Pharmacology HESI Practice
A client is being treated for osteoporosis with alendronate (Fosamax), and the nurse has completed discharge teaching regarding medication administration. Which morning schedule would indicate to the nurse that the client teaching has been effective? A) Take medication, go for a 30 minute morning walk, then eat breakfast. B) Take medication, rest in bed for 30 minutes, eat breakfast, go for morning walk. C) Take medication with breakfast, then take a 30 minute morning walk. D) Go for a 30 minute morning walk, eat breakfast, then take medication.
A Alendronate (Fosamax) is best absorbed when taken thirty minutes before eating in the morning. The client should also be advised to remain in an upright position for at least thirty minutes after taking the medication to reduce the risk of esophageal reflux and irritation. (A) is the best schedule to meet these needs.
A female client with rheumatoid arthritis take ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg PO 4 times a day. To prevent gastrointestinal bleeding, misoprostol (Cytotec) 100 mcg PO is prescribed. Which information is most important for the nurse to include in client teaching? A) Use contraception during intercourse. B) Ensure the Cytotec is taken on an empty stomach. C) Encourage oral fluid intake to prevent constipation. D) Take Cytotec 30 minutes prior to Motrin.
A Cytotec, a synthetic form of a prostaglandin, is classified as pregnancy Category X and can act as an abortifacient, so the client should be instructed to use contraception during intercourse (A) to prevent loss of an early pregnancy. (B) is not necessary. A common side effect of Cytotec is diarrhea, so constipation prevention strategies are usually not needed (C). Cytotec and Motrin should be taken together (D) to provide protective properties against gastrointestinal bleeding.
A category X drug is prescribed for a young adult female client. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to teach this client? A) Use a reliable form of birth control. B) Avoid exposure to ultra violet light. C) Refuse this medication if planning pregnancy. D) Abstain from intercourse while on this drug.
A Drugs classified in the category X place a client who is in the first trimester of pregnancy at risk for teratogenesis, so women in the childbearing years should be counseled to use a reliable form of birth control (A) during drug therapy. (B) is not a specific precaution with Category X drugs. The client should be encouraged to discuss plans for pregnancy with the healthcare provider, so a safer alternative prescription (C) can be provided if pregnancy occurs. Although the risk of birth defects during pregnancy explains the restriction of these drugs during pregnancy, (D) is not indicated.
A client with hyperlipidemia receives a prescription for niacin (Niaspan). Which client teaching is most important for the nurse to provide? A) Expected duration of flushing. B) Symptoms of hyperglycemia. C) Diets that minimize GI irritation. D) Comfort measures for pruritus.
A Flushing of the face and neck, lasting up to an hour, is a frequent reason for discontinuing niacin. Inclusion of this effect in client teaching (A) may promote compliance in taking the medication. While (B, C, and D) are all worthwhile instructions to help clients minimize or cope with normal side effects associated with niacin (Niaspan), flushing is intense and causes the most concern for the client.
An adult client has prescriptions for morphine sulfate 2.5 mg IV q6h and ketorolac (Toradol) 30 mg IV q6h. Which action should the nurse implement? A) Administer both medications according to the prescription. B) Hold the ketorolac to prevent an antagonistic effect. C) Hold the morphine to prevent an additive drug interaction. D) Contact the healthcare provider to clarify the prescription.
A Morphine and ketorolac (Toradol) can be administered concurrently (A), and may produce an additive analgesic effect, resulting in the ability to reduce the dose of morphine, as seen in this prescription. Toradol is an antiinflammatory analgesic, and does not have an antagonistic effect with morphine (B), like an agonist-antagonist medication would have. An additive analgesic effect is desirable (C), because it allows a reduced dose of morphine. This prescription does not require any clarification, and can be administered safely as written (D).
A client is receiving ampicillin sodium (Omnipen) for a sinus infection. The nurse should instruct the client to notify the healthcare provider immediately if which symptom occurs? A) Rash. B) Nausea. C) Headache. D) Dizziness.
A Rash (A) is the most common adverse effect of all penicillins, indicating an allergy to the medication which could result in anaphylactic shock, a medical emergency. (B, C, and D) are common side effects of penicillins that should subside after the body adjusts to the medication. These would not require immediate medical care unless the symptoms persist beyond the first few days or become extremely severe.
An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop) to prevent motion sickness while on a cruise. Which information should the nurse provide to the client? A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure. B) Change the patch every other day while on the cruise. C) Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull. D) Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise.
