, such as dispensing the medicine incorrectly? A. Error of commission B. Primary error C. SOP error D. Systematic error
A. Error of commission
A list of medications available for use within a health care system is called a: A. Formulary B. Inventory Control List C. Perpetual Inventory D. Pharmacy Benefit Program
A. Formulary
Which of these foods increases the bleeding effects of warfarin? A. Green, leafy vegetables B. Onions C.. Chicken D. Milk
A. Green, leafy vegetables
Which of the following is a non-prescription medication used to treat insomnia? A. Melatonin. B. Zolpidem. C. Glucosamine. D. Temazepam.
A. Melatonin.
Which statement is true of PPO plans? A. PPO membership provides a substantial discount below the regular rates of the medical professionals who are in the network. B. PPO plans usually have lower premiums than HMO plans. C. PPO plans often require members to select a primary care physician (PCP) who acts as a 'gatekeeper' to direct access to medical services. D. PPO members are not reimbursed for using medical care providers outside of their network of designated doctors and hospitals.
A. PPO membership provides a substantial discount below the regular rates of the medical professionals who are in the network.
Which of the following drugs is a MAO inhibitor? A. Selegiline B. Levodopa C. Entacapone D. Theophylline
A. Selegiline
Which of the following medications increases the effect of potassium chloride? A. Spironolactone B. Furosemide C. Torsemide D. Bumetanide
A. Spironolactone
What is the contraindication for hydrochlorothiazide? A. Sulfonamide hypersensitivity B. NSAIDs allergy C. Mild renal insufficiency D. Electrolyte imbalance
A. Sulfonamide hypersensitivity
Which organization oversees the "Do Not Use" abbreviations list? A. TJC B. CDC C. FDA D. BOP
A. TJC
What is DEA form 106 used for? A. Theft or loss of controlled substances. B. Ordering Schedule II medications. C. Reporting inventory levels of controlled substances. D. Disposal of controlled substances.
A. Theft or loss of controlled substances.
What is DEA form 222 used for? A. To order Schedule II medications. B. To prescribe Schedule II medications. C. To document the destruction of controlled substances. D. To report the theft of controlled substances.
A. To order Schedule II medications.
To ensure correct drug storage, both refrigerator and freezer temperatures should be monitored for how long? A. Twice daily B. Once weekly C. Twice monthly D. Once monthly
A. Twice daily
Which of the following vitamins is water soluble? A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin K
A. Vitamin C
What is the proper technique in the cleaning of a laminar flow hood? A. Wipe from back to front using side-to-side motions, away from the HEPA filter B. Wipe toward the HEPA filter and back continuously until the whole hood is cleaned C. Wipe up and down along the sides of the hood and the back of the hood D. There is no need to clean the hood, as it is self-cleaning
A. Wipe from back to front using side-to-side motions, away from the HEPA filter
The Red Book is a resource that focuses on: A. drug pricing. B. therapeutic equivalence evaluations. C. pharmacokinetics. D. labeled and unlabeled uses of medications.
A. drug pricing.
Tall man letters are used for drugs which: A. have look-alike names. B. have similar effects. C. have more than one active form. D. are on the DEA schedule I drug list.
