PEDS RESP

11. An 18-month-old child is seen in the clinic with AOM. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) is prescribed. Which statement made by the parent indicates a correct understanding of the instructions? a. "I should administer all the prescribed medication." b. "I should continue medication until the symptoms subside." c. "I will immediately stop giving medication if I notice a change in hearing." d. "I will stop giving medication if fever is still present in 24 hours."

a. "I should administer all the prescribed medication." ANS: A Antibiotics should be given for their full course to prevent recurrence of infection with resistant bacteria. Symptoms may subside before the full course is given. Hearing loss is a complication of AOM. Antibiotics should continue to be given. Medication may take 24 to 48 hours to make symptoms subside. It should be continued.

40. The Heimlich maneuver is recommended for airway obstruction in children older than _____ year(s). a. 1 b. 4 c. 8 d. 12

a. 1 ANS: A The Heimlich maneuver is recommended for airway obstruction in children older than 1 year. Younger than 1 year, back blows and chest thrusts are administered. The Heimlich maneuver can be used in children older than 1 year.

42. Which occurs in septic shock? a. Hypothermia b. Increased cardiac output c. Vasoconstriction d. Angioneurotic edema

b. Increased cardiac output ANS: B Increased cardiac output, which results in warm, flushed skin, is one of the manifestations of septic shock. Fever and chills are characteristic of septic shock. Vasodilation is more common than vasoconstriction. Angioneurotic edema occurs as a manifestation in anaphylactic shock.

7. Which pathogen is the viral pathogen that frequently causes acute diarrhea in young children? a. Giardia organisms b. Shigella organisms c. Rotavirus d. Salmonella organisms

c. Rotavirus ANS: C Rotavirus is the most frequent viral pathogen that causes diarrhea in young children. Giardia (parasite) and Salmonella are bacterial pathogens that cause diarrhea. Shigella is a bacterial pathogen that is uncommon in the United States.

25. It is now recommended that children with asthma who are taking long-term inhaled steroids should be assessed frequently because which disease or assessment findings may develop? a. Cough b. Osteoporosis c. Slowed growth d. Cushing syndrome

c. Slowed growth ANS: C The growth of children on long-term inhaled steroids should be assessed frequently to assess for systemic effects of these drugs. Cough is prevented by inhaled steroids. No evidence exists that inhaled steroids cause osteoporosis. Cushing syndrome is caused by long-term systemic steroids.

27. Parents of two school-age children with asthma ask the nurse, "What sports can our children participate in?" The nurse should recommend which sport? a. Soccer b. Running c. Swimming d. Basketball

c. Swimming ANS: C Swimming is well tolerated in children with asthma because they are breathing air fully saturated with moisture and because of the type of breathing required in swimming. Exercise-induced bronchospasm is more common in sports that involve endurance, such as soccer. Prophylaxis with medications may be necessary.

28. Which drug is usually given first in the emergency treatment of an acute, severe asthma episode in a young child? a. Ephedrine b. Theophylline c. Aminophylline d. Short-acting β2 agonists

d. Short-acting β2 agonists ANS: D Short-acting β2 agonists are the first treatment in an acute asthma exacerbation. Ephedrine is not helpful in acute asthma exacerbations. Theophylline is unnecessary for treating asthma exacerbations. Aminophylline is not helpful for acute asthma exacerbation.

40. A child is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN; hyperalimentation). At the end of 8 hours, the nurse observes the solution and notes that 200 ml/8 hr is being infused rather than the ordered amount of 300 ml/8 hr. The nurse should adjust the rate so that how much will infuse during the next 8 hours? a. 200 ml b. 300 ml c. 350 ml d. 400 ml

b. 300 ml ANS: B The TPN infusion rate should not be increased or decreased without the practitioner being informed because alterations in rate can cause hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Any changes from the prescribed flow rate may lead to hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia.

8. A child is diagnosed with influenza, probably type A disease. Management includes which recommendation? a. Clear liquid diet for hydration b. Aspirin to control fever c. Amantadine hydrochloride (Symmetrel) to reduce symptoms d. Antibiotics to prevent bacterial infection

c. Amantadine hydrochloride (Symmetrel) to reduce symptoms ANS: C Amantadine hydrochloride may reduce symptoms related to influenza A if administered within 24 to 48 hours of onset. It is ineffective against type B or C. A clear liquid diet is not necessary for influenza, but maintaining hydration is important. Aspirin is not recommended in children because of increased risk of Reye syndrome. Acetaminophen or ibuprofen is a better choice. Preventive antibiotics are not indicated for influenza unless there is evidence of a secondary bacterial infection.

2. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to see as shock progresses in a child and becomes decompensated shock? (Select all that apply.) a. Thirst and diminished urinary output b. Irritability and apprehension c. Cool extremities and decreased skin turgor d. Confusion and somnolence e. Normal blood pressure and narrowing pulse pressure f. Tachypnea and poor capillary refill time

c. Cool extremities and decreased skin turgor d. Confusion and somnolence f. Tachypnea and poor capillary refill time ANS: C, D, F Cool extremities, decreased skin turgor, confusion, somnolence, tachypnea, and poor capillary refill time are beginning signs of decompensated shock. Thirst, diminished urinary output, irritability, apprehension, normal blood pressure, and narrowing pulse pressure are signs of compensated shock.