A Scopolamine, an anticholinergic agent, is used to prevent motion sickness and has a peak onset in 6 hours, so the client should be instructed to apply the patch at least 4 hours before departure (A) on the cruise ship. The duration of the transdermal patch is 72 hours, so (B) is not needed. Scolopamine blocks muscarinic receptors in the inner ear and to the vomiting center, so the best application site of the patch is behind the ear, not at the base of the skull (C). Anticholinergic medications are CNS depressants, so the client should be instructed to avoid alcohol (D) while using the patch.
A client is receiving methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 40 mg IV daily. The nurse anticipates an increase in which laboratory value as the result of this medication? A) Serum glucose. B) Serum calcium. C) Red blood cells. D) Serum potassium.
A Solu-Medrol is a corticosteroid with glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid actions. These effects can lead to hyperglycemia (A), which is reflected as an increase in the serum glucose value. The client taking Solu-Medrol is at risk for hypocalcemia (B) and hypokalemia (D), which result in a decrease, not an increase, in the serum calcium and serum potassium levels. This medication does not adversely affect the RBC count (C).
The nurse is transcribing a new prescription for spironolactone (Adactone) for a client who receives an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Which action should the nurse implement? A) Verify both prescriptions with the healthcare provider. B) Report the medication interactions to the nurse manager. C) Hold the ACE inhibitor and give the new prescription. D) Transcribe and send the prescription to the pharmacy
A The concomitant use of an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor and a potassium-sparing diuretic such as spironolactone, should be given with caution because the two drugs may interact to cause an elevation in serum potassium levels. Although the client is currently receiving an ACE inhibitor, verifying both prescriptions (A) alerts the healthcare provider about the client's medication regimen and provides the safest action before administering the medication. (B) is not necessary at this time. Holding the prescribed antihypertensive medication (C) places the client at risk. The nurse should inform the healthcare provider of the client's medication history before proceeding with the fulfillment of the prescription (D).
Which method of medication administration provides the client with the greatest first-pass effect? A) Oral. B) Sublingual. C) Intravenous. D) Subcutaneous.
A The first-pass effect is a pharmacokinetic phenomenon that is related to the drug's metabolism in the liver. After oral (A) medications are absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract, the drug is carried directly to the liver via the hepatic portal circulation where hepatic inactivation occurs and reduces the bioavailability of the drug. Alternative method of administration, such as sublingual (B), IV (C), and subcutaneous (D) routes, avoid this first-pass effect.
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). During administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is receiving this medication. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide? A) This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation. B) This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection. C) This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs. D) This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal wound.
A Unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is an anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin-mediated conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and is given prophylactically to prevent postoperative venous thrombosis (A) or to treat pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis following knee and abdominal surgeries. Heparin does not dissolve clots but prevents clot extension or further clot formation (C). The anticoagulant heparin does not prevent infection (B) or influence operative wound healing (D).
Which instruction(s) should the nurse give to a female client who just received a prescription for oral metronidazole (Flagyl) for treatment of trichomonas vaginalis? (Select all that apply.) A) Increase fluid intake, especially cranberry juice. B) Do not abruptly discontinue the medication; taper use. C) Check blood pressure daily to detect hypertension. D) Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication. E) Use condoms until treatment is completed. F) Ensure that all sexual partners are treated at the same time.
A, D, E, F Increased fluid intake and cranberry juice (A) are recommended for prevention and treatment of urinary tract infections, which frequently accompany vaginal infections. It is not necessary to taper use of this drug (B) or to check the blood pressure daily (C), as this condition is not related to hypertension. Flagyl can cause a disulfiram-like reaction if taken in conjunction with ingestion of alcohol, so the client should be instructed to avoid alcohol (D). All sexual partners should be treated at the same time (E) and condoms should be used until after treatment is completed to avoid reinfection (F).
Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a controlled-release oxycodone prescription? A) As needed. B) Every 12 hours. C) Every 24 hours. D) Every 4 to 6 hours.
B A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-acting analgesia to relieve moderate to severe pain, so a dosing schedule of every 12 hours (B) provides the best around-the-clock pain management. Controlled-release oxycodone is not prescribed for breakthrough pain on a PRN or as needed schedule (A). (C) is inadequate for continuous pain management. Using a schedule of every 4 to 6 hours (D) may jeopardize patient safety due to cumulative effects.
