Patho reproductive alteration
A young male child's testes have failed to descend from the abdomen into the scrotum. Which condition will the nurse observe documented on the chart? a. Cryptorchidism b. Testicular torsion c. Orchitis d. Peyronie disease
A. Cryptorchidism With cryptorchidism, the testicle may remain in the abdomen or arrest in the inguinal canal instead of descending into the scrotum.
A woman has irregular menstrual cycles and heavy bleeding with no apparent disease, or other physical problems. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe documented on the chart? a. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding b. Polycystic ovarian syndrome c. Primary dysmenorrhea d. Premenstrual syndrome
A. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding Irregular and/or heavy bleeding is a condition called dysfunctional uterine bleeding.
Which of the following can the nurse suggest to women to protect against the development of breast cancer? a. Regular exercise b. Birth control pills c. Not having children d. Alcohol use
A. Regular exercise Regular physical activity may reduce overall risk of breast cancer and may be related to weight loss and subsequent alterations in hormone levels.
A patient has a cystocele. What other condition should the nurse assess for in this patient? a. Stress incontinence b. Significant problems defecating c. The descent of the rectum into the vaginal canal d. Infertility
A. Stress incontinence A cystocele occurs when the bladder descends into the anterior aspect of the vaginal canal and usually results in bladder control problems such as stress incontinence.
Which of the following male reproductive disorders will cause the nurse to prepare the patient for surgery? a. Testicular torsion b. Cryptorchidism c. Orchitis d. Epididymitis
A. Testicular torsion Testicular torsion is a surgical emergency, since the rotation of the testes can interrupt the blood supply to the testes.
A nurse is asked what causes vaginitis. How should the nurse respond? Vaginitis caused by infection is often related to: a. antibiotic use. b. hypothyroidism. c. autoimmune disease. d. irregular menstrual cycles.
A. antibiotic use. Oral antibiotic use can decrease healthy levels of Lactobacillus acidophilus, resulting in overgrowth of normal vaginal flora.
A patient has pain in the abdomen and pelvis occurring with dysmenorrhea, dyschezia, dyspareunia, and adhesions. The nurse will plan to care for a patient with: a. endometriosis. b. leiomyomas. c. endometrial polyps. d. adenomyosis.
A. endometriosis. Endometriosis is the presence of ectopic endometrial glands that can be found throughout the body, especially in the abdominal and pelvic cavities. Endometriosis can lead to a wide variety of pelvic and abdominal symptoms.
A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of primary dysmenorrhea. Which information should the nurse include? Excessive uterine contractions and endometrial shedding resulting in painful menstruation is a result of: a. excessive prostaglandin levels. b. excessive estrogen levels. c. prostaglandin-blocking medications. d. estrogen-blocking medications.
A. excessive prostaglandin levels. Primary dysmenorrhea is the result of excessive prostaglandin F2 alpha levels in the myometrium and endometrium.
Risk factors for the development of endometrial cancer include: a. obesity, early menarche, and late menopause. b. oral contraceptive use, low-fat diet, and smoking. c. having multiple children, age 40 years or younger, and chronic vaginitis. d. normal BMI, 20 to 25 years old, and diabetes.
A. obesity, early menarche, and late menopause. Risk factors for the development of endometrial cancer include, among others, obesity, early menarche, and late menopause.
The most important risk factor in the development of prostate cancer is: a. older age. b. smoking. c. low-fat diet. d. urethral stricture.
A. older age. By age 85, 1 in 6 American men will develop prostate cancer and about 3% will die from it.
Dermoid cysts are tumors that contain elements of skin, hair, glands, muscle, cartilage, and bone that can eventually develop into: a. ovarian cancer. b. uterine fibroids. c. benign breast tumors. d. follicular cysts.
A. ovarian cancer. Dermoid cysts are ovarian tumors that are generally asymptomatic but must be removed to prevent the development of ovarian cancer.
Which patient is at highest risk for developing cervical cancer? A patient: a. who has an infection with the human papillomavirus (HPV). b. who was exposed to diethylstilbestrol (DES). c. who smokes cigarettes d. who overuses antibiotics.
A. who has an infection with the human papillomavirus (HPV). Most cases of cervical cancer and cervical dysplasia are associated with HPV, a sexually transmitted infection.
A patient wants to know the difference between premenstrual syndrome (PMS) and premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD). How should the nurse respond? PMDD has: a. uterine cramping. b. fatigue. c. depression. d. fluid retention.
