Perfusion Questions (Ati and Saunders)

A nurse is preparing to administer eye drops to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply)

-Ask the client to look at the ceiling -Drop the medication into the center of the client's conjunctival sac -Instruct the client to close her eye gently after instillation

A nurse is assessing a client's IV infusion site. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of phlebitis? (select all that apply)

-Erythema* -Pain*

A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a 4-month-old infant. Which of the following pharmacokinetic principles should the nurse consider when administering medications to this client? (select all that apply)

-Infants have immature liver functions* -Infants' blood-brain barrier is poorly developed* -Infants have an increased ability to absorb topical medications*

A staff educator is reviewing medication dosages and factors that influence medication metabolism with a group of nurses at an in-service presentation. Which of the following factors should the educator include as a reason to administer lower medication dosages? (Select all that apply)

-Liver failure -Concurrent use of medication the same pathway metabolizes

A nurse reviewing a client's medical record notes a new prescription for verifying the trough level of the client's medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

-Obtain a blood specimen immediately prior to administrating the next does of medications*

A nurse is admitting a client and completing a pre-assessment before administering medications. Which of the following data should the nurse include in the pre-assessment? (select all that apply)

-Use of herbal teas* -Current health status* -Food allergies*

A nurse is preparing a client's medications. Which of the following actions should the nurse take in following legal practice guideline? (Select all that apply)

-Maintain skill competency -Monitor for adverse effects -Safeguard medication

a nurse is assessing a client who has taken procainamide to treat dysrhythmias for the last 12 months. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication? (Select all that apply) a. hypertension b. widened QRS complex c. narrowed QT interval d. easy bruising e. swollen joints

b. widened QRS complex d. easy bruising e. swollen joints

A nurse in a clinic is caring for a group of clients. The nurse should contact the provider about a potential contradiction to a medication for which of the following clients? (select all that apply)

-A client who takes prednisone and has a possible fungal infection* -A client who has chronic liver disease and is taking hydrocondone*

A nurse assessing a client's IV catheter insertion site notes a hematoma. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (select all that apply)

-Apply warm compresses to the insertion site* -Elevate the client's arm*

A nurse orienting a newly licensed nurse is reviewing the procedure for taking a telephone prescription. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the newly licensed nurse understands the process?

"Another nurse should listen to the phone call"*

A nurse is proving discharge instructions for a client who has a new prescription for an antihypertensive medication. Which of the following statements should the nurse give?

"Change positions slowly when you move from sitting to standing"*

A nurse is completing discharge teaching for a client who has a new prescription for transdermal patches. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the instructions?

"I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair"

A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The medication has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to administer this medication?

One

A nurse reviewing a client's health record notes a new prescription for lisinopril 10 mg PO once every day. The nurse should identify this as which of the following types of prescriptions?

Routine

The nurse is monitoring a client who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) for adverse effects. Which findings are characteristics of digoxin toxicity? *Select all that apply.* 1. Tremmors 2. Diarrhea 3. Irritability 4. Blurred vision 5. Nausea and vomiting

2, 4, 5 Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside. The risk of toxicity can occur with the use of this medication. Toxicity can lead to life-threatening events and the nurse needs to monitor the client closely for signs of toxicity. Early signs of toxicity include gastrointestinal manifestations such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Subsequent manifestations include headache; visual disturbances such as diplopia, blurred visions, yellow-green halos, and photophobia; drowsiness; fatigue; and weakness. Cardiac rhythm abnormalities can also occur. The nurse also monitors the digoxin level. The optimal therapeutic range for digoxin is 05. to 0.8 ng/mL

The nurse provides discharge instructions to a client who is taking warfarin sodium,. Which statement, by the client, reflects the *need for further teaching*? 1. "I will avoid alcohol consumption" 2. "I will take my pills every day at the same time" 3. "I have already called my family to pick up a MedicAlert bracelet." 4. I will take coated aspirin for my headaches because it will coat my stomach."