A client with osteoarthritis receives a new prescription for celecoxib (Celebrex) orally for symptom management. The nurse notes the client is allergic to sulfa. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement prior to administering the first dose? A) Review the client's hemoglobin results. B) Notify the healthcare provider. C) Inquire about the reaction to sulfa. D) Record the client's vital signs.
B Celebrex contains a sulfur molecule, which can lead to an allergic reaction in individuals who are sensitive to sulfonamides, so the healthcare provider should be notified of the client's allergies (B). Although (A, C, and D) are important assessments, it is most important to notify the healthcare provider for an alternate prescription.
While taking a nursing history, the client states, "I am allergic to penicillin." What related allergy to another type of antiinfective agent should the nurse ask the client about when taking the nursing history? A) Aminoglycosides. B) Cephalosporins. C) Sulfonamides. D) Tetracyclines.
B Cross allergies exist between penicillins and cephalosporins (B). Penicillin allergies are unrelated to allergies associated with (A, C, or D).
The healthcare provider prescribes digitalis (Digoxin) for a client diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Which intervention should the nurse implement prior to administering the digoxin? A) Observe respiratory rate and depth. B) Assess the serum potassium level. C) Obtain the client's blood pressure. D) Monitor the serum glucose level.
B Hypokalemia (decreased serum potassium) will precipitate digitalis toxicity in persons receiving digoxin (B). (A and C) will not affect the administration of digoxin. (D) should be monitored if he/she is a diabetic and is perhaps receiving insulin.
In evaluating the effects of lactulose (Cephulac), which outcome should indicate that the drug is performing as intended? A) An increase in urine output. B) Two or three soft stools per day. C) Watery, diarrhea stools. D) Increased serum bilirubin.
B Lactulose is administered to reduce blood ammonia by excretion of ammonia through the stool. Two to three stools a day indicate that lactulose is performing as intended (B). (A) would be expected if the patient received a diuretic. (C) would indicate an overdose of lactulose and is not expected. Lactulose does not affect (D).
The healthcare provider prescribes naloxone (Narcan) for a client in the emergency room. Which assessment data would indicate that the naloxone has been effective? The client's A) statement that the chest pain is better. B) respiratory rate is 16 breaths/minute. C) seizure activity has stopped temporarily. D) pupils are constricted bilaterally.
B Naloxone (Narcan) is a narcotic antagonist that reverses the respiratory depression effects of opiate overdose, so assessment of a normal respiratory rate (B) would indicate that the respiratory depression has been halted. (A, C, and D) are not related to naloxone (Narcan) administration.
In teaching a client who had a liver transplant about cyclosporine (Sandimmune), the nurse should encourage the client to report which adverse response to the healthcare provider? A) Changes in urine color. B) Presence of hand tremors. C) Increasing body hirsutism. D) Nausea and vomiting.
B Neurological complications, such as hand tremors (B), occur in about 50% of clients taking cyclosporine and should be reported. Although this drug can be nephrotoxic, (A) typically does not occur. (C and D) are common side effects, but are not usually severe.
Which medications should the nurse caution the client about taking while receiving an opioid analgesic? A) Antacids. B) Benzodiazepines. C) Antihypertensives. D) Oral antidiabetics.
B Respiratory depression increases with the concurrent use of opioid analgesics and other central nervous system depressant agents, such as alcohol, barbiturates, and benzodiazepines (B). (A and D) do not interact with opiates to produce adverse effects. Antihypertensives (C) may cause morphine-induced hypotension, but should not be withheld without notifying the healthcare provider.
A 43-year-old female client is receiving thyroid replacement hormone following a thyroidectomy. What adverse effects associated with thyroid hormone toxicity should the nurse instruct the client to report promptly to the healthcare provider? A) Tinnitus and dizziness. B) Tachycardia and chest pain. C) Dry skin and intolerance to cold. D) Weight gain and increased appetite.
B Thyroid replacement hormone increases the metabolic rate of all tissues, so common signs and symptoms of toxicity include tachycardia and chest pain (B).
A client receiving albuterol (Proventil) tablets complains of nausea every evening with her 9 p.m. dose. What action should the nurse take to alleviate this side effect? A) Change the time of the dose. B) Hold the 9 p.m. dose. C) Administer the dose with a snack. D) Administer an antiemetic with the dose.
C Administering oral doses with food (C) helps minimize GI discomfort. (A) would be appropriate only if changing the time of the dose corresponds to meal times while at the same time maintaining an appropriate time interval between doses. (B) would disrupt the dosing schedule, and could result in a nontherapeutic serum level of the medication. (D) should not be attempted before other interventions, such as (C), have been proven ineffective in relieving the nausea.