A. have look-alike names.
Which of the following is NOT a diuretic? A. pioglitazone B. spironolactone C. furosemide D. Maxide
A. pioglitazone
An order is written for 500 mL of NS to infuse at 40 gtt/min. How long would it take to infuse the NS if the set delivers 10 gtt/mL? A. 50 minutes B. 125 minutes C. 100 minutes D. 40 minutes
B. 125 minutes
According to federal law, DEA forms need to be maintained for ____ years. A. 5 B. 2 C. 1 D. 7
B. 2
Seventy-four degrees Fahrenheit is equal to what temperature in Celsius? A. 30.7 B. 23.3 C. 18.3 D. 74.0
B. 23.3
Laminar flow hoods must be certified every ___ months. A. 3 B. 6 C. 12 D. 24
B. 6
A patient drops off a prescription for 30 Vyvanse® 30 mg capsules. The pharmacy only has 15 capsules in stock. The patient accepts the partial fill of 15 capsules. The pharmacist shall provide the patient with the remaining 15 capsules within ________. A. 24 hours B. 72 hours C. 7 days D. 10 days
B. 72 hours
What type of drug is loratadine? A. Decongestant B. Antihistamine C. Expectorant D. Antitussive
B. Antihistamine
Which of the following is NOT used to treat insomnia? A. Lunesta B. Chantix C. Xanax D. Ambien
B. Chantix
A drug is recalled by the FDA, but the problem is unlikely to cause any adverse health reactions. What type of recall would this be? A. Class IV B. Class III C. Class II D. Class I
B. Class III
The _______ requires the proper labeling or branding of products and also requires that the contents of a container cannot be changed from what they are labeled to be. A. PPPA B. FD&C Act C. Hazardous Substance Labeling Act D. Orphan Drug Act
B. FD&C Act
Why is ciprofloxacin not recommended for patients who are 60 years of age and older? A. Increased risk of GI bleeding B. Increased risk of tendon rupture C. Increased risk of confusion D. Increased risk of urinary urgency
B. Increased risk of tendon rupture
Which of these herbal medications can be used to treat anxiety? A. Milk Thistle B. Kava C. Garlic D. Acai
B. Kava
What is the brand name for eszopiclone? A. Restoril B. Lunesta C. Ambien D. Xanax
B. Lunesta
Which of the following covers inpatient hospitals stays? A. Medicare Part D B. Medicare Part A C. Medicare Part B D. Medicare Part C
B. Medicare Part A
Which of the following is NOT a Schedule I narcotic? A. Heroin B. OxyContin C. Ecstasy D. Marijuana
B. OxyContin
Which is the proper use of tall man letters to help differentiate these look-alike/sound-alike medications? A. PAROXetine — FLUOXetine B. PARoxetine — FLUoxetine C. parOXETINE — fluOXETINE D. paroxeTINE — fluoxeTINE
B. PARoxetine — FLUoxetine
On which of these would you find information about the pharmacology of a drug? A. Prescription label B. PPI C. Prescription D. Auxiliary label
B. PPI
If two drugs are taken together and one of them intensifies the action of the other, what type of drug interaction has occurred? A. Synergism B. Potentiation C. Antagonism D. Additive Effect
B. Potentiation
Which of these drugs is used to treat urinary tract infections? A. Lithium B. Trimethoprim C. Abciximab D. Methotrexate
B. Trimethoprim
Individuals with a severe allergy to penicillin SHOULD NOT receive A. azithromycin B. amoxicillin C. ciprofloxacin D. doxycycline
B. amoxicillin
A drug sells for $29.99 retail and has a wholesale cost of $19.74. The dispensing cost is $3.20. What is the pharmacy's net profit? A. $29.99 B. $10.25 C. $7.05 D. $3.20
C. $7.05
If a medicine has a stated expiration date of 06 / 2024, upon what date does the medicine expire? A. 05 / 31 / 2024 B. 06 / 01 / 2024 C. 06 / 30 / 2024 D. 07 / 01 / 2024
C. 06 / 30 / 2024
What is the maximum capacity for a class A balance? A. 100 g B. 6 g C. 120 g D. 1 kg
C. 120 g
Before use, for how long should a laminar air flow hood be turned on? A. 10 minutes B. 15 minutes C. 30 minutes D. 60 minutes
C. 30 minutes
How many digits is a BIN number? A. 4 B. 11 C. 6 D. 5
C. 6
Which of these drugs can cause bronchospasm in patients with asthma? A. Statins B. SSRIs C. Beta-blockers D. Beta-2 agonists
C. Beta-blockers
The action of reducing a material to small particles is: A. Spatulation B. Tumbling C. Comminution D. Geometric dilution
C. Comminution
Which of the following correctly matches brand/generic names? A. Ativan/levaquin B. Zyrtec/diphenhydramine C. Cymbalta/duloxetine D. Paxil/pregabalin
C. Cymbalta/duloxetine
This law defined two specific categories for medications: prescription and over-the-counter. A. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act B. Drug Listing Act of 1972 C. Durham-Humphrey Amendment D. Kefauver Harris Amendment
C. Durham-Humphrey Amendment
What name is given to the licensed clinical uses of a medicine? A. Route of administration B. Mechanism of action C. Indication D. Contraindication
C. Indication
What is a common side effect of warfarin? A. Difficulty breathing B. Headache C. Internal bleeding D. Diarrhea
C. Internal bleeding
The 'first pass effect' refers to which of these pharmacokinetic stages? A. Absorption B. Distribution C. Metabolism D. Excretion
C. Metabolism
Which of the following medications is NOT used to treat high cholesterol? A. Vytorin B. Cresto C. Nexium D. Zetia
C. Nexium
This federal law requires pharmacists to review Medicaid recipients' entire drug profile before filling their prescriptions. A. Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987 B. Medicaid Tamper-Resistant Prescription Act C. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990 D. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987
C. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990
The FDA publishes a book called Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations, which is more commonly known as the: A. Martindale B. Red Book C. Orange Book D. Remington
C. Orange Book
What is the generic drug suffix for a proton pump inhibitor? A. NAVIR B. AZEPAM C. PRAZOLE D. OLOL
C. PRAZOLE
What type of drug is omeprazole? A. ACE inhibitor. B. Diuretic. C. Proton pump inhibitor. D. Beta-blocker.
