Physiological, Social and Biological Foundations of Behavior

C. Standard deviation describes the amount of dispersion or variability around the mean in a sample of interest (the smaller the standard deviation, the lower the variability). In normally distributed data sets, approximately 99.6% of all cases fall within 3 standard deviations of the mean (Mean ± 3SD). The mean "years of education" for subjects with factitious wounds was 15.1. Given that the standard deviation for this group was 1.6, 99.6% of all values will lie between Mean - 3SD (15.1 - 4.8 = 10.3) and Mean + 3SD (15.1 + 4.8 = 19.9); 4.8 is arrived at by multiplying 1.6 by 3. The amount of education for second (18) and third (19) year medical students falls within the second and third standard deviation for this category (choice C is correct). While dystonia was the most commonly-reported type of factitious limb disorder (92 cases) in the study included in the passage, the average years of education for this category was just 11. For dystonia, 99.6% of all values would lie between Mean - 3SD (11 - 5.4 = 5.6) and Mean + 3SD (11 + 5.4 = 16.4). The amount of education second and third year medical students have is well outside the normal range for this category (choice A is wrong). This formula can be applied to the remaining answer choices. For CRPS, 99.6% of all values would lie between Mean - 3SD (10.9 - 3.3 = 7.6) and Mean + 3SD (10.9 + 3.3 = 14.2). Again, the amount of education second and third year medical students have is well outside the normal range for this category (choice B is wrong). For edema, 99.6% of all values would lie between Mean - 3SD (12.8 - 3.9 = 8.9) and Mean + 3SD (12.8 + 3.9 = 16.7). Although 16.7 is the second highest figure within the Mean ± 3SD of each category, the amount of education second and third year medical students have is still outside the normal range (choice D is wrong).

"Years of education" is a variable that is normally distributed among factitious limb disorder patients. Therefore, if an additional study were conducted in order to determine the prevalence of factitious limb disorder among second- and third-year medical school students, based on the data in Figure 1, which of the following would likely be more commonly diagnosed among participants? Question 37 Answer Choices A. Dystonia B. CRPS C. Wounds D. Edema

C. The bystander effect (also called the Genovese effect, after Kitty Genovese who was attacked and murdered in New York City where hundreds of people heard her cries for help but no one called the police) occurs in groups of people as a result of perceived distributed responsibility; everyone believes that someone else will take care of it (choice C is correct). The unreliable witness effect is associated with eyewitnesses in court cases being unable to accurately and reliably recall the events they witnessed (choice A is wrong). Ennui is a mental state characterized by lethargy and apathy, often associated with depression; it is not a social effect (choice B is wrong). The ostrich effect is not a social phenomenon; it refers to an individual avoiding an apparently risky financial situation by pretending it does not exist (choice D is wrong).

A cyclist is hit by a speeding motorist in a busy intersection among hundreds of people, but no one stops to help the cyclist or call 911. This can best be explained by the social phenomenon known as: Question 11 Answer Choices A. the unreliable witness effect. B. ennui. C. the bystander effect. D. the ostrich effect.

A. If a researcher knew which participants were receiving treatment and which were in a control group, then the study was not conducted in a double-blind manner. A double blind study requires researchers performing the experiment or working with participants to be unaware of which participants are receiving which treatment. Among other problems, such a design would risk introducing a placebo effect, a measurable improvement in health not due to the medication, but rather due to self-fulfilling prophecy, the phenomenon by which an expectation can influence a person's behavior such that the expectation is more likely to happen (choice A is correct). The fact that a drug did not outperform a generic alternative might be problematic, but would not compromise the conclusion that the drug should be brought to market since its efficacy would not be called into question by poor research design (choice D is wrong). If compensation were fixed, thus not dependent on responses to the survey, this would not impact conclusions about the efficacy of the drug (choice C is wrong). The company did not purport to test the impact of income on depression; thus, this would not impact their conclusion (choice B is wrong).

A pharmaceutical company conducting clinical trials on a new medication for depression reports that the medication should be brought to market based on survey results. Which of the following, if true, would most compromise the company's conclusion? Question 58 Answer Choices A. A researcher responsible for obtaining consent knew which participants were in the control and experimental groups. B. The research team did not conduct a regression analysis on the surveys to check for the effect of income on depression. C. Participants were offered fixed compensation for participating in the study. D. The drug did not outperform a generic alternative already on the market.

C. Learned helplessness occurs when repeated failure discourages further effort, even when circumstances change (choice C is correct). Social learning theory posits that we learn new behaviors through imitation (choice A is wrong). Social loafing theory states that when we are members of a group, we work below our individual potential (choice B is wrong). The self-serving bias attributes success to internal factors and failure to external ones; there is no evidence that the student is attempting to attribute blame for her poor performance to external factors, and she is convinced that her failure is due to an internal cause, so the self-serving bias does not explain the scenario in the question stem (choice D is wrong).

A student received a series of poor grades on essay assignments that required her to write on an unfamiliar and difficult topic. Later in the school year, she was given writing assignments on a more familiar topic, but she put in very little effort because she was convinced that she was a poor writer. Her experience is closest to which of the following psychological theories? Question 14 Answer Choices A. Social learning B. Social loafing C. Learned helplessness D. Self-serving bias

C. A five-year-old has not yet reached the concrete operational stage and therefore does not understand conservation, so seeing that the same amount of water went into both glasses is irrelevant to her, and she would think the glasses had different amounts based on how "tall" the water was (choice A is wrong). Because the water in the skinny glass will be higher than the water in the wide glass, she will say that there is more water in the skinny glass (choice C is correct, choice B is wrong). Whether the water is dyed or colorless would not matter (choice D is wrong).

According to Piaget, by the end of the concrete operational stage, children will have mastered an understanding of conservation. If a 5-year-old watched an experimenter fill a short, wide glass and a tall, skinny glass with the same amount of water, how would she respond when asked which glass contained more water? Question 8 Answer Choices A. She would say they both contained the same amount B. She would say the short wide glass contained more. C. She would say the tall skinny glass contained more. D. It would depend on whether the water had been dyed a color.

A. Skinner asserted that punishment is not an ideal form of behavior modification because it is only effective so long as the punishment, or threat of punishment, is present. For example, every time your cat jumps onto the counter, you squirt it with water and it jumps down. But when the threat of being sprayed is not present (e.g. you are in another room or not home), your cat is free to jump on the counters, and thus is learning to manipulate the misbehavior in order to avoid the punishment (choice A is correct). For those very reasons, punishment is not the single most effective form of behavior modification (choice B is wrong). Punishment is most effective when applied consistently, not inconsistently (choice C is wrong). Finally, there has been no definitive evidence that the use of punishment causes misbehavior, though it can lead to sneakier forms of the misbehaviors it is being used to extinguish (choice D is wrong).