A client asks the nurse if glipizide (Glucotrol) is an oral insulin. Which response should the nurse provide? A) "Yes, it is an oral insulin and has the same actions and properties as intermediate insulin." B) "Yes, it is an oral insulin and is distributed, metabolized, and excreted in the same manner as insulin." C) "No, it is not an oral insulin and can be used only when some beta cell function is present." D) "No, it is not an oral insulin, but it is effective for those who are resistant to injectable insulins."
C An effective oral form of insulin has not yet been developed (C) because when insulin is taken orally, it is destroyed by digestive enzymes. Glipizide (Glucotrol) is an oral hypoglycemic agent that enhances pancreatic production of insulin. (A, B, and D) do not provide accurate information.
Which nursing diagnosis is important to include in the plan of care for a client receiving the angiotensin-2 receptor antagonist irbesartan (Avapro)? A) Fluid volume deficit. B) Risk for infection. C) Risk for injury. D) Impaired sleep patterns.
C Avapro is an antihypertensive agent, which acts by blocking vasoconstrictor effects at various receptor sites. This can cause hypotension and dizziness, placing the client at high risk for injury (C). Avapro does not act as a diuretic (A), impact the immune system (B), or alter sleep patterns (D).
A medication that is classified as a beta-1 agonist is most commonly prescribed for a client with which condition? A) Glaucoma. B) Hypertension. C) Heart failure. D) Asthma.
C Beta-1 agonists improve cardiac output by increasing the heart rate and blood pressure and are indicated in heart failure (C), shock, atrioventricular block dysrhythmias, and cardiac arrest. Glaucoma (A) is managed using adrenergic agents and beta-adrenergic blocking agents. Beta-1 blocking agents are used in the management of hypertension (B). Medications that stimulate beta-2 receptors in the bronchi are effective for bronchoconstriction in respiratory disorders, such as asthma (D).
Which nursing intervention is most important when caring for a client receiving the antimetabolite cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) for chemotherapy? A) Hydrate the client with IV fluids before and after infusion. B) Assess the client for numbness and tingling of extremities. C) Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations. D) Monitor the client's urine pH for increased acidity.
C Cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) affects the rapidly growing cells of the body, therefore stomatitis and mucosal ulcerations are key signs of antimetabolite toxicity (C). (A, B, and D) are not typical interventions associated with the administration of antimetabolites.
A client's dose of isosorbide dinitrate (Imdur) is increased from 40 mg to 60 mg PO daily. When the client reports the onset of a headache prior to the next scheduled dose, which action should the nurse implement? A) Hold the next scheduled dose of Imdur 60 mg and administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Tylenol). B) Administer the 40 mg of Imdur and then contact the healthcare provider. C) Administer the 60 mg dose of Imdur and a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Tylenol). D) Do not administer the next dose of Imdur or any acetaminophen until notifying the healthcare provider.
C Imdur is a nitrate which causes vasodilation. This vasodilation can result in headaches, which can generally be controlled with acetaminophen (C) until the client develops a tolerance to this adverse effect. (A and B) may result in the onset of angina if a therapeutic level of Imdur is not maintained. Lying down (D) is less likely to reduce the headache than is a mild analgesic.
The healthcare provider prescribes naproxen (Naproxen) twice daily for a client with osteoarthritis of the hands. The client tells the nurse that the drug does not seem to be effective after three weeks. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide? A) The frequency of the dosing is necessary to increase the effectiveness. B) Therapeutic blood levels of this drug are reached in 4 to 6 weeks. C) Another type of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug may be indicated. D) Systemic corticosteroids are the next drugs of choice for pain relief.
C Individual responses to nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are variable, so (C) is the best response. Naproxen is usually prescribed every 8 hours, so (A) is not indicated. The peak for naproxen is one to two hours, not (B). Corticosteroids are not indicated for osteoarthritis (D).
A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the triage nurse at the clinic complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which statement reflects the correct drug-specific teaching the nurse should provide to this client? A) Increase consumption of potassium-rich foods since low potassium levels can cause muscle spasms. B) Have serum electrolytes checked at the next scheduled appointment to assess hyponatremia, a cause of cramping. C) Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle pain may be an indication of a serious side effect. D) Be sure to consume a low-cholesterol diet while taking the drug to enhance the effectiveness of the drug.