44. A nurse is interpreting the results of a tuberculin skin test (TST) on an adolescent who is HIV positive. Which induration size indicates a positive result for this child 48-72 hours after the test? a. 5 mm b. 10 mm c. 15 mm d. 20 mm

a. 5 mm ANS: A Clinical evidence of a positive TST in children receiving immunosuppressive therapy, including immunosuppressive doses of steroids or who have immunosuppressive conditions, including HIV infection is an induration of 5 mm. Children younger than 4 years of age with: (a) other medical risk conditions, including Hodgkin disease, lymphoma, diabetes mellitus, chronic renal failure, or malnutrition; (b) born or whose parents were born in high-prevalence (TB) regions of the world; (c) frequently exposed to adults who are HIV infected, homeless, users of illicit drugs, residents of nursing homes, incarcerated or institutionalized, or migrant farm workers; and (d) who travel to high-prevalence (TB) regions of the world are positive when the induration is 10 mm. Children 4 years of age or older without any risk factors are positive when the induration is 20 mm.

28. When liquid medication is given to a crying 10-month-old infant, which approach minimizes the possibility of aspiration? a. Administer the medication with a syringe (without needle) placed along the side of the infant's tongue. b. Administer the medication as rapidly as possible with the infant securely restrained. c. Mix the medication with the infant's regular formula or juice and administer by bottle. d. Keep the child upright with the nasal passages blocked for a minute after administration.

a. Administer the medication with a syringe (without needle) placed along the side of the infant's tongue. ANS: A Administer the medication with a syringe without needle placed along the side of the infant's tongue. The contents are administered slowly in small amounts, allowing the child to swallow between deposits. Medications should be given slowly to avoid aspiration. The medication should be mixed with only a small amount of food or liquid. If the child does not finish drinking or eating, it is difficult to determine how much medication was consumed. Essential foods also should not be used. Holding the child's nasal passages will increase the risk of aspiration

12. An infant's parents ask the nurse about preventing OM. Which should be recommended? a. Avoid tobacco smoke. b. Use nasal decongestant. c. Avoid children with OM. d. Bottle-feed or breastfeed in supine position.

a. Avoid tobacco smoke. ANS: A Eliminating tobacco smoke from the child's environment is essential for preventing OM and other common childhood illnesses. Nasal decongestants are not useful in preventing OM. Children with uncomplicated OM are not contagious unless they show other upper respiratory tract infection (URI) symptoms. Children should be fed in an upright position to prevent OM.

4. Decongestant nose drops are recommended for a 10-month-old infant with an upper respiratory tract infection. Instructions for nose drops should include which action? a. Avoid using for more than 3 days. b. Keep drops to use again for nasal congestion. c. Administer drops until nasal congestion subsides. d. Administer drops after feedings and at bedtime.

a. Avoid using for more than 3 days. ANS: A Vasoconstrictive nose drops such as phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) should not be used for more than 3 days to avoid rebound congestion. Drops should be discarded after one illness because they may become contaminated with bacteria. Vasoconstrictive nose drops can have a rebound effect after 3 days of use. Drops administered before feedings are more helpful.

33. A child with cystic fibrosis (CF) receives aerosolized bronchodilator medication. When should this medication be administered? a. Before chest physiotherapy (CPT) b. After CPT c. Before receiving 100% oxygen d. After receiving 100% oxygen

a. Before chest physiotherapy (CPT) ANS: A Bronchodilators should be given before CPT to open bronchi and make expectoration easier. Aerosolized bronchodilator medications are not helpful when used after CPT. Oxygen administration is necessary only in acute episodes with caution because of chronic carbon dioxide retention.

16. A school-age child had an upper respiratory tract infection for several days and then began having a persistent dry, hacking cough that was worse at night. The cough has become productive in the past 24 hours. This is most suggestive of which diagnosis? a. Bronchitis b. Bronchiolitis c. Viral-induced asthma d. Acute spasmodic laryngitis

a. Bronchitis ANS: A Bronchitis is characterized by these symptoms and occurs in children older than 6 years. Bronchiolitis is rare in children older than 2 years. Asthma is a chronic inflammation of the airways that may be exacerbated by a virus. Acute spasmodic laryngitis occurs in children between 3 months and 3 years.

2. The nurse is assessing a child after a cardiac catheterization. Which complication should the nurse be assessing for? a. Cardiac arrhythmia b. Hypostatic pneumonia c. Heart failure d. Rapidly increasing blood pressure

a. Cardiac arrhythmia ANS: A Because a catheter is introduced into the heart, a risk exists of catheter-induced dysrhythmias occurring during the procedure. These are usually transient. Hypostatic pneumonia, heart failure, and rapidly increasing blood pressure are not risks usually associated with cardiac catheterization.

1. An infant has developed staphylococcal pneumonia. Nursing care of the child with pneumonia includes which interventions? (Select all that apply.) a. Cluster care to conserve energy b. Round-the-clock administration of antitussive agents c. Strict intake and output to avoid congestive heart failure d. Administration of antibiotics

a. Cluster care to conserve energy d. Administration of antibiotics ANS: A, D Antibiotics are indicated for a bacterial pneumonia. Often the child will have decreased pulmonary reserve, and the clustering of care is essential. Antitussive agents are used sparingly. It is desirable for the child to cough up some of the secretions. Fluids are essential to kept secretions as liquefied as possible.