4. I will take coated aspirin for my headaches because it will coat my stomach." Aspirin-containing products need to avoided when a client is taking this medication. Alcohol consumption should be avoided by a client taking warfarin sodium. Taking the prescribed medication at the same time each day increases client compliance. The MedicAlert bracelet provided health care personnel with emergency information.

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking oral oxycodone. The client states he is also taking ibuprofen in three recommended doses daily. The nurse should identify that an interaction between these two medications will cause which of the following?

An increase in the expected therapeutic effect of both medications

A nurse is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client experiences permanent extrapyramidal effects caused by a previous medication. The nurse should recognize that the medication affected which of the following systems in the client?

Central nervous*

A nurse if preparing to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Distend the veins by using a blood pressure cuff*

A nurse is teaching a client who is taking digoxin and has a new prescription for colesevelam. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? a. "take digoxin with your morning dose of colesevelam" b. "your sodium and potassium levels will be monitored periodically while taking colesevelam" c. "Watch for bleeding or bruising while taking colesevelam" d. "Take colesevelam with food and at least one glass of water"

d. "Take colesevelam with food and at least one glass of water"

A nurse is assessing a client who is taking digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of digoxin toxicity? a. bruising b. report of metallic taste c. muscle pain d. report of anorexia

d. report of anorexia

A nurse is preparing to administer an IM does of penicillin to a client who has a new prescription. The client states she took penicillin 3 years ago and developed a rash. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Withhold the medication*

Intravenous heparin therapy is prescribed for a client. While implementing this prescription, the nurse ensures that which medication is available on the nursing unit? 1. Vitamin K 2. Protamine sulfate 3. Potassium chloride 4. Aminocaproic acid

2. Protamine sulfate The antidote to heparin is protamine sulfate; it should be readily available for use if excessive bleeding or hemorrhage should occur. Vitamin k is an antidote for warfarin sodium. Potassium chloride is administered for a potassium deficit. Aminocaproic acid is the antidote for thrombolytic therapy.

A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving a continuous heparin infusion at 1000 units/hr. The nurse would determine that the client is receiving the therapeutic effect based on which of the following results? 1. Prothrombin time of 12.5 seconds 2. Activated partial thromboplastin time of 60 seconds 3. Activated partial thromboplastin time of 28 seconds 4. Activated partial thromboplastin time longer than 120 seconds

2. Activated partial thromboplastin time of 60 seconds Common laboratory ranges for activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) are 30 to 40 seconds. Because the aPTT should be 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value, the client's aPTT would be considered therapeutic if it was 60 seconds. Prothrombin time assesses the response to warfarin therapy.

Prior to administering a client's daily dose of digoxin, the nurse reviews the client's laboratory data and notes the following results: serum calcium, 9.8 mg/dL; serum magnesium, 1.0 mg/dL; serum potassium, 4.1 mEq/L; serum creatinine, 0.9 mg/dL. Which result should alert the nurse that the client is at risk for digoxin toxicity? 1. Serum calcium level 2. Serum potassium level 3. Serum creatinine level 4. Serum magnesium level

4. Serum magnesium level An increased risk of toxicity exists in clients with hypercalcemia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypothyroidism, and impaired renal function. The calcium, creatinine, and potassium levels are all within normal limits. The normal range for magnesium, is 1.3 to 2.1 mEq/L and the results in the correct option are reflective of hypomagnesemia.

A nurse manager is reviewing the facility's policies for IV therapy with the members of his team. The nurse manager should remind the team the which of the following techniques helps minimize the risk of catheter embolism?

Avoiding reinserting the needle into an IV catheter*

A nurse is planning to administer a first dose of captopril to a client who has hypertension. Which of the following medications can intensify first dose hypotension? (select all that apply) a. simvastatin b. hydrochlorothiazide c. pheytoin d. clonidine e. aliskiren

B. hydrochlorothiazide d. clonidine e. aliskiren

A nurse is reviewing a new prescription for ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for nausea and vomiting for a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum. The nurse should clarify which of the following parts of the prescription with the provider?

