Operational Procedures - Level 1

The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is:

24 hours.

Where is the best position following a heavier aeroplane?

Upwind and above its flight path.

Astronomical (earth rate) precession is:

Valid whether the aircraft is on the ground or in the air

If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure:

decreases.

90% of bird strikes occur:

under 500 m.

Where can you carry safety matches? i. On your person ii. Hand baggage iii. Checked in luggage

(i) & (ii)

When you have been unlawfully interfered with the commander is required to inform certain people: i. State of the Operator. ii. ICAO iii. State of registration of aircraft. iv. JAA.

(i), (ii) and (iii)

The wake turbulence caused by an aircraft is mainly the result of: 1. An aero dynamical effect (wing tip vortices). 2. The engines action (propellers rotation or engine gas exhausts). 3. The importance of the drag devices (size of the landing gear, of the flaps, etc.). The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1

For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the: 1. Water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves. 2. Speed is greater than 96 kt. 3. Water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves. 4. Speed is greater than 127 kt. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1 and 2.

An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped with at least:

1 hand fire-extinguisher conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

According to the JAR-OPS regulations, an IFR flight with no alternate airfield can be undertaken only if the minimum weather conditions stipulated in the regulations are effective for at least:

1 hour before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival.

For a standard straight-in approach, what do you take account of? 1. RVR. 2. Ceiling 3. MDH 4. DH.

1, 2 and 4.

On a polar stereographic chart with grid aligned with the prime meridian; you are heading 045° T; your position is 760N 1800W, what is your grid heading?

225°

In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain: 1. you increase your approach speed 2. you land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels with the runway and immediately land your nose gear 3. you decrease your approach speed 4. you use systematically all the lift dumper devices 5. you land as smoothly as possible 6. you brake energetically The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2, 4.

In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you fight the fire using: 1. a dry powder fire extinguisher 2. a water spray atomizer 3. a water fire-extinguisher 4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher to the maximum The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2.

A category B aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:

1.600 m.

On board a pressurized aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a cabin depressurization, throughout the flight period, during which the pressure altitude is greater than:

10000 ft.

Oxygen should be used after rapid decompression in an emergency descent until what altitude?

10000ft.

What is the minimum required vertical separation in MNPS Airspace?

1000ft.

The RVR for a Category IIIB operation with roll out guidance or control systems that fail passive the minimum RVR is:

125 m.

What is the oxygen requirement for the crew and 100% of the passengers in an unpressurised aircraft?

13000 ft.

Three first aid kits are required to be carried on an aeroplane authorised to carry between ... and ... passengers.

151, 250

What is the true bearing of sun from an aeroplane at the North Pole using a grid track of 315° at 1840Z?

180° .

What is the number of long range navigation systems to be carried on board for unrestricted operations in the MNPSA?

2

When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an equivalent distance not exceeding:

2 hours of flight at cruising speed with 1 engine inoperative.

For a light aircraft taking off after a medium what is the minimum time for wake turbulence separation:

2 min[AFT8].

In the JAR OPS, a runway is referred to as contaminated when more than 25 % of the required runway surface is covered with the one of the following elements: 1. a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway. 2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water. 3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further). 4. ice, including wet ice. 5. moist grass. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

2, 3, 4.

During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an increasing tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1. Flies above the glide path. 2. Flies below the glide path. 3. Has an increasing true airspeed. 4. Has a decreasing true airspeed. The combination of correct statements is:

2, 4

According to JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima) a Category IIIA approach has a Decision Height of less than 100 feet and a minimum RVR (Runway Visual Range) of:

200 m.

A minimum altitude is to be calculated to cater for the engine inop case such that the net flight path gives a vertical clearance of ... above all terrain obstacles within ... on either side of the intended track.

2000 ft, 5 NM.

What is the required RVR for CAT IIIA operations?

200m

In the Southern Hemisphere (1300E, 800S), grid is aligned with the Greenwich Meridian, aircraft is heading 110° T, what is the grid heading?

240°

An operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a non-precision approach procedure which is based upon the use of a VOR/DME is not lower than:

250ft.

When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time approach separation, according with DOC 4444 (ICAO), shall be:

3 min.

For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation time if a light aeroplane (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing?

3 minutes.

For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway?

3 minutes.

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that all relevant operational and technical information for a individual flight is preserved on ground for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if practicable, a copy of the operational flight plan shall be retained, during at least:

3 months.

When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a power reduction shall be allowed is:

300 m (1.000 ft).

An airline operator shall make sure that if the aircraft planned for the flight is a performance class B aeroplane, it will be able, throughout its flight route or its alternate route scheduled from this initial route, to reach a climb rate of at least:

300ft/min with all engines operating at maximum continuous power.

