Pharmacology Exam 4 study guide (Ch. 32, 33, 34, 41, 42, & 43)

9. Select the mechanisms by which swelling agents increase defecation. (LO 34.6) A. soak up water and distend the rectum B. irritate the mucosal lining of the intestine C. inhibit stool formation in the large intestine D. coat the fecal matter E. complex with bile salts to produce diarrhea

c

8. Which of the following is the correct statement? (LO 43.4) A. cinchonism is a side effect of paromomycin from tree bark B. malaria is symptomatic when it invades the liver C. tetracyclines/doxycycline have no place in the treatment of malaria D. metronidazole should not be given in the first trimester of pregnancy E. metronidazole causes methemoglobinemia

d

9. The antitubercular drug that can cause loss of visual acuity and optic neuritis is (LO 41.11) A. ethambutol B. streptomycin C. isoniazid D. pyrazinamide E. rifampin

A

10. The drug indicated for treatment of vancomycin-resistant infections is (LO 41.10 A. piperacillin B. linezolid C. ticarcillin D. ceftriaxone E. clarithromycin

B

2. The drug used in the treatment of asthma that blocks the leukotriene receptor is (LO 32.5) A. fluticasone (Flovent) B. cromolyn (Intal) C. albuterol (Proventil) D. montelukast (Singulair) E. tiotropium (Spiriva)

D

9. Select the mechanisms of action for terbutaline. (LO 32.4) A. inhibit release of mediators from mast cells B. block beta-2 receptors C. relax smooth muscle D. only inhibit release of mediators from mast cells and relax smooth muscle E. all of these

D

1. Griseofulvin is useful in dermatophytic infections because it (LO 42.4) A. binds to keratin B. is fungicidal C. forms ergosterol in hair and nails D. incorporates itself into fungal RNA E. inhibits fungal reverse transcriptase

a

2. A patient presents with severe diarrhea. Upon questioning, the patient mentions that he returned from Thailand a week ago. The patient is diagnosed with "traveler's diarrhea." The drug of choice for this patient would include (LO 34.3) A. rifaximin B. bulk laxatives C. lubiprostone D. methylnaltrexone E. polyethylene glycol-electrolyte solution (PEG-ES)

a

2. Protozoal infections include all of the following except: (LO 43.1, 43.4) A. Tinea pedis B. Trichomonas C. Giardia lamblia D. Toxoplasma gondii E. Plasmodia

a

3. Amebiasis (LO 43.3) A. causes diarrhea and intense intestinal pain B. stops electrolyte loss from the gut C. is not caused by contaminated streams and water supply D. only affects the lumen of the intestine E. is the name for hepatic malaria

a

3. Which of the following describes a systemic fungal infection? (LO 42.1) A. candidemia B. vaginal candidiasis C. influenza D. Staphylococcus E. syncytial respiratory fungus (SRF)

a

4. Which of the following pairs are antifungal drugs? (LO 42.3) A. fluconazole and micafungin B. ritonavir and ketoprofen C. dihydroepiandosterone and inositol D. mebendazole and gentian violet E. nelfinavir and zidovudine

a

5. Which antifungal drug is matched with its correct mechanism of action? (LO 42.3) A. echinocandins inhibit polysaccharide (glucan) synthesis in the cell wall B. flucytosine binds to the cell membrane C. ticonazole is an antimetabolite for fungal RNA D. amphotericin B binds to a cytochrome P450-dependent enzyme E. ketoconazole inhibits proteases in the host cell nuclei

a

7. The causes of peptic ulcers include (LO 33.2) A. not enough mucosal lining in the stomach B. suppressed acid production C. regurgitation of bile acids into the esophagus D. being genetically predisposed E. hypersecretion of mucus in the stomach

a

7. Which of the following is NOT transmitted through contaminated food or water? (LO 43.4) A. Trichomonas and Toxoplasma B. Giardia lamblia C. Entamoeba histolytica D. amebiasis E. Pneumocystis jiroveci

a

1. Which of the following drugs kills pinworms? (LO 43.5) A. voriconizole B. mebendazole and pyrantel pamoate C. ritonovir D. flucytocine E. quinine

b

2. The bactericidal antibiotic that interferes with bacterial cell-wall synthesis and that may cause "red man syndrome" if injected too rapidly is (LO 41.10) A. piperacillin B. vancomycin C. gentamicin D. clindamycin E. cephalexin

b

2. Which of the following is NOT correct about antifungal drugs or fungal infection? (LO 42.5) A. systemic infection may occur in patients who are receiving drugs to suppress their immune system B. warts are an example of a dermatophytic fungal infection C. the majority of antifungal drugs interfere with fungal cell-wall integrity D. amphotericin B is associated with serious renal toxicity E. topical antifungal drugs are available OTC

b

3. The only drug class that provides immediate relief of an acute asthmatic attack is (LO 32.4) A. anticholinergics B. beta adrenergics C. methylxanthines D. corticosteroids E. leukotriene inhibitors

b

5. A patient is newly diagnosed with mild GERD. Which of the following medications might be prescribed first? (LO 33.4) A. barbiturates B. H2 -receptor antagonists C. metoclopramide D. dronabinol (Marinol) E. OTC Emetrol