D.) Frequency

The nurse is monitoring a client who is taking propranolol (Inderal LA). Which assessment data indicates a potential adverse complication associated with this medication? 1. The development of complaints of insomnia. 2. The development of auditory expiratory wheezes. 3. a baseline blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg followed by a blood pressure of 138/72 mmHg after two doses of the medication. 4. A baseline resting heart rate of 88 beats/minute followed by a resting heart rate of 72 beats/minute after two doses of the medication.

2. The development of auditory expiratory wheezes. Audible expiratory wheezes may indicate a serious adverse reaction, bronchospasm. Beta blockers may induce this reaction, particularly in clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthma. Normal decreases in blood pressure and hear rate are expected. Insomnia is a frequent mild side effect and should be monitored.

A client being treated for heart failure is administered intravenous bumetanide. Which outcome indicates the medication has achieved the expected effect? 1. Cough becomes productive of frothy pink sputum 2. Urine output increases from 10 mL/hour to greater than 50 mL hourly 3. The serum potassium level changes from 3.8 to 3.1 mEq/L 4. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) factor increases from 200 to 262 pg/mL

2. Urine output increases from 10 mL/hour to greater than 50 mL hourly Bumetanide is a diuretic and expected outcomes include increased urine output, decreased crackles, and decreased weight. Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

A client with a clot in the right atrium is receiving a heparin sodium infusion at 1000 units/hour and warfarin sodium 7.5 mg at 5:00 pm daily. The morning laboratory results are as follows: activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), 32 seconds; international normalized ratio (INR), 1.3. The nurse should take which action based on the clients laboratory results? 1. Collaborate with the HCP to discontinue the heparin infusion and administer the warfarin sodium as prescribed. 2. Collaborate with the HCP tp obtain a prescription to increase the heparin infusion and administer the warfarin sodium as prescribed. 3. Collaborate with the HCP to withhold the warfarin sodium since the client is receiving a heparin infusion and the aPTT is within the therapeutic range. 4. Collaborate withe the HCP to continue the heparin infusion at the same rate and to discuss the use of dabigatran etexilate in place of warfarin sodium

2. Collaborate with the HCP tp obtain a prescription to increase the heparin infusion and administer the warfarin sodium as prescribed. When a client is receiving warfarin for clot prevention due to atrial fibrillation, an INR of 2 to 3 is appropriate for most clients. Until the INR has achieved a therapeutic range, the client should be maintained on a continuous heparin infusion with the aPTT ranging between 60 and 80 seconds. Therefore, the nurse should collaborate withe the HCO to obtain a prescription to increase the heparin infusion and to administer the warfarin as prescribed.

The nurse should report which assessment finding to the health care provider (HCP) before initiating thrombolytic therapy in a client with pulmonary embolism? 1. Adventitious breath sounds 2. Temperature of 99.4 orally 3. Blood pressure of 198/110 mm Hg 4. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute

3. Blood pressure of 198/110 mm Hg Thrombolytic therapy is contraindicated in a number of preexisting conditions in which there is a risk of uncontrolled bleeding, similar to the case in anticoagulant therapy. Thrombolytic therapy also is contraindicated in severe uncontrolled hypertension because of the risk of cerebral hemorrhage. Therefore, the nurse would report the results of the blood pressure to the HCP before initiating therapy.

The nurse is planning to administer hydrochlorothiazide to a client. The nurse should monitor for which adverse effects related to the administration of this medication? 1. Hypouricemia, hyperkalemia 2. Increased risk of osteoporosis 3. Hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, sulfa allergy 4. Hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, penicillin allergy

3. Hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, sulfa allergy Thiazide diuretics such as hydrochlorothiazide are sulfa-based medications, and a client with a sulfa allergy is at risk for an allergic reaction. Aldo, clients are at risk for hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, hypercalcemia, hyperlipidemia, and hyperuricemia.