According to Skinner, in terms of behavior modification, punishment: Question 31 Answer Choices A. is typically only effective as long as the punishment is present. B. is the single most effective form of behavior modification. C. is more effective when applied in an inconsistent manner. D. will cause an increase in likelihood of future misbehavior.

C. Primary reinforcers are things that humans and/or animals do not need to learn are satisfying. Water satisfies a basic need, and thus is a primary reinforcer, not a secondary reinforcer (choice C is correct). Secondary reinforcers acquire their ability to reinforce behavior based on being paired with a primary reinforcer or otherwise conditioned; for example, money can be used to purchase primary reinforcers (such as food, shelter, clothing, etc.), but has no actual value itself—it's just a printed piece of paper (choice A is a secondary reinforcer and is therefore wrong). Similarly, good grades and stickers do not fulfill any basic needs, and function as secondary reinforcers (choices C and D are wrong).

All of the following are examples of secondary reinforcers, EXCEPT: Question 32 Answer Choices A. money B. good grades C. water D. stickers

B. Kohlberg's stages of moral development include six stages grouped into three levels; these levels include: the pre-conventional level of moral reasoning, during which morality is judged by direct consequences to one's self (choice A can be eliminated); the conventional level of moral reasoning, during which morality is judged in comparison to society's views and expectations (choice C can be eliminated); and the post-conventional level of moral reasoning, during which morality is judged by internal ethical guidelines (choice D can be eliminated). There is no unconventional level of moral reasoning in Kohlberg's stages of moral development (choice B is correct).

All of the following are levels in Kohlberg's stages of moral development EXCEPT: Question 27 Answer Choices A. pre-conventional level of moral reasoning B. unconventional level of moral reasoning. C. conventional level of moral reasoning. D. post-conventional level of moral reasoning.

B. Attribution theory attempts to explain why individuals interpret the actions of others in the ways they do. In this case, the bystander is making the assumption that the individual with factitious limb disorder is rude. Specifically, this is an example of an internal attribution; the bystander blames the behavior of the individual with factitious disorder on an internal personality characteristic (i.e., she is rude; choice B is correct). The bystander effect occurs when someone needs help and there are many people around, but no one helps the person in need; this phenomenon does not best explain the bystander's reaction (choice A is wrong). Conflict theory is a sociological theory that attempts to explain how power relates to social order and related conflict; there is no mention of power in the question stem (choice C is wrong). Functionalism is a sociological theory that refers to the interdependence that exists among institutions within society; this theory does not explain the bystander's reaction (choice D is wrong).

An individual with factitious limb disorder pushes her way to the front of the line at a ticket window, claiming that she cannot stand for long periods of time. A bystander, who has been waiting in line patiently for 20 minutes, is disgusted. She looks at her friend and mutters, "How rude!" Which of the following could best explain the bystander's reaction? Question 39 Answer Choices A. The bystander effect B. Attribution theory C. Conflict theory D. Functionalism

B. Causation is extremely difficult to determine when experimenting with humans, particularly because all of the variables in a given experiment must by controlled by the experimenter, and subjects must be randomly assignment to experimental and control groups. Therefore, random assignment of subjects to a group (in this case, phases of the menstrual cycle) is one of the many variables that should have been controlled for in order to determine a causal relationship between conception risk and race bias (choice B is correct). While the variety of race relations and effects of non-oral contraceptives are important variables to consider, neither specifically limits the researchers' abilities to draw conclusions about the causal relationship between conception risk and race bias (choices C and D are wrong). The fact that the sample only contained White participants limits the researchers' ability to draw conclusions about how their results might apply to the general population, not about causality (choice A is wrong).

Based on the design of the study described in the passage, what limits the researchers' ability to draw conclusions about the causal relationship between conception risk and race bias? Question 23 Answer Choices A. The sample contained only White participants. B. The study did not employ random assignment, since participants could not be randomly assigned to a particular phase of their menstrual cycle. C. The study looked only at race relations between Black and White individuals. D. The study did not take into account non-oral contraceptives such as NuvaRing, Mirena, or IUDs.

A. The catecholamine neurotransmitters are dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine. Therefore, a catecholamine derivative that acts as an agonist would somehow act on a pathway involving one of these three neurotransmitters (choices C and D are wrong). In Parkinson's disease, neurons in the brain that make dopamine and control muscle movement begin to die. Therefore, even without necessarily knowing which of the catecholamine neurotransmitters is involved in obesity, the most reasonably correct answer is choice A. The primary neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system is acetylcholine (choice B is wrong).

Catecholamine derivatives that act as agonists for a specific neuronal receptor have been shown to help treat obesity in many severely overweight patients. These derivatives also promote neuroprotection from Parkinson's disease. What is a possible mechanism of action for this process? A. For people suffering from a food addiction, eating excessive high-fat food triggers the dopamine reward system in the brain (similar to a drug addiction). The catecholamine derivative acts as an agonist for dopamine, thus stimulating the dopamine reward center without the presence of food, and leading to a decrease in overeating. B. Catecholamine derivatives stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system, thus increasing the activity of the gut. Therefore, despite consuming a highly caloric diet, food is processed more quickly, leading to weight loss. C. Acetylcholine is responsible for muscular contractions. Since catecholamine derivatives are the precursors to acetylcholine, the presence of these derivatives in the body stimulates the musculoskeletal system, thus burning additional calories and leading to weight loss. D. Catecholamine derivatives block the release of cortisol, a known contributor to stress-related overeating and weight gain.

C. Pheromones, while poorly understood, are frequently employed by various social species to communicate with each other (choice C is correct). Hormones, whether exogenous (created outside the body) or endogenous (created inside the body), are employed for communication and regulation within a given organism, not between organisms (choice A and choice B are wrong). Mating rituals, while utilized for communication among members of the same species, are not chemical messengers (choice D is wrong).

Chemical messengers utilized for communication among members of the same species are called: Question 29 Answer Choices A. exogenous hormones. B. endogenous hormones. C. pheromones. D. mating rituals

B. Abraham Maslow's suggested that humans have a hierarchy of needs, which is often represented as a pyramid. At the base of the pyramid are humans most basic physiological needs, such as respiration, food, water, sex, and sleep (choice B is correct). If physiological needs are met, humans will next attempt to fulfill the needs one level higher on the pyramid, safety needs, including bodily safety, shelter, employment, etc. (choice D is wrong). If safety needs are met, humans will next attempt to fulfill the needs one level higher on the pyramid, attachment needs, including love and belonging (choice C is wrong). The highest level on the pyramid is self-actualization (morality, creativity, etc.) and humans will only attempt to fulfill these needs if all of the needs represented by the lower levels on the pyramid have been met (choice A is wrong).