43. A school-age child has been admitted with an acute asthma episode. The child is receiving oxygen by nasal prongs at 2 liters. How often should the nurse plan to monitor the child's pulse oximetry status? a. Continuous b. Every 30 minutes c. Every hour d. Every 2 hours

a. Continuous ANS: A The child on supplemental oxygen requires intermittent or continuous oxygenation monitoring, depending on severity of respiratory compromise and initial oxygenation status. The child in status asthmaticus should be placed on continuous cardiorespiratory (including blood pressure) and pulse oximetry monitoring.

36. In providing nourishment for a child with cystic fibrosis (CF), which factor should the nurse keep in mind? a. Diet should be high in carbohydrates and protein. b. Diet should be high in easily digested carbohydrates and fats. c. Most fruits and vegetables are not well tolerated. d. Fats and proteins must be greatly curtailed.

a. Diet should be high in carbohydrates and protein. ANS: A Children with CF require a well-balanced, high-protein, high-calorie diet because of impaired intestinal absorption. Enzyme supplementation helps digest foods; other modifications are not necessary. A well-balanced diet containing fruits and vegetables is important. Fats and proteins are a necessary part of a well-balanced diet.

2. A nurse is charting that a hospitalized child has labored breathing. Which describes labored breathing? a. Dyspnea b. Tachypnea c. Hypopnea d. Orthopnea

a. Dyspnea ANS: A Dyspnea is labored breathing. Tachypnea is rapid breathing. Hypopnea is breathing that is too shallow. Orthopnea is difficulty breathing except in upright position.

1. Which condition in a child should alert a nurse for increased fluid requirements? a. Fever b. Mechanical ventilation c. Congestive heart failure d. Increased intracranial pressure (ICP)

a. Fever ANS: A Fever leads to great insensible fluid loss in young children because of increased body surface area relative to fluid volume. Respiratory rate influences insensible fluid loss and should be monitored in the mechanically ventilated child. Congestive heart failure is a case of fluid overload in children. Increased ICP does not lead to increased fluid requirements in children.

29. Parents of a child with cystic fibrosis ask the nurse about genetic implications of the disorder. Which statement, made by the nurse, expresses accurately the genetic implications? a. If it is present in a child, both parents are carriers of this defective gene. b. It is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait. c. It is a genetic defect found primarily in non-Caucasian population groups. d. There is a 50% chance that siblings of an affected child also will be affected.

a. If it is present in a child, both parents are carriers of this defective gene. ANS: A CF is an autosomal recessive gene inherited from both parents and is inherited as an autosomal recessive, not autosomal dominant, trait. CF is found primarily in Caucasian populations. An autosomal recessive inheritance pattern means that there is a 25% chance a sibling will be infected but a 50% chance a sibling will be a carrier.

3. Which type of dehydration is defined as "dehydration that occurs in conditions in which electrolyte and water deficits are present in approximately balanced proportion"? a. Isotonic dehydration b. Hypotonic dehydration c. Hypertonic dehydration d. All types of dehydration in infants and small children

a. Isotonic dehydration ANS: A Isotonic dehydration is the correct term for this definition and is the most frequent form of dehydration in children. Hypotonic dehydration occurs when the electrolyte deficit exceeds the water deficit, leaving the serum hypotonic. Hypertonic dehydration results from water loss in excess of electrolyte loss and is usually caused by a proportionately larger loss of water or a larger intake of electrolytes. This definition is specific to isotonic dehydration.

30. A nurse is teaching nursing students about clinical manifestations of cystic fibrosis (CF). Which is/are the earliest recognizable clinical manifestation(s) of CF? a. Meconium ileus b. History of poor intestinal absorption c. Foul-smelling, frothy, greasy stools d. Recurrent pneumonia and lung infections

a. Meconium ileus ANS: A The earliest clinical manifestation of CF is a meconium ileus, which is found in about 10% of children with CF. Clinical manifestations include abdominal distention, vomiting, failure to pass stools, and rapid development of dehydration. History of malabsorption is a later sign that manifests as failure to thrive. Foul-smelling stools are a later manifestation of CF. Recurrent respiratory tract infections are a later sign of CF.

24. A child is admitted to the hospital with asthma. Which assessment findings support this diagnosis? a. Nonproductive cough, wheezing b. Fever, general malaise c. Productive cough, rales d. Stridor, substernal retractions

a. Nonproductive cough, wheezing ANS: A Asthma presents with a nonproductive cough and wheezing. Pneumonia appears with an acute onset, fever, and general malaise. A productive cough and rales would be indicative of pneumonia. Stridor and substernal retractions are indicative of croup.

45. The nurse is caring for a boy with probable intussusception. He had diarrhea before admission but, while waiting for administration of air pressure to reduce the intussusception, he passes a normal brown stool. Which nursing action is the most appropriate? a. Notify practitioner. b. Measure abdominal girth. c. Auscultate for bowel sounds. d. Take vital signs, including blood pressure.

a. Notify practitioner. ANS: A Passage of a normal brown stool indicates that the intussusception has reduced itself. This is immediately reported to the practitioner, who may choose to alter the diagnostic-therapeutic care plan. The first action would be to report the normal stool to the practitioner.