A client is diagnosed ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) and is receiving a tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase. Which action is a *priority* nursing intervention? 1. Monitor for kidney failure. 2. Monitor psychosocial status. 3. Monitor for signs of bleeding. 4. Have heparin sodium available.

3. Monitor for signs of bleeding. Tissue plasminogen activator is a thrombolytic. Hemorrhage is a complication of any type of thrombolytic medication. The client is monitored for bleeding. Monitoring for renal failure and monitoring the client's psychosocial status are important but are not the most critical interventions. Heparin may be administered after thrombolytic therapy, but the question is not asking about follow-up medications.

A client receiving thrombolytic therapy with a continuous infusion of alteplase (Activase) suddenly becomes extremely anxious and complains of itching. The nurse hears stridor and notes generalized urticaria and hypotension. Which nursing action is the priority? 1. Administer oxygen and protamine sulfate. 2. Cut the infusion rate in half and sit the client up in bed. 3. Stop the infusion and call for the Rapid Response Team (RRT). 4. Administer dyphenhydramine and epinephrone and continue the infusion.

3. Stop the infusion and call for the Rapid Response Team (RRT). The client is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction. Therefore, the priority action is to stop the infusion and notify the RRT. The healthcare provider should be contacted once the client has been stabilized. The client may be treated with epinephrine, antihistamines, and corticosteroids as prescribed, but the infusion should not be continued.

The home health care nurse is visiting a client with elevated triglyceride levels and a serum cholesterol level of 398 mg/dL. The client is taking cholestyramine (Questran) and the nurse teaches the client about the medication. Which statement, by the client, indicates the *need for further teaching*? 1. "Constipation and bloating might be a problem." 2. "I'll continue to watch my diet and reduce my fats." 3. "Walking a mile each day will help the whole process." 4. "I'll continue my nicotinic acid from the health food store."

4. "I'll continue my nicotinic acid from the health food store." Nicotinic acid, even an over-the-counter form, should be avoided because it may lead to liver abnormalities. All lipid-lowering medications also can cause liver abnormalities, so a combination of nicotinic acid and cholestyramine resin needs to be avoided. Constipation and bloating are the 2 most common adverse effects. Walking and the reduction of fats in the diet are therapeutic measures to reduce cholesterol and triglyceride levels.

A client is prescribed nicotinic acid (niacin) for hyperlipidemia and the nurse provides instructions to the client about the medication. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions? 1. "It is not necessary to avoid the use of alcohol." 2. " The medication should be taken with meals to decrease flushing." 3. Clay-colored stools are a common side effect and should not be of concern." 4. "Ibuprofen IB taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid should decrease the flushing."

4. "Ibuprofen IB taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid should decrease the flushing." Flushing is an adverse effect of this medications. Aspirin or a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug can be taken 30 minute prior to taking the medication to decrease flushing. Alcohol consumption needs to be avoided because it will enhance this effect. The medication should be taken with meals to decrease gastrointestinal upset; however, taking the medication with meals has no effect on the flushing. Clay-colored stools are a sign of hepatic dysfunction and should be reported to the health care provider immediately.

A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is pregnant and is at her first prenatal visit. Which of the following immunizations may the nurse administer safely to this client?

Inactivated influenza vaccine*

A client who is receiving digoxin daily has a serum potassium level of 3 mEq/L (3 mmol/L) and is complaining of anorexia. The HCP prescribes a serum digoxin level to be done. The nurse checks the results and should expect to note which level that is outside of the therapeutic range? 1. 0.3 ng/ml 2. 0.5 ng/ml 3. 0.8 ng/ml 4. 1.0 ng/ml

4. 1.0 ng/dl The optimal therapeutic range for digoxin is 0.5 to 0.8 ng/ml. If the client is experiencing symptoms such as anorexia and is experiencing hypokalemia as evidenced by a low potassium level, digoxin toxicity is a concern. Therefore, option 4 is correct because it is outside of the therapeutic level and an elevated level.