b

5. The antibiotic whose adverse effects include heartburn, photosensitivity, and possible depression of bone growth in young children is (LO 41.6) A. erythromycin B. tetracycline C. gentamicin D. clindamycin E. clarithromycin

b

5. Which combination is the correct drug and organism? (LO 43.2, 43.4) A. metronidazole: Plasmodium vivax B. primaquine radical cure: Plasmodium C. paromomycin: Trichomonas vaginalis D. tinidazole: hepatic malaria E. quinine: Giardia lamblia

b

5. Which of the following laxatives would be ordered before a colonoscopy? (LO 34.5, 34.6) A. docusate sodium B. polyethylene glycol C. psyllium hydrophilic D. mineral oil E. bismuth subsalicylate

b

6. Paromomycin (LO 43.5) A. paralyzes parasitic worms in the intestine B. eliminates intestinal bacteria as an antibiotic C. is in the chloroquine family of drugs D. is the drug of choice for Giardia E. must achieve a minimum blood level to be effective

b

6. The drug used in asthma to block IgE antibodies is (LO 32.5) A. cromolyn B. omalizumab C. ipratropium D. guaifenesin E. nedocromil

b

7. Which is the correct fungal infection site of action and common name? (LO 42.1) A. warm moist areas on the feet: onychomycosis B. Candida in the mouth: thrush C. toe- and fingernails: aspergillosis D. hair protein: candidiasis E. respiratory tract: cytomegalofungus

b

8. The primary therapeutic goal in treatment of GERD and peptic ulcer is to (LO 33.2, 33.5) A. increase mucosal production B. suppress acid production and relieve symptoms C. prevent erosion of ileum D. maintain levels of magnesium and calcium with antacids E. get patient on prostaglandins

b

9. Select the mechanism of action for 5-HT 3 antagonists. (LO 33.6) A. prevent labyrinthine stimulation of emesis B. prevent serotonin from stimulating the CTZ C. block stimulation of dopamine receptors D. increase secretions from ECL cells E. coat the stomach lining

b

8. Which of the following is correct about viruses? (LO 42.5) A. active infection is the only way to develop immunity to the microorganism B. viruses attach to the keratin protein and remain dormant for years C. viruses can quickly develop resistance to drugs D. viruses die as soon as they land on hard surfaces E. respiratory viral infections are treated with acyclovir

c

1. The bronchodilator drug that would provide the longest duration of action is (LO 32.4) A. epinephrine (Adrenaline) B. ipratropium (Atrovent) C. salmeterol (Serevent) D. theophylline (Elixophylline) E. terbutaline (Brethine)

c

1. The defecation reflex (LO 34.1) A. is a voluntary process B. contracts the external anal sphincter C. is initiated by distension of the colon D. propels feces into the small intestine E. is controlled by the sympathetic nervous system

c

1. The penicillin that provides good oral absorption and that is effective against most common gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria is (LO 41.3) A. piperacillin B. aztreonam C. amoxicillin D. ticarcillin E. penicillin G

c

1. Which of the three phases of gastric acid secretion is stimulated by the distention of the stomach? (LO 33.1) A. cephalic B. colonic C. gastric D. intestinal E. activation of the CTZ

c

10. Metoclopramide (Reglan) is used to treat which ailments of the GI tract? (LO 33.4) A. GI hypermotility B. irritable bowel syndrome C. newly diagnosed peptic ulcers D. neurogenic colon E. GERD and chemotherapy induced vomiting

c

11. The symptoms of dysentery do NOT include (LO 43.3) A. tenesmus B. abdominal pain C. jaundice D. dehydration E. fatigue

c

13. Which of the following is an adverse reaction of mefloquine? (LO 43.4) A. disulfiram-like reaction B. cinchonism C. Stevens-Johnson syndrome D. tenesmus E. decrease in the PR to QT interval on ECG Answer: C

c

3. The antibiotic that irreversibly inhibits bacterial protein synthesis and whose adverse effects may include ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity is (LO 41.5) A. doxycycline B. clarithromycin C. gentamicin D. clindamycin E. azithromycin

c

4. Dicloxacillin is (LO 41.3) A. indicated for gram-negative infections B. classified as a third-generation penicillin C. indicated for resistant staphylococcal infections D. associated with causing "red man syndrome" E. associated with causing pseudomembranous colitis

c

4. The mechanism of action of cromolyn sodium (Intal) is to (LO 32.6) A. produce bronchodilation B. increase expectoration of mucus C. inhibit release of mast cell mediators D. liquefy bronchial secretions E. block leukotrienes

c

4. Which of the following drugs blocks the release of HCl from the parietal gland? (LO 33.4) A. antacids B. H2 -receptor antagonists C. proton pump inhibitors D. sucralfate E. misoprostil

c

7. Choose the mechanism of action of adsorbents antidiarrheal drugs. (LO 34.4) A. kill bacteria B. decrease serotonin release C. form a complex with irritating substance D. absorbed into blood circulation to work on the system E. complex with glucose in the intestinal lumen