Consider Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of needs, typically represented as a pyramid; which of the following represents the base in Maslow's pyramid? Question 46 Answer Choices A. Self-actualization B. Physiological needs C. Attachment needs D. Safety needs

A. When social organisms behave in such a way as to benefit the group even at a potential cost to themselves, they are demonstrating altruistic behavior (choice A is correct). Role-playing explains how individuals (humans) take on expected roles within groups, but does not explain the scenario described in the question stem (choice C is wrong). Social isolation does not explain the behavior of an organism putting itself at risk for the benefit of other group members (choice B is wrong). Inclusive fitness is defined by an organism improving its genetic success by helping others with similar genes to survive; exclusive fitness is not an element of social interaction among animals (choice D is wrong).

If a social organism puts itself at risk in order to potentially save another member or members of its clan or group, this is considered: Question 12 Answer Choices A. altruism. B. role-playing. C. social isolation D. exclusive fitness

B. Stereotypes are weakest when individuals or groups are familiar with each other (choice B is correct), and they are strongest when individuals or groups are unfamiliar with each other or when they belong to different groups (choices A, C, and D are wrong).

If the investigators in the study wanted to allow for the maximum chance that negative stereotypes would not interfere with the interactions between the adolescents and older people in the experimental groups, they might pair adolescents with older people: Question 19 Answer Choices A. whom the adolescents did not know at all. B. whom the adolescents knew very well. C. of the opposite gender as the adolescents. D. who lived in a different city than the adolescents.

C. Becoming violently ill after eating something new is a prime example of classical conditioning, demonstrating that we are biologically wired to learn taste aversions to foods that make us ill. Becoming ill is the unconditioned response, the food is the unconditioned stimulus, the new restaurant is the conditioned stimulus, and the nausea experienced upon passing that particular restaurant is the conditioned response (choice C is correct; choice D is wrong). This example does not accurately represent operant conditioning, as there was no immediate goal of behavior modification (choice A is wrong). Getting ill would actually best be viewed as a punishment, since nausea is a negative stimulus, whereas negative reinforcement is defined as removing an aversive stimulus to reinforce a positive behavior (choice B is wrong).

If you become violently ill after eating at a new restaurant, and feel nauseated whenever you pass that restaurant in the future, this feeling of nausea is an example of: Question 34 Answer Choices A. operant conditioning. B. negative reinforcement. C. classical conditioning. D. unconditioned response.

B. In the "Bobo Doll" experiments, children modeled their behavior after the adults they viewed playing with the dolls, which is a component of observational learning (choice B is correct). Latent learning is defined as learning that is not immediately expressed in an overt response, and that occurs without any obvious reinforcement (e.g. a rat carried through a maze will eventually learn how to run through the maze on its own; choice A is wrong). Associative learning is the type of learning that occurs in both classical and operant conditioning, wherein the individual learns the association between two stimuli (choice C is wrong). While certain teaching theories espouse the use of concrete manipulatives for children of certain ages, the term "hands-on learning" is a colloquial one and is not associated with any learning theories, per se (choice D is wrong).

In Albert Bandura's infamous "Bobo Doll" experiment, children watched an adult either play nicely with a doll, or play very aggressively with it. The children were then likely to imitate whichever scenario they had seen when given a doll of their own. Which of the following describes this phenomenon? Question 35 Answer Choices A. Latent learning B. Observational learning C. Associative learning D. Hands-on learning

D. Integrity vs. deceit is not a psychosocial crisis in Erikson's theory (choice D is correct); integrity vs. despair, however, is Erikson's eighth and final stage, which occurs during later life. Basic trust vs. mistrust is the psychosocial crisis that occurs during the oral-sensory phase during infancy (choice A is correctly paired, and so can be eliminated), autonomy vs. shame and doubt is the psychosocial crisis that occurs during the anal motor phase during early childhood (choice B is correctly paired, and so can be eliminated), and industry vs. inferiority is the psychosocial crisis that occurs during the latency phase from roughly ages 6 to 12 (choice C is correctly paired, and so can be eliminated).

In Erik Erikson's theory of psychological development, which of the following phases is NOT correctly paired with its corresponding psychosocial crisis? Question 28 Answer Choices A. Basic trust vs. mistrust during the oral-sensory phase B. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt during the anal-motor phase C. Industry vs. inferiority during the latency phase D. Integrity vs. deceit during the middle adulthood phase

A. Item I is true: the primary motor cortex, which is responsible for initiating voluntary movement, is located in the frontal lobe (choice B can be eliminated). Item II is false: hunger, thirst, and sex drive are regulated by the hypothalamus, located in the diencephalon, just above the brain stem (choice C can be eliminated). Item III is false: breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure are regulated by the medulla oblongata, located in the hindbrain (choice D can be eliminated; choice A is correct).

In addition to regulating executive function, the frontal lobe is also responsible for: I) initiating voluntary movement. II) regulating hunger, thirst, and sex drive. III) regulating breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure. Question 51 Answer Choices A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. I and III only

A. In general, most humans (especially young children) and animals would fear a loud, unexpected noise. Consequently, the noise is an unconditioned stimulus (UCS), and the fear response an unconditioned response (UCR). When the noise is paired with a seemingly neutral stimulus (a white, fluffy animal), the brain ties the fear of the noise to the animal. Consequently, the animal becomes a conditioned stimulus (CS), and the fear in response to the white, fluffy animal becomes a conditioned response (CR; choice A is correct). Any other combination of labels and stimuli/responses is incorrect (choices, B, C, and D are wrong).

In the classic Little Albert experiment, Albert was conditioned to fear white, fluffy animals after they were paired with a sudden loud noise. Which of the following correctly labels the responses and stimuli? Question 33 Answer Choices A. Animals (CS), loud noise (UCS), fear of loud noises (UCR), fear of animals (CR) B. Animals (UCS), loud noise (CS), fear of loud noises (UCR), fear of animals (CR) C. Animals (CR), loud noise (UCR), fear of loud noises (CS), fear of animals (UCS) D. Animals (UCR), loud noise (CR), fear of loud noises (UCS), fear of animals (CS)

B. Children in the preoperational stage cannot take the perspectives of others because they do not comprehend that others have separate thought processes from their own and cannot see everything in the world that they do. This understanding is known as theory of mind and is generally said to develop by age six or seven (choice C is wrong). Egocentrism is the opposite; young children focus only on their own perspectives. Thus, they lack theory of mind and display egocentrism (choice B is correct). The ego is the reality principle, which attempts to mediate the id's impulses; according to Freud, a child would express all of his or her unrestrained impulses and desires without the ego. This does not most appropriately explain the scenario described in the question stem (choice A is wrong). Conservation is the understanding that a quantity of something like water will remain the same volume no matter what shape it is in; conservation does not develop until the concrete operational stage (choice D is wrong).

