Ovine & Caprine Medicine: VT140
Tail docking is performed in sheep to: Group of answer choices decrease risk of flystrike improve fertility improve marbling decrease vaccination requirements
decrease risk of flystrike
Brucella infections cause: abortion mastitis lameness anemia
abortion
Name a tool that can be used for castration or tail docking. elastrator shepherd's crook emasculator balling gun
elastrator
A wether with a urethral obstruction would likely need what life-saving procedure? Group of answer choices perineal urethrostomy urethral catheterization castration electroejaculation
perineal urethrostomy
Where in the sheep does microbial fermentation of roughage occur? Group of answer choices rumen reticulum abomasum cecum
rumen
Too much grain in a diet may predispose sheep and goats to any of the following except? rumen alkalosis obesity grain overload urinary calculi
rumen alkalosis
Which of the following is a reportable disease? Scrapie Barber pole worm Contagious ecthyma Tetnus
Scrapie
At what approximate age is a kid disbudded? Group of answer choices 1 week 1 hour 1 day 1 month
1 week
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis is the infectious agent for which condition? caseous lymphadenitis orf overeating disease pregnancy toxemia
caseous lymphadenitis
Which of the following does not require treatment and will generally resolve on its own? contagious ecthyma coccidia ringworm lice
contagious ecthyma
Which of the following is of zoonotic concern? Group of answer choices contagious ecthyma malignant edema caseous lymphadenitis flystrike
contagious ecthyma
Which of the following nerve blocks is used for dehorning small ruminants? Group of answer choices cornual block bier block auriculopalpebral block epidural
cornual block
A pregnant sheep has what kind of placentation cotyledonary zonary diffuse discoid
cotyledonary
A 21 lb 3-month-old Pygmy buck kid has diarrhea and is 5% dehydrated. What is his fluid deficit in L? Group of answer choices 0.48L 1.1L 480L 0.01L
0.48L
The estrus stage of the goat estrous cycle lasts approximately Group of answer choices 1 to 1.5 days 2 to 3 days 4 to 5days 5 to 10 days
1 to 1.5 days
When the newborn lamb receives no nutrition at all in cold environmental conditions, fat reserves last about 4 hours only 1 to 2 days only 5 days only 1 week only
1 to 2 days only
What is the average gestation period for sheep? 114 days 148 days 151 days 283 days
148 days
What is the normal average length of gestation in goats? 21 days 114 days 150 days 285 days
150 days
The length of the estrous cycle in the ewe is approximately Group of answer choices 10.5 days 13.5 days 16.5 days 19.5 days
16.5 days
During pregnancy, goats require extra dietary energy during the last 4 months 3 months 2 months 1 week
2 months
The dental formula for sheep and goats is 2(I3/3 C1/1 PM4/4 M3/3) 2(I0/3 C0/1 PM3/3 M3/3) 2(I1/3 C1/1 P1-2/1-2 M3/3) 2(I3/3 C0-1/0-1 PM3-4/3-4 M3/3)
2(I0/3 C0/1 PM3/3 M3/3)
At what age do female goats reach puberty? Group of answer choices 3 months 4 to 8 months 6 to 9 months 7 to 18 months
3 months
A 200 lb 5-year-old Dorset ewe has been prescribed fenbendazole (100mg/ml) at 5 mg/kg PO. How many ml does she need? 4.5mL 450mL 10mL 1000mL
4.5mL
What is the approximate normal gestation period for a goat? Group of answer choices 5 months 2 months 9 months 7 months
5 months
Which of the following statements about general anesthesia in sheep and goats is not true? (pick the FALSE statement) In animals weighing less than 150 lb, face mask induction is possible. Oxygen is administered for 1 to 2 minutes before the anesthetic gas is introduced. An endotracheal tube with an internal diameter of 3 to 5 mm is the appropriate size for adult small ruminants. The heart rate for sheep and goats under general anesthesia should be between 80 to 150 bpm.
An endotracheal tube with an internal diameter of 3 to 5 mm is the appropriate size for adult small ruminants.