The number of extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment when the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 201 and 300 is:

4

The minimum MDH and meteorological visibility for a category B aircraft circling are respectively:

500 ft; 1600 m

What is the maximum cabin altitude at which an aeroplane can he flown without provision of breathing oxygen for crew and passengers?

700hPa (10000 ft).

A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least?

75 m.

Following a rapid decompression, above what height does a lack of 02 affect performance:

8000 ft.

En-route in a 3 or more engined aircraft and with 2 engines inoperative the maximum time the aeroplane shall be away from an aerodrome is:

90 minutes.

For optimum performance for an aeroplane, a step cruise climb is performed. What is the best level to climb to?

Around optimum level.

When an aircraft is dry leased by operator A to operator B the subsequent flights are conducted under the AOC of operator:

B

When must a radiation indicator be carried?

For flights above 49000ft.

Crew Resource Management (CRM) Training deals principally with:

Human Factors and behaviour.

The North Atlantic MNPS is based on:

ICAO 7030 Doc.

The information concerning dangerous products that passengers may carry, are listed in the:

ICAO document named Technical safety instructions for the air transportation of dangerous products.

When is a flight navigator required as part of the flight crew?

If the authority of the State of the operator deems that the safe navigation of the aeroplane cannot be adequately accomplished from the pilots station.

When may the operating minima for an aerodrome be exceeded?

In an emergency.

The applicability of the JAR-OPS within JAA member countries:

Is an addition to the rules set out in ICAO Annex 6.

If a door is fitted to the flight crew compartment:

It must be lockable from inside the flight crew compartment only.

According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to:

LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft.

To which situation is 3 mins wake turbulence separation applied?

Light following a medium departing from a runway intersection on a parallel runway less than 760m apart.

A transport category aircraft suffers an unserviceability on the ground prior to take-off. What document do you refer to?

Minimum Equipment List.

What allows a pilot to act as co-pilot for take-off and landing?

Operated as PIC or as co-pilot at the controls for a take-off and landing in the previous 90 days.

A copy of the following is to be left on the ground?

Operational flight plan.

Braking action is described as 0.25 or below. Is it good/medium/poor?

Poor.

DH is used in a:

Precision approach.

If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to:

Put on the mask and goggles.

Water fire extinguisher with a directed spray can be used on which fires?

Solid fires.

Who should sign an Operational Flight Plan (OFP)?

The Commander and the Operations Officer/Flight Dispatcher (where applicable).

Who is responsible for approving methods of calculating minimum flight altitudes?

The State of the Operator.

Regarding ETOPS what additional points should be considered compared to a non-ETOPS aircraft?

The availability of an ATC facility and one let down aid?

In which of the following cases, you should preclude consideration of noise abatement?

The crosswind component exceeds 15 kts

In order to comply with noise abatement requirements, the mass at take-off must not exceed the stated relevant maximum unless:

The use of a runway with no noise problem has been authorised.

The completed Journey Log Book should be retained for a period of at least:

Three Months.

An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:

a copy of the weight and balance sheet.

The minimum time track is a track defined for:

a given travel.

Viscous hydroplaning is caused by:

a smooth and dirty runway surface.

A person qualified to taxi an aeroplane must have received instruction from a competent person concerning which of the following: 1. aerodrome layout 2. signs 3. markings 4. ATC signals and instructions

all of the above.

A flight control system is fail-operational if, in the event of a failure below alert height, the ..., ... and ..., can be completed automatically.

approach, flare, landing

An operator shall not select an aerodrome as a take-off alternate unless the:

appropriate weather reports or forecasts or any combination thereof indicate that, during a period commencing 1 hour before and ending 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or above the applicable landing minima specified in accordance with the rules for calculating Aerodrome Minima - General.

A flight under IFR should not be commenced unless the weather conditions at destination and a nominated alternate are on:

arrival equal to or above, within a reasonable period of time before and after the nominated time, the operating minima for aerodrome use.

Dangerous goods are defined as:

articles or substances which are capable of significant risk to health, safety or property.

A pilot whose aircraft does not have MNPS certification has to fly via the SHANNON-GANDER great circle. The flight must be planned to take place:

at flight level FL 280 or less.

The ascent or descent through MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace of a non MNPS certified aircraft is:

authorized under radar control if the aircraft is in VHF contact with the MNPS controller.

An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (due to degradation of navigational performance requirements), but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb or descend 500 ft, if:

below FL 410.

The most efficient bird scaring technique generally available is:

broadcasting of recorded distress calls.