In the early years of the preoperational stage, children are generally unable to take another's perspective; rather, they focus only on what they know themselves. Which of the following is true of children at this level of development? Question 10 Answer Choices A. They lack ego but demonstrate egocentrism. B. They lack theory of mind but demonstrate egocentrism. C. They lack superego but demonstrate theory of mind. D. They lack theory of mind but demonstrate conservation.

A. Item I is false: according to Figure 2, childhood obesity rates declined from 2005 to 2010 (the slope becomes negative); however, even though national childhood obesity rates are still increasing (positive slope) from 2005 to 2010, it is not possible to conclude that Colorado is the only state with declining childhood obesity rates. It is possible that one or more of the other states—except Mississippi, which we know from the figure has increasing rates during that timeframe—also have declining childhood obesity rates, but do not have their data presented in Figure 2 (choices B and C can be eliminated). Item II is true: from 1990 to 1995, the rate of increase in the national adult obesity percentage is roughly 5% (from about 15% in 1990 to about 20% in 1995); the ten years prior to this also demonstrated a roughly 5% increase in the national adult obesity percentage (from about 10% in 1980 to about 15% in 1990). Therefore, if there is a 5% increase over ten years, and then another 5% increase over five years, the rate of increase in the national adult obesity percentage has roughly doubled (the slope for 1990-1995 is about twice a steep as the slope for 1980-1990). Item III is false: national childhood obesity rates and Mississippi state childhood obesity rates do not begin to diverge in 2005, rather, they begin to converge (become more similar), as the rate of childhood obesity in Mississippi begins to increase less dramatically (slope becomes more shallow), while the national rate of childhood obesity begins to increase more dramatically (slope becomes steeper; choice D can be eliminated, choice A is correct).

It can be concluded that: I) Colorado is the only state in the US that demonstrated a decline in childhood obesity rates from 2005 to 2010. II) From 1990 to 1995, national adult obesity rates increased twice as quickly as they had during the previous ten years. III) National childhood obesity rates and Mississippi state childhood obesity rates began to diverge in 2005. Question 5 Answer Choices A. II only B. I and II only C. I and III only D. II and III only

B. Karl Marx is most identified with Conflict Theory, because of his interest in the economic conflict between different social classes; he believed that capitalism produced internal tensions that would ultimately lead to the self-destruction of capitalist society, to be replaced by socialism (choice B is correct). Emile Durkheim, not Karl Marx, is most associated with Functionalism (choice A is wrong). Karl Marx is not affiliated with either Symbolic Interactionism (choice C is wrong) or Social Constructionism (choice D is wrong).

Karl Marx is most associated with which social theory? Question 44 Answer Choices A. Functionalism B. Conflict theory C. Symbolic interactionism D. Social constructionism

D. It is critical to understand exactly what information the figure does and does not convey. Since a greater number of female Latino adolescents reported that familial ethnic socialization had an effect on their process of identity exploration to a statistically significant degree than did the Latino males, one can conclude that familial ethnic socialization plays a more prominent role in the identity exploration process for female Latino adolescents than for male Latino adolescents (choice D is correct). At first glance, it may appear that a greater number of males versus females tended to affirm their identities after experiencing discrimination. This interpretation, however, is erroneous. The right side of the figure represents only the number of males versus females that reported a significant impact on their process of identity formation, not the actual affirmation of their identities or number of discriminatory experiences. In other words, a male adolescent who reported a significant impact could have opted to then affirm or renounce his Latino identity, and that decision is not evident from the figure. In the same vein, a female adolescent could have experienced many more discriminatory incidents than a male adolescent, and yet not feel that her process of identity affirmation was significantly affected. As a result, no conclusions can be drawn as to the number of males or females who actually affirmed their identities following perceived discrimination (choice A is wrong) or which group suffered more discrimination (choice C is wrong). The left side of the figure depicts the number of adolescents whose identity exploration processes were significantly impacted by familial ethnic socialization, but it does not depict the degree of importance of identity exploration. An adolescent could have considered his process of identity exploration to be of great importance, yet felt that familial ethnic socialization did play a significant role in that process (choice B is wrong).

Many studies have addressed the broad topic of identity formation among ethnic groups. One particular study examined how familial ethnic socialization and perceived discrimination impacted identity processes in male and female Latino adolescents. Some of the findings are represented in Figure 1. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the figure? A. In the face of discrimination, male Latino adolescents tend to affirm their ethnic identity more than their female counterparts. B. Identity exploration is more important to female Latino adolescents than is identity affirmation. C. Male Latino adolescents suffer more than female Latino adolescents. D. Familial ethnic socialization plays a more prominent role in the process of identity exploration for female Latino adolescents than it does for their male counterparts.

D. Normative social influence describes when someone changes her or his behavior (conforms) because she or he has a desire for the approval of others and wants to avoid rejection (choice D is correct). Socialization is the term generally used to describe the process by which humans learn the norms of their society (choice A is wrong). Informational social influence describes when an individual's behavior conforms or changes because he or she wants to do the "right thing" (choice B is wrong). The likelihood that an individual's behavior will be considered "normal" in any given situation is not described by normative social influence (choice C is wrong).

Normative social influence describes: Question 30 Answer Choices A. the process by which humans learn the norms of their society. B. a process whereby an individual conforms their behavior to match everyone else's behavior because he or she wants to do the right thing and feels that everyone else knows something he or she doesn't know. C. the likelihood that an individual's behavior will be considered "normal" in any given situation. D. a situation where a person's behavior conforms or changes because she or he wants to be liked by others.

A. Erikson's model of psychosocial crises maintains that middle to older age adults must resolve the crisis of stagnation versus generativity. Generativity is characterized by activities that are productive or that transcend one's own mortality. The transmission of knowledge or wisdom to the younger generation is one illustration of this kind of generativity, and it underlies the researcher's hypothesis (choice A is correct). Identity is one's sense of self and values, and Erikson considered the formation of identity to be a psychosocial crisis of the adolescent. Consequently, it would not serve as a direct motivator for an older person to transmit knowledge (choice B is wrong). The feelings associated with a negative attitude toward an entire group are known as prejudice, which would certainly not play a motivational role for the older person to transmit knowledge (choice C is wrong). Integrative reminiscence refers to the process by which older people may take stock of their lives and come to terms with previously unresolved conflicts (choice D is wrong).