C. depression. PMDD is the term often used to refer to the premenstrual disorder with a predominant psychosocial or functional impairment, similar to dysthymia and minor depression.
The nurse is describing the pathophysiology of prostate cancer. Which factor should the nurse include? a. RNA toxicity b. Decreased dihydrotestosterone (DHT) c. Decreased estradiol production d. Young age
B. Decreased dihydrotestosterone (DHT) Decreased levels of DHT are associated with the development of prostate cancer.
What complication will the nurse monitor for in a patient with polycystic ovarian syndrome? a. Hair loss b. Infertility c. Hypotension d. Extreme weight loss
B. Infertility Polycystic ovarian syndrome results in stimulation of follicle growth without ovulation and generally leads to infertility.
A patient who has benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) should be monitored for which additional condition? a. Infertility b. Urethral obstruction c. Prolapsed bladder d. Testicular cancer
B. Urethral obstruction Hyperplasia and hypertrophy of prostatic tissue in BPH lead to the formation of nodules that compress the urethra and cause urethral obstruction.
Which of the following statements indicates that a patient needs more teaching about ovarian cancer? a. In the early stages, ovarian cancer is usually asymptomatic or vague. b. Women 45 years and younger are at the greatest risk of developing ovarian cancer. c. Ovarian cancer can result in abdominal swelling or ascites. d. Ovarian cancer accounts for the most deaths of all cancers of the female reproductive tract.
B. Women 45 years and younger are at the greatest risk of developing ovarian cancer. The highest incidence of ovarian cancer is in elderly women.
Which patient has the greatest risk of developing testicular cancer? The male patient with a history of: a. priapism. b. cryptorchidism. c. phimosis. d. varicocele.
B. cryptorchidism. The risk of testicular cancer is greater for men who have a history of cryptorchidism.
The major endocrine abnormality associated with the development of polycystic ovarian syndrome is: a. depressed estradiol levels. b. hyperinsulinemia. c. hypocortisolism. d. low androgen production.
B. hyperinsulinemia. Hyperinsulinemia plays a key role in androgen excess and the subsequent development of polycystic ovarian syndrome.
Pelvic inflammatory disease can be caused by: a. elevated estrogen. b. sexually transmitted infections. c. ectopic pregnancy. d. cervical tumors.
B. sexually transmitted infections. Pelvic inflammatory disease is caused by infection with sexually transmitted organisms such as Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis.
A patient has galactorrhea. Which area is the priority during patient assessment? a. Prostate b. Ovary c. Breast d. Cervix
C. Breast Galactorrhea is marked by inappropriate lactation from the breast.
Which cancer is the nurse testing for when the Papanicolaou test (Pap smear) is used for routine screening? a. Ovarian b. Endometrial c. Cervical d. Testicular
C. Cervical The Pap smear is routinely used to screen for cervical dysplasia and cervical cancer.
A patient has benign breast disease. Which type of breast lesion does this patient have? a. Malignant b. Gynecomastia c. Nonproliferative d. Galactorrhea
C. Nonproliferative Nonproliferative, proliferative, and atypical hyperplasia (proliferative with atypia) are examples of benign breast disease.
Which term should the nurse use when describing the occurrence of sexual maturation in girls before the age of 6 and in boys before the age of 9? a. Delayed puberty b. Congenital hypopituitarism c. Precocious puberty d. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Precocious puberty Early sexual maturation is a rare condition known as precocious puberty.
A 14-year-old girl has failed to menstruate and develop secondary sex characteristics. What term will the nurse use to describe this condition? a. Dysmenorrhea b. Dysfunctional menarche c. Primary amenorrhea d. Secondary amenorrhea
C. Primary amenorrhea Failure to menstruate and develop secondary sex characteristics by age 14 is a condition called primary amenorrhea.
A male patient has an abnormal dilation of the spermatic/testicular vein. What term will the nurse use to describe this condition? a. Angiocele b. Spermatocele c. Varicocele d. Hydrocele
C. Varicocele An abnormal dilation of a vein within the spermatic cord that can lead to infertility is known as a varicocele.
Symptoms of prostate cancer are similar to: a. urinary tract infection. b. epididymitis. c. benign prostatic hyperplasia. d. prostatitis.
C. benign prostatic hyperplasia. The major symptom of prostate cancer is unrelieved urethral obstruction and decreased urinary flow. These problems also occur with BPH.