A client is being treated with procainamide for a cardiac dysrhythmia. Following IV administration of the medication, the client complains of dizziness. What interventions should the nurse take *first*? 1. Measure the heart rate on the rhythm strip. 2. Administer prescribed nitroglycerine tablets. 3. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram immediately. 4. Auscultate the client's apical pulse and obtain a blood pressure.

4. Auscultate the client's apical pulse and obtain a blood pressure. Signs of toxicity from procainamide include confusion, dizziness, drowsiness, decreased urination, nausea, vomiting, and tachydysrhythmias. If the client complains of dizziness, the nurse should assess the vital signs first. Although measuring the heart rate on the rhythm strip and obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram ay be interventions, these would be done after the vital signs are taken. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator and will lower the blood pressure.

a nurse is teaching a client who has angina how to use nitroglycerin transdermal ointment. The nurse should include which of the following instructions? a. "Remove the prior dose before applying a new dose" b. "Rub the ointment directly into your skin until it is no longer visible" c. "Cover the applied ointment with a clean gauze pad" d. "Apply the ointment to the same skin area each time"

a. "remove the prior dose before applying a new dose"

A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving furosemide IV for peripheral edema. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plane of care? (select all that apply) a. assess for tinnitus b. report urine output 50 mL/hr c. monitor serum potassium levels d. elevate the head of bed slowly before ambulation e. recommend eating a banana daily

a. assess for tinnitus c. monitor serum potassium levels d. elevate head of bed slowly before ambulation e. recommend eating a banana daily

a nurse is reviewing the health record of a client who asks about using propranolol to treat hypertension. The nurse should recognize which of the following conditions is a contraindication for taking propranolol? a. asthma b. glaucoma c. hypertension d. tachycardia

a. asthma

A nurse is caring for a client who received IV verapamil to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The client's pulse rate is now 98 beats/min and his blood pressure is 74/44 mmHg. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following IV medications? a. calcium gluconate b. sodium bicarbonate c. potassium chloride d. magnesium sulfate

a. calcium gluconate

a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? a. contact provider if heart rate is less than 60 beats/min b. check pulse rate for 30 seconds and multiply result by 2 c. increase intake of sodium d. take with food if nausea occurs

a. contact provider if heart rate is less than 60 beats/min

A nurse is taking a medication history from a client who has angina and is to begin taking ranolazine. The nurse should report which of the following medications in the client's history that can interact with ranolazine? (select all that apply) a. digoxin b. simvastatin c. verapamil d. amlodipine e. nitroglycerin transdermal patch

a. digoxin b. simvastatin c. verapamil

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor and report which of the following adverse effects that is a manifestation of digoxin toxicity? (Select all that apply) a. fatigue b. constipation c. anorexia d. rash e. diplopia

a. fatigue c. anorexia e. diplopia

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for verapamil to control hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? a. increase the amount of dietary fiber in the diet b. drink grapefruit juice daily to increase Vitamin C intake c. decrease the amount of calcium in the diet d. withhold food for 1 hour after the medication is taken

a. increase the amount of dietary fiber in the diet

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patch for angina pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? a. remove the patch each evening b. cut each patch in half if angina attacks are under control c. take off the nitroglycerin patch for 30 minutes if a headache occurs d. apply a new patch every 48 hours

a. remove the patch each evening

a nurse is providing information to a client who has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following information should the nurse include? a. take the medication with food b. plan to take the medication at bedtime c. expect increased swelling of the ankles d. fluid intake should be limited in the morning

a. take the medication with food

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is starting simvastatin. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? a. take this medication in the evening b. change position slowly when rising from a chair c. maintain a steady intake of green leafy vegetables d. consume no more than 1L/day of fluid

a. take this medication in the evening

A nurse is teaching a client who has angina pectoris and is learning how to treat acute anginal attacks. The client asks, "What is my next step if I take one tablet, wait 5 minutes, but still have anginal pain?" Which of the following responses should the nurse make?" a. "Take two more sublingual tablets at the same time" b. "Call the emergency response team" c. "Take a sustained-release nitroglycerin capsule" d. "wait another 5 minutes then take a second sublingual tablet"

b. "Call the emergency response team"