Rooted in Erik Erikson's developmental theory, the basis for the researchers' hypothesis derives from the idea known as: Question 20 Answer Choices A. generativity. B. identity. C. prejudice D. integrative reminiscence.

A. Social Identity research indicates that strong in-group identification often leads to stronger in-group bias (the preference for other in-group members) and consequent out-group derogation, defined as discrimination against those not in the in-group due to perceived threat (choice A is correct and choice B is wrong). Social identity theorists hold that people's strength of identity with their in-groups significantly impacts their attitudes toward incompatible out-groups. However, individuals could potentially be members of multiple, non-contradictory in-groups (alumni groups, sports fandoms, etc.), and their decisions to join such groups are not necessarily influenced by the strength of identification with groups to which they already belong (choices C and D are wrong).

Social identity theorists think that the greater the identification with the in-group: Question 25 Answer Choices A. the more likely in-group bias is to occur. B. the less likely in-group bias is to occur. C. the less likely one is to seek out membership in other in-groups. D. the more likely one is to seek out membership in other in-groups.

D. The passage notes that success at the object permanence task is positively correlated with emotional regulation. Earlier on, the passage explains that object permanence is a measure of working memory in young children. If Baby X demonstrates good emotional regulation, then he will probably also score high on early working memory tasks, since object permanence is a measure of working memory (choice D is correct). The passage makes no mention of attention (choice A is wrong). Orientation/engagement is significantly correlated with object permanence, but is not necessarily significantly correlated with emotional regulation (choice B is wrong). The study does not indicate a correlation between gender and object permanence, so it is not possible to conclude that Baby X will perform better on other measures of object permanence than similarly-aged female children (choice C is wrong).

Suppose Baby X is a male born at 29 weeks gestational age at 990 g. According to the study, if Baby X is tested when he is 20 months old and demonstrates good emotional regulation, then he will: Question 6 Answer Choices A. likely also demonstrate a strong ability to regulate his attention. B. demonstrate good orientation and engagement as well. C. perform better on other measures of object permanence than 20-month-old female children. D. probably also score high on early working memory tasks.

A. Social capital refers to the use of social networks to gain some sort of individual benefit, such as acquiring a job at a prestigious company; by making connections within the company, Shae is utilizing her social capital to get the job (choice A is correct). Social mobility refers to the ability to move up or down within the social stratification system; this mobility is usually conferred by gaining an education, earning more money, etc. Though Shae's new job might confer social mobility, Shae did not utilize social mobility to secure the job (choice B is wrong). Social reciprocity refers to responding to a kind or generous action with another kind or generous action; since there is no indication that Shae responds with generosity or kind actions towards those at the company who potentially helped her secure the job, this person is not utilizing social reciprocity to get the job (choice C is wrong). Social stratification refers to the way that people are categorized within society; people can be categorized in many ways, including by race, education, wealth, and income (among other things). Social stratification was not utilized to get the job (choice D is wrong).

Suppose Shae is trying to obtain a job at a prestigious company. She uses her social network in order to make a few connections with people who already work at this company, and eventually gets the desired job. In this scenario, what is Shae utilizing to help her secure the job? Question 45 Answer Choices A. Social capital B. Social mobility C. Social reciprocity D. Social stratification

B. Working memory is a part of the memory system that allows us to process and manipulate information held in short-term memory (choice B is correct). Focusing mental resources on a select portion of the stimulus field is known as selective attention (choice A is wrong). The part of the memory system that receives input from the sensory organs is referred to as sensory memory (choice C is wrong). The part of the memory system that retains information for prolonged periods of time is known as long-term memory (choice D is wrong).

The primary function of working memory is to: Question 48 Answer Choices A. focus mental resources on only one part of the stimulus field. B. hold and manipulate information stored in short-term memory. C. encode stimuli picked up by the sensory organs. D. retain information for long periods of time.

A. According to Figure 1, the mean for the non-immigrant women in the first month is 5.1 and the standard deviation is 2.2. Therefore, a measure of 9.5 is two standard deviations away from the mean (choice C is wrong), which corresponds to the 95th percentile for this sample, meaning that this sample is higher than 95% of the other samples in this group (choice A is correct). An outlier in statistics is an observation that deviates considerably from the rest of the sample; it can also be the sample maximum or minimum. In this case, since 9.5 is within two standard deviations of the mean, it is neither an outlier nor the sample maximum (choices B and D are wrong).

Suppose one of the non-immigrant study participants had a first month salivary cortisol measurement of 9.5 nmol/L. What is true about this particular sample? Question 40 Answer Choices A. This sample is higher than 95% of samples for the non-immigrant group. B. This sample is an outlier, and should not be included in the calculation of the mean. Your Answer C. This sample is within one standard deviation of the mean for the non-immigrant group. D. This was the highest sample obtained in the non-immigrant group.

C. The depth-of-processing model holds that information is transferred from short-term memory (STM) to long-term memory (LTM) when it is processed at deeper levels of analysis. The dual-store model, on the other hand, holds that information is moved from STM to LTM when it is maintained in STM for a sufficiently long period of time via rehearsal. Therefore, proponents of the depth-of-processing model would utilize an analytical task rather than mere rehearsal (choices B and D are wrong). Logically, for the motivational factor to enhance any cognitive capacity, the motivational trigger would have to precede the cognitive task. Accordingly, the life problem would need to precede an analytical task to produce the greatest effect (choice C is correct; choice A is wrong).

Suppose the researchers want to examine the effect of motivation on older adult's formation of new LTM. To measure this, they follow up with the older adults two weeks after the study and ask them to recall details from a text read during the initial phase of the experiment (the text was standardized for all groups in the experiment, and was unrelated to the life and media problems). If the researchers subscribe to the depth-of-processing model, they would hypothesize that: Question 21 Answer Choices A. presentation of a media problem, then analysis of the text will yield the best performance on the recall task. B. rehearsal of the text, then presentation of a life problem will yield the best performance on the recall task C. presentation of a life problem, then analysis of the text will yield the best performance on the recall task. D. presentation of a life problem, then rehearsal of the text will yield the best performance on the recall task.

A. The right side of the visual field of both eyes is processed on the left side of each retina. These images are then routed by axons to the left cerebral hemisphere. Similarly, the left side of the visual field is reflected onto the right side of each retina and routed to the right cerebral hemisphere. Assuming the corpus callosum (CC) is needed for the two hemispheres to share information, the absence of a CC would mean that images delivered to the left hemisphere remain in the left hemisphere, and images delivered to the right hemisphere remain in the right hemisphere. Since language is produced in the left hemisphere, the person would thus be able to verbalize images captured in the left hemisphere, which are those from the right side of the visual field (choice A is correct; choice C is wrong). They would not be able to verbalize those images captured in the right hemisphere, which are those from the left side of the visual field (choice B is wrong). Additionally, the CC is not responsible for correcting the inverted image as it is apprehended by the retina. Rather, that is the function of the visual cortex (choice D is wrong).