If after anti-icing has been completed a pre-departure inspection reveals evidence of freezing, the correct action is to:

carry out a further de-icing process.

The application of a type II de-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide a:

certain time of protection depending on its concentration.

A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be:

contaminated.

A horizontal tailwind gust may cause an aeroplane to:

descend.

The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip:

from the underwing toward the upper side of the wing.

Posit: g, the longitude difference Lm, the average latitude Lo, the latitude of the tangent The correct formula of the conversion angle applied, during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to:

g/2.sin Lm.

An airplane creates a wake turbulence when:

generating lift.

The lessor of an aircraft is:

is the person or Company that owns the aeroplane (or other equipment) and rents or leases it to another person or Company.

An aeroplane with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 131.000 kg is classified as ... according to the ICAO wake turbulence categories.

medium

During take-off an aircraft hits a bird. Due to control vibrations a landing must be made immediately. Following this incident the pilot:

must file a Bird Strike report.

During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30° W meridian at 00H30 UTC, you will then normally be:

out of the organized flight track system.

Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at take-off:

separate on each side of the runway.

A ... is the failure of the pressurisation system to maintain cabin pressure where there has not been a failure of the airframe.

slow decompression

An aircraft landing mass shall be such that .... and .... criteria can be met.

structural, performance.

During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:

the anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied hot.

During a ditching:

the main effect will be rapid deceleration and preparation in the cabin will be to counter the effects of this deceleration.

The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by:

the shipper.

The validity period of a certificate of airworthiness varies with the conditions under which the aircraft is maintained. If the maintenance is carried out according to an approved programme and done in a maintenance shop approved by the Minister of Civil Aviation, the validity period is:

three years.

It is recommended that the journey log book should he retained:

to provide a continuous record of the last 6 months operations.

Where the use of oxygen is prescribed, flight crew members are to:

use oxygen continuously.

A pilot is using a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel to the zero meridian, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. In polar regions, the pilot stops navigation in free-gyro mode after leaving the 6 microteslas zone, and the grid heading controlled by information from the inertial navigation system (INS) is 045° . After switching to magnetic mode, the compass heading is 220° . The INS position at this moment is 76° N 180° W. The magnetic variation on the chart is 10° E. The compass shift on this heading at this point in time is:

-5° .

For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:

0.6

An aeroplane with one passenger deck, is configured with 61 seats. The required number of megaphones on board is:

1

The number of hand fire extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment when the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 7 and 30 is:

1

What is the major factor causing wake turbulence? 1. Wing Tip Vortices. 2. Engines. 3. High Lift Devices. 4. Size of the landing gear.

1

Which of the following statements are correctly describes what an operator must demonstrate before the issue of an Air Operators Certificate (AOC)? 1. Organisation, method of control and supervision of flight operations 2. Training programmes 3. Maintenance arrangements

1, 2 and 3

Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the following circumstances: 1. When cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots. 2. When the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots. 3. When the runway is not clear or dry. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2, 3

A dry-chemical type fire extinguisher is fit to fight: 1. class A fires 2. class B fires 3. electrical source fires 4. special fires: metal, gas, chemicals Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

1, 2, 3, 4

A fast decompression is recognizable by the following elements: 1. mist in the cabin 2. blast towards the exterior of the aircraft 3. expansion of body gases 4. blast of air released violently from the lungs The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2, 3, 4

When you have been unlawfully interfered with, the state in which you land is required to inform certain people: 1. State of the Operator. 2. ICAO 3. State of registration of aircraft. 4. JAA.

1, 2, 3.

For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as: 1. Water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves. 2. Speed is greater than 132 kt. 3. Water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves. 4. Speed is greater than 117 kt. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2.

In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust or strong down wind which forces you to go around. 1. maintain the same aircraft configuration (gear and flaps) 2. reduce the drags (gear and flaps) 3. gradually increase the attitude up to triggering of stick shaker 4. avoid excessive attitude change The combination of correct statements is:

1, 3

A four-jet aircraft must be equipped with an in-flight fuel jettisoning system in order to reduce the aircraft weight in an emergency:

unless it is capable of meeting the climb requirements : 2.7% in approach configuration with 1 engine inoperative and 3.2% in landing configuration with all engines operative.

Normally, in the event of ditching, it is recommended that the gear is... and the flaps are...

up, down.

To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:

useless because the toxic cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen.

The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are: 1. H2O 2. CO2 3. dry-chemical 4. halogen Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements:

2, 3, 4

Airborne weather radar is required on the following aircraft: 1. All piston powered aircraft. 2. All pressurized aircraft. 3. All turbo-prop powered aircraft. 4. If the aircraft mass is greater than 5700kg or has more than 9 seats. 5. All jet engined aircraft.