C. Proton pump inhibitor.
In which part of a prescription will you find the instructions on how to take the medicine? A. Inscription B. ROM C. Signature (sig) D. Superscription
C. Signature (sig)
The Orange Book is most commonly used to find what? A. Direct prices B. Manufacturers' standards C. Therapeutic equivalence D. Generic equivalence
C. Therapeutic equivalence
Which of the following methods can contribute to a reduction of medication errors? A. Omit the leading zero B. Use a trailing zero C. Write "daily" in the sig D. Write IU for International Unit
C. Write "daily" in the sig
Which of the following is NOT a medication for Parkinson's? A. ropinirole B. benztropine C. amlodipine D. amantadine
C. amlodipine
Which of these is an antihistamine? A. fluconazole B. lisinopril C. fexofenadine D. losartan
C. fexofenadine
The iPLEDGE program is designed to mitigate the risks associated with taking: A. zolpidem B. OxyContin C. isotretinoin D. Lexapro
C. isotretinoin
Bar Code Medication Administration (BCMA) is a system designed to: A. monitor medication adherence rates. B. manage controlled substances. C. prevent medication errors in healthcare settings. D. fill prescriptions more accurately.
C. prevent medication errors in healthcare settings.
A patient weighs 125 lbs. A 25mg/kg loading dose of vancomycin is ordered. What is the dispensed vancomycin loading dose for this patient? (Dispensed dose is rounded to the nearest 250 mg.) A. 1,000 mg B. 1,250 mg C. 1,420 mg D. 1,500 mg
D. 1,500 mg
An order is written to administer 2 liters of an IV fluid over 18 hours. What will the flow rate be? A. 101 mL/hr B. 56 mL/hr C. 83 mL/hr D. 111 mL/hr
D. 111 mL/hr
Convert 5.5 kg to pounds. A. 0.55 lb B. 1.21 lb C. 55 lb D. 12.1 lb
D. 12.1 lb
If a physician writes an order for 400 mL of D5W to be infused over a 4-hour time period, and the IV drop factor is 12 gtt/mL, how many drops per minute should be delivered? A. 12 gtt B. 2 gtt C. 1.67 gtt D. 20 gtt
D. 20 gtt
You are planning to prepare 600 mL of 20% dextrose solution, by mixing your 5% and 50% dextrose solution. How much of each solution will be needed? A. 350 mL of the 50% and 250 mL of the 5% B. 300 mL of the 50% and 300 mL of the 5% C. 300 mL of the 50% and 100 mL of the 5% D. 200 mL of the 50% and 400 mL of the 5%
D. 200 mL of the 50% and 400 mL of the 5%
How many milligrams of ciprofloxacin should be dispensed for the following prescription: "Ciprofloxacin 500 mg, quantity XII tablets"? A. 3,500 mg B. 4,500 mg C. 5,000 mg D. 6,000 mg
D. 6,000 mg
Which of the following concentrations is defined by Alcohol USP? A. 40% isopropyl alcohol B. 40% ethyl alcohol C. 70% isopropyl alcohol D. 95% ethyl alcohol
D. 95% ethyl alcohol
What is the brand name for aripiprazole? A. Cymbalta B. Zyprexa C. Ativan D. Abilify
D. Abilify
The pharmacy technician notices that a dosage may be typed wrong in the system. The reading says 0.1g but it should probably be 0.01g as 0.1 may be too large of a dose. What should the technician do in this case? A. Go ahead and change the dosage. B. Ask the patient. C. Call and ask the physician if it is the correct dose. D. Alert
D. Alert
Which of these drugs contains a beta-lactam ring? A. Amoxicillin B. Ceftriaxone C. Ampicillin D. All the above
D. All the above
Which of the following drugs should be considered "hazardous waste"? A. Bisphosphonates B. Oral contraceptives C. Chemotherapeutic agents D. Antithyroid drugs
D. Antithyroid drugs
The process by which a health insurance company determines if it should be the primary or secondary payer of medical claims for a patient who has coverage from more than one health insurance policy: A. Pharmacy Claim Transmittal B. Prior Authorization C. Workers' Compensation D. Coordination of Benefits