Surgical severing of the corpus callosum is a potential treatment for severe epilepsy. A post-surgical epileptic is in the car, on the way home from the hospital. Which of the following would be expected when the person is looking straight ahead? Question 47 Answer Choices A. The person will be able to verbalize the names of streets he sees on the right side of the road but not the names of streets on the left side of the road. B. The person will be able to verbalize the names of streets he sees on the left side of the road but not the names of streets on the right side of the road. C. The person will not be able to verbalize the names of streets on either side of the road. D. The person will be able to verbalize the names of streets on both sides of the road, but they will appear upside down.

A. Harry and Margaret Harlow performed social isolation experiments on monkeys. Their major research findings include: extreme social isolation causes long-term and irreversible negative impacts (choice B can be eliminated); baby monkeys prefer a "cloth mother" to a "nutrient mother" (choice C can be eliminated); and securely attached monkeys are better adjusted than insecurely attached monkeys (choice D can be eliminated). The Harlows did not attempt to teach sign language to monkeys (choice A is correct).

The "Harlow's monkeys experiments" demonstrated all of the following major findings, EXCEPT: Question 13 Answer Choices A. using operant conditioning principles, monkeys can be taught sign language. B. extreme social isolation has long-term and irreversible negative effects. C. contrary to popular opinion at that time, baby monkeys prefer a "cloth mother" (a wire frame wrapped with a blanket) to a "nutrient mother" (a wire frame with a bottle), suggesting that infants form attachments to caregivers because of contact comfort, not because caregivers provide food. D. securely attached monkeys are better adjusted than insecurely attached monkeys.

C. The Beck Depression Inventory (BDI) is scored such that higher scores correspond to more severe depression. Elevated cortisol levels are directly correlated to decreased brain serotonin and an increase in depression; therefore BDI scores and cortisol levels are directly correlated (as one increases, so does the other; choice C is correct; choices A and B are wrong). Depression and cortisol have been shown by numerous studies to be linked, so BDI scores (a measure of depression) will not be independent of cortisol levels (choice D is wrong).

The Beck Depression Inventory (BDI) is a survey consisting of 21 multiple-choice questions that is the most widely used self-report test for depression. Questions about depressive symptoms such as hopelessness, sleeplessness, fatigue, etc. are scored from 0 (no symptom of depression) to 3 (severe symptom of depression) and totaled. Higher scores indicate more severe depression. If the BDI were administered to the participants in the second study, how would the BDI scores mostly likely correspond with the cortisol levels? Question 43 Answer Choices A. BDI scores would increase as cortisol levels declined. B. Low BDI scores would correspond to high cortisol levels. C. BDI scores and cortisol levels would be directly correlated. D. BDI scores would be independent of cortisol levels.

A. Social facilitation is a phenomenon in which the presence of others improves a person's performance (choice A is correct). Social loafing occurs when individuals exert less effort when performing a group task than when they perform the same task independently (choice B is wrong). Social interference is a reduction in performance due to the presence of others (choice C is wrong). Conformity refers to changing one's behavior to match that of other group members. Participants in this study were working alone, rather than in a group (Choice D is wrong).

The researcher conducted another study in which healthy adults performed the same spatial working memory task in the presence of others. She found that individual performance on the task improved when other individuals were present in the room. Which of the following phenomena could explain the observed results? Question 52 Answer Choices A. Social facilitation B. Social loafing C. Social interference D. Conformity

A. When conducting research on human subjects, only certain experiments lend themselves to double-blind studies; in this instance, since the subjects self-selected into support groups, and because these researchers already know from their first study that participation in support groups correlates with reduced cortisol levels, it wouldn't necessarily be ethical for researchers to withhold a "treatment" of known benefit to those subjects who were assigned to no support group, even if that treatment is only withheld for the duration of the study (choice A is correct). Both studies described in this passage indicate that cortisol can be measured frequently enough to determine whether levels are declining, so this would not be a potential problem (choice B is wrong). While a large enough sample size is a necessary factor for determining causation, it is not likely that a lack of women diagnosed with breast cancer between the ages of 25 and 45 will be a potential problem with conducting this study (choice C is wrong). There are many multivariate statistical tests that are capable of analyzing multiple variables (choice D is wrong).

The second study was an exploratory study; the researchers did not have a specific hypothesis in mind, but instead analyzed multiple factors in order to determine whether there was a correlation to cortisol levels over time. Suppose these researchers wanted to conduct a follow-up study to determine whether participation in a support group caused cortisol levels to decline. What would be a potential problem with designing such a study? Question 41 Answer Choices A. It might be considered unethical to conduct a double-blind study on recently diagnosed cancer patients, randomly assigning them to a support group or no support group "treatment". B. It would be too difficult to measure cortisol levels frequently enough to determine whether they were actually declining. C. There are not enough women diagnosed with breast cancer between the ages of 25 and 45 to have a sample size large enough to determine causation. D. There is no statistical analysis capable of handling the multiple different lifestyle factors that would need to be excluded in order to determine causation.

C. To measure "race bias," participants completed an association task where they matched the terms "black" and "white" with either positive or negative words, participants rated statements about black and white people on a scale of 1 to 7, and participants were shown faces of black and white men and asked to rate how threatening and attractive they were. "Race bias," therefore, as it is described in the passage, is a measure of the participants' attitudes, feelings, and opinions about the black men, and is also a measure of how "threatening" they rate the black men's faces. Item I is true: racial stereotyping involves oversimplified ideas about groups of people, based on their race; the way "race bias" is measured in this study, it is capturing the participants' racial stereotypes (choice B can be eliminated). Item II is true: racial prejudice refers to the thoughts, attitudes, and feelings someone holds about a racial group that are not based on actual experience; the way "race bias" is measured in this study, it is capturing the participants' racial prejudices (choice A can be eliminated). Item III is false: racial discrimination involves action toward a racial group; the way "race bias" is measured in this study, it is not capturing the participants' actions, so it is not measuring racial discrimination (choice D can be eliminated; choice C is correct).

This study measured participants' "race bias." Which of the following terms is a suitable synonym for "race bias," as it is described in the passage? I) Racial stereotyping II) Racial prejudice III) Racial discrimination Question 26 Answer Choices A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. I, II, and III

C. The Robber's Cave experiment showed that even arbitrary group distinctions (camp teams) can cause bitter rivalry and discrimination, thus demonstrating in-group/out-group biases (choice C is correct). Solomon Asch's conformity experiments looked at the likelihood of conformity in a group setting (choice A is wrong) and Stanley Milgram's shock experiments analyzed obedience and the power of authority figures (choice B is wrong). The Tuskegee syphilis experiment was an extremely unethical medical experiment (not social psychology experiment) that demonstrated a fair amount of race bias on the part of the experimenters toward the participants, but was not attempting to study in-group/out-group bias (choice D is wrong).