2, 4

Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 2 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14.000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:

20750 ft.

The number of extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment when the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 61 and 200 is:

3

Medical equipment is to be carried on aircraft usually in the form of first aid kit. On aeroplanes certified to carry more than a specified number of passengers, a kit for use by medically qualified personnel is to be carried (emergency medical kit) if any point on the planned route is more than 60 minutes flying time from an aerodrome at which qualified medical assistance could be expected to be available. The specified number of passengers is:

30

At 600N 0300W, the true heading is 090° and the Gyro is 000° . At 620N 0100W, the True heading is 095° and it has taken 1.5 hours to travel the distance. What will the Gyro read assuming no Latitude Nut correction:

3280

The number of hand fire extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment when the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 201 and 300 is:

4

The minimum longitudinal separation between aeroplanes in supersonic flight shall be ... minutes. This separation can be reduced to ... minutes if certain criteria are met.

5, 3

For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?

7.4 km (4 NM).

For single-pilot operations, an RVR of less than ... is not permitted except when using a suitable autopilot coupled to an ILS or MLS, in which case the normal minima apply.

800m

For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136.000 kg and more than 7.000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?

9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes.

For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must be shown by actual demonstration that the maximum seating capacity, including the required number of crew members, can be evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in:

90 seconds.

In the event of unlawful interference in flight, the pilot-in-command shall endeavour to set the transponder to ... unless the situation warrant the code A-7700.

A-7500.

Flying under VFR rules, an SSR unit is required:

As required by the route being flown.

Routing from Shannon to Canada, when not MNPS equipped, how are you able to fly:

At FL280 or below.

An aircraft has a threshold speed of 135kts. Into which ICAO aircraft approach category is such an aircraft designated?

C

No persons other than flight crew are allowed on the flight deck. Which of the following correctly identifies permitted exceptions?

Cabin Crew members, JAA approved persons and personnel permitted by the Operations Manual.

In high ambient temperatures ( 30° C) and at relative humidity as low as 40%, in air free from cloud, fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing

Can occur but only at low power settings.

In MNPS, at FL 370, you need to change your clearance but have no communications with ATC. You turn left or right and get a 30 nm. separation from your assigned track. Do you then:

Climb or descend 500 ft.

An aeroplane suffers cabin decompression at 31.000ft, what is the crews initial reaction:

Don O2 masks.

Operators must have available at all times the following information for immediate communication to rescue coordination centres:

Emergency equipment carried on the aeroplane.

If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:

Greater than the actual.

What requirement must be fulfilled before a pilot is appointed pilot-in-command by the operator?

He/She must have made at least 3 take-offs and landings on the same aircraft type in the preceding 90 days.

Technical instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air are published in:

ICAO document 9248.

Considering additional take off requirements regarding aeroplane mass:

In determining the runway length available account shall be taken of any loss encountered due to the alignment of the aeroplane.

Which one of the following factors should prevent a runway being chosen as the preferential landing runway for noise abatement purposes in visual meteorological condition (VMC)?

It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance.

The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is:

Large, heavy, at low speed in clean configuration.

In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, which letter should be entered into a flight plan to denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than 136.000 kg but greater than 7.000 kg:

M

What precludes a runway being used for noise abatement procedures if landing in VMC?

No ILS or visual guidance.

What is the requirement for the issue of an AOC?

Not already hold an AOC issued by another authority.

For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes unless otherwise specified, an aircraft must be equipped with at least:

One Long Range Navigation System (LNRS).

Which of the following limitations are included in the aircraft flight manual?

Power plant and airspeed limitations.

Before any flight is commenced, forms must be completed certifying, amongst other things, that the aircraft is airworthy. Who must be satisfied that all the pre-flight requirements have been complied with?

The Commander.

Which of the following statements correctly describes the construction and location of a flight data recorder?

The flight data recorder is fitted with a floatation device and an underwater location aid.

Who compiles the MEL and where does it go?

The operator and in the Operations Manual.

The minimum crew for all turbo propeller aeroplanes is 2 when:

The seating configuration is more than 19.

The purpose of the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) is:

To permit the operator to change the content of the MEL whilst keeping a master copy in an unammended state.

In public transport, prior to take-off in icing conditions, the captain must check that:

external surfaces are free from any ice accretion which may impede the airplane performance and manoeuvrability, except within the limits specified by the flight manual.

An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle. The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when:

fire is no longer detected.

The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure being carried out will vary considerably depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather conditions of:

frost.

The effect whereby a tyre is lifted from the runway due to aeroplane speed along the runway is known as:

hydroplaning.