C Myopathy, suggested by the leg pain and weakness, is a serious, and potentially life-threatening, complication of Lipitor, and should be evaluated immediately by the healthcare provider (C). Although electrolyte imbalances such as (A or B) can cause muscle spasms in some cases, this is not the likely cause of leg pain in the client receiving Lipitor, and evaluation by the healthcare provider should not be delayed for any reason. A low-cholesterol diet is recommended for those taking Lipitor since the drug is used to lower total cholesterol (D), but diet is not related to the leg pain symptom.
A client has myxedema, which results from a deficiency of thyroid hormone synthesis in adults. The nurse knows that which medication should be contraindicated for this client? A) Liothyronine (Cytomel) to replace iodine. B) Furosemide (Lasix) for relief of fluid retention. C) Pentobarbital sodium (Nembutal Sodium) for sleep. D) Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for angina pain.
C Persons with myxedema are dangerously hypersensitive to narcotics, barbiturates (C), and anesthetics. They do tolerate liothyronine (Cytomel) (A) and usually receive iodine replacement therapy. These clients are also susceptible to heart problems such as angina for which nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) (D) would be indicated, and congestive heart failure for which furosemide (Lasix) (B) would be indicated.
A postoperative client has been receiving a continuous IV infusion of meperidine (Demerol) 35 mg/hr for four days. The client has a PRN prescription for Demerol 100 mg PO q3h. The nurse notes that the client has become increasingly restless, irritable and confused, stating that there are bugs all over the walls. What action should the nurse take first? A) Administer a PRN dose of the PO meperidine (Demerol). B) Administer naloxone (Narcan) IV per PRN protocol. C) Decrease the IV infusion rate of the meperidine (Demerol) per protocol. D) Notify the healthcare provider of the client's confusion and hallucinations.
C The client is exhibiting symptoms of Demerol toxicity, which is consistent with the large dose of Demerol received over four days. (C) is the most effective action to immediately decrease the amount of serum Demerol. (A) will increase the toxic level of medication in the bloodstream. Naloxone (B) is an opioid antagonist that is used during an opioid overdose, but it is not beneficial during Demerol toxicity and can precipitate seizures. The healthcare provider should be notified (D), but that is not the initial action the nurse should take; first the amount of drug infusing should be decreased.
An antacid (Maalox) is prescribed for a client with peptic ulcer disease. The nurse knows that the purpose of this medication is to A) decrease production of gastric secretions. B) produce an adherent barrier over the ulcer. C) maintain a gastric pH of 3.5 or above. D) decrease gastric motor activity.
C The objective of antacids is to neutralize gastric acids and keep pH of 3.5 or above (C) which is necessary for pepsinogen inactivity. (A) is the purpose of H2 receptor antagonists (cimetidine, ranitidine). (B) is the purpose of sucralfate (Carafate). (D) is the purpose of anticholinergic drugs which are often used in conjunction with antacids to allow the antacid to remain in the stomach longer.
Upon admission to the emergency center, an adult client with acute status asthmaticus is prescribed this series of medications. In which order should the nurse administer the prescribed medications? (Arrange from first to last.) A) Prednisone (Deltasone) orally. B) Gentamicin (Garamycin) IM. C) Albuterol (Proventil) puffs. D) Salmeterol (Serevent Diskus).
C, D, A, B Status asthmaticus is potentially a life-threatening respiratory event, so albuterol (C), a beta2 adrenergic agonist and bronchodilator, should be administered by inhalation first to provide rapid and deep topical penetration to relieve bronchospasms, dilate the bronchioles, and increase oxygenation. In stepwise management of persistent asthma, a long-action bronchodilator, such as salmeterol (Serevent Diskus) (D) with a 12-hour duration of action should be given next. Prednisone (A), an oral corticosteroid, provides prolonged anti-inflammatory effects and should be given after the client's respiratory distress begins to resolves. Gentamicin (B), an antibiotic, is given deep IM, which can be painful, and may require repositioning the client, so should be last in the sequence.
An older client with a decreased percentage of lean body mass is likely to receive a prescription that is adjusted based on which pharmacokinetic process? A) Absorption. B) Metabolism. C) Elimination. D) Distribution.
D A decreased lean body mass in an older adult affects the distribution of drugs (D), which affects the pharmacokinetics of drugs. Decreased gastric pH, delayed gastric emptying, decreased splanchnic blood flow, decreased gastrointestinal absorption surface areas and motility affect (A) in the older adult population. Decreased hepatic blood flow, decreased hepatic mass, and decreased activity of hepatic enzymes affect (B) in older adults. Decreased renal blood flow, decreased glomerular filtration rate, decreased tubular secretion, and decreased number of nephrons affects (C) in an older adult.