What famous social psychology experiment was designed to study in-group favoritism? Question 24 Answer Choices A. Solomon Asch's conformity experiments B. Stanley Milgram's shock experiments C. The Robbers Cave experiment D. The Tuskegee syphilis experiment

D. Figure 2 does not demonstrate a significant difference between the immigrant and non-immigrant groups in any of the categories (choice A is wrong) except that immigrants worry considerably more about "other family." Factoring in that the only demographic difference that might explain this is that Mexican immigrant women are much more likely to have caretaking responsibility for an older family member (choice D is correct). One group coping better with racial discrimination than the other is not supported by the data (choice B is wrong), and Figure 2 does not indicate that English fluency factors into any of the questions on the survey about worries (choice C is wrong).

What is the most likely explanation for the results displayed in Figure 2? Question 42 Answer Choices A. Mexican immigrant women experience considerably more stress than non-immigrants because of worries about caring for their children and money. B. While non-immigrant women worry about racial discrimination as much as Mexican immigrant women, they are less stressed by racial discrimination worries because they have learned better coping mechanisms. C. English fluency is the number one reason why non-immigrant women are significantly less stressed than Mexican immigrant women. D. Mexican immigrant women worry more about "other family" because they are significantly more likely to be responsible for the care of their parents than non-immigrant women.

A. Early-onset AD has a clear genetic component, but the study in the final paragraph also demonstrates a correlation between certain environmental factors and later onset of symptoms; therefore it appears that early-onset AD has both a genetic and an environmental component (choice A is correct). Correlation coefficients are a way to help explain how two variables (here, onset of symptoms and lifestyle variables) co-vary, or how they might be related to each other. Correlation coefficients cannot simply be added together (choice B is wrong). Furthermore, it cannot be assumed that a twofold increase in a coefficient is the same as a twofold protection from the onset of AD symptoms, as correlation does not imply causation (choice C is wrong). In statistics, reliability is the extent to which the results are accurate and consistent over time (repeated measurements produce the same results); the fact that "multiple different factors appear to influence the onset of AD symptoms" provides no indication that the reliability of the results has been verified (choice D is wrong).

What is the most logical conclusion that can be drawn from the results of the study described in the last paragraph? Question 17 Answer Choices A. The onset of symptoms in early-onset familial AD has both a genetic and an environmental component. B. If patients practiced any combination of the factors that appear to confer a degree of protection from AD symptoms, they would never develop AD symptoms. C. Regular exercise confers twice as much protection from the onset of AD symptoms as does regular social interaction. D. Since multiple different factors appear to influence the onset of AD symptoms, the reliability of results of this study has been verified.

A. The third paragraph states that early-onset familial AD is caused by an autosomal dominant mutation, as is Huntington's Disease (choice A is correct). Schizophrenia, Parkinson's Disease, and depression all have much more complicated genetic and environmental causes (choices B, C, and D are wrong).

What other neurologic disease or mental illness has an inheritance pattern most similar to that for early-onset familial AD? Question 16 Answer Choices A. Huntington's Disease B. Schizophrenia C. Parkinson's Disease D. Depression

C. Object permanence is acquired by the end of the sensorimotor stage, that is, by roughly two years of age. A normally developing three-year-old would be expected to have established object permanence (choices B and D are wrong). The passage explains that infants continue to look under Box A even after seeing the experimenter put the toy under Box B because that is where they are used to finding it and do not realize that the object the experimenter has put out of sight continues to exist in the same location. Knowing that even though the toy is no longer in sight, it must still exist under Box B, the three-year-old will look under Box B (choice C is correct; choice A is wrong).

When a normally developing 3-year-old is presented with the A-not-B task, where will he look for the toy when the experimenter hides it under Box B? Question 7 Answer Choices A. Box A, because he has established object permanence. B. Box A, because he has not established object permanence. C. Box B, because he has established object permanence. D. Box B, because he has not established object permanence.

B. According to psychoanalytic theory, intellectualization is a defense mechanism that involves an individual dealing with her or his emotions by focusing on the intellectual aspects of the problem or issue (choice B is correct). Denial is a defense mechanism that involves an individual behaving as though the problem or issue doesn't exist (choice A is wrong); displacement is a defense mechanism that involves an individual taking out their frustration on others (choice C is wrong); and repression is a defense mechanism that involves an individual trying to push the problem or issue into her or his subconscious, pretending it never happened (choice D is wrong).

When given a new diagnosis of AD, studies suggest that people respond in many different ways, often employing various defense mechanisms. Which of the following responses would be considered intellectualization? Question 18 Answer Choices A. Denying the diagnosis by questioning the credentials of the physician and seeking a second opinion. B. Focusing on the details of the diagnosis and seeking out as much information as possible about the disease. C. Physically lashing out at family and loved ones. D. Trying hard to forget the diagnosis ever occurred by focusing on other things.

B. Young children are the most common victims of MSBP. The fact that the toddler is not recovering as he or she should might be cause for suspicion, since caregivers responsible for MSBP victims may not follow-through with treatment; in some cases, caregivers might inflict new wounds on victims or cause additional harm to victims so that they will end up in the hospital again (choice B is correct). Self-inflicted pericocular lesions would be related to factitious disorder; however, this case would not constitute MSBP since the lesions were self-inflicted, rather than inflicted by another person (choice A is wrong). Women are more likely than men to suffer from MSBP; however, even if the woman intentionally burned herself, her actions would not be associated with MSBP since she causes her own harm (choice C is wrong). Congenital defects, also known as birth defects, occur during prenatal development and are present at birth; a caregiver would not have the ability to inflict a congenital defect on his or her child (choice D is wrong).