To prevent prostate cancer, which diet should the nurse encourage male patients to consume? A diet low in: a. salt. b. vitamin D. c. fat d. selenium.
C. fat. A diet high in fat is a risk factor for prostate cancer.
A patient presents with protrusion of the uterus into the vaginal canal with occasional protrusion outside the vagina. What medical diagnosis will the nurse observe on the chart? Uterine: a. rectocele. b. relaxation. c. prolapse. d. vulvitis.
C. prolapse. Uterine prolapse is descent of the uterus into the vaginal canal, which can progress to protrusion outside of the vagina.
Urethritis is a common disorder of the male urethra and is most commonly caused by: a. mechanical trauma. b. urethral scarring. c. sexually transmitted infection. d. poor hygiene.
C. sexually transmitted infection. Urethritis is most often caused by sexually transmitted infections from microorganisms such as Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis.
Which patient is most prone to develop penile cancer? a. A white male with a sedentary lifestyle b. A black physically active male c. A white male with human papilloma virus infection d. A black male who smokes
D. A black male who smokes Major risk factors for developing penile cancer are human papillomavirus infection, smoking, and black race.
Which of the following symptoms indicates that a woman should be carefully evaluated for breast cancer? a. Dimpling of the skin on the breast b. Enlarged axillary lymph nodes c. Abnormal discharge from the nipple d. All of the above
D. All of the above Dimpling of the skin often occurs at the site of a tumor of the breast. When breast cancer metastasizes, the cancer cells first migrate to the axillary lymph nodes, manifesting with enlarged lymph nodes. Abnormal discharge from the nipple is also a sign of advanced breast cancer.
A nurse is asked which of the following hormonal abnormalities is associated with the development of breast cancer. What is the nurse's best response? a. Elevated cortisol b. Decreased insulin c. Decreased progesterone d. Elevated estrogen
D. Elevated estrogen Elevated estrogen and progesterone are associated with the development of breast cancer.
Which term should the nurse use to describe the overdevelopment of breast tissue in men? a. Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) b. Fibrocystic disease c. Mammography d. Gynecomastia
D. Gynecomastia Overdevelopment of breast tissue in males is a condition known as gynecomastia.
A patient has the symptoms of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Which activity will the patient say lessens the pain? a. Intercourse b. Jumping c. Walking d. Resting
D. Resting The pain of PID may worsen with walking, jumping, or intercourse.
Which medication is most closely associated with the development of adenomyosis? a. DES b. Tylenol c. Ibuprofen d. Tamoxifen
D. Tamoxifen Adenomyosis commonly develops during the late reproductive years, with the highest incidence among women in their forties and women taking tamoxifen.
Which is a cause of secondary amenorrhea other than pregnancy and menopause? a. Multiple sex partners b. Streptococcus infection c. Extreme weight gain d. Thyroid disorders
D. Thyroid disorders Pituitary tumors, thyroid disorders, and extreme weight loss can all result in secondary amenorrhea.
A female presents with cervicitis, pelvic pain, vaginal bleeding, and the presence of purulent cervical discharge. Which organism does the nurse suspect caused this condition? a. E. coli b. Streptococcus c. Klebsiella d. Trichomoniasis
D. Trichomoniasis Chlamydia, trichomoniasis, and gonorrhea are all sexually transmitted infections that can lead to cervicitis.
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is a test used to evaluate the presence of: a. priapism. b. Peyronie disease. c. phimosis. d. benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).
D. benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). The PSA test is used to screen for prostate tissue hyperplasia, which is present in BPH and prostate cancer.
A patient has vaginal cancer. While the nurse is obtaining the history from the patient, the nurse will find that the patient was most likely exposed to: a. tamoxifen. b. Tylenol. c. ibuprofen. d. diethylstilbestrol [DES]
D. diethylstilbestrol [DES] Exposure in utero to nonsteroidal estrogens (diethylstilbestrol [DES]) also has been identified as a risk factor for vaginal cancer.
Which statement indicates that a nurse needs more instruction regarding premenstrual syndrome (PMS)? PMS is the cyclic recurrence that can cause changes: a. behaviorally. b. physically. c. psychologically. d. financially.
D. financially. Changes occurring with PMS are behavioral, physical, and psychological. Common problems include depression, headache, irritability, myalgias, fatigue, nausea, diarrhea, and sleep disturbance.