30. Which painful, tender, pea-sized nodules may appear on the pads of the fingers or toes in bacterial endocarditis? a. Osler nodes b. Janeway lesions c. Subcutaneous nodules d. Aschoff nodes

a. Osler nodes ANS: A Osler nodes are red, painful, intradermal nodes found on pads of the phalanges in bacterial endocarditis. Janeway lesions are painless hemorrhagic areas on palms and soles in bacterial endocarditis. Subcutaneous nodules are nontender swellings, located over bony prominences, commonly found in rheumatic fever. Aschoff nodules are small nodules composed of cells and leukocytes found in the interstitial tissues of the heart in rheumatic myocarditis.

31. A child is being admitted to the hospital to be tested for cystic fibrosis (CF). Which tests should the nurse expect? a. Sweat chloride test, stool for fat, chest radiograph films b. Stool test for fat, gastric contents for hydrochloride, chest radiograph films c. Sweat chloride test, bronchoscopy, duodenal fluid analysis d. Sweat chloride test, stool for trypsin, biopsy of intestinal mucosa

a. Sweat chloride test, stool for fat, chest radiograph films ANS: A A sweat test result of greater than 60 mEq/L is diagnostic of CF, a high level of fecal fat is a gastrointestinal (GI) manifestation of CF, and a chest radiograph showing patchy atelectasis and obstructive emphysema indicates CF. Gastric contents contain hydrochloride normally; it is not diagnostic. Bronchoscopy and duodenal fluid are not diagnostic. Stool test for trypsin and intestinal biopsy are not helpful in diagnosing CF.

23. A nurse is conducting an in-service on asthma. Which statement is the most descriptive of bronchial asthma? a. There is heightened airway reactivity. b. There is decreased resistance in the airway. c. The single cause of asthma is an allergic hypersensitivity. d. It is inherited.

a. There is heightened airway reactivity. ANS: A In bronchial asthma, spasm of the smooth muscle of the bronchi and bronchioles causes constriction, producing impaired respiratory function. In bronchial asthma, there is increased resistance in the airway. There are multiple causes of asthma, including allergens, irritants, exercise, cold air, infections, medications, medical conditions, and endocrine factors. Atopy or development of an immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated response is inherited but is not the only cause of asthma.

3. Which explains why cool-mist vaporizers rather than steam vaporizers are recommended in home treatment of childhood respiratory tract infections? a. They are safer. b. They are less expensive. c. Respiratory secretions are dried. d. A more comfortable environment is produced.

a. They are safer. ANS: A Cool-mist vaporizers are safer than steam vaporizers, and little evidence exists to show any advantages to steam. The cost of cool-mist and steam vaporizers is comparable. Steam loosens secretions, not dries them. Both may promote a more comfortable environment, but cool-mist vaporizers present decreased risk for burns and growth of organisms.

37. The nurse is teaching a mother how to perform chest physical therapy and postural drainage on her 3-year-old child, who has cystic fibrosis. To perform percussion, the nurse should instruct her to: a. cover the skin with a shirt or gown before percussing. b. strike the chest wall with a flat-hand position. c. percuss over the entire trunk anteriorly and posteriorly. d. percuss before positioning for postural drainage.

a. cover the skin with a shirt or gown before percussing. ANS: A For postural drainage and percussion, the child should be dressed in a light shirt to protect the skin and placed in the appropriate postural drainage positions. The chest wall is struck with a cupped-hand, not a flat-hand position. The procedure should be done over the rib cage only. Positioning precedes the percussion.

20. A 2-year-old child is being admitted to the hospital for possible bacterial meningitis. When preparing for a lumbar puncture, the nurse's best action is to: a. prepare child for conscious sedation during the test. b. set up a tray with equipment the same size as for adults. c. reassure the parents that the test is simple, painless, and risk free. d. apply EMLA to puncture site 15 minutes before procedure.

a. prepare child for conscious sedation during the test. ANS: A Because of the urgency of the child's condition, conscious sedation should be used for the procedure. Pediatric spinal trays have smaller needles than do adult trays. Reassuring the parents that the test is simple, painless, and risk free is incorrect information. A spinal tap does have associated risks, and analgesia will be given for the pain. EMLA (a eutectic mixture of anesthetics) should be applied approximately 60 minutes before the procedure. The emergency nature of the spinal tap precludes its use.

6. Parents call the clinic and report that their toddler has had acute diarrhea for 24 hours. The nurse should further ask the parents if the toddler has which associated factor that is causing the acute diarrhea? a. Celiac disease b. Antibiotic therapy c. Immunodeficiency d. Protein malnutrition

b. Antibiotic therapy ANS: B Acute diarrhea is a sudden increase in frequency and change in consistency of stools and may be associated with antibiotic therapy. Celiac disease is a problem with gluten intolerance and may cause chronic diarrhea if not identified and managed appropriately. Immunodeficiency would occur with chronic diarrhea. Protein malnutrition or kwashiorkor causes chronic diarrhea from lowered resistance to infection.