c

8. Parasympathetic activation of the respiratory tract causes which of the following? (LO 32.3) A. bronchodilation B. increased cyclic AMP C. increased mucus secretion D. stimulation of the beta-2 receptors

c

8. The main pharmacokinetic feature of aminoglycosides is that they are (LO 41.5) A. lipid soluble B. well absorbed orally C. excreted mostly unchanged in the urine D. devoid of serious adverse effects E. undergo extensive metabolism

c

8. Which of the following drugs are used to stimulate defecation? (LO 34.3, 34.5) A. 5-HT 3 antagonists B. adsorbents C. antimotility drugs D. cathartics E. cholestyramine resin

c

10. The mechanisms of action for antiviral medications include (LO 42.7) A. changing cell-wall synthesis B. binding to ergosterol C. inhibiting cell mitosis D. inhibiting neuraminidase E. facilitating viral fusion to the host cell

d

10. What is NOT an adverse effect of osmotic laxatives? (LO 34.5) A. depressed CNS B. decreased muscle function C. dehydration D. respiratory depression E. flatulence and cramps

d

12. Choose the medications effective in treating parasitic worms. (LO 43.5) A. pyrimethamine B. doxycycline C. mefloquine D. praziquantel E. tinidazole

d

13. Which is NOT a way fungi are able to infect their human host? (LO 42.1) A. antibiotic overuse B. poorly cleaned foot baths C. inhalation of fungal spores D. invasion of host cell living tissue E. invasion of dead tissue in hair, skin, and nails

d

2. What is the most common etiology of peptic ulcer disease? (LO 33.3) A. alcohol B. GERD (gastroesophageal reflux disease) C. NSAIDs (nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs) D. Helicobacter pylori E. hypersecretory conditions

d

3. What is the most common etiology of peptic ulcer disease? (LO 33.3) A. alcohol B. GERD (gastroesophageal reflux disease) C. NSAIDs (nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs) D. Helicobacter pylori E. hypersecretory conditions

d

3. Which of the following treatments for simple diarrhea works by forming a complex with the irritant? (LO 34.3) A. antibiotics B. opioid derivatives C. anticholinergics D. adsorbents E. lactulose

d

4. In the malaria life cycle (LO 43.1) A. there is no life or stage outside of human B. organisms rapidly multiply in the liver C. eggs are shed in human feces D. chills and fever coincide with bursting red blood cells E. gametes must enter WBC to reproduce

d

6. The antibiotic class that is usually considered for the treatment of Rocky Mountain spotted fever, Lyme disease, and cholera is (LO 41.6) A. aminoglycosides B. macrolides C. penicillins D. tetracyclines E. cephalosporins

d

6. Which of the following is NOT correct about these antifungal drugs? (LO 42.3, 42.4) A. caspofungin and micafungin are administered by slow IV infusion B. voriconozole and posaconazole are man-made drugs (synthetic) C. anidulafungin undergoes degradation in the bloodstream to peptide fragments D. vaginal yeast infection (candidiasis) can only be treated with prescription drugs E. amphotericin B, nystatin, and azoles change fungal cell permeability

d

7. Bone marrow suppression, aplastic anemia, and "gray baby syndrome" are associated with (LO 41.10) A. linezolid B. clindamycin C. gentamicin D. chloramphenicol E. ciprofloxacin

d

10. Select the ways antimalarial drugs work to eradicate protozoan infections. (LO 43.2) A. interfere with metabolism of protozoans B. eliminate intestinal bacteria C. inhibit the formation of hemozoin D. inhibit the conversion of folic acid to folinic acid E. all of these

e

11. Which of the following is NOT true of the treatment for viral infections? (LO 42.5) A. they are difficult to treat due to host cell invasion B. immunity can be gained through the attenuated live virus C. treatment can be given via an intranasal spray D. the vaccines are contraindicated in people allergic to eggs E. effective treatment occurs only with respiratory drug administration

e

12. Which is NOT a potential side effect of antiviral drugs? (LO 42.8) A. blurred vision and tinnitus B. dysgeusia C. nephrotoxicity D. neutropenia E. hyperphagia

e

5. The pharmacologic actions of theophylline (Elixophylline) in the treatment of COPD include (LO 32.4) A. bronchodilation B. increased contractility of respiratory muscles C. increased mucociliary activity D. only bronchodilation and increased mucociliary activity E. all of these

e

6. Which of the following is NOT a primary cause of diarrhea? (LO 34.2) A. increased intestinal motility B. inflammation C. osmotic imbalance D. drug therapy E. hydration from daily water intake

e

7. The chemical mediators involved in asthma include (LO 32.2) A. prostaglandins B. ECF-A C. leukotrienes D. only prostaglandins and leukotrienes E. all of these

e

9. Which drug is effective against systemic viral infections? (LO 42.6) A. griseofulvin B. butenafine C. gentian violet D. clotrimazole E. enfuvirtide

e

9. Which of the following ways can protozoa infect humans? (LO 43.1) A. via sexual intercourse B. via contaminated food C. via mosquitos D. via contaminated ice cubes E. all of these

e