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for niacin to reduce cholesterol. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of niacin? (select all that apply) a. muscle aches b. hyperglycemia c. hearing loss d. flushing of the skin e. jaundice

b. hyperglycemia d. flushing of the skin e. jaundice

A nurse is planning caring for a client who has a new prescription for toresmide. The nurse should plan to monitor for which of the following adverse reactions of this medication? (select all that apply) a. respiratory acidosis b. hypokalemia c. hypotension d. ototoxicity e. ventricular dysrhythmias

b. hypokalemia c. hypotension d. ototoxicity e. ventricular dysrhythmias

A nurse is administering a dopamine infusion at a low dose to a client who has severe heart failure. Which of the following findings is an expected effect of this medication? a. lowered heart rate b. increased myocardial contractility c. decreased conduction through the AV node d. vasoconstriction of renal blood vessels

b. increased myocardial contractility

a nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a new prescription for digoxin and takes multiple other medications. The nurse should recognize that concurrent use of which of the following medications places the client at risk for digoxin toxicity? a. phenytoin b. verapamil c. warfarin d. aluminum hydroxide

b. verapamil

a nurse is completing a nursing history for a client who takes simvastatin. The nurse should identify which of the following disorders as a contraindication to adding ezetimibe to the client's medications? a. history of severe constipation b. history of hypertension c. active hepatitis C d. type 2 diabetes mellitus

c. active hepatitis C

A nurse is preparing to administer propranolol to a client who has a dysrhythmia. Which of the following actions should the nurse plant to take? a. hold propranolol for an apical pulse greater than 100 beats/min b. administer propranolol to increase the client's blood pressure c. assist the client when she sits up or stands after taking this medication d. check for hypokalemia frequently due to the risk for propranolol toxicity

c. assist the client when she sits up or stands after taking this medication

A nurse in an acute care facility is caring for a client who is receiving IV nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication? a. intestinal ileus b. neutropenia c. delirium d. hyperthermia

c. delirium

a nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? a. serum sodium 144 mEq/L b. urine output 120 mL in 4 hours c. serum potassium 5.2 mEq/L d. blood pressure 140/90 mmHg

c. serum potassium 5.2 mEq/L

a nurse is caring for a client who has increased intracranial pressure and is receiving mannitol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? a. blood glucose 150 mg/dL b. urine output 40 mL/hour c. dyspnea d. bilateral equal pupil size

c. dyspnea

A nurse is collecting data from a client who is taking gemfibrozil. which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as an adverse reaction to the medication? a. mental status changes b. tremor c. jaundice d. pneumonia

c. jaundice

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for captopril for hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication? a. hypokalemia b. hypernatremia c. neutropenia d. bradycardia

c. neutropenia

A nurse in a provider's office is monitoring serum electrolytes for four older adult clients who take digoxin. Which of the following electrolyte values increases a client's risk for digoxin toxicity? a. calcium 9.2 mg/dL b. calcium 10.3 mg/dL c. potassium 3.4 mEq/L d. potassium 4.8 mEq/L

c. potassium 3.4 mEq/L

A nurse is assessing a client who is taking amiodarone to treat atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of amiodarone toxicity? a. light yellow urine b. report of tinnitus c. productive cough d. blue-gray skin discoloration

c. productive cough

A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed isosorbide mononitrate for chronic stable angina and develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer? a. furosemide b. captopril c. ranolazine d. metoprolol

d. metoprolol