13. The nurse is assessing a child with acute epiglottitis. Examining the child's throat by using a tongue depressor might precipitate which symptom or condition? a. Inspiratory stridor b. Complete obstruction c. Sore throat d. Respiratory tract infection

b. Complete obstruction ANS: B If a child has acute epiglottitis, examination of the throat may cause complete obstruction and should be performed only when immediate intubation can take place. Stridor is aggravated when a child with epiglottitis is supine. Sore throat and pain on swallowing are early signs of epiglottitis. Epiglottitis is caused by H. influenzae in the respiratory tract.

26. β-Adrenergic agonists and methylxanthines are often prescribed for a child with an asthma attack. Which describes their action? a. Liquefy secretions. b. Dilate the bronchioles. c. Reduce inflammation of the lungs. d. Reduce infection.

b. Dilate the bronchioles. ANS: B β-Adrenergic agonists and methylxanthines work to dilate the bronchioles in acute exacerbations. These medications do not liquefy secretions or reduce infection. Corticosteroids and mast cell stabilizers reduce inflammation in the lungs.

14. Which type of croup is always considered a medical emergency? a. Laryngitis b. Epiglottitis c. Spasmodic croup d. Laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB)

b. Epiglottitis ANS: B Epiglottitis is always a medical emergency needing antibiotics and airway support for treatment. Laryngitis is a common viral illness in older children and adolescents, with hoarseness and URI symptoms. Spasmodic croup is treated with humidity. LTB may progress to a medical emergency in some children.

30. Guidelines for intramuscular administration of medication in school-age children include which action? a. Inject medication as rapidly as possible. b. Insert needle quickly, using a dartlike motion. c. Penetrate skin immediately after cleansing site, before skin has dried. d. Have child stand, if possible, and if child is cooperative.

b. Insert needle quickly, using a dartlike motion. ANS: B The needle should be inserted quickly in a dartlike motion at a 90-degree angle unless contraindicated. Inject medications slowly. Allow skin preparation to dry completely before skin is penetrated. Place child in lying or sitting position.

21. The nurse is caring for a child with carbon monoxide poisoning associated with smoke inhalation. Which is essential in this child's care? a. Monitor pulse oximetry. b. Monitor arterial blood gases. c. Administer oxygen if respiratory distress develops. d. Administer oxygen if child's lips become bright, cherry red.

b. Monitor arterial blood gases. ANS: B Arterial blood gases are the best way to monitor carbon monoxide poisoning. Pulse oximetry is contraindicated in the case of carbon monoxide poisoning because the PaO2 may be normal. The child should receive 100% oxygen as quickly as possible, not only if respiratory distress or other symptoms develop.

18. Which consideration is the most important in managing tuberculosis (TB) in children? a. Skin testing annually b. Pharmacotherapy c. Adequate nutrition d. Adequate hydration

b. Pharmacotherapy ANS: B Drug therapy for TB includes isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide daily for 2 months and two or three times a week for the remaining 4 months. Pharmacotherapy is the most important intervention for TB.

1. The nurse is teaching nursing students about normal physiologic changes in the respiratory system of toddlers. Which best describes why toddlers have fewer respiratory tract infections as they grow older? a. The amount of lymphoid tissue decreases. b. Repeated exposure to organisms causes increased immunity. c. Viral organisms are less prevalent in the population. d. Secondary infections rarely occur after viral illnesses.

b. Repeated exposure to organisms causes increased immunity. ANS: B Children have increased immunity after exposure to a virus. The amount of lymphoid tissue increases as children grow older. Viral organisms are not less prevalent, but older children have the ability to resist invading organisms. Secondary infections after viral illnesses include Mycoplasma pneumoniae and group A β-hemolytic streptococcal infections.

15. The nurse encourages the mother of a toddler with acute laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) to stay at the bedside as much as possible. The nurse's rationale for this action is described primarily in which statement? a. Mothers of hospitalized toddlers often experience guilt. b. The mother's presence will reduce anxiety and ease child's respiratory efforts. c. Separation from mother is a major developmental threat at this age. d. The mother can provide constant observations of the child's respiratory efforts.

b. The mother's presence will reduce anxiety and ease child's respiratory efforts. ANS: B The family's presence will decrease the child's distress. It is true that mothers of hospitalized toddlers often experience guilt but this is not the best answer. The main reason to keep parents at the child's bedside is to ease anxiety and therefore respiratory effort. The child should have constant monitoring by cardiorespiratory monitor and noninvasive oxygen saturation monitoring, but the parent should not play this role in the hospital.

34. A child with cystic fibrosis (CF) is receiving recombinant human deoxyribonuclease (DNase). Which is an adverse effect of this medication? a. Mucus thickens b. Voice alters c. Tachycardia d. Jitteriness

b. Voice alters ANS: B One of the only adverse effects of DNase is voice alterations and laryngitis. DNase decreases viscosity of mucus, is given in an aerosolized form, and is safe for children younger than 12 years. β2 agonists can cause tachycardia and jitteriness.

22. A nurse is admitting an infant with asthma. The nurse understands that asthma in infants is usually triggered by: a. medications. b. a viral infection. c. exposure to cold air. d. allergy to dust or dust mites.

b. a viral infection. ANS: B Viral illnesses cause inflammation that causes increased airway reactivity in asthma. Medications such as aspirin, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and antibiotics may aggravate asthma, but not frequently in infants. Exposure to cold air may exacerbate already existing asthma. Allergy is associated with asthma, but 20% to 40% of children with asthma have no evidence of allergic disease.