A class A fire is a fire:

involving ordinary combustible materials where extinguishment is best obtained by using a fire extinguisher.

An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure must be anti-icing fluid free at the latest when:

it is rotating (before taking-off).

When flying above optimum altitude:

range reduces.

A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have:

reduced range.

The principle of operation of a fire loop detector is as the temperature increases, the:

resistance decreases.

ICAO Annex 6 is applicable to operators authorised to conduct:

scheduled and non-scheduled international commercial air transport operations.

JAR OPS 1.465 (VFR Operating minima), establishes that, the operator shall ensure about VFR flights, that:

special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km.

The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the:

stalling speed.

Penetration into the North Atlantic ocean airspace is:

subject to a mandatory clearance.

Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the:

temperature of the brakes.

The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by:

the airline operator.

The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment on which certain in-flight failures can be allowed and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by:

the manufacturer and approved by the certification authority.

The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is established by:

the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority.

A minimum time track is defined as:

the route that takes the shortest time between two points.

ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a document dealing with:

the safety of the air transport of hazardous materials.

In compliance with the JAR OPS, in order to carry hazardous materials on board a public transport airplane, they must be accompanied with a:

transport document for hazardous materials.

For a light aircraft departing after a medium what is the minimum time for wake turbulence separation?

2 min.

A dry runway is one which:

can be wet if it has specially prepared grooved or porous surfaces, which maintain effectively dry breaking action.

Beneath fire extinguishers the following equipment for fire fighting is on board:

crash axes or crowbars.

For stable clouds: 1. The most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0° C and -10° C. 2. The most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0° C and -15° C. 3. Icing becomes rare at t < -18° C 4- icing becomes rare at t < -30° C. 4. The diameter of water droplets is between 0.002 and 0.03mm. 5. The diameter of water droplets is between 0.004 and 0.2mm. Which of the following combinations contains all the correct statements?

1, 3, 5

When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following effects: 1. An increase in the take-off distance. 2. A decrease of the take-off run. 3. An increase in the stalling speed. 4. A decrease of the stalling speed. 5. A decrease of the climb gradient. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 3, 5

What effect does snow and ice contamination have on aircraft performance? 1. Increase take-off run. 2. Decrease take-off run. 3. Increase stall speed. 4. Decrease stall speed. 5. Reduce climb gradient.

1, 3, 5.

If an AOC post holder changes the authority must be notified within:

10 days.

In the Area where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied between FL 290 and FL410 inclusive is:

1000 ft.

The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is:

13000 ft.

What is the circling minima for a Cat A aeroplane?

1500 m.

Posit: g, the longitude difference Lm, the average latitude Lo, the latitude of the tangent The correct formula expressing the travel precession applied during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to:

15° /h.sin Lm.

The WARS is the area to the east of ... extending eastwards to ... and south to...

San Francisco, 60W, 27N

Who is responsible for ensuring that the regulatory procedures for the transportation of dangerous goods is complied with?

Sender.

In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the:

State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and ICAO.

During a flight, the captain is informed that a passenger is using a portable electronic device, which is adversely affecting the aircrafts electrical avionics. The captain must:

Stop the passenger from using the device.

When considering obstacle data to be calculated the situations to be reviewed are:

Take off, en-route, landing and go around.

Under which conditions will ice form on the airframe?

Water in a liquid state, ambient air temperature below 0° C and airframe temperature below 0° C.

When planning a minimum time route, the air isochrone is taken over the ground isochrone and wind vector KK is plotted from point K (original point) to K to achieve heading and ground speed. What is the wind used?

Wind at K.

Wake turbulence should be taken into account when:

a much heavier aeroplane has landed just previously on the same runway, a light crosswind condition exist and all high-lift devices are being used.

Wind shear is:

a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a short distance.

For a flight above 10.000 ft the stored breathing oxygen carried must be sufficient for:

all crew members and 10 per cent of the passengers for any period in excess of 30 minutes that the pressure in compartments occupied by them will be between 700 hPa and 620 hPa, 4.000m/13.000ft.

In a mountainous region you encounter windshear and see an increase in airspeed. You:

allow speed to increase while staying on the glidepath and monitoring speed.

An aircraft is scheduled to operate to a destination where the weather reports and forecasts indicate the runway likely to be used at the expected time of arrival may be wet. The landing distance available compared to the required landing distance on a dry runway is to be:

at least 115%.

During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time starts:

at the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage).

When braking action is medium, the measured braking coefficient is:

between 0.30 and 0.35.

When taking-off after a wide body aircraft which has just landed, you should take-off:

beyond the point where the aircrafts wheels have touched down.