D. Coordination of Benefits
This is an autoimmune disease in which the thyroid is overactive, and produces excessive amounts of thyroid hormones: A. Cushing's Disease B. HIV/AIDS C. Addison's Disease D. Graves' disease
D. Graves' disease
Integrase inhibitors are used in the treatment of which condition? A. Alzheimer's disease B. Syphilis C. Polycystic ovarian syndrome D. HIV/AIDS
D. HIV/AIDS
Statins work by inhibiting the effects of which of these enzymes? A. Angiotensin-converting enzyme B. Acetylcholinesterase C. 5-alpha reductase D. HMG-CoA reductase
D. HMG-CoA reductase
Which Act of Congress addresses the privacy and security of health data? A. Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970. B. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990. C. Ominibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990. D. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996.
D. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996.
Which of these drugs is an example of a rapid-acting insulin? A. Insulin glargine B. Isophane insulin C. Insulin detemir D. Insulin aspart
D. Insulin aspart
Which federal law introduced a 'proof-of-efficacy' requirement? A. Pure Food and Drug Act B. Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970 C. Durham-Humphrey Amendment D. Kefauver Harris Amendment
D. Kefauver Harris Amendment
Which of the following provides the Medicare prescription drug benefit? A. Medicare Part A B. Medicare Part C C. Medicare Part B D. Medicare Part D
D. Medicare Part D
What does the abbreviation NPO mean? A. New patient only. B. Nebulizer. C. Every other day. D. Nothing by mouth
D. Nothing by mouth
If a drug has no accepted medical use and extremely high potential for abuse, which DEA schedule would it be categorized in? A. Schedule IV. B. Schedule II. C. Schedule III. D. Schedule I.
D. Schedule I.
Tramadol falls under which of these controlled drug schedules? A. Schedule I B. Schedule II C. Schedule III D. Schedule IV
D. Schedule IV
Which of the following prescription terms refers to instructions given to the pharmacist, for example, specifying whether a generic drug may be substituted for a branded equivalent? A. Inscription B. Indication C. Signa D. Subscription
D. Subscription
Which part of the NDC number indicates the manufacturer of a drug? A. The last 1-2 digits. B. The second segment. C. The product code. D. The first 4-5 digits.
D. The first 4-5 digits.
What is the MOA of ACE inhibitors? A. They work by connecting A to C and then to E B. They work by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis C. They work by preventing the attachment of A2 to receptor sites D. They work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin 1 into angiotensin 2
D. They work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin 1 into angiotensin 2
What is DEA Form 41 used for? A. To report the inventory levels of controlled substances. B. To order schedule II drugs. C. To report the theft of controlled substances. D. To document the destruction of controlled substances.
D. To document the destruction of controlled substances.
Patients taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) should avoid taking foods that contain which of these? A. Lactose B. Calcium C. Iron D. Tyramine
D. Tyramine
What is the proper hand washing guideline in USP <797>? A. Wash hands and wrists for at least 30 seconds. B. Wash hands and wrists for at least 20 seconds. C. Wash hands and forearms to the elbow for at least 20 seconds. D. Wash hands and forearms to the elbow for at least 30 seconds.
D. Wash hands and forearms to the elbow for at least 30 seconds.
Schedule II medication must be stored in: A. a refrigerator. B. a laminar hood. C. the DEA cabinet. D. a locked safe.
D. a locked safe.