40. Pyloric stenosis can best be described as: a. dilation of the pylorus. b. hypertrophy of the pyloric muscle. c. hypotonicity of the pyloric muscle. d. reduction of tone in the pyloric muscle.

b. hypertrophy of the pyloric muscle. ANS: B Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis occurs when the circumferential muscle of the pyloric sphincter becomes thickened, resulting in elongation and narrowing of the pyloric channel. Dilation of the pylorus, hypotonicity of the pyloric muscle, and reduction of tone in the pyloric muscle are not the definition of pyloric stenosis.

20. The nurse is caring for a child with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) associated with sepsis. Nursing actions should include: a. forcing fluids. b. monitoring pulse oximetry. c. instituting seizure precautions. d. encouraging a high-protein diet.

b. monitoring pulse oximetry. ANS: B Monitoring cardiopulmonary status is an important evaluation tool in the care of the child with ARDS. Maintenance of vascular volume and hydration is important and should be done parenterally. Seizures are not a side effect of ARDS. Adequate nutrition is necessary, but a high-protein diet is not helpful.

43. A child is brought to the emergency department experiencing an anaphylactic reaction to a bee sting. While an airway is being established, the nurse should prepare which medication for immediate administration? a. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) b. Dobutamine (Dobutarex) c. Epinephrine (Adrenalin) d. Calcium chloride (calcium chloride)

c. Epinephrine (Adrenalin) ANS: C After the first priority of establishing an airway, administration of epinephrine is the drug of choice. Diphenhydramine, an antihistamine, is usually not used for severe reactions. Dobutamine and calcium chloride are not appropriate drugs for this type of reaction.

41. Which observation made of the exposed abdomen is most indicative of pyloric stenosis? a. Abdominal rigidity b. Substernal retraction c. Palpable olive-like mass d. Marked distention of lower abdomen

c. Palpable olive-like mass ANS: C The diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is often made after the history and physical examination. The olive-like mass is easily palpated when the stomach is empty, the infant is quiet, and the abdominal muscles are relaxed. Abdominal rigidity and substernal retraction are usually not present. The upper abdomen, not lower abdomen, is distended.

5. An infant is brought to the emergency department with dehydration. Which physical assessment finding does the nurse expect? a. Weight gain b. Bradycardia c. Poor skin turgor d. Brisk capillary refill

c. Poor skin turgor ANS: C Clinical manifestations of dehydration include poor skin turgor, weight loss, lethargy, and tachycardia. The infant would have prolonged capillary refill, not brisk.

35. Which action by the school nurse is important in the prevention of rheumatic fever? a. Encourage routine cholesterol screenings. b. Conduct routine blood pressure screenings. c. Refer children with sore throats for throat cultures. d. Recommend salicylates instead of acetaminophen for minor discomforts.

c. Refer children with sore throats for throat cultures. ANS: C Nurses have a role in prevention—primarily in screening school-age children for sore throats caused by group A β-hemolytic streptococci. They can achieve this by actively participating in throat culture screening or by referring children with possible streptococcal sore throats for testing. Cholesterol and blood pressure screenings do not facilitate the recognition and treatment of group A β-hemolytic streptococci. Salicylates should be avoided routinely because of the risk of Reye syndrome after viral illnesses.

42. The nurse is caring for an infant with suspected pyloric stenosis. Which clinical manifestation would indicate pyloric stenosis? a. Abdominal rigidity and pain on palpation b. Rounded abdomen and hypoactive bowel sounds c. Visible peristalsis and weight loss d. Distention of lower abdomen and constipation

c. Visible peristalsis and weight loss ANS: C Visible gastric peristaltic waves that move from left to right across the epigastrium and weight loss are observed in pyloric stenosis. Abdominal rigidity and pain on palpation or a rounded abdomen and hypoactive bowel sounds are usually not present. The upper abdomen, not lower abdomen, is distended.

7. It is generally recommended that a child with acute streptococcal pharyngitis can return to school: a. when sore throat is better. b. if no complications develop. c. after taking antibiotics for 24 hours. d. after taking antibiotics for 3 days.

c. after taking antibiotics for 24 hours. ANS: C After children have taken antibiotics for 24 hours, they are no longer contagious to other children. Sore throat may persist longer than 24 hours after beginning antibiotic therapy, but the child is no longer considered contagious. Complications may take days to weeks to develop.

41. A nurse is caring for a child in acute respiratory failure. Which blood gas analysis indicates the child is still in respiratory acidosis? a. pH 7.50, CO2 48 b. pH 7.30, CO2 30 c. pH 7.32, CO2 50 d. pH 7.48, CO2 33

c. pH 7.32, CO2 50 ANS: C Respiratory failure is a process that involves pulmonary dysfunction generally resulting in impaired alveolar gas exchange, which can lead to hypoxemia or hypercapnia. Acidosis indicates the pH is less than 7.35 and the CO2 is greater than 45. If the pH is less than 7.35 but the CO2 is low, it is metabolic acidosis. Alkalosis is when the pH is greater than 7.45. If the pH is high and the CO2 is high, it is metabolic alkalosis. When the pH is high and the CO2 is low, it is respiratory alkalosis.