A client is receiving clonidine (Catapres) 0.1 mg/24hr via transdermal patch. Which assessment finding indicates that the desired effect of the medication has been achieved? A) Client denies recent episodes of angina. B) Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1. C) Client denies recent nausea or vomiting. D) Blood pressure has changed from 180/120 to 140/70.
D Catapres acts as a centrally-acting analgesic and antihypertensive agent. (D) indicates a reduction in hypertension. Catapres does not affect (A, B, or C), so these findings do not indicate desired outcomes of Catapres.
Which drug is used as a palliative treatment for a client with tumor-induced spinal cord compression? A) Morphine Sulfate (Duromorph). B) Ibuprofen (Advil). C) Amitriptyline (Amitril). D) Dexamethasone (Decadron).
D Dexamethasone (D) is a palliative treatment modality to manage symptoms related to compression due to tumor growth. Morphine sulphate (A) is an opioid analgesic used in oncology to manage severe or intractable pain. Ibuprofen (B), a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID), provides relief for mild to moderate pain, suppression of inflammation, and reduction of fever. Amitriptyline (C), a tricyclic antidepressant, is often prescribed for pain related to neuropathic origin and provides a reduction in opioid dosage.
Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is an emergency drug most commonly prescribed for a client with which condition? A) Shock. B) Asthma. C) Hypotension. D) Heart failure.
D Dobutamine is a beta-1 adrenergic agonist that is indicated for short term use in cardiac decompensation or heart failure (D) related to reduced cardiac contractility due to organic heart disease or cardiac surgical procedures. Alpha and beta adrenergic agonists, such as epinephrine and dopamine, are sympathomimetics used in the treatment of shock (A). Other selective beta-2 adrenergic agonists, such as terbutaline and isoproterenol, are indicated in the treatment of asthma (B). Although dobutamine improves cardiac output, it is not used to treat hypotension (C).
A client receiving Doxorubicin (Adriamycin) intravenously (IV) complains of pain at the insertion site, and the nurse notes edema at the site. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? A) Assess for erythema. B) Administer the antidote. C) Apply warm compresses. D) Discontinue the IV fluids.
D Doxorubicin is an antineoplastic agent that causes inflammation, blistering, and necrosis of tissue upon extravasation. First, all IV fluids should be discontinued at the site (D) to prevent further tissue damage by the vesicant. Erythema is one sign of infiltration and should be noted, but edema and pain at the infusion site require stopping the IV fluids (A). Although an antidote may be available (B), additional fluids contribute to the trauma of the subcutaneous tissues. Depending on the type of vesicant, warm or cold compresses (C) may be prescribed after the infusion is discontinued.
A client is admitted to the coronary care unit with a medical diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction. Which medication prescription decreases both preload and afterload? A) Nitroglycerin. B) Propranolol (Inderal). C) Morphine. D) Captopril (Capoten).
D Nitroglycerin (A) is a nitrate that causes peripheral vasodilation and decreases contractility, thereby decreasing both preload and afterload. (B) is a beta adrenergic blocker that decreases both heart rate and contractility, but only decreases afterload. Morphine (C) decreases myocardial oxygen consumption and preload. Capoten (D) is an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that acts to prevents vasoconstriction, thereby decreasing blood pressure and afterload.
Which client should the nurse identify as being at highest risk for complications during the use of an opioid analgesic? A) An older client with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. B) A client with chronic rheumatoid arthritis. C) A client with a open compound fracture. D) A young adult with inflammatory bowel disease.
D The principal indication for opioid use is acute pain, and a client with inflammatory bowel disease (D) is at risk for toxic megacolon or paralytic ileus related to slowed peristalsis, a side effect of morphine. Adverse effects of morphine do not pose as great a risk for (A, B, and C) as the client with bowel disease.
A client with coronary artery disease who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) receives a new prescription for atorvastatin (Lipitor). Two weeks after initiation of the Lipitor prescription, the nurse assesses the client. Which finding requires the most immediate intervention? A) Heartburn. B) Headache. C) Constipation. D) Vomiting.
D Vomiting, anorexia and abdominal pain are early indications of digitalis toxicity. Since Lipitor increases the risk for digitalis toxicity, this finding requires the most immediate intervention by.