Scent glands in the male goat are located Group of answer choices Around the tail base Around the horn base In the groin area In the axial area
Around the horn base
Which of the following vaccines is routinely recommended in both sheep and goats? C. tetani brucella rabies leptospirosis
C. tetani
To capture a herd of goats, it is best to Chase them with a dog. Capture the lead goat and the rest will follow. Use small panels to block off escape. Stand in front of the barn and call.
Capture the lead goat and the rest will follow
Which of the following can result in sudden death in a previously healthy kid or lamb? Group of answer choices Clostridium perfringens Rotavirus Cryptosporidium parvum E. coli
Clostridium perfringens
fever in sheep is caused by Coxiella burnetii Clostridium chauvoei Chlamydia psittaci Campylobacter jejuni
Coxiella burnetii
Lack of what vitamin in goats can cause nutritional muscular dystrophy (white muscle disease)? Group of answer choices E B D A
E
What is the best time of day to restrain sheep in the summer? Midafternoon Afternoon Early morning Midmorning
Early morning
Sheep are the intermediate host for which tapeworm? Group of answer choices Nematodirus filicollis Echinococcus granulosus Strongyloides papillosus Cooperia punctata
Echinococcus granulosus
Mastitis is most likely to effect: Ewes & does lambs & kids rams & bucks wethers
Ewes & does
_______________ is characteristic of goats, whereas __________________ is characteristic of sheep. Timid, enjoy the company of other species Form a social hierarchy, tend to behave as a group Tend to behave as a group, independent behavior Easily frightened, respond to human touch and affection
Form a social hierarchy, tend to behave as a group
FAMACHA scoring is useful for determining if small ruminants need treatment for ___________ infection which can cause serious __________________. Group of answer choices Haemonchus contortus; anemia Barber pole worm; diarrhea Orf; anemia Coccidia; diarrhea
Haemonchus contortus; anemia
What is the best method to encourage a goat to stand still? Lift up the head and chin Cover an eye Hold up a front leg Tie to a fence
Hold up a front leg
Which of the following diseases of sheep is not zoonotic? Rabies Chlamydia infection Toxoplasmosis Johne's
Johne's
With regard to drugs used for pain management in animals undergoing surgery, the meat withdrawal time for ____________ is 7 days. Flunixin meglumine Ketoprofen Ketamine Acetylsalicylic acid
Ketoprofen
Which of the following breeds of goats is a dairy breed whose distinguishing characteristic is very small ears? Group of answer choices Pygmy Nubian Cashmere La Mancha
La Mancha
Which of the following breeds of sheep is a fine wool breed? Dorset Hampshire Rambouillet Lincoln
Rambouillet
Which of the following statements about contagious ecthyma is not true? (pick the FALSE statement) Group of answer choices The vaccine consists of a modified live virus. It also is known as "orf" and "sore mouth." It is zoonotic. Clinical signs include anorexia, dehydration, and malnutrition.
The vaccine consists of a modified live virus
Polioencephalomalcia is caused by a deficiency in: Thiamine Vitamin D Niacin Calcium
Thiamine
Lack of what nutrients can cause retarded growth and rickets in goat kids? Vitamin B and magnesium Vitamins E and C Vitamin C and calcium Vitamins A and B
Vitamin C and calcium
When restraining a sheep, what body part should not be grabbed? Group of answer choices Front leg Head Back leg Wool
Wool
Where is the preferred site for administration of a subcutaneous injection in a small ruminant? axillary area jugular vein intrascapular area lateral cervical muscles
axillary area
Rich legume diets may cause which of the following? Group of answer choices frothy bloat grain overload laminitis lameness
frothy bloat
Which of the following statements about sheep is FALSE? (pick the FALSE statement) sheep are browsers sheep have no upper incisors not all sheep have wool rumping is acceptable restraint for sheep
sheep are browsers
Selenium deficiencies may cause which of the following? white muscle disease rickets septic arthritis arthritis encephalitis
white muscle disease
Treatment of choice for infectious conjunctivitis is: tetracycline panacur enrofloxacin clorsulon
tetracycline