32. Cystic fibrosis (CF) is suspected in a toddler. Which test is essential in establishing this diagnosis? a. Bronchoscopy b. Serum calcium c. Urine creatinine d. Sweat chloride test

d. Sweat chloride test ANS: D A sweat chloride test result greater than 60 mEq/L is diagnostic of CF. Bronchoscopy, although helpful for identifying bacterial infection in children with CF, is not diagnostic. Serum calcium is normal in children with CF. Urine creatinine is not diagnostic of CF.

10. Parents have understood teaching about prevention of childhood otitis media if they make which statement? a. "We will only prop the bottle during the daytime feedings." b. "Breastfeeding will be discontinued after 4 months of age." c. "We will place the child flat right after feedings." d. "We will be sure to keep immunizations up to date."

d. "We will be sure to keep immunizations up to date." ANS: D Parents have understood the teaching about preventing childhood otitis media if they respond they will keep childhood immunizations up to date. The child should be maintained upright during feedings and after. Otitis media can be prevented by exclusively breastfeeding until at least 6 months of age. Propping bottles is discouraged to avoid pooling of milk while the child is in the supine position.

41. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to see as shock progresses in a child and becomes decompensated shock? a. Thirst b. Irritability c. Apprehension d. Confusion and somnolence

d. Confusion and somnolence ANS: D Confusion and somnolence are beginning signs of decompensated shock. Thirst, irritability, and apprehension are signs of compensated shock.

2. The nurse is caring for a 10-month-old infant with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) bronchiolitis. Which intervention should be included in the child's care? (Select all that apply.) a. Place in a mist tent. b. Administer antibiotics. c. Administer cough syrup. d. Encourage to drink 8 ounces of formula every 4 hours. e. Cluster care to encourage adequate rest. f. Place on noninvasive oxygen monitoring.

d. Encourage to drink 8 ounces of formula every 4 hours. e. Cluster care to encourage adequate rest. f. Place on noninvasive oxygen monitoring. ANS: D, E, F Hydration is important in children with RSV bronchiolitis to loosen secretions and prevent shock. Clustering of care promotes periods of rest. The use of noninvasive oxygen monitoring is recommended. Mist tents are no longer used. Antibiotics do not treat illnesses with viral causes. Cough syrup suppresses clearing of respiratory secretions and is not indicated for young children.

5. Which is an appropriate nursing intervention when caring for an infant with an upper respiratory tract infection and elevated temperature? a. Give tepid water baths to reduce fever. b. Encourage food intake to maintain caloric needs. c. Have child wear heavy clothing to prevent chilling. d. Give small amounts of favorite fluids frequently to prevent dehydration.

d. Give small amounts of favorite fluids frequently to prevent dehydration. ANS: D Preventing dehydration by small frequent feedings is an important intervention in the febrile child. Tepid water baths may induce shivering, which raises temperature. Food should not be forced; it may result in the child vomiting. The febrile child should be dressed in light, loose clothing.

4. A nurse is admitting an infant with dehydration caused from water loss in excess of electrolyte loss. Which type of dehydration is this infant experiencing? a. Isotonic b. Isosmotic c. Hypotonic d. Hypertonic

d. Hypertonic ANS: D Hypertonic dehydration results from water loss in excess of electrolyte loss. This is the most dangerous type of dehydration. It is caused by feeding children fluids with high amounts of solute. Isotonic dehydration occurs in conditions in which electrolyte and water deficits are present in balanced proportion and is another term for isotonic dehydration. Hypotonic dehydration occurs when the electrolyte deficit exceeds the water deficit, leaving the serum hypotonic.

19. The mother of a toddler yells to the nurse, "Help! He is choking to death on his food." The nurse determines that lifesaving measures are necessary based on which symptom? a. Gagging b. Coughing c. Pulse over 100 beats/min d. Inability to speak

d. Inability to speak ANS: D The inability to speak is indicative of a foreign-body airway obstruction of the larynx. Abdominal thrusts are needed for treatment of the choking child. Gagging indicates irritation at the back of the throat, not obstruction. Coughing does not indicate a complete airway obstruction. Tachycardia may be present for many reasons.

28. Which immunization should not be given to a child receiving chemotherapy for cancer? a. Tetanus vaccine b. Inactivated poliovirus vaccine c. Diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus (DPT) d. Measles, rubella, mumps

d. Measles, rubella, mumps ANS: D The vaccine used for measles, mumps, and rubella is a live virus and can result in an overwhelming infection. Tetanus vaccine, inactivated poliovirus vaccine, and diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus (DPT) are not live virus vaccines.

33. A parent asks the nurse whether her infant is susceptible to pertussis. The nurse's response should be based on which statement concerning susceptibility to pertussis? a. Neonates will be immune the first few months. b. If the mother has had the disease, the infant will receive passive immunity. c. Children younger than 1 year seldom contract this disease. d. Most children are highly susceptible from birth.

d. Most children are highly susceptible from birth. ANS: D The acellular pertussis vaccine is recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics beginning at age 6 weeks. Infants are at greater risk for complications of pertussis. The vaccine is not given after age 7 years, when the risks of the vaccine become greater than those of pertussis. The infant is highly susceptible to pertussis, which can be a life-threatening illness in this age group.