Which of the following cases would most likely raise suspicion for MSBP? Question 36 Answer Choices A. A nursing student who is treated for self-inflicted lesions on periocular skin B. A child who, despite treatment, does not seem to be recovering from a minor problem C. A middle-aged woman who claims she accidentally burned herself while cooking D. An infant who was born with a congenital defect

C. Executive function performance was assessed using the spatial working memory task. A small number of within-search errors were indicative of high levels of executive functioning, while a large number of within-search errors suggested deficits of executive function. According to Figure 1, patients with schizophrenia exhibit a greater number of errors on the spatial working memory task than do patients with frontal lobe lesions. This would suggest that patients with schizophrenia exhibit greater executive function deficits (choice C is not supported by the figure and is therefore correct). Individuals with schizophrenia exhibited the greatest number of errors on almost all trials, indicating that they have the greatest executive function deficits of all four groups (choice A is true and can be eliminated). Patients with frontal lobe lesions made more errors on the spatial working memory task than patients with temporal lobe damage, suggesting that frontal lobe lesions lead to greater impairments of spatial working memory (choice B is true and can be eliminated). The number of boxes per trial corresponds to trial difficulty, with 2 boxes and 8 boxes representing the easiest and most difficult trials, respectively. As seen in Figure 1, performance differences between the four groups were smallest during the easiest trial (2 boxes) and largest during the most difficult trial (8 boxes). Therefore, the differences between groups increase as a function of task difficulty (choice D is true and can be eliminated).

Which of the following conclusions is NOT supported by the results in Figure 1? Question 49 Answer Choices A. Individuals with schizophrenia exhibited the greatest executive function deficits of all four groups. B. Frontal lobe lesions produced greater impairments of spatial working memory than temporal lobe lesions. C. Executive function deficits produced by schizophrenia are similar to those produced by frontal lobe lesions. D. The magnitude of the difference between the groups increased with task difficulty.

D. Social networks involve an individual and any of the various other individuals, groups, or organizations with which they might interact; by definition, social networks will influence the behavior of the individual in some ways. Therefore, all of the answer choices that demonstrate that an individual is somehow influenced by those around them should be eliminated (choices A, B, and C indicate that weight is somehow influenced by groups or individuals, and all are wrong). If there is no difference between the amount of calories consumed while eating around others and eating alone, than this does not demonstrate how social networks can influence weight (choice D is correct).

Which of the following does NOT demonstrate how social networks can influence weight? Question 4 Answer Choices A. Research shows that joining an online weight-loss community is successful at helping people lose weight. B. Kids who participate in organized group activities are less likely to be obese than those who prefer solitary activities, such as reading or playing video games. C. Teenage girls who report having at least one friend with an eating disorder are more than twice as likely to also experiment with disordered eating behaviors such as binging and purging or extreme calorie restriction. D. Multiple studies have shown that people eat roughly the same amount of calories when they are dining out with friends as they do when dining alone at home.

C. Genetic predisposition to obesity is not an environmental risk factor for developing obesity, it's a biological risk factor (choice C is correct). For those living below the poverty line in the US, all of the following constitute environmental risk factors contributing to the development of obesity: limited access to healthcare (choice A is wrong), limited access to healthy food (choice B is wrong), and a lack of green space to exercise (choice D is wrong).

Which of the following is NOT a known environmental risk factor for developing obesity in individuals below the poverty line in the US? Question 2 Answer Choices A. Limited access to healthcare B. Presence of "food deserts" C. Genetic predisposition Correct Answer D. Lack of green space for exercise or other physical activity

A. Gestalt psychology holds that humans are predisposed to see the world holistically, mentally filling in blanks and seeing patterns even when parts of a perceived whole are missing (choice A is correct). Choices B (bystander effect) and C (Solomon Asch's conformity research) pertain to social psychology, and are both wrong. Choice D describes principles of cognitive psychology (the primacy and recency effects; choice D is wrong).

Which of the following most closely demonstrates principles of Gestalt psychology? Question 59 Answer Choices A. A mosaic appears to consist of many discrete, unrelated tiles. Yet, when people view it from a distance, most of them recognize the face of a famous American president. B. In an experiment, a participant lies on a city sidewalk appearing disoriented. When the scene is repeated on the sidewalk of a small town, onlookers' responses are significantly quicker than those of people in a crowded, urban environment. C. A subject agrees that an obviously incorrect response to a question is a correct one when everyone else in his group seems confident that the wrong response is correct. D. Subjects in an experiment recall only the first and last few items when asked to recite back a long list of words in a memory game.

B. Neobehaviorists believe that behavior can be modified by rewards or punishments (choice A is wrong because it does not describe any type of reward or punishment). Therefore, if someone exhibits a desired behavior, providing a reward after that behavior will encourage the behavior to happen again (positive reinforcement). When a person exhibits an undesirable behavior, the application of a punishment will discourage that behavior from happening again (positive punishment). While choice B describes positive reinforcement, and choice C describes positive punishment, neobehaviorists believe that the most effective way to modify behavior is with positive reinforcement (choice B is correct, choice C is wrong). The implementation of a punishment (exercises getting harder) in response to a desired behavior (exercise) does not fit within neobehaviorist principles (choice D is wrong).

Which of the following weight-loss strategies would a neobehaviorist endorse? Question 3 Answer Choices A. A combination of group therapy and prescription medication to help people lose as much weight as possible in a short timeframe. B. For every five pounds a person loses, she is given a non-food reward such as money or praise/attention from others. C. Whenever a person gains weight, he is publicly criticized by others. D. A group exercise class in which the exercises become increasingly more difficult over time.

A. Monozygotic twins share 100% of their genes. For twins adopted into different non-schizophrenic families and reared apart, one can assume that the onset of schizophrenic symptoms was caused by their shared genetic makeup, rather than shared environmental influences (choice A is correct). Monozygotic and dizygotic twins reared together would grow up in the same environments. This might make it difficult to determine whether the onset of schizophrenia was caused by genetic or environmental factors (choices B and C are wrong). A child born to and reared by schizophrenic parents could develop schizophrenia as a result of either genetic factors or maladaptive environmental influences (i.e., being raised by schizophrenic parents). Therefore, it would be difficult to distinguish the effects of the child's genotype form those of the environment (choice D is wrong).

Which of the following would provide the strongest support for the heritability of schizophrenia? Question 50 Answer Choices A. A pair of monozygotic twins adopted into different non-schizophrenic families, both presenting schizophrenic symptoms. B. A pair of dizygotic twins reared together, both presenting schizophrenic symptoms. C. A pair of monozygotic twins reared together, both presenting schizophrenic symptoms. D. A child that was born to and reared by schizophrenic parents developing schizophrenic symptoms.

A. The object permanence task, according to the passage, is a measure of working memory. The subcortical structure most involved in working memory is the hippocampus (choice A is correct). The thalamus is involved in relaying sensory and motor signals to and from the cortex and regulating sleep and consciousness (choice B is wrong). The medulla oblongata controls autonomic processes like respiration and heart rate (choice C is wrong). The hypothalamus is involved in metabolic processes and hormone release (choice D is wrong).

Which subcortical structure is the most likely to be involved in object permanence? Question 9 Answer Choices A. Hippocampus B. Thalamus C. Medulla oblongata D. Hypothalamus