17. Which frequency is recommended for childhood skin testing for tuberculosis (TB) using the Mantoux test? a. Every year for all children older than 2 years b. Every year for all children older than 10 years c. Every 2 years for all children starting at age 1 year d. Periodically for children who reside in high-prevalence regions

d. Periodically for children who reside in high-prevalence regions ANS: D Children who reside in high-prevalence regions for TB should be tested every 2 to 3 years. Annual testing is not necessary. Testing is not necessary unless exposure is likely or an underlying medical risk factor is present.

6. The parent of an infant with nasopharyngitis should be instructed to notify the health professional if the infant displays which clinical manifestation? a. Fussiness b. Coughing c. A fever over 99° F d. Signs of an earache

d. Signs of an earache ANS: D If an infant with nasopharyngitis shows signs of an earache, it may mean a secondary bacterial infection is present and the infant should be referred to a practitioner for evaluation. Irritability is common in an infant with a viral illness. Cough can be a sign of nasopharyngitis. Fever is common in viral illnesses.

29. Which is the most common causative agent of bacterial endocarditis? a. Staphylococcus albus b. Streptococcus hemolyticus c. Staphylococcus albicans d. Streptococcus viridans

d. Streptococcus viridans ANS: D S. viridans is the most common causative agent in bacterial (infective) endocarditis. Staphylococcus albus, Streptococcus hemolyticus, and Staphylococcus albicans are not common causative agents.

12. Many of the physical characteristics of Down syndrome present nursing problems. Care of the child should include which intervention? a. Delay feeding solid foods until the tongue thrust has stopped. b. Modify diet as necessary to minimize the diarrhea that often occurs. c. Provide calories appropriate to child's age. d. Use a cool-mist vaporizer to keep mucous membranes moist.

d. Use a cool-mist vaporizer to keep mucous membranes moist. ANS: D The constant stuffy nose forces the child to breathe by mouth, drying the mucous membranes and increasing the susceptibility to upper respiratory tract infections. A cool-mist vaporizer will keep the mucous membranes moist and liquefy secretions. The child has a protruding tongue, which makes feeding difficult. The parents must persist with feeding while the child continues the physiologic response of the tongue thrust. The child is predisposed to constipation. Calories should be appropriate to the child's weight and growth needs, not age.

29. Which is the preferred site for intramuscular injections in infants? a. Deltoid b. Dorsogluteal c. Rectus femoris d. Vastus lateralis

d. Vastus lateralis ANS: D The preferred site for infants is the vastus lateralis. The deltoid and dorsogluteal sites are used for older children and adults. The rectus femoris is not a recommended site.

33. A preschool child is being admitted to the hospital with dehydration and a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which urinalysis result should the nurse expect with these conditions? a. WBC <1; specific gravity 1.008 b. WBC <2; specific gravity 1.025 c. WBC >2; specific gravity 1.016 d. WBC >2; specific gravity 1.030

d. WBC >2; specific gravity 1.030 ANS: D WBC count in a routine urinalysis should be <1 or 2. Over that amount indicates a urinary tract inflammatory process. The urinalysis specific gravity for children with normal fluid intake is 1.016 to 1.022. When the specific gravity is high, dehydration is indicated. A low specific gravity is seen with excessive fluid intake, distal tubular dysfunction, or insufficient antidiuretic hormone secretion.

9. Chronic otitis media with effusion (OME) is differentiated from acute otitis media (AOM) because it is usually characterized by: a. a fever as high as 40° C (104° F). b. severe pain in the ear. c. nausea and vomiting. d. a feeling of fullness in the ear.

d. a feeling of fullness in the ear. ANS: D OME is characterized by feeling of fullness in the ear or other nonspecific complaints. Fever is a sign of AOM. OME does not cause severe pain. This may be a sign of AOM. Nausea and vomiting are associated with otitis media.

43. An infant with pyloric stenosis experiences excessive vomiting that can result in: a. hyperchloremia. b. hypernatremia. c. metabolic acidosis. d. metabolic alkalosis.

d. metabolic alkalosis. ANS: D Infants with excessive vomiting are prone to metabolic alkalosis from the loss of hydrogen ions. Chloride ions and sodium are lost with vomiting. Metabolic alkalosis, not acidosis, is likely.

35. Pancreatic enzymes are administered to the child with cystic fibrosis (CF). Nursing considerations should include to: a. not administer pancreatic enzymes if child is receiving antibiotics. b. decrease dose of pancreatic enzymes if child is having frequent, bulky stools. c. administer pancreatic enzymes between meals if at all possible. d. pancreatic enzymes can be swallowed whole or sprinkled on a small amount of food taken at the beginning of a meal.

d. pancreatic enzymes can be swallowed whole or sprinkled on a small amount of food taken at the beginning of a meal. ANS: D Enzymes may be administered in a small amount of cereal or fruit at the beginning of a meal or swallowed whole. Pancreatic enzymes are not a contraindication for antibiotics. The dosage of enzymes should be increased if child is having frequent, bulky stools. Enzymes should be given just before meals and snacks.